4th CLASS PART A

Introduction to Power Engineering

010100020021000D
Which of the following is not a definition of a power plant?

a) Any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is

generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
b) Any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1100 kPa (160 psi).
c) Any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working temperature exceeding 121 degrees Celsius (250
degrees Fahrenheit).
d) Any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour
is generated at less than 57 kPa (8 psi).
e) Any engine run from one or more boilers containing liquid
and having a working pressure exceeding 1100 kPa (160 psi).

010100020021000D
Early government involvement in certification of power
engineers became more important for the following reasons
except:

a) efficiency
b) labour mobility
c) safety
d) pollution
e) technological advancements

010100020021000C
Which of the following is not characteristic of increased
automation in power plants?

a) computerised control stations

b) increased mechanisation
c) manual flame checking
d) continuous monitoring of processes
e) continuous monitoring of costs

010100020021000A
"Power plant" means

a) any one or more boilers in which steam or other vapour is

generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
b) any one or more boilers in which steam or other liquid is
generated at more than 103 kPa (15 psi).
c) any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1,200 kPa (160 psi), and a
temperature exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).
d) any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure exceeding 1,200 kPa (160 psi), and a
temperature not exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).
e) any one or more boilers containing liquid and having a
working pressure not exceeding 1,100 kPa (160 psi), and
a temperature exceeding 121 degrees C (250 degrees F).

010100020021000C
Power engineers are

a) safety code officers in a power plant automatically.

b) qualified to perform any welding jobs in a power plant.
c) skilled workers who operate and maintain the equipment
in a power plant.
d) qualified to perform any electrical jobs in a power
plant.
e) qualified to make design changes in a power plant.

010100020021000D
In the early days, owners of power plants hired __________
workers, who started out doing manual labour and through
acquired experience they were promoted to jobs with gradually
increasing levels of skill.

a) qualified
b) highly educated
c) trained
d) unskilled
e) college trained

010100020021000B
In order to produce greater efficiency, higher boiler
pressures were used and this led to __________ due to
employing of unqualified operators in a power plant.

a) economic gains
b) serious accidents
c) higher efficiency
d) safer working conditions
e) less labour disputes

010100020021000B
Which of the following is not a common work schedule for
power engineers?

a) Year round employment

b) Seasonal lay-offs
c) Eight hour days
d) Twelve hour days
e) Rotating day and night shifts

010100020021000A
When oil mixes with water in the boiler the resultant effect
is:

a) serious foaming
b) accumulation of very hard scale resulting in tube burnout
c) accumulation of soot
d) decrease in water level
e) shifting and loosening of baffles

010100020021000C
The holder of a Certificate of Competency, the
classification of which authorizes him or her to act as a
engineer, may sketch, construct, install, operate, repair,
and give advice on all things pertaining to any __________ in
which that person is employed.

a) welding shop
b) automotive shop
c) power plant
d) fish plant
e) hydro plant

010100020021000E
Power engineers can usually expect to work

a) straight 8 hour day shifts.

b) straight 12 hour day shifts.
c) straight 8 hour night shifts.
d) straight 12 hour night shifts.
e) rotating shifts.

010100020021000E
In a power plant, the power engineer may function as a
supervisor who directs others in the __________ operation on
a shift.

a) simple and economical

b) welding and electrical
c) administrative and cooperative
d) production and receiving
e) safe and efficient

010100020021000C
Committees which establish standards are composed primarily
of which of the following elements?

a) only experts from the industry and government

b) one government appointed standards board
c) experts from the industry, professional and insurance
groups and all levels of government
d) only multi-National power corporations
e) one independent safety and standardisation board

010100020021000D
Which of the following certificates of competency qualifies
the holder to take charge of the general care and operation
of any power plant as chief steam engineer, and to supervise
the engineers in that plant and take charge of a shift in any
power plant as shift engineer?

a) Third Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency

b) Building Operator's Certificate of Competency
c) Pressure Welder's Certificate of Competency
d) First Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency
e) Fireman's Certificate of Competency

010100020021000A
Which of the following duties is a holder of a Fourth Class
Engineer's Certificate of Competency not qualified to
perform?

a) Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity

of more than 10,000 kW, as shift engineer.
b) Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless
boilers having an aggregate capacity not over 5,000 kW,
when only in use for the purpose of subterranean thermal
flooding in oil fields, as chief engineer.
c) Take charge of the general care and operation of a power
plant having a capacity of not more than 1,000 kW as
chief steam engineer, and to supervise the engineers in
that plant.
d) Take charge of a shift in a power plant consisting of one
or more coil type drumless boilers having an aggregate
capacity of not more than 10,000 kW, when used only for
underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as shift
engineer.
e) Take charge of a shift in a power plant having a capacity
of not more than 5,000 kW, as shift engineer.

010100020021000E
Which of the following is required in order to progress to a
higher certificate?

a) Experience only
b) Education only
c) Hold the next lower level certificate only
d) Both education and the next lower level certificate
e) Education, experience, and the next lower level
certificate.

010100020021000D
The IAO is an organisation who's primary concern is:

a) lowering of maintenance costs through standardisation

b) lowering of production costs through increased automation
c) increase in safety awareness through public education
d) lowering of insurance costs through standardisation
e) increase in equipment quality through tougher government
regulation

010100020021000B
In the early days, the following two agencies got involved in
the certification of both power plant operators and equipment
due to the many accidents that were caused by employing
unqualified operators and improper use of equipment in power
plants:
a) owners and governments
b) insurance underwriters and governments
c) educational institutions and owners
d) governments and educational institutions
e) owners and insurance underwriters

010100020021000D
Unqualified individuals operating a power plant or pressure
plant risk the __________ of the plant and the general
public.

a) health
b) comfort
c) resources
d) safety
e) economy

010100020021000C
In Alberta, the Safety Codes Act established the following
classes of Power Engineer's certificates (Other provinces and
territories have also established the same structure for
these certifications.)

a) A, B, C, and D
b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
c) First, Second, Third, and Fourth
d) Operators A, B, C, and D
e) Boiler maker first, second, third, and fourth year

010100020021000D
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power
plant having a capacity of not more than __________ kW, as a
shift engineer.

a) 8,000
b) 9,000
c) 7,000
d) 5,000
e) 6,000

010100020021000A
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of a shift in a power
plant consisting of one or more coil type drumless boilers
having an aggregate capacity of not more than __________ kW,
when used for the sole purpose of underground thermal
flooding in oil fields, as shift engineer.

a) 10,000
b) 20,000
c) 30,000
d) 40,000
e) 50,000

010100020021000E
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's Certificate of Competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and
operation of a power plant having a capacity of not more than
__________ kW as chief steam engineer, and to supervise the
engineers in that plant.

a) 5,000
b) 4,000
c) 3,000
d) 2,000
e) 1,000

010100020021000E
A Fourth Class Power Engineer's certificate of competency
qualifies the holder to take charge of the general care and
operation of a power plant consisting of one or more coil
type drumless boilers having an aggregate capacity of not
more than __________ kW, when used for the sole purpose of
underground thermal flooding in oil fields, as chief steam
engineer.

a) 1,000
b) 2,000
c) 3,000
d) 4,000
e) 5,000

SI Units
010100020021000E
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of
thermodynamic temperature?

a) m
b) mol
c) kg
d) cd
e) K

010100020021000B
A mole refers to a quantity of:

a) Time
b) Amount of substance
c) Luminous intensity
d) Electric current
e) Length

010100020021000D
The basic unit of mass in the SI system is

a) newtons
b) cubic metres
c) pounds
d) kilograms
e) cubic centimetres

010100020021000C
The basic unit of length in the SI system is

a) newtons
b) cubic metres
c) metres
d) kelvin
e) mole

010100020021000C
The basic unit of time in the SI system is

a) metre
b) kilograms
c) seconds
d) ampere
e) kelvin

010100020021000D
The basic unit of electrical current in the SI system is

a) metre
b) kilograms
c) seconds
d) ampere
e) kelvin

010100020021000E
The basic unit of thermodynamic temperature in the SI system
is

a) metre
b) kilograms
c) seconds
d) ampere
e) kelvin

010100020021000C
The symbol for the basic unit of electrical current is

a) m
b) kg
c) A
d) K
e) s

010100020021000E
The symbol for the basic unit of time is

a) m
b) kg
c) A
d) K
e) s
010100020021000B
The symbol for the basic unit of mass is

a) m
b) kg
c) A
d) K
e) s

010100020021000D
Which of the following is a symbol for a unit of luminous
intensity?

a) m
b) mol
c) kg
d) cd
e) K

010100020021000C
One thousand of a base unit is indicated by the prefix:

a) mega
b) micro
c) kilo
d) hecto
e) milli

010100020021000A
One hundredth of a gram is called a:

a) centigram
b) megagram
c) milligram
d) ton
e) kilogram

010100020021000B
One million of a base unit is indicated by the prefix

a) giga
b) mega
c) kilo
d) hecto
e) deca

010100020021000A
One billion of a base unit is indicated by the prefix

a) giga
b) mega
c) kilo
d) hecto
e) deca
010100020021000D
One millionth of a base unit is indicated by the prefix

a) centi
b) deci
c) nano
d) micro
e) milli

010100020021000B
One hundredth of a base unit is indicated by the prefix

a) deci
b) centi
c) milli
d) micro
e) nano

010100020021000D
One hundred of a base unit is indicated by the prefix

a) giga
b) mega
c) kilo
d) hecto
e) deca

010100020021000D
Convert 2,365 cm into kilometres.

a) 2.365 km
b) 0.002365 km
c) 23.65 km
d) 0.02365 km
e) 236.5 mg

010100020021000E
Find the volume of a rectangular prism 3 m long, 5 m wide and
2 m high.

a) 30
b) 3 cubic metres
c) 30 square metres
d) 30 metres
e) 30 cubic metres

010100020021000A
If a box has side lengths of 3.5 m, 6.2 m and 1.8 m
respectively its volume is:

a) 39.06 cubic metres

b) 3,906 cubic metres
c) 39.06 cubic feet
d) 39.06 cubic centimetres
e) 125 cubic metres
010100020021000C
The unit of area in the SI system is

a) m

3
b) m

2
c) m

4
d) m

5
e) m

010100020021000C
The __________ is the base unit of volume in SI.

a) m

2
b) m

3
c) m

4
d) m

5
e) m

010100020021000A
In the SI system force is expressed as

a) newtons
b) pounds
c) kilograms
d) newton metres
e) Joules

010100020021000E
In the SI system capacity (volume) is expressed as

a) m/s
b) litre per second
c) joule
d) watt
e) litres

010100020021000C
Units of volume in the SI system are:
1. tonnes
2. cubic metres
 3. litres
3
4. dm
5. millilitres
6. kilograms

a) 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 5, 6
e) 1, 4, 6

010100020021000E
The unit of pressure used in the SI system is

a) kilogram / square metre

b) kilojoules
c) kg / square centimetre
d) dyne
e) kilopascal

010100020021000D
A pascal is equal to

a) 1 joule
b) 1 kg / square cm
c) 1 kg / square m
d) 1 N / square m
e) 1 dyne / square cm

010100020021000B
One kilopascal is equal to

a) 1 kg / square m
b) 1 kN / square m
c) 1 bar
d) 1 m / s
e) 1 kW

010100020021000C
The unit of power in the SI system is the

a) kg
b) pascal
c) watt
d) newton-metre
e) Joule

010100020021000C
One watt is equal to

a) 1 joule
b) 1 newton-metre
c) 1 joule/second
d) 1 ampere/second
e) 1 newton/second

010100020021000B
The unit of work in the SI system is the

a) watt
b) joule
c) newton-metre/second
d) pascal
e) newton/second

010100020021000A
One joule per second is equal to

a) one newton-metre/second
b) one kg/square metre
c) one watt/second
d) one kW
e) 746 watts

010100020021000D
The base unit for speed in the SI system is

a) one newton-metre/second
b) one metre/hour
c) one metre/minute
d) one metre/second
e) one metre/24 hours

010100020021000C
The base unit for acceleration in the SI system is:

2
a) metre / hour

2
b) metre / minute

2
c) metre / second

2
d) metre / 12 hour

2
e) metre / day

010100020021000C
The base unit of mass density in the SI system is:

2
a) kg/m

3
b) g/m
 3
c) kg/m

3
d) N/m

2
e) N/m

010100020021000A
An alternate unit for force in the SI system is

2
a) kg m / s

2
b) N / s

2
c) N m / s

2
d) kg / s

2
e) m / s

010100020021000D
The base unit for energy in the SI system is

a) Nm/s
b) N/s
c) kgm/s
d) Nm

2
e) Nm

010100020021000D
One cubic metre is equal to

a) 1 litre
b) 10 litres
c) 100 litres
d) 1,000 litres
e) 10,000 litres

010100020021000A
19.90 km/hr is __________ in m/s.

a) 5.5 m/s
b) 331.7 m/s
c) 10 m/s
d) 40 m/s
e) 1.5 m/s
010100020021000D
One bar of pressure in the SI system is

a) 1,000 pascals
b) 100 pascals
c) 10 pascals
d) 100 kpa
e) 10 kpa

010100020021000B
15 miles is equal to:

a) 1,609 m
b) 24,135 m
c) 29,260 m
d) 5,277 m
e) 7,509 m

010100020021000A
10 km is equal to __________ miles.

a) 6.215
b) 5.215
c) 1.609
d) 1609
e) 3.28

010100020021000C
12 in is equal to __________ cm.

a) 25.40
b) 35.48
c) 30.48
d) 39.37
e) 32.80

010100020021000D
15 square cm is equal to __________ square inches.

a) 13.950
b) 10.750
c) 2.953
d) 2.325
e) 2.590

010100020021000A
20 cubic feet is equal to __________ cubic metres.

a) 0.565
b) 0.061
c) 0.164
d) 0.028
e) 0.353

010100020021000A
28 square feet is equal to __________ square metres.

a) 2.590
b) 1.075
c) 0.155
d) 3.704
e) 4.340

010100020021000E
3 3
150 cm is equal to __________ in .

a) 19.15
b) 20.15
c) 16.39
d) 35.34
e) 9.15

010100020021000B
20 litres is equal to __________ imperial gallons.

a) 2.2
b) 4.4
c) 8.8
d) 5.4
e) 2.272

010100020021000C
10 gallons is equal to __________ litres.

a) 22
b) 44
c) 45.46
d) 88
e) 22.72

010100020021000B
15 kg is equal to __________ lb.

a) 30
b) 33
c) 45
d) 75
e) 90

010100020021000E
1,000 lbs is equal to __________ kgs.

a) 4540
b) 45.4
c) 4400
d) 4.45
e) 454

010100020021000C
14.7 psi is equal to __________ kPa.
a) 1,000
b) 100
c) 101.3
d) 10
e) 147

010100020021000B
6,200 kPa is equal to approximately __________ psi.

a) 1,000
b) 900
c) 800
d) 689
e) 1,451

010100020021000C
2 kPa is the same as:

a) 0.145 psi
b) 0.069 bar
c) 0.02 bar
d) 6.895 lb/square inch
e) 1.451 psi

010100020021000D
If a rectangle has two sides measuring 6 m in length and two
sides measuring 2 m in length what is the area in square
metres?

a) 1.115 square metres

b) 18 square metres
c) 129 square metres
d) 12 square metres
e) 4.8768 square metres

010100020021000A
Area = L x W, if L = 15 cm & W = 2 m, then Area = ?

2
a) 3,000 cm

2
b) 300 cm

2
c) 30 cm

2
d) 300 m

2
e) 30 m
010100020021000B
Volume = L x W x H.
If L = 10 cm, W = 120 mm, & H = 5 m, then Volume = ?

a) 600 litres
b) 60 litres
c) 60 cubic metres
d) 600 cubic metres
e) 600 cubic centimetres

010100020021000E
One square metre is equal to

a) 1 square cm
b) 10 square cm
c) 100 square cm
d) 1,000 square cm
e) 10,000 square cm

010100020021000C
100 square cm is equal to

a) 1 square m
b) 0.1 square m
c) 0.01 square m
d) 0.001 square m
e) 10 square m

010100020021000A
3
One m is equal to

a) 1,000 litres

3
b) 1 yard

c) 10,000 millilitres

3
d) 10 dm

3
e) 10 cm

010100020021000D
One cubic cm is equal to

a) 10 millilitres
b) 1 dm
c) 1 mm
d) 1 millilitre
e) 1 mm/s
Basic Arithmetic Operations
020100020021000E
Add 1,785 + 36 + 291

a) 2,221
b) 1,912
c) 2,102
d) 1,112
e) 2,112

010100020021000A
Subtract 74 from 101

a) 27
b) 37
c) 30
d) 33
e) 24

030500020033000
Calculate:

1) ###### - ##### = ______________

2) ###### - ##### = ______________

3) ####### - ###### = ______________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(100000,999999,1)
NUM2(10000,99999,1)
NUM3(100000,999999,1)
NUM4(10000,99999,1)
NUM5(1000000,9999999,1)
NUM6(100000,999999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1-NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3-NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5-NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0

030500020033000
Calculate:

1) ###### + ##### = ______________

2) ###### + ##### = ______________

3) ####### + ###### = ______________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(100000,999999,1)
NUM2(10000,99999,1)
NUM3(100000,999999,1)
NUM4(10000,99999,1)
NUM5(1000000,9999999,1)

NUM6(100000,999999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1+NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3+NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5+NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0

010100020021000D
Multiply 94 by 8

a) 722
b) 7,532
c) 7,232
d) 752
e) 760

010100020021000B
Divide 4,035 by 15

a) 335
b) 269
c) 127
d) 326
e) 103

010100020021000D
Multiply 365.24 by 92.1

a) 33,605.831
b) 33,638.649
c) 32,538.504
d) 33,638.604
e) 33,791.219

040500020033000
Calculate:

1) ## x ## = ______________

2) ## x ### = ______________

3) #.## x ##.## = ______________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(12,99,1)
NUM2(22,99,1)
NUM3(12,99,1)
NUM4(112,999,1)
NUM5(1.22,9.99,0.01)
NUM6(12.01,99.99,0.03)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1*NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3*NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5*NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.0
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.0
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,0.0001

040500020033000
Calculate the following:

1) #### / ### = ______________

2) ####### / #### = ______________

3) ##### / ### = ______________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(1001,9999,1)
NUM2(101,999,1)
NUM3(1000001,9999999,1)
NUM4(1001,9999,1)
NUM5(10001,99999,1)
NUM6(101,999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/NUM2;
ANS2=NUM3/NUM4;
ANS3=NUM5/NUM6;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01

020100020021000C
Add (-56) + 39

a) 95
b) 17
c) -17
d) -95
e) -26

010100020021000C
Multiply (-21.6) by (-54.2)

a) 1,160.65
b) -1,170.62
c) 1,170.72
d) 1,170.62
e) -1,160.65

010100020021000A
Divide (-378) by 14
a) -27
b) 16.2
c) -31.61
d) 29
e) 20.05

020100020021000B
2 2
Solve the expression: (-3) - [54/18(-5 + 3)] + [11 - (-2) ]

a) 15
b) 22
c) 25
d) 18
e) 17

020100020021000B
Solve the expression:
2 3
[(3.2) - (-4) ] [(75/15) - (-10 + 15)] + (-19/3)

a) -543.93
b) -6.33
c) 748.73
d) -60.09
e) 12.07

040500020021000
Evaluate:

(### - ###) + (### x #) + # = ____________________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(400,800,10)
B(100,390,10)
C(100,200,10)

D(2,9,1)
E(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A-B)+(C*D)+E;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,.02

040500020021000
Evaluate:

### #
--- x ## x - = ____________________
3 #
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(30,120,3)
B(2,8,2)
C(1,9,1)
D(2,8,2)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A/3)*C*(B/D);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,.02

040500020021000
Evaluate:

(## + ## - #) + (## - # - #) = ____________________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(1,30,1)
B(1,30,1)
C(1,9,1)
D(1,30,1)
E(1,9,1)
F(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A+B-C)+(D-E-F);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,0.0

040500020021000
Evaluate:

(## - 7) - {(# x #)/(# x #)} - # x # = ____________________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(7,56,7)
C(1,4,1)
D(2,8,1)
E
F
G(1,9,1)
H(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
E=D;
F=C;
ANS=A-7-((C*D)/(E*F))-(G*H);
.RESULTS

"Answer =",ANS:3,0.0

040500020021000
Calculate:

## + ### + (# + ## x # - ##)/# + ### = ____________________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(10,20,1)
NUM2(100,200,1)
NUM3(1,9,1)
NUM4(10,90,10)
NUM5(2,8,2)
NUM6(10,20,2)
NUM7(2,8,2)
NUM8(100,300,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANSW=NUM1+NUM2+(NUM3+NUM4*NUM5-NUM6)/NUM7+NUM8;
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",ANSW:3,.01
040500020021000
Evaluate:

## x ## x ## x ##
----------------- = ____________________
## x ## x ##
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(3,99,3)
B(10,90,10)
C(20,80,2)
D(2,60,2)
E(5,40,5)
F(3,45,3)
G(5,10,5)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A*B*C*D)/(E*F*G);
ANSR=INT(ANS+.5);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSR:3,.01

040500020021000
Solve the following problem:
(Answer as a decimal)
(# + #/#)/[(# + #/#)(# + #/#)] = ____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
I1(5,8,1)
N1(1,5,1)
D1
I2(2,4,1)
N2(1,5,1)
D2
I3(1,5,1)
N3(1,5,1)
D3
.SOLUTIONS
D1=N1+1;

D2=N2+2;
D3=N3+3;
ANSW=(I1+N1/D1)/(I2+N2/D2)/(I3+N3/D3);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSW:3,.01

030500020021000
Evaluate:

(## + ## - #) + (## - # - #) = ___________________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
N1(10,99,1)
N2(10,99,1)
N3(1,9,1)
N4(10,99,1)
N5(1,9,1)
N6(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
 ANS=(N1+N2-N3)+(N4-N5-N6);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",ANS:0,.01

030500020021000
Evaluate:

###/# x # x #/# = ____________________

.SUBSTITUTIONS
N1(100,990,10)
N2(2,9,1)
N3(2,9,1)
N4(2,9,1)
N5(2,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=N1/N2*N3*N4/N5;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANS:3,.001

03030002004200022 %;10 %;
Solve:

1) [4(3 + 4 - 2)] + [60/(6 x 5)]

2) 2(4 x 5)/2(4 - 2)

Answers:
1) = _______________

2) = _______________

Fractions, Decimals, and Percentages

010100020021000D
Which of the following is an improper fraction?

a) 37/39
b) 6 3/4
c) 65/100
d) 3/2
e) 1/2

010100020021000C
Which of the following is a mixed number?

a) 32/36
b) 19/5
c) 3 1/5
d) 6/24
e) 35/7

05030002004400041/6;21/5;68/7;21/2;
Convert the following mixed numbers to improper fractions.
(Enter your answer in this style 2 2/3 = 8/3)
1) 6 5/6 = __________

2) 4 1/5 = __________

3) 9 5/7 = __________

4) 10 1/2 = __________

020100020021000E
Evaluate the following 3/8 + 2/3 - 1/2 to lowest terms.

a) 12/24
b) 6/12
c) 6/24
d) 6/13
e) 13/24

020100020021000A
Evaluate the following 3/10 x 5/2 - 2/3 to lowest terms.

a) 1/12
b) 11/20
c) 5/60
d) 33/60
e) 3/6

040500020021000
Evaluate:

## x ## x ## x ##
----------------- = ____________________
## x ## x ##
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(3,99,3)
B(10,90,10)
C(20,80,2)
D(2,60,2)
E(5,40,5)
F(3,45,3)
G(5,10,5)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS=(A*B*C*D)/(E*F*G);
ANSR=INT(ANS+.5);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSR:3,.01

0303000200880001/4;1/5;1/8;1/48;8/25;1 23/112;68 2/5;51 3/7;

Evaluate the following fractional problems. (Reduce to lowest
terms)

1) 3/8 x 3/4 x 8/9 = __________

2) 1/2 x 3/7 x 14/15 = __________

3) 3/8 x 2/3 x 4/5 x 5/8 = __________

4) 3/10 x 5/6 x 1/9 x 3/4 = __________

5) 21/16 x 12/35 x 32/45 = __________

6) 27/35 x 5/16 x 15/3 = __________

7) 2 1/2 x 7 3/5 x 3 3/5 = __________

8) 4 2/3 x 8 4/7 x 1 2/7 = __________

010100020021000B
In lowest terms 0.04 is equal to:

a) 1/5
b) 1/25
c) 1/40
d) 4/10
e) 4/100

010100020021000C
19/12 is equal to:

a) 2
b) 9.6
c) 1.583
d) 6.931
e) 7

040500020044000
Change the following fractions to decimals:

1) #/# = __________

2) #/# = __________

3) #/# = __________

4) #/# = __________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A1(1,3,1)
A2(3,5,1)
B1(3,3,1)
B2(6,7,1)
C1(5,6,1)
C2(8,9,1)
D1(7,8,1)
D2(9,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A3=A1/A2;
B3=B1/B2;
C3=C1/C2;
D3=D1/D2;
A4=INT(A3*1000+.5)/1000;
B4=INT(B3*1000+.5)/1000;
 C4=INT(C3*1000+.5)/1000;
D4=INT(D3*1000+.5)/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",A4:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",B4:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",C4:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",D4:3,.01

040500020077000
Convert the following common fractions to decimal numbers.

1) #/# = _________ 2) #/## = __________

3) ##/### = _________ 4) ##/# = __________

5) ##/### = __________ 6) ##/# = __________

7) ###/#### = __________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,9,1)
DEM1(2,9,1)
NUM2(2,9,1)
DEM2(11,99,1)
NUM3(11,99,1)
DEM3(101,999,1)
NUM4(11,99,1)
DEM4(2,9,1)
NUM5(11,99,1)
DEM5(101,999,1)
NUM6(11,99,1)
DEM6(2,9,1)
NUM7(101,999,1)
DEM7(101,999,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/DEM1;
ANS2=NUM2/DEM2;
ANS3=NUM3/DEM3;
ANS4=NUM4/DEM4;
ANS5=NUM5/DEM5;
ANS6=NUM6/DEM6;
ANS7=NUM7/DEM7;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
"Answer 5 =",ANS5:3,.01
"Answer 6 =",ANS6:3,.01
"Answer 7 =",ANS7:3,.01

010100020021000A
95% of 63 litres of gasoline equals:

a) 59.85 litres
b) 599 litres
c) 0.663 litres
d) 66.32 litres
e) 95 litres

010100020021000E
62% of 85,362 equals:

a) 22,932.64
b) 13.768
c) 5,292.492
d) 137,680.65
e) 52,924.44

010100020021000A
An elastic is stretched by 86% to a length of 5.8 m.
Calculate the original length.

a) 3.118 m
b) 0.067 m
c) 4.988 m
d) 2.903 m
e) 8.675 m

010100020021000D
63 is what percent of 260?

a) 41.27%
b) 2.42%
c) 0.24%
d) 24.23%
e) 4.12%

050500020033000
Change the following fractions to percentages: (Round to 3
decimal places)

#
1) ----- = ---------- %
#

#
2) ----- = ---------- %
#

#
3) ----- = ---------- %
#
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A1(1,4,1)
A2(5,8,1)
B1(2,5,1)
B2(6,8,1)
C1(4,7,1)
C2(3,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A3=(A1/A2)*100;
 B3=B1/B2*100;
C3=C1/C2*100;
A=(INT(A3*100+.5))/100;
B=INT(B3*100+.5)/100;
C=INT(C3*100+.5)/100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",A:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",B:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",C:3,.01

040500020088000
Convert the following fractions into percentages.

1) ##/## = __________ % 2) ##/## = __________ %

3) ##/## = __________ % 4) ##/## = __________ %

5) ##/## = __________ % 6) ##/## = __________ %

7) ##/## = __________ % 8) ##/## = __________ %

.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,20,1)
DEM1(25,40,1)
NUM2(2,20,1)
DEM2(25,40,1)
NUM3(10,20,1)
DEM3(25,60,1)
NUM4(30,50,1)
DEM4(60,90,1)
NUM5(2,10,1)
DEM5(12,20,1)
NUM6(2,6,1)
DEM6(8,12,1)
NUM7(2,20,1)
DEM7(25,30,1)
NUM8(2,20,1)
DEM8(22,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=NUM1/DEM1*100;
ANS2=NUM2/DEM2*100;
ANS3=NUM3/DEM3*100;
ANS4=NUM4/DEM4*100;
ANS5=NUM5/DEM5*100;
ANS6=NUM6/DEM6*100;
ANS7=NUM7/DEM7*100;
ANS8=NUM8/DEM8*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01
"Answer 5 =",ANS5:3,.01
"Answer 6 =",ANS6:3,.01
"Answer 7 =",ANS7:3,.01
"Answer 8 =",ANS8:3,.01
05030002008800019/20;3/4;1/10;3/20;17/50;39/50;1/1&1;111/200;
Convert the following percentages into fractions. (Reduce to
lowest terms)

1) 95% = __________

2) 75% = __________

3) 10% = __________

4) 15% = __________

5) 34% = __________

6) 78% = __________

7) 100% = __________

8) 55.5% = __________

050500020021000
A steam line will increase in length by #.##% when heated to
operating temperature. Determine the original length of the
line, if it increased in length by ##.# cm when heated.
(Round your answer to 3 decimal places).

Answer = _______________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRCT(1,3,0.01)
STRC(5,10,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
LGTH=STRC*100/PRCT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",LGTH:3,.01

Ratio and Proportion

010100020021000E
What is the ratio between a mass of 36 kg and 928 L?

a) 232 to 9
b) 45.6
c) 0.088 kL
d) 4.59
e) None of the above

010100020021000B
What is the ratio between 75 L and 1.5 L in lowest terms?

a) 75 to 15
b) 50 to 1
c) 0.2
d) 5 to 1
e) None of the above
010100020021000B
What is the ratio between a mass of 4,500 kg and 150 kg?

a) 20 to 1
b) 30 to 1
c) 40 to 1
d) 50 to 1
e) 55 to 1

010100020021000A
What is the ratio between the lengths of two pipes that are
150 m and 100 m?

a) 1.5 to 1
b) 2.5 to 1
c) 3.5 to 1
d) 4.5 to 1
e) 5.5 to 1

010100020021000D
What is the ratio between the areas of two objects that are
25 square metres and 5 square metres?

a) 2 to 1
b) 3 to 1
c) 4 to 1
d) 5 to 1
e) 6 to 1

010100020021000B
What is the ratio between the temperatures 15 degrees C and 5
degrees C?

a) 2 to 1
b) 3 to 1
c) 4 to 1
d) 5 to 1
e) 6 to 1

010100020021000E
What is the ratio between the volumes 24 cubic metres and 3
cubic metres?

a) 4 to 1
b) 5 to 1
c) 6 to 1
d) 7 to 1
e) 8 to 1

010100020021000E
Find the last (x) term of the proportion 8:4 = 26:x

a) 2
b) 3
c) 10
d) 11
e) 13

010100020021000C
Find the second (x) term of the proportion 21:x = 35:5

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

010100020021000E
Find the first (x) term of the proportion x:1850 = 25:37

a) 950
b) 1050
c) 1150
d) 1200
e) 1250

010100020021000D
Find the third (x) term of the proportion 27:15 = x:360

a) 450
b) 550
c) 650
d) 648
e) 756

010100020021000A
A certain chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 4 parts
A, 6 parts B, and 2 parts C. If a 15 kg batch is to be
mixed, what quantities in kgs of A, B, and C should be used in
the batch?

a) A = 5, B = 7.5, and C = 2.5

b) A = 4, B = 6, and C = 5
c) A = 5, B = 6, and C = 4
d) A = 4.5, B = 6.5, and C = 4
e) A = 3.5, B = 5.5, and C = 6

010100020021000D
In the following expression 4:8::2:4 which term(s) is(are)
the extreme(s)?

a) 8 only
b) Both 8 and 2
c) 4 only
d) 4 and 4
e) Both 2 and 4

010100020021000A
In the expression 8:x::16:8, x equals:

a) 4
b) 16
c) 2.5
d) 32
e) 16

010100020021000B
A chemical mixture should be in the ratio of 9 parts A, 2
parts B and 5 parts C. A 64 kg batch is to be mixed. What
quantity of A is required?

a) 52.36 kg
b) 36 kg
c) 20 kg
d) 8 kg
e) 2.25 kg

010100020021000C
Concrete must be mixed with the ratio of 5 parts cement, 3
parts gravel and 4 parts water. If 6 tons of concrete is to
be mixed how much gravel is required?

a) 2.4 tons
b) 2.5 tons
c) 1.5 tons
d) 2 tons
e) 1,865 tons

010100020021000A
Public swimming pools require 3 parts chlorine liquid and 2
parts salt water to every 100 parts water to kill bacteria.
How much chlorine liquid is required in a 4,000 L pool?

a) 114.29 L
b) 76.19 L
c) 100 L
d) 3,809.52 L
e) 89.23 L

010100020021000D
If mass is inversely proportionate to cost then

a) as mass increases cost will double

b) as mass increases cost will increase directly
c) as cost decreases mass will decrease
d) as mass increases cost will decrease
e) as cost increases the mass will double

010100020021000E
A gear wheel 65 cm in diameter revolving at 225 r/min drives
a wheel 85 cm in diameter. What is the speed of the second
gear?

a) 3.46 r/min
b) 150 r/min
c) 206.39 r/min
d) 97.5 r/min
e) 172.06 r/min

010100020021000B
A gear has 1,000 teeth and revolves at 50 r/min. The driven
gear has 32 teeth. How fast does it turn?

a) 12.2 r/min
b) 1,562.5 r/min
c) 609.8 r/min
d) 640 r/min
e) 390.2 r/min

010100020021000E
If 15 tonnes of coal cost $360, what will 27 tonnes cost at
the same rate per tonne?

a) 255
b) 345
c) 625
d) 723
e) 648

010100020021000E
If 25 workers can do a piece of work in 30 days, in how many
days can 35 workers do the same work?

a) 20.00
b) 18.00
c) 20.25
d) 19.15
e) 21.43

010100020021000A
If bell metal is 25 parts copper to 12 parts tin, what is the
weight of each in a bell weighing 1850 kg?

a) copper = 1,250 kg and tin = 600 kg

b) copper = 1,152 kg and tin = 550 kg
c) copper = 1,050 kg and tin = 565 kg
d) copper = 1,350 kg and tin = 625 kg
e) copper = 1,235 kg and tin = 650 kg

010100020021000E
A gear wheel 330 mm in diameter and revolving at a speed of
200 rpm drives a wheel 150 mm in diameter. What is the speed
in rpm of the second gear?

a) 91
b) 100
c) 330
d) 400
e) 440

010100020021000D
A supply fan is driven by an electric motor by means of
V-belts. The pulley on the motor shaft is 90 mm in diameter
and rotates at 1,800 rpm. The diameter of the pulley on the
fan shaft is 300 mm. What is the speed of the fan in rpm?

a) 2,000
b) 1,800
c) 900
d) 540
e) 450

010100020021000C
A driving gear has 60 teeth and turns at 750 rpm. The driven
gear has 90 teeth. What is the speed of the driven gear in
rpm?

a) 1,125
b) 1,000
c) 500
d) 450
e) 400

Equations and Transposition

020100020021000C
2
A = (Pi)r is the same as:

2
a) 1 = A(Pi)r

2
b) A = (Pi)r

c) sqr(A/Pi) = r

2
d) (A/Pi) = sqr(r)

e) sqr(A) = (Pi)r

020100020021000E
In the equation 36 = 12 + (15t) - 6, t equals:

a) 3
b) -2.2
c) 1.7
d) -2.8
e) 2

020100020021000B
In the equation 3 x sqr(t) = 39, t equals:

a) 13
b) 169
c) 26
d) sqr(13)
e) 9

020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for b,
2
[b - (q + s)] / q = s

a) sqr(10s + q)
b) sqr[-qs / (q + s)]
c) sqr(2s)
d) sqr[qs + (q + s)]
e) sqr(8s - q)

020100020021000D
Solve the following equation for m, y = mt + c

a) mt - y
b) y / (t + c)
c) ym - c
d) (y - c) / t
e) y - t - c

020100020021000D
3
Solve the following equation for r, [4(Pi)r ] / 3 = V

a) cubed root[4(Pi)V / 3]
b) V / 4(Pi)
c) Pi / 3V
d) cubed root[3V / 4(Pi)]
e) 3V / 4

020100020021000B
2
Solve s = ut + 1/2 at for u

a) sqr[s - (at / 2)]

2
b) [s - (at / 2] / t

c) 2 / (sat)

2
d) s - 1/2 at - t

e) s + 1/2 at

020100020021000A
2
Solve the following equation for A, b/4 = (q /8) (A+L)

2
a) (2b/q ) - L
 2
b) (b/24q ) - L

c) sqr(b/8q) - L

2
d) (4b/2q ) - L

2
e) (b/2q ) - L

020100020021000E
9 5
Solve the following equation for r, s = (6y / a r)

4
a) 6y /sa

9 5
b) 6y -sa

9 5
c) 6y - (b /s)

-1
d) 6a /s

9 5
e) 6y /sa

020100020021000C
2 2
Solve the equation r v bq/wyz = 1 for r.

2
a) sqr(v bqr/wyz)

2
b) v bqr/wyz

c) [sqr(wyz/bq)]/v

2
d) wv

2
e) sqr(v bwyz/qr)

010100020021000D
If y + 8 = 14, then y

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 7
010100020021000C
If y - 5 = 3, then y =

a) 6
b) 7
c) 8
d) 9
e) 10

010100020021000B
If 3 y = 6, then y =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

010100020021000C
If 6 / y = 2, then y =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

010100020021000B
If 3 y + 4 = 10, then y =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

010100020021000D
If 4 y + 5 - 7 = 2 y + 6, then y =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

010100020021000D
If 13 y + 12 = 7 y + 36, then y =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

020100020021000E
If 5 y = 250 / 2 y, then y =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

020100020021000C
2
If 4y / 2y = 6, then y =

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

020100020021000C
If 8 = sqr(4y), then y =

a) 12
b) 14
c) 16
d) 18
e) 20

020100020021000B
2 2
If y = (5 x 22) , then y =

a) 10.5
b) 110
c) 120
d) 1,200
e) 12,100

040500020042000
Solve for "N":

# x # x N x # ## x ##
1) ## = ------------- 2) #####.###### = -----------
##### N squared

Answers:
1) = _______________

2) = _______________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NUM1(2,9,1)
NUM2(2,9,1)
NUM3(2,9,1)
NUM4(11,99,1)
NUM5(11,99,1)
NUM6(11,99,1)
NUM7
NUM8
.SOLUTIONS
NUM7=NUM4*NUM5/NUM1**2;
NUM8=NUM1*NUM2*NUM3*2.5;
ANS1=NUM6*NUM8/NUM1/NUM2/NUM3;
ANS2=(NUM4*NUM5/NUM7)**0.5;
.RESULTS

"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01

010100020021000C
Convert 32 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).

a) 64
b) 18
c) 0
d) 100
e) 90

010100020021000A
Convert 212 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).

a) 100
b) 150
c) 200
d) 250
e) 300

010100020021000E
Convert 1,000 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).

a) 100
b) 250
c) 450
d) 530
e) 538

010100020021000A
Convert -40 degrees F to Celsius,
if degrees C = 5/9 (degrees F - 32).

a) -40
b) -30
c) -20
d) -10
e) -15

010100020021000B
Convert 50 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.
a) 148
b) 122
c) 130
d) 150
e) 155

010100020021000C
Convert 100 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.

a) 238
b) 220
c) 212
d) 180
e) 120

010100020021000C
Convert -35 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.

a) -1.8
b) -10
c) -31
d) -20
e) -35

010100020021000D
Convert -60 degrees Celsius to Fahrenheit,
if degrees F = 9/5 degrees C + 32.

a) -50.4
b) -45.5
c) -42.5
d) -76.0
e) -72.2

010100020021000C
If C = 5/9 (F - 32), then F =

a) 5/9 C + 32
b) 5/9 C - 32
c) 9/5 C + 32
d) 9/5 (C + 32)
e) 9/5 (C - 32)

020100020021000B
If A = 1/2 b x h, then h =

a) 1/2 A / b
b) 2 A / b
c) 1/2 A b
d) 2 A b
e) 2 b / A
020100020021000D
2
If A = (Pi) r , then r =

a) sqr(A x Pi)

2
b) (A / Pi)

2
c) (A x Pi)

d) sqr(A / Pi)

2
e) (Pi / A)

020100020021000E
If E = I x R, then R =

a) E x I

b) I / E

2
c) (E / I)

2
d) (E x I)

e) E / I

Length, Lines, and Simple Plane Figures

010100020021000B
A fathom is which type of measurement?

a) Surveyors measure
b) Nautical measure
c) English measure
d) SI measure
e) Imperial measure

010100020021000E
320 rods is equal to:

a) 1 kilometre
b) 1 cable
c) 986 knots
d) 39 furlongs
e) 1,760 yards

010100020021000C
Convert 5 miles, 6 yards, 9 feet to metres.

a) 287.85 m
b) 8,326.53 m
c) 8,054.95 m
d) 539.66 m
e) 6,283.42 m

010100020021000C
100 m = __________ ft.

a) 300
b) 310
c) 328
d) 350
e) 360

010100020021000A
75 mm = __________ in.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 7

010100020021000D
100 km = __________ miles.

a) 40
b) 50
c) 60
d) 62
e) 65

010100020021000D
50 ft is __________ m.

a) 12.24
b) 13.34
c) 24.34
d) 15.24
e) 16.75

010100020021000E
150 m is __________ yd.

a) 154
b) 144
c) 50
d) 100
e) 164

010100020021000E
25 cm is __________ in.
a) 5.54
b) 6.24
c) 7.56
d) 8.23
e) 9.84

010100020021000D
The following is a property of perpendicular lines:

a) they are always vertical

b) they form less than a 30 degree angle
c) they form more than a 110 degree angle
d) they form right angles
e) they form acute angles

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about parallel lines is
false?

a) they can cross

b) they can run horizontally
c) they never cross
d) they can run vertically
e) they are always the same distance apart

010100020021000D
Lines which are exactly the same distance apart at all points
are said to be __________ to each other.

a) perpendicular
b) tangential
c) equal
d) parallel
e) coincide

010100020021000A
Lines at right angles to each other are said to be __________
to each other.

a) perpendicular
b) tangential
c) equal
d) parallel
e) coincide

010100020021000E
When two straight lines meet or cross each other, they form
__________.

a) parallel lines
b) tangential lines
c) perpendicular lines
d) equilateral lines
e) an angle
010100020021000E
What type of triangle has three sides of equal length?

a) scalene
b) obtuse
c) isosceles
d) right triangle
e) equilateral

010100020021000B
The sum of the angles of a triangle is:

a) 360 degrees
b) 180 degrees
c) 30 degrees
d) 60 degrees
e) 90 degrees

010100020021000A
In a triangle, if the three sides are of equal length, it is
a/an __________ triangle.

a) equilateral
b) isosceles
c) right
d) scalene
e) obtuse

010100020021000B
A/An __________ triangle has two side of equal length and a
third side that is longer or shorter.

a) equilateral
b) isosceles
c) right
d) scalene
e) obtuse

010100020021000C
In a triangle, if one of the angles is 90 degrees, this is
a/an __________ triangle.

a) equilateral
b) isosceles
c) right
d) scalene
e) obtuse

010100020021000D
A/An __________ triangle has no two sides or angles equal and
no right angle.

a) equilateral
b) isosceles
c) right
d) scalene
e) obtuse
010100020021000E
A/An __________ triangle contains an angle greater than 90
degrees.

a) equilateral
b) isosceles
c) right
d) scalene
e) obtuse

010100020021000D
If a quadrilateral has angle measurements of 85 degrees, 36
degrees and 110 degrees the last angle equals:

a) 360 degrees
b) 90 degrees
c) 182 degrees
d) 129 degrees
e) 180 degrees

010100020021000D
The following quadrilateral has no sides parallel:

a) Trapezoid
b) Rhomboid
c) Rhombus
d) Trapezium
e) Scalene triangle

010100020021000C
A Rhombus has one side measuring 6 m. What are the lengths of
the other 3 sides?

a) Impossible to find with the above information

b) 6 m, 3 m, 3 m
c) 6 m, 6 m, 6 m
d) 6 m, 12 m, 12 m
e) 5 m, 2 m, 8 m

010100020021000B
Quadrilaterals are figures that have __________ straight
sides.

a) 3
b) 4
c) 5
d) 6
e) 8

010100020021000D
The following objects are quadrilaterals:

1) square
2) triangle
3) trapezoid
 4) rhombus

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 3, 4

010100020021000E
When all the angles of a quadrilateral are added together
their sum is __________ degrees.

a) 90
b) 120
c) 180
d) 320
e) 360

010100020021000A
A __________ is a four sided figure with all four sides of
equal length and all angles right angles.

a) square
b) rhombus
c) rectangle
d) trapezoid
e) rhomboid

010100020021000E
A __________ is a four sided figure with the opposite sides
parallel, but the angles are not right angles.

a) square
b) rhombus
c) rectangle
d) trapezoid
e) rhomboid

010100020021000B
A __________ is a four sided figure in which the four sides
are of equal length but the angles are not right angles.

a) square
b) rhombus
c) rectangle
d) trapezoid
e) rhomboid

010100020021000D
A __________ is a four sided figure having only two sides
parallel.

a) square
b) rhombus
c) rectangle
d) trapezoid
e) rhomboid

010100020021000E
A __________ is a four sided figure having no two sides
parallel.

a) square
b) rhombus
c) rectangle
d) trapezoid
e) trapezium

010100020021000B
A __________ is a four sided figure in which all the angles
are right angles but opposite sides are equal and adjacent
sides are unequal.

a) rhombus
b) rectangle
c) trapezoid
d) rhomboid
e) trapezium

Areas and Volumes of Solids

010100020021000C
What is the surface area of a cylinder with a diameter of 4
cm and height of 6 cm? (include the areas of the ends)

a) 75.4 square cm
b) 25.1 square cm
c) 100.5 square cm
d) 88.0 square cm
e) 1,892.5 square cm

050500020051000
Find the total surface area of a closed cylinder having a
diameter of ## m and ## mm and a length of ## m and ## mm.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _____________________ square metres

.SUBSTITUTIONS
D1(1,10,1)
D2(10,90,5)
L1(11,15,1)
L2(10,90,5)
.SOLUTIONS
D3=D1+(D2/1000);
L3=L1+(L2/1000);
A1=3.14*D3*L3;
A2=2*.7854*D3**2;
AT=A1+A2;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",AT:3,.01

050500020021000
Calculate the diameter of a circle having an area of ### sq cm:
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ______________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(100,900,02)
.SOLUTIONS
D=SQR(A/.7854);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",D:3,.01

050500020021000
Determine the area of a circle having a radius of ###.# cm:
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _______________ square metres

.SUBSTITUTIONS
R(15,400,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
A=3.14*R**2/10000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",A:3,.01

010100020021000D
A cylinder has a surface area of 15 square metres (including
the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 95 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder in metres?

a) 455.1
b) 45.51
c) 55.51
d) 4.551
e) 4,551

010100020021000A
A cylinder has a surface area of 10 square metres (including
the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 75 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder in metres?

a) 3.869
b) 38.69
c) 386.9
d) 0.387
e) 3,869

010100020021000B
A cylinder has a surface area of 25 square metres (including
the areas of the ends) and a diameter of 100 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder in metres?

a) 74.578
b) 7.4578
c) 745.78
d) 7457.8
e) 0.7458

010100020021000C
If the diameter of a cylinder is 1.5 m and the height is 223
cm, what is the surface area in square m? (Include the areas
of the ends)

a) 1.4043
b) 140.43
c) 14.043
d) 1404.3
e) 0.1404

010100020021000D
If the diameter of a cylinder is 2.3 m and the height is 334
cm, calculate the surface area in square metres. (Include
the areas of the ends)

a) 3,244.3
b) 324.43
c) 3.2443
d) 32.443
e) 0.3244

010100020021000E
If the diameter of a cylinder is 0.87 m and the height is 98
cm, calculate the surface area in square metres. (Include
the areas of the ends)

a) 3,867.5
b) 386.75
c) 38.675
d) 0.3868
e) 3.8675

010100020021000E
Find the surface area of a sphere with a radius of 3 m.

a) 452.2 sq metres
b) 28.26 sq metres
c) 37.68 sq metres
d) 7.1 sq metres
e) 113.0 sq metres

010100020021000A
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 6 cm.

a) 452.389
b) 4,523.89
c) 4.52389
d) 45.2389
e) 0.45239

010100020021000C
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 7 cm.

a) 6,157.52
b) 61.5752
c) 615.752
d) 6.15752
e) 0.61575

010100020021000D
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 5 cm.

a) 0.31416
b) 3.14159
c) 31.4159
d) 314.159
e) 3,141.59

010100020021000B
Calculate the surface area of a sphere in square cm if the
radius is 4 cm.

a) 2,010.62
b) 201.062
c) 20.1062
d) 2.01062
e) 0.20106

010100020021000A
A cylinder has a surface area (including the areas of the
ends) of 180.6 sq cm and a diameter of 5 cm. What is the
height of the cylinder?

a) 9.0 cm
b) 28.3 cm
c) 11.5 cm
d) 5.0 cm
e) 0.3 cm

010100020021000A
A sphere has a surface area of 1,256 sq cm. What is its
diameter?

a) 20 cm
b) 10 cm
c) 314 cm
d) 157 cm
e) 100 cm

010100020021000A
What is the surface area of a pressure vessel in the form of
a cylinder with each end in the form of a hemisphere, if the
overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m?

a) 113.09 sq m
b) 141.3 sq m
c) 84.82 sq m
d) 98.9 sq m
e) 106.3 sq m

050500020042000
Calculate the area of a rectangle with sides of ## cm by
## cm: (Round the answers to 3 decimal places)
1) give the area in square centimetres
2) give the area in square inches

Answers:
1) = ___________________ square centimetres

2) = ___________________ square inches

.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(5,50,2)
W(4,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
A1=L*W;
A2=A1*.155;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",A1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",A2:3,.01

010100020021000D
What is the total surface area in square cm of a closed
cylinder that is 12 cm high and 3 cm in diameter?

a) 0.12723
b) 1.27234
c) 12.7234
d) 127.234
e) 1,272.34

010100020021000B
Find the lateral area in square m of a steam pipe 50 cm in
diameter and 2.5 m in length.

a) 4.32
b) 3.93
c) 4.91
d) 0.20
e) 4.12

010100020021000C
Find the amount of insulation required in square m to
completely cover a chlorine storage sphere having a diameter
of 8 m.

a) 804.248
b) 402.124
c) 201.062
d) 100.531
e) 50.265

010100020021000D
Calculate the area of insulation in square m required to
cover a boiler drum which is equipped with hemispherical
heads. The diameter of the drum is 84 cm and 4 m in length
from one end to the other.

a) 25.546
b) 12.773
c) 11.773
d) 10.556
e) 5.278

010100020021000D
What is the volume of a cylinder with a diameter of 9 m and a
height of 15 m?

a) 106.0 cubic metres

b) 3,817.0 cubic metres
c) 238.6 cubic metres
d) 954.3 cubic metres
e) 1,590.4 cubic metres

010100020021000B
A cylinder with a diameter of 5 m and a height of 8 m is half
full of liquid. What volume does the liquid occupy?

a) 157.1 cubic cm
b) 78.5 cubic cm
c) 39.3 cubic cm
d) 19.6 cubic cm
e) 15.7 cubic cm

050500020042000
Calculate the volume of a cylindrical tank ## m in diameter
and ## m in length. Give the answers in cubic metres and
cubic decimetres. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answers:
1) = _______________ cubic metres

2) = _______________ cubic decimetres

.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(1,12,1)
L(5,20,1)
.SOLUTIONS
U1=.7854*(D**2)*L;
U2=1000*U1;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",U1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",U2:3,.2
050500020021000
Calculate the volume of a cylinder which has a diameter of ### cm,
and a height of #.## m. (Round answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ______________ cubic metres

.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(10,400,2)
H(.05,8,.01)
.SOLUTIONS
V=.7854*(D/100)**2*H;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",V:3,.02

050500020021000
Find the height of a cylinder where the area of the end is
#.# square metres and the volume is ###.# cubic metres.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _______________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
A(1.5,9,.5)
V(20,260,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
H=V/A;
.RESULTS
"Answer = :",H:3,.01

010100020021000D
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
2 m in diameter and 14 m long.

a) 14
b) 24
c) 34
d) 44
e) 54

010100020021000C
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
6 m in diameter and 12 m long.

a) 139.293
b) 239.293
c) 339.293
d) 439.293
e) 539.293

010100020021000A
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
3 m in diameter and 16 m long.

a) 113.098
b) 213.098
c) 313.098
d) 413.098
e) 513.098

010100020021000B
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank that is
4 m in diameter and 17 m long.

a) 113.629
b) 213.629
c) 313.629
d) 413.629
e) 513.629

010100020021000E
Find the volume in cubic metres of a cylindrical tank 8 m in
diameter and 15 m long.

a) 353.984
b) 453.984
c) 553.984
d) 653.984
e) 753.984

010100020021000D
What is the volume of a sphere with a radius of 6 m?

a) 113.04 cubic cm
b) 150.72 cubic cm
c) 7,234.56 cubic cm
d) 904.32 cubic cm
e) 75.36 cubic cm

010100020021000D
If the radius of a sphere is 5 cm, the volume in cubic cm is

a) 0.523
b) 5.232
c) 52.32
d) 523.2
e) 5,232

010100020021000E
If the radius of a sphere is 8 cm, the volume in cubic cm is

a) 0.214
b) 2.144
c) 21.44
d) 214.4
e) 2,144

010100020021000A
If the radius of a sphere is 7 cm, the volume in cubic cm is
a) 1,437
b) 143.7
c) 14.37
d) 1.437
e) 0.1437

010100020021000C
If the radius of a sphere is 2 m, the volume in cubic metres
is

a) 0.335
b) 3.349
c) 33.49
d) 334.9
e) 3,349

010100020021000D
If the radius of a sphere is 3 m, the volume in cubic m is

a) 0.113
b) 1.131
c) 11.31
d) 113.1
e) 1,131

010100020021000B
What is the volume in cubic m of a sphere with a radius of 4
metres?

a) 2,681
b) 268.1
c) 26.81
d) 2.681
e) 0.268

010100020021000D
What is the radius of a sphere in cm if the volume is 49.56
cubic cm?

a) 0.00228
b) 0.02279
c) 0.2279
d) 2.279
e) 22.79

010100020021000B
If the volume of a sphere is 2,123 cubic cm, its radius in cm
is

a) 9
b) 8
c) 7
d) 6
e) 5

010100020021000D
If the volume of a sphere is 756 cubic cm, its radius in cm
is

a) 2.65
b) 3.65
c) 4.65
d) 5.65
e) 6.65

010100020021000C
Which of the following equations correctly expresses the
volume of a hemisphere?

3
a) V = (4 * Pi * r )/3

3
b) V/2 = (4 * Pi * r )/3

3
c) V = (2 * Pi * r )/3

3/2
d) V = (4 * Pi * r )/3

2
e) V/2 = (2/3) Pi * r

010100020021000A
A pressure vessel is in the form of a cylinder with each end
in the form of a hemisphere. The vessel operates at 1,100
kPa. If the overall length is 12 m and the diameter is 3 m,
what is the volume of the pressure vessel?

a) 56.55 cubic metres

b) 113.1 cubic metres
c) 197.92 cubic metres
d) 77.75 cubic metres
e) 84.8 cubic metres

050500020021000
Calculate the height of a rectangular box which has a length of
## cm and a width of ## cm. The volume of the box is
#### cubic cm. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(20,40,5)
W(10,20,1)
V
.SOLUTIONS
H=10;
V=H*L*W;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01

050500020021000
Calculate the height of a rectangular box ## cm long, ## cm
wide and a volume of ##### cu cm. (Round to 3 dec. places)

Answer = ____________________ cm
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(40,70,2)
W(10,35,1)
V
.SOLUTIONS
H=25;
V=H*L*W;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01

050500020021000
Calculate the height of a rectangular tank filled with water
holding ##### litres. The length of the tank is #.# m and
the width is #.# m. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
C(10000,50000,500)
L(2,4,.2)
W(1,2,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
V=C/1000;
H=V/(L*W);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01

050500020021000
Calculate the height of a cylindrical tank filled with water
having a mass of ####.# kg. The diameter of the tank
is #.# m. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ___________________ m
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(1500,2900,.5)
D(1,5,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
V=M/1000;
H=V/(.7854*D**2);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01

050500020052000
Calculate the mass of water in kg and tonne contained in a
rectangular tank with the following inside dimensions:

width of ##.# metres

height of ##.# metres
length of ##.# metres

(Round answers to 3 decimal places)

Answers:
1) = _______________ kg
 2) = _______________ tonne
.SUBSTITUTIONS
W(.4,10,.2)
H(2,20,.2)
L(4,12,.2)
.SOLUTIONS
M=W*H*L*1000;
T=M/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",M:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",T:3,.01

010100020021000C
The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 2 m and its height
is 10 m. The volume of the tank in cubic metres is

a) 0.314
b) 3.142
c) 31.42
d) 314.2
e) 3,142

010100020021000D
The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 4 m and its height
is 12 m. The volume of the tank in cubic metres is

a) 0.151
b) 1.51
c) 15.1
d) 151
e) 1,511

010100020021000A
The diameter of a cylindrical fuel tank is 5 m and its height
is 15 m. The volume of the tank in litres is

a) 294,525
b) 29,452.5
c) 2,945.25
d) 294.525
e) 29.4525

010100020021000E
A tank was three-fourths full of water. After running off
1,000 litres it was one-fifth full. The capacity of the tank
in litres is

a) 1,333.333
b) 5,000
c) 6,333.333
d) 3,666.667
e) 1,818.182

010100020021000C
A cast iron ball has a 32 cm radius and a mass of 7.21 grams
per cubic cm. The mass in kg is
a) 9.8963
b) 98.963
c) 989.63
d) 9,896.3
e) 98,963

010100020021000A
A cast iron ball is 7 cm in diameter and has a mass of 7.21
grams per cubic cm. The mass of the ball in kg is

a) 1.295
b) 12.95
c) 129.5
d) 1,295
e) 12,950

010100020021000E
A steel tube has an outside diameter of 15 cm, an inside
diameter of 13 cm, and is 3.7 m long. The volume of the
steel contained in the tube in cubic cm is

a) 1.6273
b) 16.273
c) 162.73
d) 1,627.3
e) 16,273

010100020021000D
A positive displacement pump has a 15 cm diameter cylinder
and a stroke of 30 cm. How much water in litres will it
discharge in 10 minutes if it makes 96 strokes per minute?

a) 5.0894
b) 50.894
c) 508.94
d) 5,089.4
e) 50,894

Introduction to Basic Mechanics

010100020021000D
Which of the following examples is not an example of a
dynamic body?

a) a body that is accelerating

b) a body that is decelerating
c) a body that is orbiting at a constant velocity around
a planet
d) a body moving at a uniform velocity along a straight line
e) a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a
new direction

010100020021000C
Which of the following is an example of a static body?

a) a body that is accelerating

b) a body that is decelerating
c) a rigid body that is at rest
d) a body that is moving at a uniform velocity along a
straight line
e) a body colliding with another body and deflecting in a
new direction

010100020021000D
Any action on a body which tends to change its size, shape or
its state of motion is defined as:

a) displacement
b) acceleration
c) volume
d) force
e) mass

010100020021000E
The SI unit for mass is:

2
a) m/s
b) m
c) N
d) J
e) kg

010100020021000B
Attraction to the centre of the earth is called:

a) centrifugal force
b) gravity
c) mass
d) friction
e) distance

010100020021000C
Six kg would be a measure of an object's:

a) weight
b) volume
c) mass
d) length
e) time

010100020021000D
What is the force of gravity exerted on a person whose mass
is 75 kg?

a) 7.5 N
b) 75 J
c) 165 N
d) 735.75 N
e) 750 N

010100020021000B
Mass may be measured in

a) kJ
b) kg
c) Kelvin
d) kJ/kg
e) N/m

010100020021000A
In the SI system, the unit of force is the

a) newton
b) MJ
c) kg force
d) work done in J/s
e) Nm

010100020021000E
What is the force of gravity exerted on an object having a mass
of 5 tonnes?

a) 4.905 N
b) 49.05 N
c) 490.50 N
d) 490.50 kg
e) 49,050 N

010100020021000C
The unit of force used in the SI system is the

a) kilogram
b) Joule
c) Newton
d) Watt
e) Newton metre

010100020021000D
The SI unit for weight is

a) kg
b) lb
c) kip
d) Newton
e) kg m

010100020021000C
The rate of change of velocity is:

a) mass
b) force
c) acceleration
d) weight
e) displacement
010100020021000B
m/s is the SI unit for:

a) acceleration
b) velocity
c) force
d) mass
e) weight

010100020021000A
The unit of acceleration in the SI system is

2
a) m/s

b) m/s

2
c) m /s

d) km/s

e) m/h

010100020021000E
The change of position (in metres) per unit is

a) acceleration
b) displacement
c) volume
d) force
e) velocity

010100020021000B
Force acting in a direction at right angles to a surface,
divided by the surface area, is defined as:

a) acceleration
b) pressure
c) weight
d) surface area
e) friction

010100020021000C
The SI unit for pressure is

a) kN

b) kNm

c) kPa

d) kN/m

3
e) kN/m

010100020021000D
A force of 120 kN is exerted uniformly over an area of 0.2
square metres. What is the pressure?

a) 24 kPa
b) 240 kPa
c) 60 kPa
d) 600 kPa
e) 6 kPa

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements is true if a person pushes
with a force of 300 N on a rock and the rock does not move?

a) 300 N of work was done

b) 300 J of work was done
c) 150 J of work was done
d) no work was done
e) 0.3 J of work was done

010100020021000E
Rate of doing work is defined as:

a) any energy
b) kinetic energy
c) potential energy
d) work
e) power

010100020021000D
The ability to do work due to an object's motion is defined
as:

a) power
b) potential energy
c) force
d) kinetic energy
e) weight

010100020021000B
The unit of measure of work as used in the SI system is

a) Newtons
b) Joules
c) kilowatts
d) foot pounds
e) Joule metres

010100020021000D
A mass of 400 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 30 m due
to a force of 300 kN. The amount of work done is

a) 9,000 J
b) 12,000 J
c) 12,000 kJ
d) 9,000 kJ
e) 3,000 kJ

010100020021000C
The unit of measure of power used in the SI system is

a) Newtons
b) Joules
c) kilowatts
d) work
e) Joules/Newton

010100020021000E
A mass of 400 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 20 m due to
a force of 500 kN. The amount of work done is

a) 8,000 J
b) 10,000 J
c) 1,000 kJ
d) 8,000 kJ
e) 10,000 kJ

010100020021000A
A mass of 600 kg is moved a horizontal distance of 40 m due to a
force of 400 N. The amount of work done is

a) 16,000 J
b) 24,000 J
c) 24,000 kJ
d) 1,600 MJ
e) 160 MJ

010100020021000E
The unit of measure of energy used in the SI systems is

a) work
b) torque
c) kilowatt
d) Newton
e) Joule

010100020021000D
If a force of 200 kN is moved a distance of 15 m in 15
seconds, what power is developed?

a) 3,000 kW
b) 1,500 kW
c) 1,000 kW
d) 200 kW
e) 150 kW

010100020021000A
__________ energy is the ability of a body to do work by
virtue of its position.
a) Potential
b) Kinetic
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
e) Basic

010100020021000B
__________ energy is the ability of a body to do work due to
its motion.

a) Potential
b) Kinetic
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
e) Basic

010100020021000A
M x G x H is the equation for __________ energy.

a) Potential
b) Kinetic
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
e) Basic

010100020021000B
2
1/2 x M x V is the equation for __________ energy.

a) Potential
b) Kinetic
c) Maximum
d) Minimum
e) Basic

Forces and Moments

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about force is false?

a) Force is the push exerted on a body.

b) Force may make a body move.
c) Force is the pull exerted on a body.
d) No force is required to stop a body.
e) Force may make a body stop.

010100020021000B
Which of the following is the SI unit for force?

2
a) m/s

b) N
 2
c) ft lbs/s

d) kg

e) J

010100020021000C
For a pivot or lever, the product of Force multiplied by a
perpendicular distance from the point of rotation, is defined
as:

a) weight
b) mass
c) turning moment
d) potential energy
e) power

010100020021000E
Moments are measured in:

a) m
b) kJ
c) N
d) W
e) Nm

010100020021000D
The unit of measure for a _______________ of force is the
newton metre.

a) pressure
b) kilogram
c) Joule
d) moment
e) second

010100020021000B
A force of 320 kN acts at a perpendicular distance of 4 m
from a point. What will be the turning moment produced?

a) 80 kNm
b) 1,280 kNm
c) 1,280 kN
d) 1,280 kJ
e) 1,280 Nm

010100020021000E
If a system is in equilibrium then which of the following
statements is true?

a) The system will rotate clockwise

b) The system will rotate counter clockwise
c) The system will not rotate because no force is being
exerted
d) The system rotates under the largest force
e) The system will not rotate because the moments in the
system balance each other out

010100020021000A
A bar is pivoted on the left end and a force is applied
downwards on the right end. The rotation of the bar will be

a) clockwise
b) counter-clockwise
c) neutral
d) upward
e) downward

010100020021000B
A bar is pivoted on the right end and a force is applied
downwards on the left end. The rotation of the bar will be

a) clockwise
b) counter-clockwise
c) neutral
d) upward
e) downward

010100020021000B
A 5 m long bar is pivoted on the left end and a force of 10 N
is applied downwards on the right end. The moment of force
is

a) 50 Nm counter-clockwise
b) 50 Nm clockwise
c) 2 Nm counter-clockwise
d) 2 Nm clockwise
e) 5 Nm clockwise

010100020021000C
A 15 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of 5
N is applied downwards on the left end. The moment of force
is

a) 3 Nm counter-clockwise
b) 3 Nm clockwise
c) 75 Nm counter-clockwise
d) 75 Nm clockwise
e) 75 N counter-clockwise

010100020021000D
A 5 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of 10
N is applied upwards on the left end. The moment of force is

a) 2 Nm counter-clockwise
b) 2 Nm clockwise
c) 50 Nm counter-clockwise
d) 50 Nm clockwise
e) 50 kNm clockwise

010100020021000E
A 12 m long bar is pivoted on the right end and a force of
150 N is applied upwards on the left end. The moment of
force is

a) 12.5 Nm
b) 25 Nm
c) 180 Nm
d) 1,800 kNm
e) 1.8 kNm

010100020021000A
A bar is pivoted on the right end and a force is applied
upwards on the left end. The rotation of the bar will be

a) clockwise
b) counter-clockwise
c) neutral
d) upward
e) downward

010100020021000B
A bar is pivoted on the left end and a force is applied
upwards on the right end. The rotation of the bar will be

a) clockwise
b) counter-clockwise
c) neutral
d) upward
e) downward

010100020021000C
A 7 m bar is pivoted at 2 m from the left end. A force of 60
N is applied downward on the left end and a force of 20 N
is applied downward on the right end. What would be the
clockwise and counter-clockwise moments and in which
direction would the bar rotate?

a) 80 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise,

counter-clockwise rotation
b) 60 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation
c) 120 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise,
counter-clockwise rotation
d) 120 Nm counter-clockwise, 100 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation

e) 120 Nm counter-clockwise, 120 Nm clockwise, equilibrium

010100020021000D
A 8 m bar is pivoted at 5 m from the left end. A force of 15
N is applied downward on the left end and a force of 20 N
is applied downward on the right end. What would be the
clockwise and counter-clockwise moments and in which
direction would the bar rotate?

a) 60 Nm counter-clockwise, 75 Nm clockwise,
counter-clockwise rotation
b) 60 Nm counter-clockwise, 75 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation
c) 75 Nm counter-clockwise, 60 Nm clockwise, clockwise
rotation
d) 75 Nm counter-clockwise, 60 Nm clockwise,
counter-clockwise rotation
e) 60 Nm counter-clockwise, 60 Nm clockwise, equilibrium

010100020021000B
If a system of forces is in equilibrium then which of the
following statements is true?

a) The system will rotate counter-clockwise.

b) The total upward forces = the total downward forces.
c) The system will rotate clockwise.
d) The system will vibrate.
e) The system will rotate temporarily.

010100020021000D
If a system of forces is in equilibrium then which of the
following statements is true?

a) The system will rotate counter-clockwise.

b) The system will rotate clockwise.
c) The system will vibrate.
d) The total forces to the right = the total forces to the
left.
e) The system will rotate temporarily.

050500020041000
A lever is supported by a fulcrum placed at the mid-point of
the lever. A ## kg mass is suspended #.# m from the fulcrum.
What mass must be suspended at a point #.# m on the other side
of the fulcrum in order to place the lever in equilibrium?
(Round off to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
M1(10,50,2)
L1(1,3,.2)
L2(2,4,.1)
.SOLUTIONS
M2=(M1*L1)/L2;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",M2:3,.01

010100020021000D
A lever 15 metres in length is pivoted at one end. A load
of 750 N is suspended from the other end. What force must
be applied at the midpoint of the lever in order to obtain
equilibrium?

a) 50 N
b) 112.5 N
c) 150 N
d) 1,500 N
e) 1,725 N

010100020021000A
A lever is 3 m in length and is pivoted at one end. A load of
8,000 N is suspended from the lever at a point 1 m from the pivot.
What force is necessary at the other end of the lever in order
to obtain equilibrium?

a) 2,666.667 N
b) 1,333.333 N
c) 16,000 N
d) 24,000 N
e) 5,336 N

010100020021000B
A lever 10 m in length is pivoted at one end and has a load of
900 kg suspended from the other end. What force must be applied
at the mid-point of the lever to obtain equilibrium?

a) 8,829 N
b) 17,658 N
c) 882.9 N
d) 4,414.4 N
e) 22,500 N

050500020041000
A simply supported beam is ## metres long and has a force
of ### newtons acting at #.# metres from the left hand support.
Find the load on the right hand support. (Round off to 3
decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(3,7,1)
M(10,500,40)
L1(1,2.5,.5)
.SOLUTIONS
R2=L1*M/L;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",R2:3,.02

050300020021000160 %.01;
A beam having a length of 20 metres is pivoted at its mid point.
A 200 newton load is located at a point 5 m from the right
hand end of the beam. A 300 newton load is located at a point
8 m from the right hand end. In order for the beam to be in
equilibrium, what load is required at the extreme left end of
the beam?

Answer = ______________________ newtons

050500020101000
A crowbar is # metres long and has its pivot ## centimetres from
one end. A force of ##### newtons is applied to the end closest to
the pivot. What effort must be applied to the other end of the
crowbar to keep it in equilibrium? (Round to 3 decimal
places)

Answer = ____________________ newtons

.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(2,8,1)
P(30,80,10)
F(2000,10000,1000)
.SOLUTIONS
E=(F*P/100)/(L-P/100);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",E:3,.01

Simple Machines
010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about simple machines is
false?

a) The machine receives energy by means of a single applied

force.
b) The machine produces work by means of a single output
force.
c) Work output is the product of the load and the distance
moved by the load.
d) Work input is greater than work output.
e) The machine receives energy by means of 2 or more applied
forces.

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about inclined planes is
false?

a) A ramp is an inclined plane.

b) Work input = work output + work wasted
c) A screw is an inclined plane.
d) Work is wasted in friction.
e) No work is wasted in producing heat.

010100020021000D
A simple machine is one which receives energy by means of a
single applied force, and produces work by means of
__________.

a) multiple output forces

b) an energy form
c) a distance moved
d) a single output force
e) a mechanical device
010100020021000B
The ratio of the load to the effort is called:

a) velocity ratio
b) actual mechanical advantage
c) efficiency
d) power
e) work

010100020021000B
A lever is used to move a load of 10 kN by applying an effort
of 1,000 N. What is the mechanical advantage of the lever?

a) 1
b) 10
c) 100
d) 1,000
e) 10,000

05030002004200045 %.01;9 %.1;

A crowbar is 2 metres in length and has a fulcrum or pivot
located 20 cm from one end. What load can be lifted by the
crowbar, if a force of 5,000 N is applied to the end furthest
from the fulcrum? What is the mechanical advantage of the
arrangement?

Answers:
1) = ____________________ kN

2) = ____________________ MA

010100020021000D
Find the force necessary to just move a mass of 2.5 kg on the
end of a 3.6 m lever which is pivoted 3 m from the left end.

a) 754.14 N
b) 76.88 N
c) 27.50 N
d) 123 N
e) 1,206.6 N

010100020021000A
A small hand pump is 850 mm in length. The fulcrum is
attached in one end and the load plunger is located 50 mm
from the fulcrum. An effort force of 600 N is applied
downward from the opposite end of the fulcrum. Find the
force exerted by the load plunger and the mechanical
advantage of the lever.

a) 10,200 N and 17
b) 1,020 N and 17
c) 102 N and 17
d) 10.2 N and 20
e) 102 N and 20
010100020021000C
Velocity ratio is defined as:

a) The reaction at the fulcrum to balance the net forces on

the system.
b) The ratio of the load to the effort.
c) The ratio of the distance moved by the effort to the
distance moved by the load.
d) The ratio of the work output to the work input.
e) A block and tackle system.

010100020021000D
In a lifting machine, the effort applied moves a distance of
5 m while the load moves 50 mm. What is the velocity ratio?

a) 0.1
b) 1
c) 10
d) 100
e) 1,000

010100020021000E
Efficiency is

a) work input multiplied by work output

b) work input divided by work output
c) work output plus work input
d) work output minus work input
e) work output divided by work input

010100020021000D
A machine is used to lift a load of 2 kN a distance of 3 m
and the effort applied is 400 N. What distance will the
effort move if the efficiency of the machine is 80%?

a) 20.50 m
b) 2.083 m
c) 20.83 m
d) 18.75 m
e) 1.875 m

010100020021000C
A machine is used to lift a load of 12 kN and the effort
applied is 4 kN. What distance will the load move if the
effort moved a distance of 8 m and the efficiency of the
machine is 70%?

a) 0.5357 m
b) 3.8095 m
c) 1.8667 m
d) 0.3809 m
e) 5.3570 m

010100020021000B
An effort of 400 N is required to raise a mass of 100 kg in a
certain machine. If the mass is raised 4 m while the effort
moves 12 m, find the efficiency of the machine.

a) 93%
b) 82%
c) 80%
d) 75%
e) 70%

010100020021000C
An effort of 525 N is required to raise a mass of 120 kg in a
certain machine. If the mass is raised 5 m while the effort
moves 15 m, find the efficiency of the machine.

a) 85%
b) 80%
c) 75%
d) 70%
e) 65%

010100020021000D
An effort of 3 kN is required to move a mass of 2,000 kg in a
certain simple machine. If the mass is raised 1.5 m while the
effort moves 12 m find the velocity ratio (VR), the actual
mechanical advantage (MA), and the efficiency (EFF) of the
machine.

a) VR = 8, MA = 0.67, EFF = 5.3 %

b) VR = 12, MA = 6.54, EFF = 54.5 %
c) VR = 8, MA = 0.67, EFF = 8.3 %
d) VR = 8, MA = 6.54, EFF = 81.8 %
e) VR = 1.5, MA = 0.67, EFF = 44.7 %

010100020021000D
A block and tackle system has 6 pulleys in each of two blocks
(12 pulleys total). If a downward effort of 260 N is
required to raise a load of 300 kg calculate the efficiency
of the system.

a) 9.6%
b) 19.2%
c) 188.3%
d) 94.3%
e) 108.6%

010100020021000B
A block and tackle system has 3 pulleys in each of two
blocks. If a downward effort of 100 N is applied and the
machine has an efficiency of 83.6% what is the maximum mass
that can be moved?

a) 501.6 kg
b) 51.1 kg
c) 5,113.1 kg
d) 250 kg
e) 25.6 kg
010100020021000C
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel diameter of 2.3 m and an
axle diameter of 92 mm. If an effort of 26 N is required to
raise a mass of 16 kg what is the efficiency of the machine?

a) 2.46%
b) 95.3%
c) 24.1%
d) 20.1%
e) 65.5%

010100020021000E
A simple wheel and axle has a wheel diameter of 3 m and an
axle diameter of 25 cm. What effort is required to raise 850
kg if the efficiency is 87%?

a) 81 N
b) 986 N
c) 100.5 N
d) 563.2 N
e) 798.7 N

050500020021000
A block and tackle consists of # pulleys on the upper block
and # pulleys on the lower block.
Determine the load that may be held in equilibrium when an
effort of ### N is applied. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
UPLS(3,9,1)
LPLS
EFRT(100,950,50)
.SOLUTIONS
LPLS=UPLS-1;
LOAD=EFRT*(UPLS+LPLS);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",LOAD:3,.01

050500020021000
A block and tackle has # pulleys on the top block and
# pulleys on the bottom block. A load of #### N is
suspended from the lower block. Determine the effort
required to keep the system in equilibrium.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
UPLS(3,9,1)
LPLS
LOAD(1000,9500,100)
.SOLUTIONS
LPLS=UPLS-1;
EFRT=LOAD/(LPLS+UPLS);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFRT:3,.01

050500020021000
A block and tackle is used to lift a load of #### N with an
effort of just over ### N. How many pulleys would be used
on the lower block?

Answer = _____________________
.SUBSTITUTIONS
LOAD
EFRT(100,950,50)
FCTR(1,5,1)
.SOLUTIONS
LOAD=2*FCTR*EFRT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FCTR:3,.0

0503000200420004500 %.0015;5 %.01;

A simple wheel and axle has a wheel radius of 60 cm and an axle
radius of 12 cm. If an effort of 900 N is applied to the wheel,
what load can be raised by the axle and what is the mechanical
advantage of the arrangement?

Answers:
1) = ____________________ N

2) = ____________________ MA

05030002004200025 %;24500 %.0015;

A simple wheel and axle has an axle with a diameter of 8 cm
and a wheel with a diameter of 2 m.

1) Determine the mechanical advantage of the system.

2) Determine the load that may be balanced by a mass of
100 kg attached to the wheel.

Answers:
1) = ____________________ MA

2) = ____________________ N

010100020021000A
A wheel and axle has a mechanical advantage of 10. Calculate
the diameter of the axle if the diameter of the wheel is
30 cm.

a) 3 cm
b) 3.333 cm
c) 6 cm
d) 15 cm
e) 300 cm

0503000200420007.500 % .01;654 % .01;

A wheel and axle arrangement has an axle with a diameter of
25 cm. A rope is wrapped around the axle and is supporting
a load of 2 tonnes.
1) If the mechanical advantage of the system is 30, determine
the diameter of the wheel.
2) Determine the effort required to maintain the system in
equilibrium.

Answers:
1) = ____________________ m

2) = ____________________ N

Scalars and Vectors I

010100020021000A
Which of the following is not a scalar quantity?

a) velocity
b) length
c) volume
d) time
e) area

010100020021000E
A scalar quantity has:

a) necessary units only

b) numerical size of the quantity only
c) magnitude only
d) both direction and numerical size of the quantity
e) both magnitude and necessary units

010100020021000E
Distance is:

a) always a vector quantity

b) velocity divided by time
c) measured in a straight line
d) always measured in a circular path
e) a scalar quantity

010100020021000C
A vector quantity has:

a) both numerical size and the necessary units of the

quantity
b) both direction and necessary units of the quantity
c) direction, magnitude and necessary units of the quantity
d) magnitude and necessary units of the quantity
e) magnitude only

010100020021000D
Vectors that are all in the same plane are defined as:
a) scalar
b) concurrent
c) resultants
d) coplanar
e) antiplanar

010100020021000B
A single vector which can replace a system of vectors and has
the same effect is called a:

a) coplanar vector
b) resultant
c) concurrent vector
d) scalar
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
Find the resultant of 3 concurrent coplanar forces of:
i) 60 N acting 20 degrees east of north
ii) 30 N east
iii) 150 N acting 40 degrees east of south

a) 240 N east
b) 160 N 68 degrees east of south
c) 60 N 40 degrees east of south
d) 140 N 100 degrees east of south
e) 30 N 73.8 degrees east of north

010100020021000E
A plane is flying at 56 km/h at a bearing of 65 degrees.
After flying for 3 hours the plane heading is changed to a
bearing of 90 degrees. After flying for a further 1 hour at
56 km/h what is the plane's bearing from its original
position?

a) 81 degrees
b) 86 degrees
c) 42 degrees
d) 25 degrees
e) 71 degrees

010100020021000A
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant
of 3 coplanar forces of:
i) 40 N 45 degrees east of south
ii) 10 N west
iii) 70 N 35 degrees east of north

a) 65 N 65 degrees east of north

b) 35 N 35 degrees east of south
c) 120 N west
d) 100 N 25 degrees east of south
e) 55 N 45 degrees west of south

010100020021000D
Find the magnitude and direction of the resultant of 4 concurrent coplanar
forces:
i) 10 N 32 degrees east of north
ii) 35 N 50 degrees east of north
iii) 25 N 72 degrees east of north
iv) 85 N 40 degrees east of south

a) 70 N 56 degrees east of north

b) 45 N 44 degrees east of north
c) 196 N 87 degrees east of south
d) 114 N 77 degrees east of south
e) 30 N 72 degrees east of south

010100020021000B
Determine the resultant of the following vector system:
i) 65 km 60 degrees south of east
ii) 120 km 30 degrees west of north
iii) 30 km 35 degrees east of north
iv) 75 km south

a) 120 km 70 degrees east of south

b) 11 km 75 degrees west of south
c) 61 km 63 degrees east of south
d) 50 km south
e) 92 km 42 degrees west of south

Linear Velocity and Acceleration

010100020021000D
According to Newtons laws of motion which statement is false?

a) A body at rest will remain at rest unless acted upon by

an external force.
b) If a body is acted upon by an external unbalanced force
the body will have an acceleration in the direction and
proportional to the magnitude of the force.
c) For every action there is an equal and opposite reaction.
d) A body in motion will come to rest unless acted upon by
an external unbalanced force.
e) When one object exerts a force on a second object the
second object exerts a reactive force of equal magnitude
and opposite direction on the first object.

010100020021000B
A body moves from Point A to Point B in a semicircular path.
The diameter of the semicircle is 2 m. Calculate the
distance between Point A and Point B.

a) 6.28 m
b) 3.14 m
c) 2.07 m
d) 1.04 m
e) 0.52 m

010100020021000B
A body moves from Point A to Point B in a semicircular path.
The radius of the semicircle is 2 m. Calculate the
displacement between Point A and Point B.

a) 2 m
b) 4 m
c) 6 m
d) 8 m
e) 10 m

010100020021000E
A body moves from A due east 5 m to B, then from B due north
6 m to C and finally from C due west 8 m to D. Calculate the
total distance covered from A to D.

a) 11 m
b) 13 m
c) 14 m
d) 17 m
e) 19 m

010100020021000C
A body moves from A due east 5 m to B, then from B due north
6 m to C and finally from C due west 5 m to D. Calculate the
total distance covered from A to D.

a) 4 m
b) 5 m
c) 6 m
d) 7 m
e) 19 m

010100020021000B
A vehicle that travels 150 km in 3 hours,

a) has a velocity of 50 km/h

b) has an average speed of 50 km/h
c) has a relative velocity of 50 km/h
d) covers a distance of 50 km
e) has a velocity of 750 km/h

010100020021000C
An airplane travels 500 km due west in 2 hours. Its average
velocity is

a) 250 m/s due west

b) 4167 m/s due west
c) 69.4 m/s due west
d) 69.4 m/s due east
e) 1000 km/h due east
010100020021000C
An airplane travels 250 km due West for 2 hours. Its average
velocity is

a) 150 m/s West

b) 250 m/s West
c) 34.722 m/s West
d) 69.4 m/s East
e) 500 km/h East

010100020021000B
Velocity is

a) a scalar quantity
b) a vector quantity
c) a standard quantity
d) an average quantity
e) a maximum quantity

010100020021000E
Velocity may be defined as

a) speed
b) linear speed
c) rotational speed
d) speed in a given time
e) speed in a given direction

010100020021000B
The SI unit for velocity is

a) km/s

b) m/s

c) m/hr

2
d) m/s

2
e) m /s

010100020021000A
A train starts off from rest and reaches a velocity of 100
km/h in 8 minutes. If the velocity increases uniformly, how
far will the train travel in the first 8 minutes?

a) 6.67 km
b) 7.43 km
c) 8.50 km
d) 9.25 km
e) 9.76 km

010100020021000D
A vehicle starts off from rest and reaches a velocity of 80
km/h in 12 seconds. If the velocity increases uniformly, how
far will the train travel in the first 12 seconds?

a) 188.87 m
b) 177.76 m
c) 166.70 m
d) 133.33 m
e) 113.33 m

010100020021000C
A vehicle travelling at 90 km/h decelerates uniformly to 50
km/h in 9 seconds. How far will the vehicle travel in this
time?

a) 125 m
b) 150 m
c) 175 m
d) 200 m
e) 225 m

010100020021000E
Acceleration is measured in:

a) m

2
b) m/s

c) m/s

d) s/m

2
e) m/s

010100020021000E
Which of the following statements about acceleration is true?
Acceleration is:

a) time / velocity
b) force / time
c) the rate of change of displacement
d) time / force
e) the result of an unbalanced force exerted on a body

010100020021000E
Acceleration may be defined as the rate of change in

a) time
b) distance
c) area
d) volume
e) velocity
010100020021000A
The SI unit for acceleration is

2
a) m/s

3
b) m/s

c) m/s

d) km/h

e) km/s

010100020021000C
A car travelling at 18 km/h increases its velocity uniformly
to 48 km/h in 6 seconds. What is the acceleration in metres
per second squared?

a) 1.12
b) 1.23
c) 1.39
d) 1.45
e) 1.57

010100020021000B
A car travelling at 90 km/h is brought to rest over a
distance of 120 m. What is the acceleration in metres per
second squared?

a) 2.6
b) -2.6
c) 1.3
d) -1.3
e) -2.0

010100020021000D
The area under a velocity vs. time graph equals:

a) distance
b) speed
c) acceleration
d) displacement
e) average velocity

010100020021000E
A car travels a total of 350 km. The journey involves a
total of 3 hours driving time and 45 minutes of stop time.
What is the average journey speed?

a) 101.4 km/h
b) 71.7 km/h
c) 116.7 km/h
d) 107.7 km/h
e) 93.3 km/h

010100020021000A
A plane is flying at 600 km/h and reduces its velocity
uniformly to 70 km/h in 3 minutes. What is its acceleration?

2
a) -0.818 m/s

2
b) -49.07 m/s

2
c) -176.67 m/s

2
d) -2.42 m/s

2
e) -3.33 m/s

010100020021000E
An object is thrown directly downwards from a height of 60 m
with an initial velocity of 11 m/s. What will be its
velocity on impact?

a) 34.5 m/s
b) 1,289.16 m/s
c) 24.2 m/s
d) 126.38 m/s
e) 36.03 m/s

010100020021000D
An object is dropped from a height of 45 m. What will its
velocity be on impact?

a) 882.9 m/s
b) 441.5 m/s
c) 22.50 m/s
d) 29.71 m/s
e) 31.76 m/s

010100020021000A
An object is dropped from a height of 55 m. What will its
velocity be on impact?

a) 32.85 m/s
b) 43.57 m/s
c) 56.43 m/s
d) 68.79 m/s
e) 72.12 m/s

010100020021000B
A car has an initial speed of 25 km/h and in 84 seconds it
accelerates to 110 km/h. What is the distance travelled
during the acceleration period?
a) 2575 m
b) 1575 m
c) 757 m
d) 575 m
e) 455 m

010100020021000C
A car has an initial speed of 35 km/h and in 75 seconds it
accelerates to 120 km/h. What is the distance travelled
during the acceleration period?

a) 2435 m
b) 1875 m
c) 1614 m
d) 1567 m
e) 1463 m

Force, Work, Pressure, Power and Energy

010100020021000D
A push or pull exerted on an object which may change the
objects state of motion is defined as:

a) work
b) energy
c) power
d) force
e) pressure

050500020101000
A cylindrical tank with flat ends is #.# metres in diameter and
## metres high. What will the force of gravity be on the tank,
if it has been built with a steel plate having a mass of 21 kg/sq m?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ newtons

.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(.5,3,.5)
L(4,10,1)
.SOLUTIONS
W=647.2*D*(D/2+L);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",W:3,0.01

050500020101000
A cylindrical tank with flat ends is #.# metres in diameter and
## metres high. What will the force of gravity be on the tank
if it has been made with plate having a mass of 32 kg/sq m?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ newtons

.SUBSTITUTIONS
D(.5,3,.5)
L(4,10,1)
.SOLUTIONS
F=986.21*D*(D/2+L);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",F:3,.05

010100020021000C
In the SI system, the unit of force is called the newton (N)
and 1 N is equal to

2
a) 1 kg/s

b) 1 kg m/s

2
c) 1 kg m/s

2
d) 1 kg m /s

2 3
e) 1 kg m /s

010100020021000B
Work is defined as:

a) A push or pull on an object which may change its state

of motion.
b) The product of the force applied on an object and the
distance through which the force moved.
c) The measure of force per unit area.
d) The ability to apply force.
e) None of the above.

050500020021000
Calculate the work done in pumping #### litres of water a
vertical distance of ## metre. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answer = -------------------- kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
VOLM(1000,9950,50)
DIST(10,25,1)
.SOLUTIONS
WORK=VOLM*9.81*DIST/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",WORK:3,.01

010100020021000C
A pump is required to raise 600 litres of fresh water a
vertical distance of 120 m. If the efficiency of the pump is
45%, how much work must be done on the pump to raise the
water?

a) 1570 GJ
b) 1570 MJ
c) 1570 kJ
d) 1570 J
e) 1.57 kJ

050500020021000
A pump has an efficiency of ## percent. Calculate the power
required to lift ## litres of water per second to a height
of ## metres. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ watts

.SUBSTITUTIONS
EFCY(50,80,1)
VOLM(15,60,1)
DIST(10,25,1)
.SOLUTIONS
POWR=VOLM*9.81*DIST/EFCY*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",POWR:3,.01

050500020021000
Consider a pump which is ## % efficient and raises #.# cubic
metres of water per minute to a height of ## metres. How
much power is required to raise this amount of water?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _____________________ watts

.SUBSTITUTIONS
EFCY(60,80,1)
VOLM(3,8,0.5)
DIST(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
POWR=VOLM*9.81*1000*DIST/EFCY*100/60;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",POWR:3,.01

010100020021000C
Calculate the power required, to pump 50000 litres of water per
minute to a vertical height of 72 m.

a) 360 kW
b) 49.05 kW
c) 588.6 kW
d) 706.32 kW
e) 69.44 kW

050500020105000
A boiler has a working pressure of ### psi.
Give this pressure in: (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answers:
1) = -------------------- kPa

2) = -------------------- MPa
 3) = -------------------- Nm

4) = -------------------- pascals

5) = -------------------- bars
.SUBSTITUTIONS
P(100,400,20)
.SOLUTIONS
P1=6.895*P;
P2=6.895*P/1000;
P3=6895*P;
P4=6895*P;
P5=6.895*P/100;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",P1:3,.05
"Answer 2 =",P2:3,.05
"Answer 3 =",P3:3,.05
"Answer 4 =",P4:3,.05
"Answer 5 =",P5:3,.05

050500020021000
A pressure of ### kPa acts upon a ## cm diameter piston.
Calculate the total force exerted upon the piston.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(100,950,50)
DIAM(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=3.1416*(DIAM/100)**2*PRSS*250;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCE:3,.01

050500020021000
A cylinder contains steam at a pressure of #### kPa. If the
cylinder diameter is ## cm, what is the force acting upon the
cylinder end? (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ kN
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(1000,9950,50)
DIAM(10,30,1)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=3.1416*(DIAM/100)**2/4*PRSS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCE:3,.01

050500020021000
The diameter of a pump piston is ## cm. A force of ### N
is applied to the piston rod. Determine the pressure the
pump will develop. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ___________________ kPa

.SUBSTITUTIONS
DIAM(10,30,1)
FRCE(50,100,5)
.SOLUTIONS
PRSS=FRCE*4/3.1416/(DIAM/100)**2/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",PRSS:3,.01

050500020021000
The air pressure in a tire is ### kPa. The internal surface
area of the tire is #### sq cm. Determine the total force
applied by the air to the tire. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _____________________ kN
.SUBSTITUTIONS
PRSS(100,950,50)
AREA(500,1500,50)
.SOLUTIONS
FRCE=PRSS*AREA/10000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCE:3,.01

010100020021000A
A piston having an area of .2 m sq is subject to a pressure
of 600 kPa. What is the total force exerted on the piston?

a) 120 kN
b) 1200 kN
c) 120 kPa
d) 1200 kPa
e) 12 kN

050500020021000
The pressure gauge on a condenser indicates -##.# kPa.
Determine the absolute pressure in the condenser when
the barometric pressure is ###.# kPa.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _____________________ kPa

.SUBSTITUTIONS
VACm(85,93,0.1)
APRS(95,101.3,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
TPRS=APRS-VACm;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",TPRS:3,.01

.7.3 Testbank.Document.Questions Page 14- 117

for Testbank PE4PARTA 25-SEP-2001

- Force, Work, Pressure, Power and Energy

050500020021000
The absolute pressure is ### kPa, and the atmospheric
pressure is ###.# kPa. Determine the gauge pressure.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)
Answer = ____________________ kPa
.SUBSTITUTIONS
TPRS(100,500,20)
APRS(95,101.3,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
GPRS=TPRS-APRS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",GPRS:3,.01

010100020021000B
What is the absolute pressure if the gauge pressure in a steam
cylinder is 200 kPa? (Atmospheric pressure is 101.3 kPa)

a) 301.3 Pa
b) 301.3 kPa
c) 200.3 Pa
d) 200.3 kPa
e) 98.7 kPa

010100020021000D
1 psi equals

a) 1 kilo pascal
b) 100 kPa
c) 1 newton/m sq
d) 6.89 kPa
e) 2.2 kPa

010100020021000C
If three boilers each have a pressure of 130 kPa, the pressure
in the steam header will be

a) 130 bar
b) 130 kg/cm sq
c) 130 kilo pascals
d) 130 MPa
e) 390 kPa

010100020021000A
The capacity of a body to do work is defined as

a) energy
b) power
c) pressure
d) force
e) mass

010100020021000E
An object at rest with a mass of 68.5 kg is at a height of 65
m above the earth's surface. What is its kinetic energy?

a) 4.45 kJ
b) 4.37 kJ
c) 34.25 kJ
d) 38.6 kJ
e) none of the above

010100020021000A
A body with a mass of 88 kg is moving at a velocity of 13.89
m/s. What is its kinetic energy?

a) 8,488 J
b) 1.22 kJ
c) 13.89 kJ
d) 611.11 J
e) 6.9 kJ

010100020021000B
An object of mass 95 kg is at a height of 36 m above the
ground. What is its potential energy?

a) 3.42 kJ
b) 33.55 kJ
c) 1.71 kJ
d) 931.95 kJ
e) 348.62 J

050500020051000
What is the kinetic energy of a car, having a mass of #### kg
and travelling at a velocity of ## km/h?
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1000,4000,50)
VLCT(30,90,6)
.SOLUTIONS
KENR=MASS*(VLCT*1000/3600)**2/2000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",KENR:3,.01

050500020051000
The kinetic energy of an automobile, having a mass of #### kg
is ###.# kJ. Find the velocity of the car in km/h.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _____________________ km/h

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1000,4000,50)
KENR(200,400,10)
.SOLUTIONS
VLCT=(2*KENR*1000/MASS)**0.5*3.6;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VLCT:3,.01

010100020021000E
Calculate potential energy possessed by a mass of 100 kg
located 40 m above ground level.

a) 4000 kJ
b) 2.5 MJ
c) 981 kJ
d) 392.4 J
e) 39.24 kJ

010100020021000D
What is the kinetic energy possessed by a car, having a mass
of 1500 kg and travelling at a velocity of 50 km/h?

a) 30 kJ
b) 25 kJ
c) 25 J
d) 144.7 kJ
e) 289.4 kJ

010100020021000E
A simple machine is required to raise 1 tonne of stone a
vertical distance of 30 m. If the efficiency of the pulley is
100% how much work must be done on the pulley to raise the
stone?

a) 294.3 J
b) 30 kJ
c) 35 kJ
d) 3.4 kJ
e) 294.27 kJ

010100020021000A
What force is produced on a circular wall with a diameter of
3 m when 1,100 kPa acts upon it?

a) 7,775.44 kN
b) 155 kN
c) 31,101 kN
d) 10,367.26 kN
e) 7,300.33 N

010100020021000A
A pump raises 650 tonnes of sea water a height of 55 m in 6
hours. If the pump efficiency is 100% what is the power
required to drive the pump?

a) 16.24 kW
b) 350,707.5 W
c) 17.46 kW
d) 1,047.51 kW
e) 62,850.81 kW

010100020021000E
A body with a mass of 2 tonnes is moving at 100 km/h. What
would be the vertical height that the body could climb before
coming to rest?

a) 27.8 km
b) 5.10 m
c) 1.41 m
d) 1.18 km
e) 39.3 m
010100020021000D
An object is allowed to free fall from rest from a height of
9 m. What will be its velocity on striking the ground?

a) 14.07 m/s
b) 14.00 m/s
c) 13.53 m/s
d) 13.29 m/s
e) 13.00 m/s

010100020021000E
A body is moving 12 m/s. What would be the vertical height
that this body could climb to before it comes to rest?

a) 5.10 m
b) 5.50 m
c) 6.10 m
d) 7.00 m
e) 7.34 m

Friction I
010100020021000B
To start a body moving which of the following must be
overcome?

a) kinetic friction
b) static friction
c) fluid friction
d) rolling friction
e) normal force

010100020021000C
In the case of static friction if the downward force between
the surfaces is doubled then the friction will:

a) decrease by half
b) remain constant
c) increase by twice as much
d) be eliminated
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements is false?

a) kinetic friction is not affected by the body's speed

b) kinetic friction is greater than rolling friction
c) friction is affected by the relative roughness of the two
surfaces
d) kinetic friction is greater than static fiction
e) force of friction is not affected by the area of the
surfaces in contact
010100020021000E
The coefficient of friction is defined as:

a) the downward force on the two surfaces in contact

b) the force parallel to the surface required to start an
object moving
c) the reaction normal perpendicular to the surface
d) the force parallel to the surface required to keep an
object moving at a constant linear velocity
e) the ratio of the force required to move a body to the
normal reaction force

010100020021000A
Find the coefficient of friction between a 73 kg cubic box
measuring 3 m and a hardwood floor 16 m long and 20 m wide if
a total of 236 N is required to start the box moving.

a) 0.33
b) 36 N
c) 3.20
d) 3.03
e) 24.06 N

010100020021000D
Find the force required to start a 1 ton object moving along
a surface with a coefficient of friction of 0.62.

a) 620 N
b) 6.1 N
c) 9,810 N
d) 6,082.2 N
e) 15.822 kN

010100020021000A
Find the mass of the refrigerator which is just started
moving by a force of 6,350 N along a tile floor with a
coefficient of friction of 0.30.

a) 2,157.66 kg
b) 21.2 tonnes
c) 1,905 kg
d) 0.04 g
e) 194.19 kg

050500020093000
A block is held in contact with a horizontal surface with a
vertical force of #### N.

1) If a horizontal force of ### N just causes motion to

impend, calculate the coefficient of static friction.

2) If a horizontal force of ### N was required to keep the

block moving at a uniform velocity, what is the coefficient
of kinetic friction?
3) If a horizontal force of ### N is applied to the block and
causes motion to impend, what is the value of the friction
force between the surfaces in contact?

Answers (Round to 3 decimal places):

1) = --------------------

2) = --------------------

3) = -------------------- N
.SUBSTITUTIONS
NRFC(1000,9000,100)
STFF(100,550,50)
KNFF
RTFF
.SOLUTIONS
KNFF=0.9*STFF;
RTFF=0.8*STFF;
SFCF=STFF/NRFC;
KNCF=KNFF/NRFC;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",SFCF:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",KNCF:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",RTFF:3,.01

050500020021000
Calculate the mass of a block if a force of ## N is required
to keep it sliding on a horizontal surface. The coefficient
of friction is #.##. (Round to 3 decimal places)

ANSWER = ______________________ kg

.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRFC(10,30,1)
FRCF(0.1,0.5,0.01)
.SOLUTIONS
MASS=FRFC/FRCF/9.81;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",MASS:3,.01

050500020021000
The coefficient of friction between a block and a horizontal
surface is #.##. Determine the mass of the block if a force
of ### N is required to keep it sliding along the surface.
(Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ___________________ kg
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRCF(0.1,0.5,0.01)
FRFC(100,950,50)
.SOLUTIONS
MASS=FRFC/FRCF/9.81;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",MASS:3,.01
Stress and Strain
010100020021000B
The internal resistance developed to counteract an external
force is defined as

a) strain
b) stress
c) ultimate strength
d) load
e) deformation

010100020021000D
External tensile forces acting parallel but not in line
produces

a) tensile stress
b) compressive stress
c) working stress
d) shear stress
e) compressive strain

010100020021000D
The ratio between the ultimate strength and the allowable
stress is defined as

a) ultimate stress
b) maximum allowable load
c) working stress
d) safety factor
e) elastic limit

010100020021000E
A measure of the deformation in a member by a load is defined
as

a) safety factor
b) tensile stress
c) maximum load
d) working stress
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
The ability of a material to return to its original shape
after the force or load which caused the deformation is
removed is called

a) stiffness
b) plasticity
c) ductility
d) elasticity
e) toughness

010100020021000C
The ability of a material to resist penetration is called

a) elasticity
b) toughness
c) hardness
d) ductility
e) stiffness

010100020021000B
The ability of a material to break without much deformation
occurring before fracture is called

a) stiffness
b) brittleness
c) toughness
d) hardness
e) ductility

010100020021000D
The ability of a material to retain its deformed shape when
the load causing deformation is removed is called

a) stiffness
b) ductility
c) hardness
d) plasticity
e) elasticity

010100020021000A
A round tie bar in a frame work is subjected to a load of 65
kN. If the radius of the tie is 15 mm what will the stress
be in the tie?

a) 91,956 kPa
b) 367,821 kPa
c) 45.96 Pa
d) 22,989 kPa
e) 2,758 kPa

010100020021000E
A compressive load of 219 kN is resisted by a rectangular
strut which has one side measuring 83 mm. If the stress in
the strut is 164,909 kPa what is the length of the other side
of the strut?

a) 1.3 mm
b) 0.75 m
c) 9.07 m
d) 3.3 mm
e) 0.016 m

010100020021000B
A hole 3 cm in diameter is to be punched out of a steel plate
8 cm thick. The shear stress of the material is 670 GPa.
What load is required on the punch?
a) 4,735,509 GN

b) 5,051.6 MN

13
c) 1.6 * 10 N

d) 9,036 MN

e) 63,146 N

010100020021000B
A unit of stress is

a) mm/m
b) kPa
c) kg/sq cm
d) Nm
e) kg/m squared

010100020021000D
A titanium bar with a mass of 2 kg and a length of 3 m
shortens by 0.02 mm under a compressive load of 3,900 kN.
What will be the strain?

-3
a) 1.9 * 10

-3
b) 6.66 * 10

2
c) -1.9 * 10

d) -0.000006666

-3
e) -1.9 * 10

050500020021000
The ultimate strength of a round steel rod is ### MPa. If a
factor of safety of #.# is required, what is the maximum
permissible load for the rod if it has a diameter of #.# cm?

Answer = ____________________ kN (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
STRS(550,650,10)
SFCT(3,6,0.5)
DIAM(3,9,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
LOAD=STRS/SFCT*3.1415927*(DIAM/100)**2*1000/4;
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",LOAD:3,.01

050500020021000
What is the factor of safety for a steel hanger having an ultimate
strength of ### MPa and supporting a load of ##### N. The steel
hanger has a cross sectional area of #.# sq cm.

Answer = ____________________ (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
USTR(550,650,10)
LOAD(61000,90000,1000)
AREA(5,9.9,0.1)
.SOLUTIONS
SFCT=USTR*100/(LOAD/AREA);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",SFCT:3,.01

010100020021000C
What is the factor of safety for a steel hanger having an ultimate
strength of 70000 newtons per sq cm and supporting a load of
87500 N. The hanger has a cross sectional area of 5 sq cm.

a) 1.25
b) 6.25
c) 4
d) 8
e) .8

010100020021000A
If engineers require a material which would be able to be
stretched and reduced in cross section without breaking they
would choose a material with which of the following
properties?

a) ductility
b) brittleness
c) plasticity
d) toughness
e) elasticity

010100020021000C
Stiffness is defined as the ability of a material to:

a) return to its original shape after the load causing

deformation is removed
b) retain its deformed shape when the load causing the
deformation is removed
c) resist a change in shape and size when a load is applied
d) resist penetration
e) absorb energy before breaking

010100020021000E
The greatest load that can be applied to a material under its
design conditions is called

a) ultimate stress
b) elastic limit
c) allowable stress
d) factor of safety
e) maximum allowable load

010100020021000A
The __________ of a material is the maximum stress value that
the material can be subjected to and still return to its
original size and shape when the deforming load is removed.

a) elastic limit
b) maximum allowable load
c) allowable stress
d) ultimate stress
e) maximum allowable stress

Power Transmission
010100020021000B
Which of the following statements about belt drive systems is
false?

a) Linear speed on a point on each pulley will be the same

as the linear speed of the belt.
b) Tension in the bottom belt is always double that in the
top belt.
c) Belt driver pulleys move follower pulleys by means of
frictional force between the belt and the pulleys.
d) Rotational speed will be equal if the pulley diameters
are equal.
e) A belt system is 100% efficient if there is no slippage.

010100020021000C
When two pulleys of different diameters are connected by a
belt, the larger diameter pulley will turn __________ the
smaller diameter pulley.

a) the same speed as

b) faster than
c) slower than
d) in the opposite direction to
e) none of the above

010100020021000E
Which statement concerning belt trains is false?

a) Belt trains transmit less power than gear trains of

comparable size.
b) Belt trains are used to change speeds of pulleys.
c) Belt trains are used to change power transmissions of
belts.
d) Pulleys in a train all rotate in the same direction.
e) Trains are connected by a single belt.

010100020021000A
A gear wheel with 85 teeth rotates at 6,500 r/min and drives
another gear at 9,866 r/min. How many teeth does the driven
gear have?

a) 56
b) 129
c) 76
d) 85
e) 63

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about idler gears is true?

a) Reverses the gear wheel direction.

b) Creates slippage.
c) Changes the r/min of the driven gear.
d) Always results in increasing efficiency.
e) none of the above.

050500020021000
Two pulleys, one ## cm in diameter and the other ## cm in
diameter are connected by a belt. If the speed of the first
pulley is #### rpm, what is the speed of the second pulley?

Answer = ____________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSPL
SCPL(20,30,2)
RVLF
.SOLUTIONS
FSPL=SCPL*1.5;
RVLF=30*SCPL;
RVLS=RVLF*FSPL/SCPL;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",RVLS:3,.01

050500020021000
A ## cm diameter pulley turns at ### rpm and drives, by means of
a belt, another pulley at #### rpm. What is the diameter of the
driven pulley?

Answer = ____________________ cm (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSPL(40,60,2)
RVLF
RVLS
.SOLUTIONS
RVLF=16*FSPL;
RVLS=RVLF*2;
SCPL=FSPL*RVLF/RVLS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",SCPL:3,.01

050500020021000
A ## tooth gear turns at ### rpm and drives a ### tooth gear.
Calculate the rpm of the second gear.
Answer = __________________ rpm (Round to 3 decimal places)
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FSGR(12,30,2)
RVLF
SCGR
.SOLUTIONS
RVLF=5*FSGR;
SCGR=2.5*FSGR;
RVLS=RVLF*FSGR/SCGR;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",RVLS:3,.01

010100020021000B
A 28 tooth gear turns at 100 rpm and drives a 112 tooth gear.
What is the speed of the follower gear?

a) 400 rpm
b) 25 rpm
c) 31.36 rpm
d) 125.44 rpm
e) 4 rpm

010100020021000E
A pulley with a diameter of 50 cm is driven at 960 r/min.
What will be the linear speed in m/s of a point on the rim of the
pulley?

a) 150.8 m/s
b) 50.2 m/s
c) 2,500 m/s
d) 6.3 m/s
e) 25.2 m/s

010100020021000A
A pulley of diameter 2.6 m rotates at 107 r/min and drives a
follower pulley at 259 r/min. What is the diameter of the
follower pulley?

a) 1.07 m
b) 6.3 m
c) 0.93 m
d) 3.54 m
e) 5.20 m

010100020021000A
The tensions in the tight and slack side of a belt are 14000
N and 900 N respectively. If the power transmission is 655
kW what is the speed of the belt if there is no slippage?

a) 50 m/s
b) 43.96 m/s
c) 25.2 m/s
d) 0.05 m/s
e) 31.6 m/s
010100020021000C
In a drive belt system the input to the driver pulley is 265
kW and the output is 211 kW. What is the efficiency?

a) 121%
b) 93.3%
c) 79.6%
d) 82.4%
e) 75.8%

010100020021000E
The clearance that is necessary between teeth that have to
mesh is called

a) gap
b) play
c) lashback
d) clearance
e) backlash

Introduction to Thermodynamics
010100020021000C
The amount of heat to raise the temperature of a unit mass of
a substance 1 degree Celsius without changing the state of
the substance is defined as

a) latent heat
b) saturation temperature
c) specific heat
d) absolute zero
e) radiation

010100020021000A
The flow of heat from molecule to molecule within a substance
or from molecules of one body to those of another body in
direct contact with it is defined as

a) conduction
b) convection
c) specific heat
d) latent heat of fusion
e) absolute pressure

010100020021000B
Sensible heat

a) is the latent heat plus heat of evaporation

b) causes a rise in temperature
c) cannot be read on a thermometer
d) is the latent heat of fusion
e) does not exist in vapours

010100020021000A
Absolute pressure is the sum of __________ and __________
pressures.

a) gauge, atmospheric
b) standard, deviation
c) minimum, maximum
d) positive, negative
e) above, below

010100020021000C
__________ zero is the temperature at which all molecular
movement ceases.

a) Positive
b) Negative
c) Absolute
d) Minimum
e) Maximum

010100020021000D
__________ pressure is the pressure exerted by the earth's
atmosphere.

a) Absolute
b) Maximum
c) Minimum
d) Atmospheric
e) Standard

010100020021000B
__________ heat is heat that causes a change of state of a
substance without changing its temperature.

a) Sensible
b) Latent
c) Super
d) Intense
e) Saturated

010100020021000A
__________ heat is heat that causes a change in the
temperature of a substance without changing its state.

a) Sensible
b) Latent
c) Super
d) Intense
e) Saturated

010100020021000B
__________ steam is steam that is fully saturated with latent
and sensible heat and has no water particles present.

a) Wet saturated
b) Dry saturated
c) Super heated
d) Sensibly heated
e) Intensified

010100020021000C
__________ heat is the amount of heat required to raise the
temperature of a unit mass of a substance 1 degree Celsius
without changing the state of the substance.

a) Sensible
b) Latent
c) Specific
d) Super
e) Saturated

010100020021000D
Which of the following statements about the laws of
thermodynamics is false?

a) Heat and work are mutually convertible

b) Heat supplied = increase in internal energy + work done
c) Heat will flow from a hot substance to a colder substance
d) Refrigeration requires no external work supply
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
The first law of thermodynamics states that heat and work are

a) not convertible
b) mutually convertible
c) sometimes convertible
d) mildly convertible
e) mutually fusible

010100020021000D
In the first law of thermodynamics, heat supplied = increase
in internal energy + __________.

a) energy supplied
b) energy absorbed
c) work in
d) work done
e) work supplied

010100020021000E
The second law of thermodynamics states that unaided, heat
will only flow from __________.

a) a cold substance to a hotter substance

b) a warm substance to a hotter substance
c) a hot substance to a hotter substance
d) a cold substance to a colder substance
e) a hot substance to a colder substance

010100020021000B
In the second law of thermodynamics, if it is required to
transfer heat from a cold substance to a hotter substance (as
in refrigeration) then __________ must be supplied.
a) internal energy
b) external work
c) higher temperature
d) lower temperature
e) moderate temperature

010100020021000E
The metric absolute temperature at which all molecular motion
is said to completely cease is

a) -270 degrees C
b) 0 degrees C
c) 40 degrees C
d) -460 degrees R
e) 0 K

010100020021000A
Which of the following statements about heat is true?

a) If there is a temperature difference between the heat

source and a cooler object in contact with the source,
heat will be transferred to the cooler object.
b) Heat can be transferred from cold bodies to hot bodies
without using an external supply of work.
c) Specific heat is the same for every substance.
d) Specific heat capacity is the same for every state of
matter of the same substance.
e) 1 J is less than 1 Nm of work.

050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius to
degrees Fahrenheit (Round to 3 decimal places):

Answers:
o o
1) ### C = _______________ F
o o
2) ### C = _______________ F
o o
3) #### C = _______________ F
o o
4) #### C = _______________ F

.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRST(-10,99,1)
SCND(100,999,1)
THRD(1000,1500,1)
FRTH(1501,1800,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=9/5*FRST+32;
ANS2=9/5*SCND+32;
ANS3=9/5*THRD+32;
ANS4=9/5*FRTH+32;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01

050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius
to Kelvin (Round to 3 decimal places):

Answers:
o
1) ### C = _______________ K
o
2) ### C = _______________ K
o
3) #### C = _______________ K
o
4) #### C = _______________ K
.SUBSTITUTIONS
FRST(-20,100,1)
SCND(100,999,1)
THRD(1000,1500,1)
FRTH(1501,2000,1)
.SOLUTIONS
ANS1=FRST+273;
ANS2=SCND+273;
ANS3=THRD+273;
ANS4=FRTH+273;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",ANS3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",ANS4:3,.01

050500020084000
Convert the following from Kelvin to degrees Celsius (Round
the answers to 3 decimal places):

1) #### Kelvin = ___________________ degrees Celsius

2) #### Kelvin = ____________________ degrees Celsius

3) #### Kelvin = ____________________ degrees Celsius

4) #### Kelvin = ____________________ degrees Celsius

.SUBSTITUTIONS
K1(100,200,1)
K2(200,400,1)
K3(400,600,1)
K4(600,1400,1)
.SOLUTIONS
C1=K1-273;
C2=K2-273;
C3=K3-273;
C4=K4-273;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",C1:3,.01
"Answer 2 =",C2:3,.01
"Answer 3 =",C3:3,.01
"Answer 4 =",C4:3,.01

050500020084000
Convert the following temperatures from degrees Celsius to
kelvin (Round the answers to 3 decimal places):

1) #### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

2) #### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

3) #### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

4) #### degrees Celsius = ____________________ kelvin

.SUBSTITUTIONS
C1(-100,0,1)
C2(0,100,1)
C3(100,300,1)
C4(300,1200,1)
.SOLUTIONS
K1=C1+273;
K2=C2+273;
K3=C3+273;
K4=C4+273;
.RESULTS
"Degrees Kelvin:",K1:3,.01
"Degrees Kelvin:",K2:3,.01
"Degrees Kelvin:",K3:3,.01
"Degrees Kelvin:",K4:3,.01

010100020021000B
A bimetal thermometer consists of

a) a filament that is compared to the object being measured

b) two dissimilar metals welded together
c) two dissimilar wires connected to a battery
d) two copper wires connected together
e) two silver wires and a ground strap

050500020021000
Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of
### litres of water from ## to #### degrees Celsius.

Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(100,350,5)
T1(5,50,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(40*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*4.2*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01
010100020021000B
When the temperature of an object is raised, its increase in
area is proportional to its

a) initial length and final temperature

b) initial area and temperature rise
c) volume and initial temperature
d) initial length and temperature rise
e) colour and shape

050500020041000
Find the quantity of heat required, to raise the temperature
of ## litres of water from ## to #### degrees Celsius.

Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(2,30,1)
T1(5,25,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(75*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*4.2*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.005

010100020021000B
Find the quantity of heat required to raise the temperature
of 6.3 kg of glass from 6 degrees C to 210 degrees C if the
specific heat capacity of glass is 670 J/kg K.

a) 886.4 kJ
b) 861.2 kJ
c) 25.3 kJ
d) 911.7 kJ
e) 75.3 kJ

010100020021000B
If a 286 m steel bar is increased from 2 degrees C to 390
degrees C, how much does the bar expand? (The coefficient
of linear expansion of steel is 0.000012/degrees C).

a) 9.88 m
b) 1.33 m
c) 2.93 m
d) 7.23 m
e) 15.74 m

010100020021000C
Which of the following statements is true?

a) Water will only expand when its temperature is increased.

b) Liquids will not contract when their temperatures lower.
c) Coefficients of expansion for liquids change in value as
the temperature changes.
d) In general coefficients of expansion of solids are
greater than those of liquids.
e) Solids generally contract when their temperatures rise.

010100020021000D
When the temperature of an object is raised, its increase in
length is proportional to its

a) initial length and initial temperature

b) cross-sectional area and temperature
c) volume and temperature rise
d) initial length and temperature rise
e) elasticity and its ductility

050500020021000
Calculate the amount of expansion occurring when a steel rail
### metres in length is heated from ### to #### degrees Celsius.

Answer = ____________________ m (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(400,950,5)
T1(-50,-5,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(60*R);
T2=T1+TD;
E=TD*L*.000012;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",E:3,.01

010100020021000C
The coefficient of expansion of metals

a) is a constant for all non-ferrous metals

b) has the units "cm" per "m"
c) is greater for aluminum than steel
d) is the same for all metals
e) requires a component of latent heat

050500020021000
Calculate the amount of expansion occurring, when a steel pipe
### m long is heated from ## to #### degrees Celsius.

Answer = ____________________ m (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
L(10,500,5)
T1(5,95,5)
T2
R(1,5,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(100*R);
T2=T1+TD;
E=TD*L*.000012;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",E:3,.01

050500020021000
Calculate the heat required to raise the temperature of a
## kg block of cast iron from ## to #### degrees Celsius.

Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
M(5,95,5)
T1(5,95,5)
T2
R(1,9,1)
.SOLUTIONS
TD=(450*R);
T2=T1+TD;
H=TD*.544*M;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,.01

010100020021000B
The transfer of heat involving the movement of a fluid is
defined as

a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refrigeration
e) super heating

010100020021000C
The transfer of heat through emission of electromagnetic
waves is defined as

a) conduction
b) convection
c) radiation
d) refrigeration
e) molecular agitation

010100020021000A
Radiation from the furnace fire

a) travels in straight lines

b) is present in oil firing but not fuel gas firing
c) radiates through the superheater tube walls
d) radiates through the water in the water walls
e) requires a transfer medium

010100020021000B
Natural convection is a method of heat transfer where the movement
of the fluids is due solely to the

a) surface pressure
b) difference in densities
c) difference in heating time
d) gravitational differences
e) activity of the radiant rays
010100020021000C
The __________ method of heat transfer involves the flow of
heat from molecule to molecule within a substance or from the
molecules of one body to those of another body which is
directly in contact with the first body.

a) convection
b) expansion
c) conduction
d) contraction
e) radiation

010100020021000A
The transfer of heat by __________ involves the movement of a
fluid (a liquid or a gas).

a) convection
b) expansion
c) conduction
d) contraction
e) radiation

010100020021000E
__________ refers to the transmission of electromagnetic
waves.

a) Convection
b) Expansion
c) Conduction
d) Contraction
e) Radiation

Thermodynamics of Steam
010100020021000B
In Table I of the Steam Tables, the specific volume of steam
is in

a) column 1
b) column 4
c) column 3
d) column 5
e) column 6

010100020021000B
Columns 8, 9 and 10 of Table I of the steam tables deal with
which type of energy?

a) internal energy
b) enthalpy
c) entropy
d) specific energy
e) potential energy

010100020021000D
In column 9 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the
enthalpy (h ) found in that column is known as the
fg

a) sensible heat of fusion

b) latent heat of fusion
c) sensible heat of evaporation
d) latent heat of evaporation
e) sensible heat of enthalpy

010100020021000A
In column 8 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the
enthalpy (h ) found in that column is known as the
f

a) sensible heat
b) latent heat
c) sensible heat of fusion
d) latent heat of fusion
e) latent heat of evaporation

010100020021000C
In column 1 of Table 1 of the Steam Tables, the unit used for
pressure is in

a) Gpa
b) Mpa
c) kPa
d) Bars
e) Pa

010100020021000D
The unit used for specific volume in the Steam Tables is

3
a) m /kg

3
b) m /g

3
c) cm /kg

3
d) cm /g

3
e) mm /g

010100020021000C
In the Steam Tables, the unit used for hf, hfg, and hg is

a) J/kg
b) J/g
c) kJ/kg
d) kJ/g
e) MJ/kg

010100020021000B
In the Steam Tables, h in tables 1 and 2 is equal to
g

a) h - h
f fg

b) h + h
f fg

c) h x h
f fg

d) h /h
f fg

2 2
e) h + h
f fg

010100020021000D
How much energy is required to raise 63 kg of ice at 0
degrees C to saturated steam at 100 degrees C.
Specific heat capacity of water is 4.2 kJ/kg K.
Specific latent heat of ice is 335 kJ/kg.
Specific latent heat of steam is 2,257 kJ/kg.

a) 35,490 kJ
b) 21,775 kJ
c) 53,107 kJ
d) 189,756 kJ
e) 273,097 kJ

010100020021000C
Steam containing water particles in suspension is defined as

a) dry steam
b) theoretical steam
c) wet steam
d) latent heat of steam
e) superheated steam

010100020021000E
To avoid condensation loss in steam

a) steam is heated to saturation temperature

b) wet steam is used
c) steam pressure is increased
d) heat is transported via boiling water
e) super heated steam is used
010100020021000B
Superheated steam

a) is produced in the saturated steam drum

b) temperature is higher than the saturation temperature
c) is almost dry and contains very little moisture
d) cannot be used for soot blowers
e) must have its corresponding pressure increased

010100020021000D
Heat which brings about a change of state

a) can be sensed by a thermometer

b) is called sensible heat
c) causes a change of temperature
d) is called latent heat
e) is called expansive heat

010100020021000B
Sensible heat

a) is the sum of the latent heat plus heat of evaporation

b) causes a rise in temperature
c) cannot be read on a thermometer
d) is a sensible latent heat of fusion
e) cannot be removed from a solid

010100020021000C
Wet steam

a) contains only part of the sensible heat of the liquid

b) contains all the latent heat of vaporization
c) contains all the sensible heat of the liquid and only
part of the latent heat of vaporization
d) contains all the sensible and latent heat
e) cannot exist above atmospheric pressure

010100020021000E
The steam tables indicate the pressures units in

a) Newtons
b) kilonewtons
c) Newtonmetres
d) kilojoules
e) kilopascals

010100020021000E
How much heat will be required to convert 65 kg of water at
15 degrees C into saturated steam at 650 kPa?

a) 2,697.31 kJ
b) 2,760.3 kJ
c) 62.99 kJ
d) 282,329.29 kJ
e) 175,325 kJ
010100020021000B
What is the sensible heat of 2 kg of saturated steam at
1,100 kPa?

a) 5563.4 kJ
b) 1562.68 kJ
c) 2,781.7 kJ
d) 184.09 kJ
e) 781.34 kJ

010100020021000B
Find the sensible heat required to raise 16 kg of water at
0 degrees C to the boiling point at 900 kPa.

a) 596.12 kJ
b) 11,885.28 kJ
c) 742.83 kJ
d) 146.68 kJ
e) 6,752.31 kJ

010100020021000D
If steam at 375 kPa, having a dryness fraction of 96%, is
produced from saturated water at 375 kPa, what amount of heat
must be supplied per kilogram?

a) 2,626.18 kJ/kg
b) 2,140.8 kJ/kg
c) 2,048.45 kJ/kg
d) 2,055.17 kJ/kg
e) 2,000.4 kJ/kg

010100020021000E
How much heat must be supplied to 200 kg of water at 20
degrees C to make steam at 850 kPa which is 87% dry?

a) 2,039.4 kJ
b) 407,880 kJ
c) 1,774.28 kJ
d) 424,627.98 kJ
e) 484,507.6 kJ

010100020021000D
Which of the following is the saturation temperature at 600 kPa?

a) 160.58 degrees Celsius

b) 158.0 degrees Celsius
c) 158.5 degrees Celsius
d) 158.85 degrees Celsius
e) 701.3 degrees Celsius

140300020105000143.60 %-.08;2148.1 %-1.0;2766.4 %-2.0;742.83 %-3.0;150 %.01;

From the steam tables find the following:

1) saturation temperature at 400 kPa,

2) latent heat of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 350 kPa,
3) enthalpy of 1 kg of dry saturated steam at 750 kPa,
4) sensible heat of 1 kg of water at saturation temperature
and a pressure of 900 kPa,
5) the absolute pressure, if the gauge pressure is 48.7 kPa

Answers:
1) = ____________________ degrees Celsius

2) = ____________________ kJ/kg

3) = ____________________ kJ/kg

4) = ____________________ kJ/kg

5) = ____________________ kPa

140500020042000
Feedwater at a temperature of ### degrees Celsius is supplied
to a boiler operating at ##### kPa.

1) Calculate the sensible heat required, to raise one kg of

feedwater to the boiling point at that pressure.

2) Calculate the latent heat required per kg of feed water to

change the feed water to dry saturated steam at this pressure.

Answers:
1) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)

2) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
WTEM
PRES
NUM1(10,15,1)
NUM2(29,71,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM2;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,NUM1;
HFST=TABLE_1(9);
HFWT=TABLE_2(9);
HFGS=TABLE_1(10);
WTEM=TABLE_2(2);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ANS1=HFST-HFWT;
ANS2=HFGS;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.01

140500020021000
A boiler produces dry saturated steam at ##### kPa from feed
water at ### degrees Celsius. How much heat must be supplied
per kg of feedwater to convert it to steam?

Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
P
T
N1(33,69,1)
N2(21,31,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N1;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,N2;
HG=TABLE_1(11);
HF=TABLE_2(9);
P=TABLE_1(2);
T=TABLE_2(2);
H=HG-HF;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",H:3,0.01

140500020042000
Feedwater at ### degrees Celsius is supplied to a boiler
operating at ##### kPa.

1) How much sensible heat is required per kg of feedwater

to raise the temperature of the feedwater to the boiling
point at that pressure?

2) How much latent heat is required per kg of feedwater, to

convert it into dry saturated steam at this pressure?

Answers:
1) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)

2) = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
WTEM
PRES
NUM1(20,29,1)
NUM2(37,73,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM2;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,NUM1;
HFST=TABLE_1(9);
HFWT=TABLE_2(9);
HFGS=TABLE_1(10);
WTEM=TABLE_2(2);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ANS1=HFST-HFWT;
ANS2=HFGS;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",ANS1:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",ANS2:3,0.01

140500020021000
Determine the volume of #.# kg of dry saturated steam
at ##### kPa. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _____________________ cubic metres

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(18,70,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
SVLM=TABLE_1(5);
VOLM=MASS*SVLM/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VOLM:3,0.01

140500020021000
Determine the volume of #.# kg of dry saturated steam
at ##### kPa. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = _____________________ cubic metres

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(18,70,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
SVLM=TABLE_1(5);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
VOLM=MASS*SVLM/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",VOLM:3,0.01

140500020021000
Determine the enthalpy of #.# kg of water at ##### kPa.

Answer = _____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimals)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1.1,9.9,0.1)
PRES
NUM1(28,68,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=MASS*HF11;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ENTH:3,0.01

140500020021000
Determine the enthalpy of #.# kg of water at ### degrees
Celsius. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ kJ
.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(1,9.9,0.1)
TMPR
NUM1(11,24,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,17,NUM1;
TMPR=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=TABLE_1(9);
HEAT=ENTH*MASS;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",HEAT:3,.01

140500020084000
Determine the values for steam at ##### kPa, as:

1) sensible heat of the liquid

2) latent heat of vaporization
3) volume of 1 kg of dry saturated steam
4) saturation temperature

Answers (Round to 3 decimal places):

1) = ____________________ kJ/kg

2) = ____________________ kJ/kg

3) = ____________________ cu m

4) = ____________________ degrees Celsius

.SUBSTITUTIONS
P
N(50,68,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N;
HF=TABLE_1(9);
HFG=TABLE_1(10);
V=TABLE_1(5);
T=TABLE_1(3);
P=TABLE_1(2);
VOL=V/1000;
.RESULTS
"Answer 1 =",HF:3,0.01
"Answer 2 =",HFG:3,0.01
"Answer 3 =",VOL:3,0.01
"Answer 4 =",T:3,0.01

140500020021000
The total enthalpy of ## kg of steam at ##### kPa is
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness of the steam.

Answer = ____________________ (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
QLTY(0.7,0.85,0.01)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+QLTY*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",QLTY:3,0.01
140500020021000
The total enthalpy of ## kg of steam at ##### kPa is
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness fraction of the
steam.

Answer = ____________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
FRCT(70,85,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+(FRCT/100)*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer = ",FRCT:3,0.01

140500020021000
The total enthalpy of ## kg of steam at ##### kPa is
######.### kJ. Determine the dryness fraction of the
steam.

Answer = ____________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(10,20,1)
PRES
ENTH
NUM1(39,61,1)
FRCT(70,85,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
ENTH=MASS*(HF11+(FRCT/100)*HFG1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",FRCT:3,0.01

140500020041000
Steam enters a turbine at ##### kPa, dry and saturated.
The steam is exhausted from the turbine at ### kPa and
it is ##% wet. Determine the quantity of heat used
to do work in the turbine. (Round to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ kJ/kg

.SUBSTITUTIONS
PIN
POUT
WOUT(5,25,1)
N(40,60,1)
N1(18,22,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,N;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,11,N1;
PIN=TABLE_1(2);
POUT=TABLE_2(2);
HGI=TABLE_1(11);
HFO=TABLE_2(9);
HFGO=TABLE_2(10);
HIN=HGI;
QOUT=(100-WOUT)/100;
HOUT=HFO+QOUT*HFGO;
ANSW=HIN-HOUT;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",ANSW:3,0.01

140500020021000
Determine the quantity of heat required, to raise ##.# kg of
water at ### degrees Celsius, to saturated steam at ##### kPa
and ##.#% dry.

Answer = ____________________ kJ (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
MASS(3,20,0.1)
TEMP
PRES
FRCT(70,85,0.1)
NUM1(40,66,1)
NUM2(12,21,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,11,NUM1;
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,17,NUM2;
HF22=TABLE_2(9);
HFG2=TABLE_2(10);
HFW1=TABLE_1(9);
TEMP=TABLE_1(2);
PRES=TABLE_2(2);
HEAT=MASS*(HF22+HFG2*(FRCT/100)-HFW1);
.RESULTS
"Answer =",HEAT:3,0.01

140500020041000
During a boiler test, a boiler burned #######.# kg of coal
with a heating value of ##### kJ/kg. The boiler generated
##### kg of dry steam at ##### kPa at saturated condition,
from feedwater at ### degrees Celsius. Determine the boiler
efficiency.

Answer = ___________________ % (Round to 3 decimal places)

.SUBSTITUTIONS
CMAS
HTVL(20000,30000,1000)
SMAS(1000,9000,1000)
PRES
TEMP
EFCY(70,85,1)
NUM1(53,70,1)
NUM2(15,24,1)
.SOLUTIONS
DIM TABLE_1(21);TLOAD TABLE_1,11,NUM1;
DIM TABLE_2(21);TLOAD TABLE_2,17,NUM2;
PRES=TABLE_1(2);
TEMP=TABLE_2(2);
HF11=TABLE_1(9);
HFG1=TABLE_1(10);
HFW2=TABLE_2(9);
HOUT=SMAS*(HF11+HFG1-HFW2);
HTIN=HOUT/EFCY*100;
CMAS=HTIN/HTVL;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFCY:3,0.01

050500020021000
A boiler supplies ##### kJ of heat to the steam when
##### kJ of heat are supplied. Determine the boiler
efficiency. (Round the answer to 3 decimal places)

Answer = ____________________ %
.SUBSTITUTIONS
HOUT(20000,25000,100)
HIN(33000,34000,100)
.SOLUTIONS
EFF=(HOUT/HIN)*100;
.RESULTS
"Answer =",EFF:3,.01

Basic Concepts About Matter

010100020021000B
The state of matter observed for a particular substance is
dependent on its

a) size and shape

b) temperature and pressure
c) weight and length
d) time and distance
e) pressure and density

010100020021000E
Matter can best be defined as anything that

a) is visible with defined dimensions

b) is invisible
c) occupies space
d) has shape
e) has mass and occupies space

010100020021000D
__________ can be described in terms of its states, physical
and chemical properties.

a) An element
b) A compound
c) An atom
d) Matter
e) A molecule

010100020021000C
Matter can exist in __________ different physical states.

a) one
b) two
c) three
d) four
e) five

010100020021000B
Transformations between states and properties of a matter are

a) impossible
b) possible
c) difficult
d) infrequent
e) prohibitive

010100020021000C
An example of an extensive property of a substance is

a) colour
b) boiling point
c) mass
d) freezing point
e) density

010100020021000D
Which is not an example of a physical property of a
material?

a) its colour
b) its boiling point
c) its odour
d) its reactive properties
e) its density

010100020021000C
An example of a physical property is the

a) formation of smoke
b) rusting of steel
c) melting point of a substance
d) burning of coal
e) burning of wood

010100020021000D
An example of a chemical property is the
a) formation of steam from water
b) melting point of a metal
c) formation of ice from water
d) formation of rust on a metal
e) melting point of ice

010100020021000A
The density of water is __________ g/ml.

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 5

010100020021000B
An intensive (physical) property is one that is

a) dependent on the amount of matter

b) not dependent on the amount of matter
c) dependent on the volume
d) dependent on the amount of mass
e) dependent on the amount of pressure applied

010100020021000A
An extensive (physical) property is one that is

a) dependent on the amount of matter

b) not dependent on the amount of matter
c) dependent on the volume
d) dependent on the amount of mass
e) dependent on the amount of pressure applied

010100020021000A
Which of the following involves a chemical change?

a) burning natural gas

b) melting steel

c) sublimation of CO
2

d) evaporation of alcohol

e) the freezing of water

010100020021000E
Which is an example of a physical change in a material?

a) melting
b) evaporation
c) condensation
d) sublimation
e) all of the above

010100020021000A
When the composition of a substance is not altered but its
state is, this is called

a) physical change
b) chemical change
c) physical property
d) chemical property
e) homogeneous property

010100020021000B
An example of a physical change is

a) specific heat
b) melting of lead
c) burning of coal
d) rust on steel
e) burning of fuel oil

010100020021000D
When the composition of a substance is altered and as a
result it is no longer the same substance, this is called a

a) physical property
b) chemical property
c) physical change
d) chemical change
e) heterogeneous change

010100020021000C
An example of a chemical change is

a) melting of lead
b) steam to water
c) burning of coal
d) water to ice
e) heat of fusion

010100020021000D
If a substance goes through a process that changes its
composition so that it is no longer the same substance, then
it is said that the substance has undergone a

a) physical change
b) heterogeneous change
c) homogeneous change
d) chemical change
e) physical property

010100020021000E
Which of the following represent homogenous mixtures?

a) an emulsion of oil and water

b) flue gas
c) a mixture of sand and water
d) metal alloys
e) b and d

010100020021000C
Pure substances are

a) homogeneous and heterogeneous

b) homogeneous mixtures
c) compounds and elements
d) heterogeneous mixtures
e) varied in composition

010100020021000D
Any substance composed of two or more elements which are
combined chemically is a

a) chemical change
b) physical change
c) mixture
d) compound
e) molecule

010100020021000E
Any substance which cannot be broken down into other
substances or ingredients by chemical means is

a) a mixture
b) a compound
c) an electron
d) an atom
e) an element

010100020021000B
Any substance which consists of different elements or
compounds, or both is

a) an atom
b) a mixture
c) a solution
d) an element
e) a compound

010100020021000E
If there is a material that cannot be separated into any
other individual materials by any chemical means, then it
is called

a) an atom
b) a compound
c) a mixture
d) a molecule
e) an element

010100020021000C
A material made up of two or more elements in chemical
combination represents a

a) chemical change
b) physical change
c) compound
d) mixture
e) molecule

010100020021000B
Any material made up of distinct elements, compounds, or
both, not chemically combined with each other represents

a) an atomic structure
b) a mixture
c) a molecule
d) an element compound
e) a compound

010100020021000C
An example of a homogeneous mixture is

a) emulsion
b) sand and water
c) flue gas
d) soda water
e) acid

010100020021000A
An example of a homogeneous mixture of solid elements is

a) metal alloy
b) stainless steel
c) concrete
d) plastic
e) wood

010100020021000A
An example of a heterogeneous mixture is

a) sand and water

b) soda water
c) acid
d) flue gas
e) metal alloys

010100020021000E
An example of a heterogeneous mixture is

a) acid
b) flue gas
c) metal alloys
d) soda water
e) oil and water emulsion

010100020021000A
The Periodic Table lists all of the known
a) elements
b) mixtures
c) compounds
d) matter
e) substances

010100020021000C
The periodic table

a) arranges elements in equal numbers of columns and rows

b) arranges elements in descending order of atomic number
c) reflects the similar chemical properties of some elements
d) has sixteen distinct groups
e) provides no information besides the chemical symbol of
the element

Sketching Fundamentals
010100020021000C
In order for a sketch to look like the object it represents
we

a) draw the sketch to scale

b) use as much detail as possible
c) make the sketch in proportion
d) use a number of different views
e) use colours throughout the sketch

010100020021000E
Relative to sketching detail we should

a) use as much detail as possible

b) show detail with colour wherever possible
c) use at least three views of the object
d) show as many sectional views as possible
e) use as little detail as possible

010100020021000B
Foundation or centre lines of a sketch should be

a) very bold and extended

b) made at the very beginning of the sketch
c) made for one view and not extended to other views
d) broken lines, not continuous
e) always done to scale

010100020021000D
One of the most important features of the first lines drawn
in a sketch is that they

a) are to some scale

b) be very bold
c) must all show the object outline
d) show the main proportion of the sketch
e) should show at least three views for projection

010100020021000E
A flow diagram uses __________________ to represent equipment.

a) broken lines
b) thin lines
c) pictures
d) coloured dots
e) symbols

010100020021000D

_____________________ are used to indicate flow

direction in a flow diagram.

a) Symbols
b) Signs
c) Markers
d) Arrowheads
e) Points

010100020021000C
In a piping layout, __________ line sketches are used.

a) broken
b) thick
c) single
d) light
e) coloured

010100020021000A
In order to show all sides of an object being sketched the
number of views required is

a) six
b) three
c) one
d) two
e) eight

010100020021000C
When projecting views of an object, the key view is the

a) bottom view
b) right side view
c) front view
d) plan view
e) left side view

010100020021000B
The plan view of an object is actually the

a) front view
b) top view
c) left side view
d) right side view
e) bottom view

010100020021000E
The three most commonly used views in drawing are

a) front, back, side

b) front, back, bottom
c) front, bottom, side
d) front, plan, bottom
e) front, plan, side

010100020021000D
Lines used to indicate distance between two points on a
sketch are called

a) object lines
b) extension lines
c) centre lines
d) dimension lines
e) hidden lines

010100020021000A
An ellipse is the result of

a) viewing a circle obliquely

b) scribing an arc with a compass
c) using a protractor to scribe an arc
d) scribing an arc of 360 degrees
e) cutting round bar-stock at 90 degrees

010100020021000D
A protractor is used to

a) measure circles
b) scribe arcs
c) form ellipses
d) measure angles
e) replace tri-squares

010100020021000B
A drawing instrument commonly used to draw parallel lines is
the

a) protractor
b) triangle
c) compass
d) rule
e) scribe

010100020021000D
The vertex is otherwise known as

a) a 30, 60 degree triangle

b) any angle formed by two lines
c) the starting point of an ellipse
d) the point of intersection of two lines
e) the plan view of an object

010100020021000B
A pentagon has ______________ sides.

a) ten
b) five
c) six
d) eight
e) more than eight

010100020021000A
An octagon has _____________ sides.

a) eight
b) six
c) five
d) ten
e) more than ten

010100020021000A
A sketch section is used to show

a) a necessary detail
b) a particular view of an object
c) the scale of a sketch
d) the material of construction
e) an actual dimension of the sketch

010100020021000E
To show materials of construction in a sketch we can use

a) colour coding as per the NFPA

b) shading
c) cross-hatching but not hatching
d) AS colour coding
e) section lining

010100020021000C
Section lines used to indicate specific construction material
should generally be drawn at an angle of

a) 90 degrees
b) 30 degrees
c) 45 degrees
d) 60 degrees
e) 15 degrees

010100020021000A
The body responsible for standardizing symbols used to
indicate materials of construction in a sketch is the

a) American Standards Association

b) ANSI
c) ISO
d) ASME
e) Canadian Standards Association

Writing Fundamentals I - Sentences

010100020021000B
When a sentence is easy to understand at its first reading,
we can say it has good

a) punctuation
b) clarity
c) conciseness
d) correctness
e) fragmentation

010100020021000C
The term given to using the minimum number of words to
express an idea is

a) predication
b) clarity
c) conciseness
d) correctness
e) agreement

010100020021000A
A sentence is a complete thought and what we say about the
subject is called the

a) predicate
b) sentence fragment
c) antecedent
d) conjunction
e) sentence fusion

010100020021000D
Sentences unable to express a complete thought, otherwise
known as a __________ sentence, are to be avoided.

a) possessive
b) partial
c) run-on
d) fragmented
e) confused

010100020021000E
When two or more complete thoughts are punctuated into one
sentence the sentence is known as a

a) fragmented sentence
b) partial sentence
c) possessive sentence
d) confused sentence
e) run-on or fused sentence

010100020021000D
The part of a sentence which must agree with its antecedent
in number, gender or person is the

a) subject
b) antecedent
c) verb
d) pronoun
e) adjective

010100020021000C
If the subject of a sentence is singular and the verb is
plural, we have what is known as a

a) partial sentence
b) run-on sentence
c) lack of agreement
d) confused sentence
e) fragmented sentence

010100020021000A
A more forceful and concise voice term is

a) active
b) subjective
c) possessive
d) responsive
e) passive

010100020021000D
When we wish to avoid blaming a person we should use

a) an active voice sentence

b) a recessive voice sentence
c) an aggressive voice sentence
d) a passive voice sentence
e) a neutral sentence

010100020021000C
Words which refer to generalizations, physical objects and
concepts are known as

a) abstract words
b) vague words
c) concrete words
d) generalization words
e) passive words

010100020021000B
An ideal sentence should be approximately

a) 10 to 15 words long
b) 15 to 20 words long
c) 25 to 30 words long
d) 5 to 10 words long
e) 30 to 35 words long

010100020021000E
Choose the word below which is the correct representation of a
possession word.

a) you're
b) whose
c) they're
d) it's
e) anybody's

010100020021000B
Words which a computer cannot spell-check are

a) antonyms
b) homonyms
c) synonyms
d) pseudonyms
e) harmonyms

010100020021000C
A punctuation mark not used with pronouns is the

a) colon
b) semi-colon
c) apostrophe
d) hyphen
e) comma

010100020021000A
A noun which means "rule" or "law" is

a) principle
b) debt
c) principal
d) predicate
e) mandate

010100020021000B
A punctuation mark which separates complete thoughts in a
sentence is the

a) hyphen
b) semi-colon
c) colon
d) period
e) comma

010100020021000A
When introducing formal lists in a report, we normally use a

a) colon
b) hyphen
c) double dash
d) semi-colon
e) semi-colon and comma

Writing Fundamentals II - Paragraphs

010100020021000B
A good technical paragraph will contain approximately

a) two to four sentences

b) four to seven sentences
c) seven to twelve sentences
d) twelve to fifteen sentences
e) fifteen to twenty sentences

010100020021000B
Customarily, all good paragraphs have a

a) clincher sentence
b) key sentence
c) spatial opening
d) introductory paragraph
e) summary sentence

010100020021000C
When key information is placed at the beginning of a
paragraph the reader may

a) glean all possible information from the first sentence

b) be required to read all remaining sentences
c) read more efficiently
d) ignore the information contained in the paragraph
e) not have to make decisions about what is important

010100020021000E
A paragraph development pattern which may be illustrated by a
diamond shape will have

a) a large number of sentences

b) spatial content
c) a chronological development pattern
d) cellular content
e) a clincher sentence

010100020021000B
When paragraph sentences all relate to the same key idea we
say the paragraph has

a) coherence
b) unity
c) configuration
d) parallel structure
e) repetition
010100020021000A
If paragraph ideas are arranged in a logical, orderly
sequence, the paragraph will be

a) coherent
b) spatial
c) undeveloped
d) parallel in structure
e) transitional

010100020021000D
Words used to improve the coherence of a paragraph are
termed

a) adjectives
b) repetitives
c) conjunctives
d) transitions
e) prepositions

010100020021000E
Of the four methods used to achieve paragraph coherence, the
most complex is the use of

a) transitional expressions
b) pronouns
c) repetition
d) comparison and contrast
e) parallel structure

010100020021000A
The five W's and H used in an introductory paragraph answer
what is commonly called

a) the journalistic questions

b) paragraph development
c) paragraph conclusion
d) paragraph chronology
e) article purpose

010100020021000C
The scope, origin and purpose of a report should be covered

a) in the opening paragraph conclusion

b) in an opening "reference"
c) within the opening paragraph
d) by a summary
e) by a preface

010100020021000A
One difference between an essay and a technical report is

a) very few readers will read the complete report

b) essays tend to have a greater variety of readers
c) authoring a report is easier than authoring an essay
d) the essay has much more specific detail
e) a report is of greater length

010100020021000E
An acronym used in paragraph development is

a) NFPA
b) CAODC
c) TOPIC
d) SCOPE
e) RENNS

010100020021000C
The five methods of paragraph development are

a) spatial, comparison, process, reasons, and chronological

b) contrast, examples, process, comparison, and reasons
c) process, reasons & examples, contrast & comparison,
spatial, and chronological
d) renns, reasons, process, comparison, and contrast
e) deductive, inductive, process, introductory, and spatial

010100020021000A
Positioning of places or objects during paragraph development
is termed

a) spatial
b) reasons and examples
c) comparison
d) chronology
e) contrast

010100020021000C
Paragraph development involving similarities and differences
between objects, people or ideas is

a) deductive
b) process
c) comparison and contrast
d) inductive
e) reasons and examples

010100020021000C
When developing a paragraph using contrast and comparison,
the similarities and differences should be

a) at least five of each

b) at least two of each
c) at least three of each
d) not more than six of each
e) not more than four of each

010100020021000B
When writing a paragraph on how to make or do something, the
development is called

a) constructive development
b) process development
c) instructive development
d) illustrative development
e) spatial development

Writing Memos
010100020021000B
The three possible purposes for writing a memo are recording,
acting, and

a) requesting
b) informing
c) explaining
d) scheduling
e) instructing

010100020021000D
Memos are organized effectively for the benefit of the

a) Alberta Boiler Safety Council

b) Plant manager
c) creator of the memo
d) reader
e) Occupational Health and Safety Committee

010100020021000B
Memo format is used in written communication

a) to present a recommendation or request an action

b) for short correspondence between members within an
organization
c) to convey the year's activities and how the department
met its goals
d) to order parts for repairing the office machines
e) as a method of initiating preventive maintenance

010100020021000E
A standard memo has a number of main parts or components, the
number being

a) 5
b) 4
c) 7
d) 3
e) 9

010100020021000A
The most important part of a memo is the

a) body
b) subject line
c) receiver identification
d) sender identification
e) organization identification

010100020021000C
Which of the following is an advantage of using a memo?

a) It is easy to write.
b) It is distributed quickly.
c) It provides a written record.
d) It is easy to file.
e) It is very informal.

010100020021000C
The part of a memo which identifies the content and purpose
of a memo is the

a) body
b) introduction
c) subject line
d) salutation
e) heading

010100020021000B
The subject line should include

a) the main idea of the memo expressed in a sentence

b) the main subject and purpose of the memo expressed in a
phrase
c) the purpose of the memo expressed as a complete sentence
d) the name of the receiver
e) the date the memo was written

010100020021000A
Memos that convey routine messages should begin with

a) the main point

b) a neutral statement
c) an attention getter
d) a question
e) a reference

010100020021000B
When organizing a memo, they should follow a clear middle,
ending, and

a) introduction
b) beginning
c) salutation
d) reference
e) purpose

010100020021000E
A memo writer should close his memo by inviting questions
and

a) thanking the receiver for his time

b) requesting a response by some due date or time
c) ending with a question
d) always copying another person
e) leaving a contact number

010100020021000C
The content of effective memos is written

a) in paragraphs
b) in lists
c) in paragraphs and lists
d) in telegraphic style
e) in point form

010100020021000C
The middle of a memo provides the

a) objectives
b) expected action
c) specifics of the topic
d) recommendation
e) purpose

010100020021000E
Often a memo writer does not spend enough time thinking about
the reader, the message, and

a) the length of the memo

b) the purpose of the memo
c) the impact of the memo
d) the importance of the memo
e) his/her interaction with the reader

010100020021000D
The first step in memo writing is

a) deciding who the memo should be directed to

b) establishing the length of the memo
c) deciding who should receive copies of the memo
d) deciding the main purpose of the memo
e) estimating the costs involved

010100020021000A
It is important that a memo

a) be adapted to the reader

b) simply arouses curiosity
c) not be considered as the final document
d) contain all the necessary details
e) be copied to someone else besides the recipient

010100020021000E
When using memo content headings, the number of lines left
above the heading should be
a) two
b) none
c) four
d) five
e) three

010100020021000C
Visual cues such as bolding and underlining will make a memo
format

a) easier to understand
b) white space more effective
c) more visible to the reader
d) easier to follow
e) have more impact

010100020021000A
Memo white space

a) separates information thereby improving readability

b) should be minimized
c) makes the memo more intimidating
d) will necessitate longer paragraphs
e) does not affect memo purpose

010100020021000E
When the points in a memo list are sequential

a) closed bullets should be used

b) open bullets should be used
c) asterisks should be used
d) hyphens should be used
e) numbers should be used

010100020021000B
A memo paragraph should not exceed

a) three to four lines

b) eight to ten lines
c) five to eight lines
d) twelve lines
e) five lines

010100020021000C
Memo "rivers of white" are

a) appealing to readers
b) the result of unjustified margins
c) spaces between words
d) difficult to eliminate
e) the same as ragged margins

010100020021000E
Which of the following headings is acceptable in a report?

a) Attention
b) Body
c) Discussion
d) Theory
e) Introduction

010100020021000C
Which sentence is parallel in construction?

a) He was a good surveyor, but very poor at keeping notes.

b) He was a good surveyor, but very poor at notes.
c) He was a good surveyor, but a poor note keeper.
d) He was good at surveying, but poor at notes.
e) He was a good surveyor, but not very good at keeping
notes.

Industrial Legislation
010100020021000C
The first Canadian province to enact boiler and pressure
vessel legislation was

a) Ontario
b) Alberta
c) Quebec
d) Manitoba
e) Newfoundland

010100020021000A
A body which was formed in 1919 for the promotion of safety
and uniformity in the construction, installation, and
inspection of boilers and pressure vessels was the

a) National Board of Boiler and Pressure Vessel Inspectors

b) Underwriter Laboratories Canada
c) ASME
d) CSA
e) NFPA

010100020021000C
The purpose of the Safety Codes Act and Engineer's
Regulations is to

a) help control the power plant personnel

b) help plants operating at high efficiency
c) ensure safe installation and operation of power plants
d) ensure optimum performance of any boiler operating
e) ensure proper examinations are conducted

010100020021000B
The main purpose of the Safety Codes Act is

a) the promotion of efficient combustion

b) the promotion for safety of life and property
c) the prevention of air pollution
d) to promote efficient boiler operation
e) to promote qualified training for operators

010100020021000E
The Act and Regulations do not apply to

a) a heating plant having a boiler rating of 20 kW or more

b) a power plant having a boiler rating of 20 kW or less
c) a heating plant having a rating of 2,500 kW or more
d) a heating plant having a boiler rating of 30 kW or less
e) a power plant having a boiler rating of 10 kW or less

010100020021000E
The code that regulates mechanical refrigeration is

a) ASME Section I
b) ASME Section VII
c) ASME Section IV
d) CSA B-51
e) CSA B-52

010100020021000C
Relative to boilers and pressure vessels, a code which has
not been adopted by all the provinces is

a) ASME I through IX
b) CSA B51
c) NFPA
d) ANSI B.31.5
e) CSA B52

010100020021000A
When a fitting is to be registered within a jurisdiction

a) an application must be made to the Chief Inspector

b) drawings must be submitted to the ASME
c) the manufacturer need not have a quality control program
in place
d) application fees will be waived
e) the CSA must approve the design

010100020021000C
The province of Alberta currently has various certificates of
competency relative to Power Engineering and boiler
operation, the number being

a) 4
b) 6
c) 8
d) 10
e) 12

010100020021000D
Once you have taken over a shift in a high pressure boiler
plant, you may leave the boiler unattended for:

a) 4 hours
b) the time specified in the union agreement
c) 40 minutes
d) no period of time
e) 15 minute intervals

010100020021000B
The principal reason you should keep a boiler plant log book
or log sheet is to

a) satisfy the Boiler Inspector

b) provide a record of boiler operation and maintenance
c) provide the operator with an alibi when an accident
occurs
d) provide proof that the operator visited the boiler room
at the time stated
e) satisfy the chief engineer

010100020021000A
A Fourth Class Engineer's Certificate of Competency qualifies
the holder to take charge of a power plant not exceeding

a) 1,000 kW
b) 100 kW
c) 500 kW
d) 2,500 kW
e) 5,000 kW

010100020021000C
A fitting as defined in the Act means

a) a stack
b) a fan
c) a gauge glass
d) a feedwater regulator
e) a pump

010100020021000D
After an initial inspection of a boiler or pressure vessel,
an Alberta identification number preceded by the letter "A"
in a __________, shall be stamped on the boiler or pressure
vessel.

a) square
b) rectangle
c) octagon
d) circle
e) hexagon

010100020021000E
A candidate for a welder's performance qualification card

a) must have a high school diploma

b) must have successfully completed a vocational course
c) need not be able to write
d) requires at least three years practical experience as a
welder
e) must first pass a performance qualification test

010100020021000E
A welder Performance Qualification test

a) may result in the destruction of completed test coupons

b) will last the lifetime of the welder, if passed
c) is usually not required by welders working on boilers and
pressure vessels
d) is often the most expensive of all examinations,
inspections, or both
e) must be completed before the welder obtains his or her
performance qualification card

010100020021000B
When applying to write a certificate of qualification
examination the candidate, when applicable, may have to

a) attend a teaching institute as a full-time day student

b) be in possession of the next lower class of certificate
c) enclose an examination fee of at least $100.00
d) pass a medical examination
e) pass both a written and an oral examination

010100020021000B
Expected conduct during an examination for a certificate of
competency is stated in

a) CSA B51
b) the Engineers' Regulations of Alberta
c) Alberta's Safety Codes Act
d) CSA B52
e) the NFPA

010100020021000D
Definitions such as shift engineer, chief engineer, and
fireman are found in

a) Alberta's Safety Codes Act

b) the ASME code Section VIII
c) CSA B51
d) Alberta's Engineers' Regulations
e) municipal codes

010100020021000B
Heating boiler means

a) a boiler where steam is produced at a pressure greater

than 103 kPa
b) a boiler where steam is produced at a pressure of 103 kPa
or less
c) a boiler where water is heated to a pressure exceeding
1,100 kPa and a temperature of 121 degrees Celsius
d) a boiler in which only hot water is produced
e) a boiler which does not require a sight glass

010100020021000A
R-11 refrigerant belongs to the following group of
refrigerants:

a) Group A1
b) Group A2
c) Group A3
d) Group B1
e) Group B2

WHMIS - Part I - Classification of Controlled Products

010100020021000C
Pan-Canadian law means jurisdiction

a) in all areas of the country except municipalities

b) in off-shore areas only
c) in all provinces and territories
d) over federal areas only
e) in foreign countries

010100020021000A
Displaying an appropriate hazard symbol is

a) an important part of the supplier label

b) the responsibility of the employee
c) done only after a decanting process
d) necessary during transportation only
e) necessary no matter how small the quantity

010100020021000D
The final component of the WHMIS system is

a) the supplier label

b) an MSDS
c) a workplace label
d) employee training
e) a decanting procedure

010100020021000A
A controlled product which is exempt from WHMIS would be

a) materials regulated under the Pest Control Products Act

b) a compressed gas having a critical temperature of less
than 50 degrees C
c) any liquid having a flash point of less than 37.8 degrees
C
d) any product not under control of the TDG Act
e) a product prone to spontaneous combustion

010100020021000B
The application of WHMIS is primarily governed by the
a) Occupational Safety and Health Admin (OSHA)
b) Controlled Products Regulation (CPR)
c) American National Standards Institute (ANSI)
d) Hazardous Products Act (HPA)
e) Canadian Centre for Occupational Health and Safety
(CC OHS)

010100020021000E
WHMIS contains three basic components:

1. employee training
2. governing legislation
3. confidentiality of information
4. supplier and workplace labels
5. material safety data sheets

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 1, 4, 5

010100020021000A
Fully exempted materials from the controlled products
regulation include:

1. decanted products
2. tobacco and tobacco products
3. wood and wood products
4. explosives
5. manufactured articles

a) 2, 3, 5
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 3, 4, 5

010100020021000C
Controlled products are not covered under WHIMIS regulations
when subject to

a) Hazardous Materials Information Review Regulation (HMIRR)

b) Controlled Products Regulation (CPR)
c) Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulation (TDGR)
d) Hazardous Products Act (HPA)
e) Ingredient Disclosure List Regulation (IDLR)

010100020021000B
The Material Safety Data Sheet is supplied by the

a) Occupational Health and Safety Committee

b) supplier of the controlled product
c) Federal Government
d) plant supervisor
e) person using the controlled product
010100020021000D
Whether or not a product is deemed to be a controlled product
is determined by the

a) Ingredient Disclosure List

b) Transportation of Dangerous Goods Regulation
c) Hazardous Materials Information Review Regulation
d) Hazardous Products Act / Controlled Products Regulation
e) Occupational Health and Safety Committee

010100020021000A
According to WHMIS Legislation, hazardous waste requires:

1. identification
2. marking
3. worker education
4. specific supplier labels
5. MSDS

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 4, 5
d) 2, 4, 5
e) 3, 4, 5

010100020021000E
Infectious material is a controlled product of Class

a) B
b) A
c) C
d) F
e) D

010100020021000C
A Class "A" product would be

a) a liquid with a flash point of less than 37.8 degrees C

b) a solid which ignites readily and burns with a
self-sustaining flame
c) a product which is normally a gas below 50 degrees C
d) any dangerous goods Classed as 4.1 under IDG Regulations
e) dibenzoyl peroxide

010100020021000B
An example of a Class "C" oxidizing material would be

a) charcoal starter cubes

b) butyl hydroperoxide
c) calcium carbide
d) sodium cyanide
e) hydrazine

010100020021000E
Along with the six classes of controlled products there are
__________ related WHIMS hazard symbols.

a) 6
b) 3
c) 9
d) 7
e) 8

010100020021000E
A Class "B" Division 5 hazardous material would be

a) gasoline
b) diesel fuel
c) reactive flammables
d) compressed hydrogen
e) flammable aerosol

010100020021000B
Class D controlled products has two Divisions which are
subdivided because of their

a) flammability
b) toxicity
c) explosiveness
d) oxidizing abilities
e) reactivity

010100020021000B
The common way of expressing corrosiveness is

a) a neutralising number
b) pH
c) alkalinity
d) acidity
e) turbidity

010100020021000D
Sulphuric acid, such as found in a car battery, is a strong
acid with a pH value near to the value

a) 7
b) 9
c) 14
d) 0
e) 8

010100020021000A
Under Division 3, Class D, Biohazardous Infectious Materials,
risk Group I is the __________ risk group.

a) low
b) moderate
c) high
d) very high
e) non

010100020021000C
To be classified as a flammable liquid it must have a flash
point of

a) more than 37.8 degrees C

b) less than 50 degrees C
c) less than 37.8 degrees C
d) more than 50 degrees C
e) less than 21 degrees C

010100020021000B
The term LC refers to a
50

a) lethal dose which results in death of 50% of the test

population
b) lethal concentration which resulted in death of 50% of
the test population
c) lethal concentration diluted to half strength and
supplied to the test population
d) legal exposure in which 50% of the test population
survived
e) legal concentration in which 50% of the test population
survived

WHMIS - Part II - Labelling of Controlled Products

010100020021000D
Supplier labels are normally

a) square
b) colour coded
c) bordered with a solid line
d) prepared by the manufacturer of the product
e) either French or English, not both

010100020021000C
The product identifier is taken to mean

a) the supplier list of risks associated with a particular

product
b) a complete list of contents in the product
c) the actual product name, code, or brand name
d) the actual product uses
e) the actual manufacturer of the product

010100020021000B
Who must label the packages containing controlled products?

a) the industrial hygienist

b) the supplier of the products
c) any member of the Occupational Health and Safety
Committee
d) the consignee (receiver of the goods)
e) the plant owner

010100020021000A
The distinct WHMIS border is required on

a) the supplier label

b) the worksite label
c) all decanted controlled products
d) controlled products less than 10 kg
e) the material safety data sheet

010100020021000C
A workplace label

a) must have a hatched border

b) is always red in colour
c) is almost always required when decanting occurs
d) need show only risk phrases
e) consists of two main parts

010100020021000C
Correct use of a workplace label is mainly the responsibility
of

a) the employer
b) the transporter
c) the employee
d) plant safety committee
e) the end user

010100020021000D
The workplace label requires identification in these specific
areas:

1. reference to MSDS
2. WHMIS hazard symbols
3. basic risk phrase
4. product identifier
5. distinctive hatched border

a) 1, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 4, 5

010100020021000B
Relative to graphics, a supplier label must

a) be square
b) be proportional to the graphics
c) show the graphics in colour
d) have the graphics covering at least 60% of the label
e) be in landscape format
010100020021000D
The first indicator of a product's hazard is the

a) MSDS
b) workplace label
c) colour of the container
d) supplier label
e) supplier identifier

010100020021000A
A supplier label can

a) be replaced by a workplace label

b) have a solid border at certain times
c) show no more than three symbols
d) be removed at any time
e) never be rectangular

010100020021000B
On first sight, one means of identifying that a WHMIS
legislated controlled product is present in a supplier's
container is the

a) hazard signs attached to the container

b) rectangular hatched border surrounding specific
information about the product
c) distinctive WHMIS hazard symbols enclosed in a bold solid
rectangular border
d) square hatched border containing hazard symbols
e) bold statement referring to the material safety data
sheet

010100020021000E
Which are the 3 immediate warning signs on the supplier
label?

1. high risk phrases

2. the hazard symbol for acute toxicity
3. the distinct WHMIS border
4. the product identification
5. the hazard symbol for corrosive materials

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 2, 3, 5

010100020021000D
Supplier labels normally must contain information in

a) 9 specific areas
b) 8 specific areas
c) 4 specific areas
d) 7 specific areas
e) 3 specific areas
010100020021000C
Colour coding in the workplace can be used and colours must
be

a) as per WHMIS colour stipulations

b) as per NFPA colour stipulations
c) any colour as long as they are fully understood by the
workers
d) according to CSA stipulations
e) relative to the original container colour

010100020021000B
During manufacture of a controlled product which is slated
for export, the first WHMIS item covered would be

a) container colour
b) a workplace label attachment
c) a supplier label attachment
d) an MSDS attachment
e) an export permit

010100020021000C
To comply with WHMIS legislation, supplier labels must be
provided in

a) English only
b) French and English on the same label
c) French and English on the same label or both a French and
English version separately
d) the language of majority at the worksite
e) French and English on separate labels

010100020021000A
As an exception, products at the workplace destined for
export require

a) a workplace label only

b) a supplier label only
c) no labels since they fall under TDG
d) both a workplace label and a supplier label
e) a material safety data sheet

010100020021000E
Which of the following is a risk phrase?

a) keep in a cool place

b) use only in properly ventilated area
c) wear eye protection
d) avoid contact with eyes
e) highly flammable

010100020021000A
When bulk shipments are made, the product hazard information
can be sent to the purchaser
a) in writing
b) on a workplace label
c) on the Bill of Lading
d) by word of mouth
e) by telephone

010100020021000E
The colour(s) which is/are reserved for explosives and not
used on WHMIS symbols is/are

a) green/white
b) yellow
c) red
d) blue
e) orange

010100020021000D
The labelling requirements for a 1 litre container of
controlled product for use by one worker during a shift are

a) a worksite label containing 3 necessary elements

b) no label required
c) hazardous symbols only
d) a clear identifier or product ID
e) reference to the MSDS

010100020021000E
If an actual supplier label cannot readily be affixed to a
container of a controlled product, such as a very small vial
or cylinder, a _________ may be used on the container
instead.

a) red mark
b) black ribbon
c) letter X
d) cross-hatched line
e) tag

WHMIS - Part III - Material Safety Data Sheets

010100020021000D
An MSDS consists of a number of basic areas, the number
being

a) 6
b) 5
c) 12
d) 9
e) 7

010100020021000B
A controlled product may enter the body by ingestion,
inhalation and

a) through an ear
b) through the skin
c) tract sensitization
d) synergistically
e) through dead cells such as hair, nails, etc.

010100020021000E
Propane has a vapour density of

a) 1.0 and will rise in air

b) 0.6 and will rise in air
c) 1.6 and will rise in air
d) 0.6 and will fall in air
e) 1.6 and will fall in air

010100020021000B
The LFL and UFL of natural gas are

a) 5 and 10 percent
b) 2 and 7 percent
c) 3 and 8 percent
d) 20 and 27 percent
e) 9 and 38 percent

010100020021000D
An MSDS must be updated

a) annually
b) every 5 years
c) at every product shipment
d) every time there is a major change or regardless every 3
years
e) every 3 years

010100020021000A
Acute toxicity is best described by the term

a) immediately dangerous materials

b) substances that have chronic effects on a worker's health
c) toxicity caused by bacteria and viruses
d) materials whose effects are not readily noticeable until
years after exposure
e) poisonous products entering into the body by ingestion

010100020021000E
Items disclosed on the MSDS under physical data include:

1. flash point
2. boiling point
3. auto ignition temperature
4. pH
5. hazardous decomposition products
6. degree of skin irritation

a) 1, 3, 5, 6
b) 4, 5, 6
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 4
e) 2, 4

010100020021000A
Which of the following is correct?

a) All areas of the MSDS must be completed

b) MSDS must be at least 3 pages long
c) Only six areas must be completed
d) MSDS must be on a very specific form
e) Only the areas corresponding to the hazard symbols need
be completed

010100020021000A
A controlled product of LD of 10 mg/kg when compared to an
50
LD of 60 mg/kg is
50

a) more lethal
b) more flammable
c) less lethal
d) less flammable
e) less reactive

010100020021000D
The OEL of H S is
2

a) 100 ppm
b) 30 degrees C
c) 30 minutes
d) 10 ppm
e) 15 minutes

010100020021000D
Which of the following poses the greatest danger?

a) LD of 1,400 mg/kg of body weight

50

b) LD of 7 mg/kg of body weight

50

c) LD of 20 mg/kg of body weight

50

d) LD of 0.1 mg/kg of body weight

50

e) LD of 1,401 mg/kg of body weight

50

010100020021000C
For products to burn they must first be in the __________
state.
a) solid
b) semi-solid
c) vapour
d) liquid
e) semi-liquid

010100020021000D
Flammable liquids and gases have very specific ranges over
which they will burn if mixed with

a) another flammable liquid

b) natural gas
c) diesel fuel
d) air
e) hydrogen sulphide

010100020021000A
The term "respiratory tract sensitizer" relates to

a) toxicological properties
b) physical data
c) reactivity data
d) preventive measures
e) hazardous ingredients

010100020021000B
Training programs must be evaluated

a) semi-annually
b) annually
c) bi-annually
d) every three years
e) quarterly

010100020021000C
Proof of a successful controlled products program is

a) workers having certificates of qualification

b) workers having seminar/course diplomas
c) workers working safely and understanding controlled
products
d) an in-place safety policy
e) records of safety audits

010100020021000D
The main purpose of the HMIRA is

a) ensuring facility MSDS are kept up to date

b) keeping the CAS current
c) producing items for the IDL
d) protecting manufacturer formulae
e) evaluating controlled product marketing procedures

010100020021000D
An exemption granted by the Hazardous Materials Information
Review Act lasts

a) 3 months
b) 1 year
c) 5 years
d) 3 years
e) 2 years

010100020021000C
A proper employee/worker training program is best
demonstrated by

a) passing an OHS administered test with a minimum of 60%

b) successful completion of a company program followed by a
series of examinations submitted to WHMIS personnel
c) proof of the worker's ability to work safety with and
understand procedures regarding controlled products and
systems
d) a record of the worker's absenteeism and number of
accident reports
e) random tests conducted without prior warning

010100020021000E
The Hazardous Materials Information Review Act (HMIRA) was
developed to

a) create policy that would be passed through legislation

b) review new products and determine toxicity lists with IDL
c) safeguard against information not being provided on and
MSDS
d) review government policy and amend information passed on
to consumers as change developed
e) protect manufacturer's secret formulas from being copied
by others

010100020021000D
Protection of your health and safety while working with
controlled products is the responsibility of the

a) Hazardous Materials Information Review Committee

b) Occupational Health and Safety Committee
c) Plant Administration personnel
d) workers themselves
e) Plant Safety Committee

The Costs and Effects of Workplace Injuries

010100020021000E
An annual report containing injury information is filed by
the

a) AEPEA (Alberta Environment Protection & Enhancement Act)

b) AOHSA (Alberta Occupational Health & Safety Act)
c) OHSM (Occupational Health & Safety Magazine)
d) ADL (Alberta Department of Labour)
e) AWCB (Alberta Workers Compensation Board)

010100020021000A
Alberta Workers' Compensation Board records indicate that the
approximate average number of workplace fatalities occurring
in the province may be about

a) 2 per week
b) 2 per month
c) 290 per year
d) 2,000 per decade
e) 50 per year

010100020021000D
A factor that has a large impact on the outcome of a worker's
post accident recovery is his

a) pre-accident safety record

b) life style off the job
c) support received from the immediate family
d) attitude before and after the accident
e) current financial situation

010100020021000E
During worker rehabilitation the supervisor should

a) have as little contact as possible with the injured

worker
b) not inform the worker of investigation progress
c) let the worker know the investigators are finding fault
d) not ask the worker for assistance in determining
prevention methods
e) assist the worker in seeking and obtaining support
services

010100020021000A
An employer must ensure the health and safety of his workers

a) reasonably and practicably

b) before their probationary period expires
c) only during times of production
d) except during company off-site activities
e) as per the group life insurance policy

010100020021000B
As soon as is practical after an incident the employer must
notify the

a) AEPEA
b) AOH&S
c) IAPA
d) WHMIS
e) NFPA
010100020021000C
Individual responsibilities for health and safety must be
borne by

a) management only
b) employees only
c) all persons relative to the workplace
d) owners only
e) owners and the government

010100020021000C
A high proportion of reported injuries comes from the age
group of

a) 25 to 30
b) 30 to 45
c) 16 to 25
d) 45 to 55
e) 55 to 65

010100020021000E
During an injury related investigation by an Occupational
Health and Safety officer, work being done at the site may be
suspended

a) indefinitely
b) until the officer arrives at the scene
c) for a maximum of 48 hours
d) long enough to attend to the victim
e) until any serious safety hazards are corrected

010100020021000B
The Occupational Health and Safety magazine, "The Last
Resort", reports on

a) health hazards relative to working with dangerous goods

b) successful prosecutions under the Act
c) jail sentences imposed to those who contravene the Act
d) fines imposed to those individuals who contravene the Act
e) company business licenses revoked for failure to comply
with the Act

010100020021000C
The maximum penalty for an OH&S offence is

a) $150,000.00 fine
b) one year in jail
c) $150,000.00 fine and one year in jail
d) $100,000.00 fine and one year in jail
e) $250,000.00 fine

010100020021000A
Maximum penalties for a first offence under the Occupational
Health and Safety Act are set at
a) $150,000 fine or one year in jail or both
b) one year in jail
c) $150,000 fine
d) one year probation
e) one year's job suspension

010100020021000C
The first step an employer should take to reduce the negative
effects of workplace injuries is

a) employ an on-site nurse

b) ensure supervisors know how to contact emergency
assistance
c) have an effective health and safety program in place
d) establish an appropriate number of trained first aid
personnel
e) inform his or her supervisors of the importance of
maintaining close contact with any worker who may become
injured

010100020021000D
Whose responsibility is it to ensure that an emergency plan is
in place to deal with incidents where injuries may occur?

a) Safety Committee
b) Occupational Health and Safety Committee
c) employee
d) employer
e) Boiler inspector

010100020021000C
When a worker is injured on the job, his or her recovery and
eventual return to work may be most affected by his or her
relationship with

a) the boiler inspector

b) the WCB officer
c) his or her supervisor
d) his or her family
e) the Occupational Health and Safety Officer

Personal Protective Equipment

010100020021000C
Relative to personal protective equipment it is the
employer's responsibility to

a) supply, ensure usage, and maintain

b) wear, care for, and maintain
c) supply and ensure usage
d) supply only
e) supply, ensure usage, care for, and maintain

010100020021000D
Shatter resistant glass or plastic applies to

a) face shields
b) goggles
c) welding goggles
d) safety glasses
e) welding helmet lenses

010100020021000E
A personal safety item still made out of asbestos is the

a) apron
b) steel toed shoe
c) shin protector
d) elbow protector
e) glove

010100020021000B
The type of breathing apparatus that incorporates a 5 minute
cylinder to allow the user to escape a contaminated area is
the

a) supplied air breathing apparatus

b) remote air supply breathing apparatus
c) filter type respirator
d) gas mask
e) self-contained breathing apparatus

010100020021000E
Employers must ensure employees wear self-contained breathing
apparatus' when

a) entering a coal bunker for repairs

b) handling toxic chemical dusts
c) fighting fires in the plant
d) entering any confined spaces
e) there is a danger to life or health due to reduced oxygen
content

010100020021000B
A personal protective device which can readily cause
infection is the

a) steel toed shoe

b) ear plug
c) steel reinforced glove
d) welding goggle
e) ear muff

010100020021000A
One of the most important requirements of any breathing
apparatus is

a) proper training prior to use

b) that the user be clean shaven daily
c) they be self sanitizing
d) they comply with ASME codes
e) face mask pressure be maintained slightly negative

010100020021000D
The statement: "An employer shall establish a code of
practice governing the selection, maintenance and use of
respiratory protective equipment." is made in

a) CSA B51
b) NFPA 295
c) OH&S Act
d) General Safety Regulations 99
e) CSA Z94.4

010100020021000A
Canadian Standards Association Z94.4 covers

a) the selection of respirators

b) the use of safety gloves
c) hearing protection
d) footwear
e) safety committees

010100020021000C
To check the tightness of a gas mask

a) read the instruction book for the gas mask

b) ask for information from the last person using it
c) pinch the hose and breath deeply to suck the mask against
the face
d) check the maintenance book
e) pressurize it with nitrogen

010100020021000D
The filter type respirators will effectively protect from

a) all poisonous gases

b) toxic vapours
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) mineral dusts
e) chemical fumes

010100020021000C
Positive pressure regulators connected to the face-piece of a
breathing apparatus ensures

a) the user remains awake and alert

b) cleanliness of the mask
c) a positive pressure to keep toxic air out
d) total body protection
e) a minimum air supply for 60 minutes

010100020021000A
Respiratory equipment that is not used routinely but is kept
for emergency use must be inspected
a) monthly
b) yearly
c) semi-annually
d) weekly
e) daily

010100020021000D
A piece of safety equipment responsible for protecting
against harmful chemical fumes is

a) safety goggles
b) nose plugs
c) face shields
d) gas masks
e) filter type respirators

010100020021000B
Paint should never be applied to hard hats because

a) toxic fumes may be released

b) it will weaken the plastic
c) hats are already painted by the manufacturer
d) different colours normally indicate varying job positions
in the plant
e) anything, even paint, adds to the overall weight of the
hard hat making it uncomfortable

010100020021000D
A breathing air supply may be required by employees:

1. when regenerating a softener

2. when entering vessels or ducting that have contained
anything other than air
3. when entering an electrostatic precipitator that has
been bypassed for repairs
4. in a vessel that has been purged with nitrogen

a) 1, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 2, 4

010100020021000D
Hard hat suspension minimum clearance is

a) 0.5 inch
b) 0.75 inch
c) 1 inch
d) 1.25 inches
e) 1.5 inches

010100020021000C
The minimum oxygen partial pressure allowed before breathing
apparatus is required is
a) 5 kPa
b) 22 kPa
c) 18 kPa
d) 15 kPa
e) 13 kPa

010100020021000D
A Self-Contained Breathing Apparatus must have a capacity of
at least

a) 15 minutes
b) 60 minutes
c) 45 minutes
d) 30 minutes
e) 10 minutes

010100020021000C
The pressure in a fully charged Self-Contained Breathing
Apparatus is

a) 31.03 kPa
b) 101.3 kPa
c) 31,030 kPa
d) 10,130 kPa
e) 18,500 kPa

010100020021000E
A disease caused by mineral dust that converts healthy lung
tissue into fibrous or scar tissue is known as

a) cystitis
b) neurosis
c) laryngitis
d) nephritis
e) silicosis

Isolation of Mechanical and Electrical Equipment

010100020021000C
The employer must be willing and prepared to bear the cost of
necessary procedures and not allow any sort of shortcuts when
it comes to

a) annual shutdowns
b) Safety Committee formation
c) isolation of equipment
d) equipment overhaul scheduling
e) production

010100020021000B
Relative to equipment isolations, the items which may require
regular updating as work progresses are the
a) Do Not Operate tags
b) various types of permits
c) safety meeting schedules
d) turnaround schedules
e) shift schedules

010100020021000E
If a person is not sure a piece of equipment is safe to work
on, he or her should

a) ask his or her foreman if it is safe

b) check the isolator's name on the permit
c) check with a co-worker before proceeding
d) rely fully on the permit information
e) ask a qualified worker to indicate and explain the points
of isolation

010100020021000D
Safety meetings should routinely be held

a) daily
b) weekly
c) bi-weekly
d) monthly
e) bi-monthly

010100020021000D
When isolating a steam turbine driven centrifugal pump
you should first

a) open the breaker

b) close the turbine exhaust steam valve
c) close the pump suction valve
d) close the high pressure steam supply valve
e) open the turbine casing drain

010100020021000D
Ensuring the complete isolation of a piece of equipment prior
to maintenance is the responsibility of

a) the Plant Safety Committee

b) the Operations Department
c) the Maintenance Department
d) both the Operating and Maintenance Departments
e) the Plant Manager

010100020021000B
When isolating an electric motor driven pump you should first

a) close the pump suction valve

b) open the motor breaker
c) ensure the pump is drained
d) close the high pressure steam supply valve
e) close the pump discharge valve

010100020021000B
Work permits issued to work on isolated equipment require the
signature of

a) the shift foreman

b) the isolator and the worker involved
c) the Plant Manager
d) the Operating Department
e) the Maintenance Department

010100020021000B
Blind flanges used for isolation

a) can be prepared as work progresses

b) must be prepared ahead of time
c) do not need a tag number
d) must be constructed of .3 cm #11 US gauge steel
e) are only required when there are no isolation valves

010100020021000A
After completing the isolation of equipment

a) you must enter the completed isolations in the log book

b) you can start work immediately
c) you require no further checks
d) you must have a co-worker verify your isolation
e) the Safety Committee must ok prior to work commencement

010100020021000B
In order to protect driven equipment from damage

a) ensure the discharge valve is closed first

b) the driver must be isolated first
c) the belts must be removed first
d) a lock must be placed on the drain valve first
e) the "energy source" must be isolated after the driver

010100020021000C
The best possible method of ensuring a boiler is fully
isolated is to

a) complete a Do Not Operate tag

b) remove electrical fuses at the electrical source
c) install blind flanges wherever required
d) close all fuel supply valves
e) close the main Non Return Valve

010100020021000A
In addition to opening the breaker when isolating electrical
equipment the isolator should

a) remove the fuses

b) tell the maintenance worker of his or her actions
c) isolate the driver as well
d) leave the breaker panel door open to indicate from a
distance it is isolated
e) none of the above
010100020021000E
A "closed drain" is

a) a drain line with a single isolating valve

b) a drain which has been blanked off by a blind flange
c) any drain where the effluent is not considered to be
harmful to life, property, or the environment
d) defined as any drain line left normally in the closed
position
e) a drain line having two isolating valves in the line

010100020021000E
When isolating a motor for maintenance you should

a) open the breaker

b) place a DO NOT OPERATE tag on the breaker
c) install a lockout clamp on the breaker handle
d) remove the fuses
e) do all of the above

010100020021000C
The best possible method of completely isolating a steam
boiler would be to

1. close the boiler water and steam supply valves

2. isolate the air supply
3. close all chemical lines to the boiler
4. place blind flanges in all steam header mains
5. isolate the water treatment demineralized tanks
6. isolate all fuel supply equipment

a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 6
d) 2, 3, 4, 6
e) 1, 3, 4, 5, 6

Confined Space Entry

010100020021000E
Confined space means only enclosed or partially enclosed
space having

a) harmful gases, vapours, mist, or dust

b) no way out
c) limited room for tools and equipment
d) elevated air temperatures
e) restricted entry and exit

010100020021000D
One of the least common places to find a confined space would
be in a

a) pulp mill
b) grain elevator
c) power plant
d) person's home
e) brewery

010100020021000C
Confined space entry will apply to areas which lack

a) ambient air temperatures

b) proper lighting
c) proper air ventilation
d) a simple means of entry
e) sufficient space for a man to enter

010100020021000A
Requirements for entry into confined spaces is governed by
the

a) Occupational Health and Safety Regulation

b) Boiler and Pressure Vessels Regulation
c) Workers' Compensation Act
d) Provincial Firemans Regulation
e) Confined Space Entry Regulation

010100020021000B
Confined space entry rules apply where the work in progress
may cause

a) too much noise to withstand

b) equipment being used to become a hazard
c) the worker to refuse to perform his job
d) an accident
e) moisture vapours to be released in the atmosphere

010100020021000E
The minimum level of oxygen in a confined space area is

a) 8%
b) 10%
c) 15%
d) 18%
e) 20%

010100020021000E
A confined space may easily become a

a) difficult place to manoeuvre in

b) breeding ground for biohazardous infectious substances
c) noisy entrapment
d) healthy environment
e) life threatening environment

010100020021000D
A worker in a confined space that is being ventilated also
requires

a) a self-contained breathing apparatus

b) an approved fire extinguisher
c) permission from OH&S to be there
d) to be in communication with another worker nearby
e) constant monitoring of the oxygen

010100020021000C
A person attending to a worker in a confined space may leave
his or her station

a) to retrieve tools or equipment for the worker

b) only long enough to go to the washroom
c) only when properly relieved by another qualified person
d) for ten minutes every hour
e) to summon help if the worker becomes unconscious

010100020021000B
Before entering any confined space, it is good practice to

a) wear light clothing due to extreme temperatures in

enclosed areas
b) plan the entry using a confined entry space check list
c) estimate how long you will be there
d) inform the Plant Manager of your whereabouts
e) verify the operator's isolation points through the Plant
Safety Committee

010100020021000A
When tests indicate harmful gases are present in a confined
space where a worker must enter, he or she must

a) wear approved respiratory protective equipment

b) wait until the gases dissipate
c) receive special permission from OH&S before entering
d) wear a safety belt and lifeline
e) make sure a worker is stationed outside to assist in case
of emergency

Handling and Storage of Gases

010100020021000A
Portable gas cylinder capacity

a) must take into account liquid expansion due to

temperature change
b) is expressed by the tare weight stamped on the cylinder
c) is a function of the pressure within the unit at ambient
temperature
d) can be reduced after an inspection
e) may be increased on approval from the DOT or CTC

010100020021000D
The serial number of a cylinder cannot be duplicated and is
registered and maintained by the

a) Department of Transport
b) Canadian Transport Commission
c) Boilers and Pressure Vessels Committee
d) Bureau of Explosives
e) Canadian Standards Association

010100020021000D
The most easily damaged part of the gas container is the

a) foot ring
b) valve cap
c) safety valve
d) cylinder valve
e) regulator

010100020021000B
Gas cylinder valves are normally constructed of

a) cast iron
b) brass
c) stainless steel
d) bronze
e) the same material as the cylinder

010100020021000A
Before disconnecting an empty cylinder from a manifold
system

a) close the cylinder valve to prevent air entering the

cylinder
b) obtain a "buddy" to ensure your safety
c) check the area for gases with an analyzer
d) unchain the cylinder
e) crack the connecting joint in order to purge it of excess
gases

010100020021000B
Gas cylinders should be stored upright in order to

a) minimize space requirements

b) avoid liquefied product from escaping
c) keep them from rolling during transportation
d) lessen the chance of back injury during movement
e) enhance proper identification

010100020021000E
In order to prevent the formation of explosive mixtures,
oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be

a) stored in different buildings

b) stored at least 10 metres apart
c) stored in different confinements within a building
d) kept segregated at all times
e) stored at least 6 metres apart

010100020021000E
Gas cylinders shall not be placed below ground level except
with permission from the

a) Canadian Transport Commission

b) Department of Transport
c) Boilers and Pressure Vessels Committee
d) Bureau of Explosives
e) Canadian Standards Association

010100020021000E
Gas cylinders are usually stored

a) inside, close to its consuming equipment

b) in a well heated room
c) with all fittings lightly oiled or greased
d) below ground level
e) upright and firmly secured

010100020021000D
Oxygen and acetylene cylinders should be stored

a) in a warm dry place

b) together whenever possible
c) at least 3 metres apart
d) at least 6 metres apart
e) inside the building next to the consuming equipment

010100020021000D
A cylinder valve cap

a) will prevent gas from escaping should the cylinder valve

leak
b) must be in place when the tare weight is being measured
c) threads must never be lubricated
d) prevents the cylinder valve from damage
e) will prevent the cylinder valve from breaking off should
the cylinder fall over

010100020021000D
A cylinder foot ring

a) is installed on the cylinder to permit "foot rolling" of

the cylinder
b) has a diameter 1.5 times the cylinder diameter
c) prevents the cylinder from being stored horizontally
d) protects the bottom and lower section of the cylinder
e) is removed during transportation

010100020021000C
Top guard rings are used in place of

a) vapour values
b) pressure relief valves
c) cylinder valve caps
d) regulators
e) foot rings

010100020021000B
Gas cylinder vapour valves only allow product flow

a) if the pressure rises above the maximum allowable amount

b) when a hose is connected
c) when the vapour pressure drops
d) in one single direction
e) in extreme emergency cases

010100020021000A
Cylinders deformed by fire are usually

a) destroyed
b) cleaned and re-painted before returning for use
c) repaired and returned to service
d) repressurized and returned for use
e) cleaned, pressure tested, and then returned to service

010100020021000B
The most frequent and common method of cylinder inspection

a) does not involve record-keeping

b) is the visual inspection by a qualified person
c) involves pressurizing the cylinder to twice its working
pressure
d) will not result in the cylinder being destroyed or
confiscated
e) is the hydrostatic test

010100020021000A
A gas cylinder hydrostatic test will

a) result in a new test date being stamped on the cylinder

b) mean the cylinder is subjected to a pressure of twice its
maximum allowable working value
c) mean the cylinder is subjected to a pressure of one and
one half times its working pressure
d) remove any dents the cylinder may contain
e) indicate whether or not the unit was exposed to very high
temperatures

010100020021000C
Leak tests on cylinder connections should be done with

a) a sulphur candle
b) a halide lamp
c) a soap solution
d) a litmus solution
e) a dye penetrant test

010100020021000A
When a gas cylinder is filled with water and pressurized to
twice its working pressure, the test conducted is known as a

a) hydrostatic test
b) dead weight test
c) tensile test
d) water jacket test
e) relief valve test

010100020021000E
Gas cylinders that have been filled with liquid, immersed in
water, and pressurized to two times the working pressure are
said to have been subjected to a

a) hydrostatic test
b) dead weight test
c) relief valve test
d) tensile test
e) water jacket test

Handling of Hydrocarbon Fluids

010100020021000B
Fuel/air mixtures outside of the flammable range

a) can ignite spontaneously

b) cannot burn or explode
c) may explode but not burn
d) must have a source of ignition to burn
e) will burn only when above the flammable limit

010100020021000A
If the fuel amount is below the lower flammable limit, the
mixture

a) is said to be lean
b) is explosive
c) can be called rich
d) must have a source of ignition
e) will not burn rapidly

010100020021000D
In order for hydrocarbons to burn, the

a) mixture must be lean

b) air/fuel mixture should be above the upper flammable
limit
c) fuel/air mixture must be rich
d) fuel must be vaporised
e) temperature must be below the boiling temperature

010100020021000C
Iron and hydrogen sulphide will react to form
a) a non-combustible substance
b) a very high ignition temperature substance
c) pyrophoric iron sulphide
d) a very narrow flammable limit range substance
e) hydroferric acid

010100020021000B
The flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which

a) all molecular vibration will cease

b) it will form a gas and burn
c) spontaneous combustion will occur
d) the liquid will burn
e) the vapours become inert

010100020021000B
A flammable limit of a fuel/air mixture is

a) no indication of its combustion properties

b) the percentage by volume of fuel in the mixture
c) the percentage by volume of air in the mixture
d) the percentage by mass of fuel in the mixture
e) the percentage by weight of fuel in the mixture

010100020021000E
Methane when combined with air has a flammable limit of
between

a) 4.3 - 45.5%
b) 0.7 - 5.0%
c) 1.1 - 7.5%
d) 2.2 - 9.5%
e) 5.0 - 15.0%

010100020021000E
Washing steam should enter a tank car or tank truck slowly so
as to

a) prevent injury to the worker

b) allow for proper ventilation of the unit
c) prevent massive condensation of the steam within the tank
d) flush the tank gradually
e) reduce the risk of static electricity spark

010100020021000C
About 90% of loading-rack tank fires are a result of

a) applying flushing steam too rapidly

b) workers smoking
c) improper switch loading procedures
d) not grounding the vehicles
e) loading vehicles not suitable for the product

010100020021000D
Loading rack fires are often caused
a) by sparks from electrical equipment
b) from the catalytic effect of fresh metallic surfaces
c) from cigarettes or matches
d) when products with high flash points are loaded after
products with low flash points
e) by hot steam lines

010100020021000D
When loading containers with LPG products, the gauge rod

a) releases moisture from the bottom of the tank

b) minimizes the pressure increase as the product enters
c) monitors the static charge produced by the flow of the
product
d) indicates the level of liquid in the tank
e) provides indication of temperature changes as the tank
fills with the LPG product

010100020021000B
Laws governing the storage and transporting of LPG are
enforced by the

a) CSA
b) Federal and Provincial DOT
c) Provincial OH&S
d) Bureau of Explosives
e) Provincial Department of Labour

010100020021000D
Outage is the term given to

a) vapours which are vented to the atmosphere during tank

filling
b) liquids spilled during the filling process
c) liquid which remains in the tank after being emptied
d) the space above the liquid after the tank is filled
e) vapours used to "purge" the tank before filling

010100020021000E
The explosion of a flammable mixture that occurred at
the exact time a valve was opened was likely due to

a) a rich mixture being formed

b) the flash point being reached
c) static electricity
d) the auto-ignition temperature
e) the catalytic effect of the fresh metallic surface

010100020021000C
Hoses used for loading and unloading of LPG products must be
hydrostatically tested

a) after every use

b) prior to initial sale to the customer
c) annually
d) when the first visual sign of deterioration appears
e) every three years

010100020021000A
If a fuel/air mixture is raised above its ignition
temperature, the mixture

a) may ignite without a source of ignition

b) will require a source of ignition in order to burn
c) will not start burning by auto-ignition
d) will ignite only if static electricity is present
e) will not burn, only explode

010100020021000B
Every effort must be made to prevent oxygen contacting
hydrocarbon vapours because

a) an explosion will result

b) there are too many sources of ignition
c) auto-ignition will occur
d) the air will dilute the mixture
e) hydrocarbon vapours have such high ignition temperatures

010100020021000A
The ignition temperature of a fuel/air mixture is the

a) lowest temperature at which a mixture will burn

b) temperature at which it is said to have a lean mixture
c) temperature at which the fuel may gel
d) temperature at which the mixture is above the boiling
temperature
e) maximum temperature of the mixture before the fuel turns
to vapour

010100020021000C
Auto-ignition of a fuel/air mixture

a) cannot occur without a flame

b) requires a spark
c) occurs when the temperature of the mixture is raised
above the ignition temperature
d) occurs when temperatures exceed 295 degrees Celsius
e) most often leads to a catalytic effect

010100020021000A
Iron sulphide, if allowed to dry out will

a) burst into flames in the pressure of air

b) make an excellent Class D fire extinguishing agent
c) enhance the effects of static electricity
d) emit toxic fumes
e) absorb moisture from railway tank cars
Hydrogen Sulphide Safety
010100020021000C
Hydrogen sulphide is removed from crude oil by burning it
into sulphur dioxide in the presence of

a) an amine
b) an oxygen free atmosphere
c) a catalyst
d) black liquor
e) heavy water

010100020021000A
Hydrogen sulphide is

a) 1.189 times heavier than air

b) always found in its pure form
c) found near the top of tanks and rooms
d) more difficult to ignite than natural gas
e) not capable of following moving air streams

010100020021000E
Natural gas has an ignition temperature of

a) 260 degrees C
b) 540 degrees C
c) 1,700 degrees C
d) 360 degrees C
e) 650 degrees C

010100020021000A
From a fire and explosion standpoint, hydrogen sulphide is
dangerous because of its

a) wide explosive range and low ignition temperature

b) wide explosive range and high ignition temperature
c) narrow explosive range
d) narrow explosive range and low ignition temperature
e) high ignition temperature

010100020021000E
In the natural gas process, the liquid used to absorb
hydrogen sulphide is

a) water
b) crude oil
c) black liquor
d) liquid sulphur dioxide
e) amine

010100020021000A
Hydrogen sulphide ignites at

a) 260 degrees Celsius

b) 540 degrees Celsius
c) 1,700 degrees Celsius
d) 360 degrees Celsius
e) 650 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A
When burned completely, 1 kg of H S gas will produce
2

a) 17,000 kJ of heat
b) 1,700 kJ of heat
c) 17,000 J of heat
d) 170 kJ of heat
e) 1,700 J of heat

010100020021000C
H S burns with a
2

a) red flame
b) bluish - yellow flame
c) light blue flame
d) yellow flame
e) brownish - yellow flame

010100020021000D
Hydrogen sulphide has a "rotten egg odour" and

a) can always be readily detected by smell

b) can readily be seen with the naked eye
c) has a narrow explosive limit
d) can dull one's sense of smell
e) has a high boiling point

010100020021000C
The degree of hydrogen sulphide concentration which allows a
petroleum product to be considered "sweet" must not exceed

a) 1,000 ppm
b) 500 ppm
c) 10 ppm
d) 100,000 ppm
e) 100 ppm

010100020021000D
The statement that workers with perforated eardrums not be
excluded from hydrogen sulphide atmospheres was made by the

a) Petrochemical Association CEO

b) CSA
c) Canadian Natural Gas Association
d) Journal of Occupational Medicine
e) Underwriters Laboratories Canada

010100020021000E
The allowable exposure limit of hydrogen sulphide
concentration when a person may work for an eight hour period
is
a) 1,000 ppm
b) 700 ppm
c) 500 ppm
d) 20 ppm
e) 10 ppm

010100020021000D
When working in an area containing a concentration of 100 ppm
H S
2

a) work can be performed for a maximum of eight hours

b) work can be performed for a maximum of fifteen minutes
c) the worker will be rendered unconscious immediately
d) the sense of smell will be lost within two to fifteen
minutes
e) the worker will appear to be intoxicated

010100020021000C
A concentration of 15 ppm of H S can be tolerated for a time
2
not exceeding

a) 5 minutes
b) 10 minutes
c) 15 minutes
d) 20 minutes
e) 25 minutes

010100020021000D
In small amounts, H S acts on the nervous system to
2

a) cause suffocation
b) cause headaches
c) act as a stimulant
d) act as a depressant
e) promote weight loss

010100020021000D
The safest way to extinguish a hydrogen sulphide fire is to

a) remove the O source

2

b) remove the catalyst

c) lower the temperature

d) stop the gas flow

e) let it burn itself out

010100020021000B
In the event of an uncontrolled release of hydrogen sulphide
where a co-worker is "knocked down", your first act should be
to

a) sound an alarm
b) get out of the area
c) put on your breathing apparatus
d) remove the casualty
e) begin artificial respiration immediately

010100020021000B
H S detectors make use of
2

a) a litmus solution
b) a clear lead acetate solution
c) an oxygen jet to burn the hydrogen sulphide
d) a water solubility test
e) a solution of dry iron sulphide

010100020021000B
Hydrogen sulphide workers must receive adequate training in
breathing apparatus, resuscitation, and

a) fire fighting
b) use of gas detectors
c) personnel rescue
d) plant isolation procedures
e) plant operations

010100020021000B
The Chemical Hazards Regulation of the OH&S Act states that
an employer is responsible to ensure each worker:

1. wears the proper certified coveralls when working in an

area suspected of containing hydrogen sulphide
2. is instructed in the proper use of protective equipment
provided
3. is on time to perform his or her duties when handling
hydrogen sulphide
4. signs a waiver of responsibility before working in an
area suspected of containing hydrogen sulphide
5. is aware of health hazards associated with exposure to
hydrogen sulphide

a) 3, 4
b) 2, 5
c) 1, 4, 5
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 4

010100020021000D
The Chemical Hazards Regulation of the OH&S Act states that
an employee is responsible to

1. follow procedures provided by the employer

 2. sign a waiver releasing the employer of any
responsibility in the event of an accident
3. wear respiratory equipment when necessary
4. participate in instruction provided
5. obtain training from an independent company if not
supplied by the employer

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 4, 5
c) 2, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 3, 4, 5

010100020021000C
The ceiling occupational exposure limit refers to

a) the time-weighted average concentration of an airborne

substance
b) the allowable concentration exposure over a fifteen
minute period
c) the maximum concentration exposure to an airborne
substance
d) the allowable concentration exposure over an eight hour
period
e) the concentration of airborne substances as measured at
the highest point in a concentrated area

010100020021000E
In addition to compulsory training sessions, the law requires
that persons working with hydrogen sulphide

a) must practice with breathing apparatus

b) must be trained in first aid including artificial
resuscitation and CPR
c) must be familiar with maintenance and cleaning of
breathing apparatus
d) must be trained in the use of gas detectors
e) must be trained in all of the above

First Aid and CPR for Adult Casualties

010100020021000D
The result of inadequate blood supply reaching portions of
the brain is termed

a) shock
b) asphyxia
c) cardiac arrest
d) stroke
e) angina

010100020021000D
A substance which makes the blood clot easier in certain
areas is

a) cigarette tar
b) haemoglobin
c) carbon monoxide
d) nicotine
e) CVD

010100020021000A
The terms "pop" or "drop" refer to

a) choking
b) angina attacks
c) broken bone alignment
d) stroke symptoms
e) artificial resuscitation

010100020021000E
Angina is a condition which occurs when

a) the pathway through which air moves to the lungs is

blocked
b) all parts of the body do not obtain an adequate supply of
oxygenated blood
c) there is an inadequate blood supply to the brain
d) the heart stops completely
e) the heart is not getting enough oxygen

010100020021000A
A stroke is a condition which occurs when

a) there is an inadequate supply of blood to the brain

b) the heart is not getting enough oxygen
c) body parts do not receive enough oxygenated blood
d) air is restricted to the lungs
e) the heart stops beating completely

010100020021000A
When the pulse is checked at the neck of a victim, it should
be done on the side nearest you

a) so that it will not appear that you are choking the

victim
b) to prevent obstruction of the airway
c) so that you can see the artery pulsing
d) so that you can simultaneously check for breathing
e) in order to maintain visibility of your fingers

010100020021000C
If a casualty is unconscious

a) you should not perform any type of first aid

b) notify EMS before doing anything
c) consent may be assumed
d) notify them of who you are
e) do not bother to survey the area until after notifying
 EMS

010100020021000E
The carotid artery is located

a) in the thigh area

b) in the victim's left side of the chest
c) just above the armpit
d) in the right temple
e) in the neck

010100020021000C
The one who starts care for a casualty and may be one of the
most important people in the Emergency Medical Services
System is the

a) paramedic
b) co-worker
c) bystander
d) doctor
e) dispatcher

010100020021000E
To assess an unconscious casualty's condition, the Canadian
and American Medical Associations recommend following the

a) pop or drop procedure

b) EMS procedure
c) RICE steps
d) RED steps
e) A, B, C system

010100020021000B
When the heart stops beating completely it is termed

a) a heart attack
b) cardiac arrest
c) a stroke
d) angina
e) a seizure

010100020021000D
You notice that one of the men you are working with is lying
on the ground. If you find that his breathing has stopped
you would

a) give him something to drink and then send for help

b) send for a doctor
c) phone the shift supervisor
d) start artificial respiration immediately and summon help
e) cover him with a blanket and run for help

010100020021000B
When performing abdominal thrusts on a choking victim and the
casualty becomes unconscious, your initial reaction should be
to
a) increase the rate of abdominal thrusts
b) place the victim on his or her back and perform a finger
sweep of the mouth
c) give two quick breaths
d) begin CPR at the rate of 15 compressions to two breaths
e) place the victim on his or her stomach and press into the
casualty's back

010100020021000A
A co-worker is experiencing shortness of breath, nausea,
sweating and is strongly denying that he/she is in need of
attention. The worker is likely experiencing

a) a heart attack
b) an angina attack
c) shock
d) cardiac arrest
e) a stroke

010100020021000E
The artificial respiration rate for an infant is

a) 1:5
b) 1:10
c) 1:7
d) 1:2
e) 1:3

010100020021000C
The xiphoid process is

a) a method of aligning broken bones

b) an area of the chest on which CPR is performed
c) to be avoided during CPR
d) a method of locating bones in the body
e) a method for finding a pulse

010100020021000C
The acronym RICE stands for Rest, Immobilize, Cold, and
Elevate. This would be the response used

a) for a stroke
b) for severe bleeding
c) for a broken bone
d) for a heart attack
e) for trauma shock

010100020021000B
The acronym RED stands for Rest, Elevate, and Direct
pressure. This would be the response used for

a) a stroke
b) severe bleeding
c) a broken bone
d) a heart attack
e) trauma shock

010100020021000D
Symptoms of shock may include the following

1. squeezing pain
2. clammy skin
3. weak and rapid pulse
4. denial
5. confusion

a) 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 5
e) 1, 2, 5

010100020021000A
The artificial respiration rate for an adult is

a) one breath every 5 seconds

b) one breath every 10 seconds
c) two breaths every 15 seconds
d) one breath every 2 seconds
e) one breath every 3 seconds

Fires and Extinguishing Media

010100020021000C
Combustion

a) is endothermic and can occur in an inert atmosphere

b) is always a visible process in that light is given off
c) is exothermic, self sustaining, and can occur in an inert
atmosphere
d) always requires a source of ignition
e) requires the presence of air

010100020021000A
A reducing agent or fuel could be

a) carbon monoxide
b) a heavy metal oxide
c) hydrogen peroxide
d) concentrated sulphuric acid
e) chlorine

010100020021000E
A process which causes fires to endure and renew themselves
is

a) temperature
b) a reducing agent
c) an oxidizing agent
d) a flame
e) molecular activity due to high temperature

010100020021000D
Fuels or reducing agents which burn in the flaming mode only
are

a) flammable liquids
b) coals
c) flammable gases
d) flammable liquids and gases
e) cokes

010100020021000D
Wood can continue to burn in the flameless or glowing mode
when oxygen level is as low as

a) 17%
b) 12%
c) 8%
d) 5%
e) 3%

010100020021000C
Your first reaction to a fire should be to

a) fight it
b) contain it
c) turn on the alarm
d) get the nearest fire extinguisher
e) phone the maintenance department

010100020021000C
A class B fire is best extinguished by

a) lowering the temperature of the burning wood or paper

b) wetting the burning paper or wood
c) smothering the burning liquid
d) lowering the temperature of the burning liquid
e) creating a chain reaction between the molecules of the
burning material

010100020021000D
Water is the best extinguisher for

a) an oil fire
b) a gas fire
c) an electrical fire
d) a wood fire
e) a metal burning fire

010100020021000E
A Class "A" fire would involve

a) gasoline or oil
b) any dry materials
c) paint or grease
d) electrical equipment
e) wood or coal

010100020021000A
Foam extinguishers are recommended for

a) Class "A" and Class "B" fires

b) Class "A" and Class "C" fires
c) Class "C" and Class "B" fires
d) Class "D" fires
e) Class "C" and Class "D" fires

010100020021000D
Which of the following constitutes a Class "C" fire?

a) fire in a coal bunker

b) fire in a fuel tank
c) fire in a lumber pile
d) fire in an electrical panel
e) fire in a pile of paper

010100020021000D
The major advantage of carbon dioxide as a fire extinguishing
agent for fires in electronic equipment is it

a) has superior cooling ability over other agents

b) is non-toxic
c) does not reduce the oxygen content of the area
d) does not leave a residue
e) provides a barrier between the oxygen and burning
components

010100020021000B
The best portable fire extinguisher to use on a Class "D"
fire is the

a) carbon dioxide unit

b) dry powder unit
c) aqueous film-forming foam unit
d) Halon unit
e) dry chemical unit

010100020021000B
Dry chemical fire extinguishers should not be used where
delicate electrical equipment is involved because it is

a) conductive
b) an insulator and can be corrosive
c) always corrosive
d) impossible to clean the equipment, it must be replaced
e) capable of producing toxic fumes

010100020021000B
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on an electrical
fire would be a
a) dry chemical extinguisher
b) carbon dioxide extinguisher
c) FF extinguisher
d) dry powder extinguisher
e) foam extinguisher

010100020021000C
Dry chemical fire extinguishers may be used to extinguish
electrical fires, however, they are not the best choice
because they

a) fail to cool the fire sufficiently

b) conduct electricity
c) leave a residue on the equipment
d) produce toxic chemicals that may be flammable
e) are not made in sizes large enough to fight electrical
fires

010100020021000E
Halon extinguishing agents extinguish a fire by

a) cooling below ignition temperature

b) radiation shielding
c) isolating the fuel by coating
d) removing the oxygen supply
e) breaking the uninhibited chain reaction

010100020021000D
To extinguish a fire, aqueous film-forming form extinguishing
agents act in order to:

1. seal vapours
2. cool
3. remove the oxygen
4. break the chain reaction

a) 4
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 3
e) 1, 2, 3, 4

010100020021000A
The fire extinguisher to be used on electrical equipment will
be marked with a "C" on a background consisting of a

a) blue circle
b) green triangle
c) yellow star
d) green circle
e) red square

010100020021000B
A red square on a fire extinguisher indicates that this
extinguisher is suitable for a Class
a) A fire
b) B fire
c) C fire
d) D fire
e) E fire

010100020021000D
Burning metals may be extinguished using

a) dry chemical extinguishers

b) carbon dioxide extinguishers
c) AFFF extinguishers
d) dry powder extinguishers
e) foam extinguishers

010100020021000A
What type of fire should be put out with water?

a) Class "A"
b) Class "B"
c) Class "C"
d) Class "A", "B", and "C"
e) Class "D"

010100020021000B
Which of the following extinguishers would ordinarily be used
to combat a Class "C" fire?

1. carbon dioxide
2. foam
3. dry chemical
4. water

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 2, 4
e) 1, 4

Portable Fire Extinguishers

010100020021000A
Foam extinguishers are recommended for

a) Class "A" and Class "B" fires

b) Class "A" and Class "C" fires
c) Class "C" and Class "B" fires
d) all classes of fires
e) all but burning liquids

010100020021000E
The background symbol used on a fire extinguisher for a Class
"D" fire is a
a) green triangle
b) green circle
c) red square
d) blue circle
e) yellow star

010100020021000D
Rating numerals to indicate the effectiveness of an
extinguisher are used in reference to

a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) Class A and B fires
e) Class A, B, and C fires

010100020021000E
One type of extinguisher suitable for extinguishing all four
classes of fires is the

a) Halon extinguisher
b) foam extinguisher
c) dry chemical extinguisher
d) carbon dioxide extinguisher
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
A "loaded stream" extinguisher is one which

a) can be used on Class B fires

b) has an antifreeze agent
c) is always under stored pressure
d) is meant for Class C fires
e) produces foam

010100020021000C
A major disadvantage of a floor standing pump extinguisher
over a backpack pump unit is

a) the floor unit has only half the capacity

b) the backpack unit has twice the range
c) pumping must stop for relocation
d) the floor unit pump is single acting
e) the floor unit is too difficult to move

010100020021000B
Pressure range in a carbon dioxide extinguisher is

a) 31 to 55 kPa
b) 5.6 to 6.3 Mpa
c) 5,600 to 6,300 Mpa
d) 31 to 55 Mpa
e) 56 to 63 psi

010100020021000E
The maximum storage temperature for a carbon dioxide
extinguisher is

a) 31 degrees C
b) 25 degrees C
c) 40 degrees C
d) 45 degrees C
e) 55 degrees C

010100020021000A
Carbon dioxide extinguishers

a) are self-expelling
b) are the best for Class A fires
c) are the quietest in operation
d) present no hazards during use
e) are the most difficult to use

010100020021000B
Halon agents are

a) safe until they make contact with the combustion process

b) themselves toxic
c) the most highly recommended for Class B:C use
d) able to maintain cylinder pressure themselves regardless
of temperature
e) gradually replacing dry powder units

010100020021000D
An extinguisher with a 4 rating is

a) good for Class C fires only

b) twice as effective as a unit with a 1 rating
c) not to be used on a Class A fire
d) four times as effective as a unit rated 1
e) good for four minutes of use

010100020021000B
Foam type fire extinguishers achieve best results by

a) lobbing the foam over top of the fire

b) bouncing the foam off the floor just in front of the
burning area
c) discharging the agent with a sweeping motion
d) discharging the agent at the base of the flame
e) splashing the agent into the burning liquid

010100020021000C
All maintenance work done on portable fire extinguishers is
required to be

a) completed on all extinguishers in the plant at the same

time
b) performed at the worksite in case they are required for
emergency service
c) contracted out to a certified service company
d) supervised by a National Fire Protection Association
 employee
e) performed on an as-needed basis

010100020021000A
Halon agent extinguishers are operated and applied in the
same manner as a

a) carbon dioxide extinguisher

b) water extinguisher
c) dry chemical extinguisher
d) foam extinguisher
e) dry powder extinguisher

010100020021000E
Halon extinguishers are mostly intended for use on

a) Class A fires
b) Class B fires
c) Class C fires
d) Class A and B fires
e) Class B and C fires

010100020021000E
Foam type fire extinguishers should only be installed or
stored in areas where the temperature remains above

a) 15 degrees C
b) 12 degrees C
c) 10 degrees C
d) 7 degrees C
e) 5 degrees C

Electrical Fires
010100020021000A
Overheating of electrical equipment is

a) the most common cause of fires in buildings

b) usually the result of inadequate wiring
c) often due to over-sized fuses being installed
d) the result of blocked cooling fin passages
e) illegal in most provinces

010100020021000E
Electrical circuit insulation

a) will never break down or deteriorate

b) requires replacement after 10 years
c) is not affected by temperature
d) will not burn
e) will deteriorate due to high temperatures

010100020021000B
Electrical connections
a) need only make contact, they need not be tight
b) will create large amounts of heat if not tight
c) can cause an arc if too tight
d) may operate on overload for specified durations
e) will not generate heat at any time

010100020021000A
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains
hazardous concentrations of flammable gases or vapours under
normal conditions, electrical equipment must be designated
safe for use in an area classification of

a) Class 1, division 1
b) Class 1, division 2
c) Class 2, division 1
d) Class 2, division 2
e) Class 3, division 1

010100020021000C
Under the Canadian Electrical Code, if an area contains dust
in the air, under normal operating conditions, in
concentrations high enough to produce explosive or ignitable
mixtures, the electrical equipment must be designed safe for
use in an area classification of

a) Class I, division I
b) Class I, division II
c) Class II, division I
d) Class II, division II
e) Class III, division I

010100020021000E
According to the Canadian Electrical Code an area where
easily ignited material fibres capable of producing
combustible flyings are handled or manufactured would be
classified as a

a) Class 1, division 1
b) Class 1, division 2
c) Class 2, division 1
d) Class 2, division 2
e) Class 3, division 1

010100020021000A
An example of a class "C" fire would be

a) a fire in an electrical panel

b) a fire in a trash bin
c) a fire in a fuel tank
d) a precious metals fire
e) a fire in a coal storage pile

010100020021000B
When an electrical fire is discovered
a) the equipment may be left running if the fire is put out
with a C type fire extinguisher
b) the equipment should be de-energized as quickly as
possible
c) the equipment should be left running until a backup power
supply is available
d) the equipment may be immediately restarted once the fire
is extinguished
e) fresh air should be provided to the room as quickly as
possible to get rid of toxic fumes

010100020021000E
The best type of fire extinguisher to use on a live
electrical fire is a

a) pressurized water extinguisher

b) dry chemical extinguisher
c) purple K extinguisher
d) AFFF extinguisher
e) carbon dioxide extinguisher

010100020021000E
The temperature of the carbon dioxide leaving the
extinguisher horn can be as low as

a) 0 degrees C
b) -5 degrees C
c) -30 degrees C
d) -60 degrees C
e) -80 degrees C

010100020021000A
Halon from halon fire extinguishers

a) produces a distinct odour which warns of the presence of

halon
b) is abrasive to electrical equipment
c) will act as a conductor if moisture is present
d) is derived from bromine, fluorine, or chlorine
e) is corrosive

010100020021000B
You discover that a small fire has been started in a high
tension switch box. In your immediate area there are four
different types of fire extinguishers. The one you put the
fire out with should be the

a) soda - acid extinguisher

b) dry chemical extinguisher
c) chemical foam extinguisher
d) cold water extinguisher
e) one closest to you

010100020021000C
During annual turnaround of a facility it is highly
recommended that

a) all fuses in the electrical system be replaced

b) aluminum wiring be replaced
c) all electrical connections be checked for tightness and
corrosion
d) all circuit breakers be disassembled and cleaned
e) a megger be used on all electric motor windings

010100020021000C
Temporary electrical hook-ups should

a) be in place for a maximum duration of 72 hours only

b) be made with BX electrical cable
c) be designed to the original specifications
d) comply with the ASME codes
e) have CSA pre-approval

010100020021000D
A common cause of an electrical fire is

a) allowing motors or conductors to get wet if not designed

for that purpose
b) prematurely replacing deteriorated wiring
c) following too closely to the Electrical Code when
installing electrical equipment
d) replacing burned fuses with ones of the same rating
e) waiting a specified amount of time between attempts to
start large motors

Environmental Introduction
010100020021000D
The earth's water cycle is referred to as

a) a hydrostatic cycle
b) a meteorological cycle
c) a hydrographic cycle
d) a hydrological cycle
e) an elementary cycle

010100020021000C
Air is predominantly composed of

a) O , CO , and CH
2 2 4

b) O , N , and CO
2 2 2

c) O and N
2 2

d) O , CO , and H
 2 2 2

e) O and CO
2 2

010100020021000A
The environment consists of

a) natural and man-made elements

b) organic and natural elements
c) soil and water
d) plant and animal life
e) air and water cycles

010100020021000E
A typical soil profile includes, from top to bottom

a) a zone of parent material, a zone of intensely weathered

material, a zone of unweathered material
b) a zone of parent material, a zone of weathered material,
a zone of bed rock
c) a zone of weathered material, a zone of unweathered
material, a zone of bedrock
d) a zone of weathered material, a zone of partially
weathered material, a zone of bedrock
e) a zone of weathered material, a zone of partially
weathered material, a zone of parent material

010100020021000D
Subsurface water can be divided from top to bottom as

a) a zone of aeration, ground water, water table

b) water table, ground water, surface water
c) surface water, ground water, water table
d) a zone of aeration, water table, a zone of saturation
e) surface water, ground water, underground water

010100020021000B
Ground water and surface water originate from

a) aeration
b) precipitation
c) vegetation
d) evaporation
e) filtration

010100020021000A
Places where groundwater leaves the system to become surface
water are called

a) discharge points
b) runoff areas
c) recharge points
d) springs
e) saturated zones
010100020021000C
The land area where water shares the spaces between soil
particles with the air is known as the

a) infiltration zone
b) water table zone
c) zone of aeration
d) zone of discharge
e) saturated zone

010100020021000D
Organic matter is primarily deposited on the landscape by

a) wind
b) water
c) glaciers
d) vegetation
e) gravity

010100020021000E
The process whereby plants consume carbon dioxide, water and
the sum energy to make food is known as the

a) hydrological cycle
b) meteorological cycle
c) photoelectric cycle
d) hydrostatic cycle
e) photosynthetic cycle

010100020021000D
Organisms within an ecosystem can be divided into which
groups?

a) producers, inactive matter, and consumers

b) organic matter, inorganic matter, and decomposers
c) consumers, producers, and inorganic matter
d) decomposers, consumers, and producers
e) nutrients, consumers, and decomposers

010100020021000E
Parent material for soil formation

a) is only mineral material deposited by glaciers, wind, and

water
b) is only organic material
c) is the same throughout the world
d) is not necessary
e) has been mostly deposited by glaciers in North America

010100020021000C
The three major components in an ecosystem are

a) animals, plants, and air

b) animals, plants, and decomposers
c) producers, consumers, and inactive organic matter
d) producers, consumers, and air
e) producers, consumers, and sun's energy

010100020021000A
Energy in a food web

a) originates from the sun

b) travels from the top of the web to the bottom
c) does not leave the web
d) is passed through the food web by heat radiation
e) is self-sustaining within the food web

010100020021000B
Components of an ecosystem are

a) independent of each other

b) interconnected and interdependent
c) vertically ordered
d) unchangeable
e) ranked from top to bottom

010100020021000B
Contributions to the ecosystem by the environment are in the
form of

a) N , CO , H O
2 2 2

b) CO , H O, O
2 2 2

c) Ar, H O, O
2 2

d) H O, O
2 2

e) CO , O
2 2

010100020021000D
In the ecosystem, green plants are considered to be

a) consumers
b) inactive matter
c) decomposers
d) producers
e) inorganic matter

010100020021000C
Herbivores and/or carnivores as they are seen in the
ecosystem are considered

a) inactive matter
b) decomposers
c) consumers
d) producers
e) inorganic matter

Gaseous and Noise Pollutants

010100020021000B
Sulphur oxides in flue gas are undesirable because

a) they use up the sulphur in the fuel

b) they cause acid rain
c) they reduce combustion efficiency
d) they combine with sunlight to produce smog
e) they are an indicator of incomplete combustion in the
furnace

010100020021000A
Carbon monoxide is produced as a result of

a) a shortage of oxygen in the furnace

b) too high a combustion temperature
c) too large a furnace
d) excess air in the combustion process
e) slow movement of fuel through the furnace

010100020021000D
Gaseous pollutants emitted from power plants are:

1. natural gas
2. oxygen
3. carbon monoxide
4. sulphur dioxide
5. nitrogen

a) 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4, 5
d) 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 5

010100020021000C
Most systems used today to remove sulphur dioxide

a) produce a useful end product

b) remove most of the sulphur trioxide as well
c) involve the use of lime, limestone or sulphuric acid
d) remove the sulphur dioxide in the furnace
e) are simple systems involving little extra equipment

010100020021000D
Nitrogen oxides in flue gas may be reduced by

a) raising the furnace temperature

b) decreasing the size of the furnace
c) scrubbing the flue gas with lime
d) reducing the percentage of excess air
e) employing a dilute sulphuric acid scrubber system

010100020021000A
Converting carbon monoxide to carbon dioxide in the furnace
may be accomplished by

1. increasing the amount of combustion air

2. decreasing the time the fuel spends in the furnace
3. burning lime with the fuel
4. not overloading the boiler
5. ensuring a good fuel/air mixture

a) 1, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 4
e) 2, 4, 5

010100020021000C
Systems designed to reduce SO are also effective in reducing
2
the concentration of

a) NO
x

b) H O
2

c) SO
3

d) CO

e) CO
2

010100020021000B
A method proven to reduce emissions of sulphur oxides in the
flue gas is to

a) lower the furnace temperature

b) scrub the flue gas with wet lime or limestone
c) reduce the amount of excess air
d) use dilute sulphuric acid to scrub the flue gas
e) increase the size of the furnace

010100020021000D
A sampling and analyzing train

a) measures the frequency composition of noise

b) monitors flue gas for one type of emission
c) cannot be operated automatically
d) measures the amount of several types of emissions
e) cannot be used to obtain permanent records
010100020021000B
A device for measuring flue gas emissions is called

a) a stack monitor
b) an Orsat analyzer
c) a stack analyzer
d) a level meter
e) a gas tester

010100020021000E
Choose all of the following statements which are true:
1) Sound travels through variations in air pressure
2) Sound waves are reflected, deflected ,and absorbed
3) Sound is a form of energy
4) Sound travels through a vacuum
5) Sound always travels at a constant wavelength

a) 1, 3, and 5
b) 1, 2, 3, and 4
c) 2, 3, 4, and 5
d) 2, 3, and 4
e) 1, 2, and 3

010100020021000C
Sound pressure level is expressed in

a) psi (pounds per square inch)

b) kPa
c) decibels
d) watts
e) amps

010100020021000A
Noise sources over what level are potentially hazardous to
hearing?

a) 100 dB and above

b) 60 dB and above
c) 120 dB and above
d) 80 dB and above
e) 40 dB and above

010100020021000E
Decibels are represented by

a) an exponential scale
b) an intensity scale
c) an arithmetic scale
d) a reference scale
e) a logarithmic scale

010100020021000B
Noise pollution is caused by:

1. high speed equipment

 2. popping high pressure safety valves
3. chimneys
4. jack hammers
5. riveting operations

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 2, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 4, 5
e) 3, 4, 5

010100020021000E
Damaging sound pressure levels affecting plant personnel
could not be reduced by

a) enclosing the noise source

b) modifying the equipment operating conditions
c) building a barrier
d) wearing protective equipment
e) changing the frequency of the sound

010100020021000E
Loud noises may be controlled by:

1. building soundproof cabinets around equipment

2. running the equipment at high speeds
3. using silencers on the air intakes to gas turbines
4. using mufflers on equipment exhaust
5. running noisy equipment at night when everyone is asleep

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 1, 3, 4

010100020021000D
Noise monitors (sound meters) measure the decibel rating and
contain

a) sound dampers
b) sound amplifiers
c) acoustic eliminators
d) weighting networks
e) acoustic amplifiers

010100020021000D
Personal protective devices designed to protect power plant operators
from environmental pollutants, include the following equipment:

1. hard hats
2. ear muffs
3. soft toed shoes or boots
4. safety boots
5. dust masks
6. breathing air packs
a) 1, 2, 4, 5,
b) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5, 6
c) 1, 2, 5, 6
d) 2, 5, 6
e) 3, 4, 6

Solid and Liquid Pollutants

010100020021000D
Mechanical centrifugal collectors remove particulate by means
of

a) centrifugal force
b) inertia
c) gravitational force
d) all of the above
e) none of the above

010100020021000C
Mechanical centrifugal collectors are not suitable for the
collection of

a) very coarse particles

b) coarse particles
c) fine particles
d) rough particles
e) heavy particles

010100020021000B
Wet scrubbers remove

a) gases only
b) gases and dust only
c) particulates only
d) acidic gases only
e) dust only

010100020021000A
In an electrostatic precipitator the

a) discharge electrode is negatively charged

b) collector electrode is negatively charged
c) discharge electrode is positively charged
d) particles are positively charged
e) discharge electrode and the particles are positively
charged

010100020021000B
The voltage supplied to an electrostatic precipitator is
between

a) 10,000 volts AC and 1,000,000 volts AC

b) 10,000 volts DC and 100,000 volts DC
c) 1,000,000 volts AC and 1,000,000,000 volts AC
d) 100,000 DC and 1,000,000,000 volts AC
e) 100,000 AC and 10,000 volts DC

010100020021000C
When ground level sulphur dioxide concentrations are
increasing above allowable limits, the operators choice of
action to reduce the sulphur dioxide emissions includes:

1. reduce boiler load

2. increase the voltage level on the electrostatic
precipitators to remove more sulphur dioxide
3. increase the boiler load to disperse the sulphur
dioxide over a wider area
4. switch to a low sulphur fuel
5. shut down the boilers

a) 1, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 5
c) 1, 4, 5
d) 1, 4
e) 3, 4, 5

010100020021000A
Some areas of a power plant are difficult or not economically
suitable to provide a pollution free area in which employees
can work in. These types of areas are:

1. control rooms
2. coal conveyor galleries
3. cleaning ash hoppers or precipitators internally during
a boiler repair
4. lunch rooms
5. coal crushing and grinding equipment
6. steam turbine bays

a) 2, 3, 5, 6
b) 1, 2, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 6
e) 3, 4, 6

010100020021000E
Fly ash is removed from bag filters by a system of

a) rollers
b) hammers
c) electrostatic precipitators
d) shakers
e) rappers

010100020021000E
Fly ash is normally less than

a) 1 mm in diameter
b) 0.3 mm in diameter
c) 1,000 microns in diameter
d) 300 microns in diameter
e) 30 microns in diameter

010100020021000D
Fly ash collected by pollution control devices can be used in
the

a) petroleum industry
b) electrical industry
c) tire industry
d) construction industry
e) landscaping industry

010100020021000B
Solid pollutants such as flyash are produced when burning:

1. natural gas
2. heavy fuel oil
3. wood
4. coal

a) 1, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4

010100020021000E
Solid pollutants emitted from power plants are:

1. dust
2. soot
3. flyash
4. carbon monoxide
5. sulphur dioxide
6. sulphuric acid

a) all of the above

b) 2, 3, 6
c) 1, 2, 3, 6
d) 2, 4, 5
e) 1, 2, 3

010100020021000C
Liquid pollutants emitted from power plants include:

1. water at elevated temperatures

2. waste water from flue gas scrubbing
3. waste water from water treatment processes
4. waste water from ash handling operations

a) 1, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 2, 4

010100020021000A
"The amount of any gas that water can dissolve depends on the
partial pressure the gas exerts on the free surface of the
water", is stated by

a) Henry's Law
b) Boyles's Law
c) Charles' Law
d) Dalton's Law
e) The General Gas Law

010100020021000C
Natural draft cooling towers are divided into

a) dry and wet types

b) closed and semi-closed types
c) open and closed types
d) filled and unfilled types
e) open and filled types

010100020021000B
The most common type of mechanical draft cooling tower is

a) a forced draft type

b) an induced draft type
c) a wet type
d) a dry type
e) a combination wet and dry type

010100020021000D
Air flow in a natural draft cooling tower is dependent upon
the

a) speed of the cooling fan

b) volume of water flowing through
c) partial pressure exerted above the surface of the
reservoir
d) differences in densities of the air leaving and entering
e) wind direction

010100020021000C
Advantages of ID cooling towers over FC cooling towers
include:

1. accessibility of the fan for maintenance

2. little chance of icing up in winter
3. minimum noise
4. a greater ability to cool the water
5. ability to recycle the vapour laden air

a) 1, 3, 5
b) 3, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
e) 2, 3, 5

010100020021000B
Cooling towers

a) need only be operated in the summer months

b) may contribute to the pollution problem
c) remove heat from the condensate
d) require fans
e) do not require any maintenance

010100020021000E
Dry cooling towers

a) operate by natural draft

b) have the cooling water flow from bottom to top
c) have an ID fan located at the top
d) have an FD fan located at the bottom
e) pass the cooling water through a closed circuit of finned
tubes

Potential Environmental Impacts of Liquids

010100020021000B
Hazardous material is not a problem unless

a) a loss of product is experienced

b) a loss of control is experienced
c) it is noticed by operating personnel
d) it is present in the environment
e) it is present in the ecosystem

010100020021000C
A common test to determine pollution in water is the (BOD)
test. BOD stands for

a) body oxygen demand

b) biological oxygen demand
c) biochemical oxygen demand
d) biographic oxygen demand
e) biodegradable oxygen demand

010100020021000B
The two main growth nutrients carried by domestic sewage are

a) sulphates and nitrates

b) nitrates and phosphates
c) phosphates and sulphates
d) sulphates and suspended solids
e) sludge and dissolved solids

010100020021000B
The ability of water to dissolve oxygen

a) increases with the increase in water temperature

b) decreases with the increase of water temperature
c) decreases with the decrease of water temperature
d) does not change with temperature
e) none of the above

010100020021000D
Thermally separated layers in lakes are called

a) anticlines
b) inclines
c) temperature gradients
d) thermoclines
e) temperature layers

010100020021000A
An effluent is

a) a substance that flows out of a process

b) always pollutant
c) smog
d) the result of weather inversion
e) caused by over production of flue gases

010100020021000B
Phosphates are a common chemical found in

a) groundwater
b) detergents
c) plant effluent
d) settling ponds
e) sludge

010100020021000D
One pollutant that is particularly harmful to the earth's
ozone layer is otherwise known as

a) DOT's
b) PVC's
c) BOD's
d) CFC's
e) PCB's

010100020021000E
The pH of industrial effluent can be controlled

a) by the addition of acid

b) by the addition of alkaline
c) by the addition of water
d) by the use of settling ponds
e) by the addition of acid or alkaline as required

010100020021000D
Coagulants are substances used to
a) control the pH of effluent water
b) remove dissolved solids from water
c) remove grease from water
d) remove small particles from water
e) remove phosphate and nitrates from water

010100020021000E
Chemical emulsions can be removed by

a) settling
b) additives
c) centrifugal action
d) gravity
e) all of the above

010100020021000D
The best way to dispose of hazardous liquids is to

a) put them in a landfill

b) encase them and bury them underground
c) encase them and bury them at sea
d) incinerate them at high temperature
e) inject them down deep wells

010100020021000C
The rate at which a fluid progresses from a spilled area is
governed by its

a) pH
b) density
c) viscosity
d) thickness
e) weight

010100020021000C
Hazardous liquids should be handled according to information
supplied on

a) general safety reports

b) progress reports
c) Material Safety Data Sheets
d) plant operation manuals
e) Occupational Health and Safety Regulations

010100020021000E
Water that exists in the soil and rock formation is known as

a) tap water
b) contaminated water
c) surface water
d) soil water
e) ground water
Potential Environmental Impacts of Vapours
010100020021000E
The gaseous pollutant that contributes to acid rain is

a) ozone
b) carbon dioxide
c) carbon monoxide
d) mercaptan
e) sulphur dioxide

010100020021000D
Nitrogen oxides are referred collectively as

a) NO's

b) NO
2

c) N O
2

d) NO
X

e) N O
2 5

010100020021000A
The upper level gas that shields the earth from ultraviolet
radiation is

a) ozone
b) methane
c) carbon dioxide
d) chlorofluorocarbons
e) nitrogen

010100020021000A
The gaseous pollutant that contributes to ozone depletion in
the stratosphere is

a) nitrous oxide
b) sulphur oxide
c) carbon dioxide
d) carbon monoxide
e) methane

010100020021000D
A gaseous pollutant that contributes to acid rain is

a) mercaptan
b) carbon dioxide
c) methane
d) nitrous oxides
e) ozone
010100020021000C
The main components of acid rain are

a) carbonic acid and sulphuric acid

b) nitric acid and carbonic acid
c) nitric acid and sulphuric acid
d) sulphuric acid and acetic acid
e) sulphuric acid and carbonic acid

010100020021000C
The greatest effect of acid rain is on

a) leaves
b) plant stems
c) roots
d) plant reproductive systems
e) tree bark

010100020021000E
Incomplete combustion of fuel is responsible for the
production of

a) water vapour
b) carbon dioxide
c) hydrogen sulphide
d) sulphur dioxide
e) carbon monoxide

010100020021000E
In order for acid rain to be formed

a) atmospheric temperatures must be correct

b) water vapour must be present
c) sunlight must be present
d) water vapour and cool temperatures must apply
e) water vapour and sunlight must be present

010100020021000B
Methane gas is sometimes produced by

a) insufficient combustion air

b) decomposition of organic matter in a swamp
c) the burning of plastics
d) high intensity sunlight acting on ozone
e) discharging Halon fire extinguishers

010100020021000A
Greenhouse gases allow

a) high energy waves to pass

b) low energy waves to pass
c) long energy waves to pass
d) short energy waves to pass
e) allow all energy levels to pass

010100020021000D
Carbon dioxide is responsible for

a) 20% of greenhouse gases

b) 30% of greenhouse gases
c) 40% of greenhouse gases
d) 50% of greenhouse gases
e) 60% of greenhouse gases

010100020021000E
Ozone is harmful at

a) stratospheric levels in the atmosphere

b) substratospheric levels in the atmosphere
c) upper levels in the atmosphere
d) all levels in the atmosphere
e) lower levels in the atmosphere

010100020021000B
Chlorofluorocarbons

a) contribute to the acid rain problem

b) destroy ozone after they reach the stratosphere
c) combine with ozone to produce toxins
d) are the main heat trapping gases responsible for the
greenhouse effect
e) break down and become harmless as they rise in the
atmosphere

010100020021000C
The greenhouse effect is responsible for

a) heart and circulatory system strain

b) the diminishing maple sugar industry
c) drought conditions
d) fouling on fish gills
e) the death of microscopic life in lakes

010100020021000B
The most common method of removing sulphur dioxide from flue
gases involves the use of

a) caustic soda
b) limestone
c) an alkali wash
d) sodium carbonate
e) a dilute sulphuric acid wash

010100020021000C
The conversion of nitrogen to nitrogen oxides occurs at
temperatures above

a) 1,250 degrees C
b) 1,450 degrees C
c) 1,650 degrees C
d) 1,850 degrees C
e) 2,250 degrees C
010100020021000A
To reduce nitrogen oxides in the flue gas, the dual register
burner

a) reduces turbulence to delay combustion hence reducing

temperatures
b) completes combustion in the burner tube before the
furnace area
c) supplies cooling air to reduce furnace temperature
d) increases turbulence for most efficient combustion
e) uses maximum excess air for combustion at high
temperatures

010100020021000D
Hydrogen as an alternative fuel is considered ideal because

a) it burns at low temperatures therefore minimizing

nitrogen oxide formation
b) it has nearly the same heating value as carbon
c) it is safe and easy to store
d) water vapour is the only product of combustion
e) the cost of production is minimal

010100020021000C
Regenerable systems used for flue gas desulphurization

a) are less expensive than non-regenerable methods

b) use lime or limestone in scrubbing the flue gas
c) produce a marketable by-product
d) are better developed and more widely applied than
non-regenerable systems
e) produce no marketable by-product

Potential Environmental Impact of Operating Facilities

010100020021000E
Which of the following, created by operating facilities may
have an adverse affect on the environment:

a) noise generation
b) incomplete combustion
c) planned vapour release
d) solid non-toxic wastes
e) all of the above

010100020021000A
A valuable tool in recognition of an environmental problem is
the use of

a) WHMIS
b) TDG systems
c) operating systems
d) reporting systems
e) incident systems
010100020021000D
New facilities such as compressor stations require

a) a soil impact study

b) an air quality impact study
c) a gas conservation study
d) a noise impact statement
e) a wildlife impact statement

010100020021000D
The first action of plant personnel upon finding unplanned
environmental excursion is

a) to report the incident to OH&S

b) to report the incident to Provincial Environmental
Authorities
c) to report the incident to E.R.C.B.
d) minimize and control the release
e) alert the rest of the plant personnel

010100020021000B
Who provides the most effective means of problem recognition
in the plant?

a) Occupational Health and Safety

b) operating and maintenance personnel
c) plant superintendent
d) cleaning staff
e) fire marshall

010100020021000E
As a plant ages, changes in operating conditions that affect
the environment are the responsibility of

a) the ERCB
b) the company operating the plant
c) OH&S
d) the Environmental Review Board
e) plant operating personnel

010100020021000D
The three types of actions that can result when a problem
area is identified are

a) immediate, medium range, and long term actions

b) permanent, intermediate, and long term actions
c) permanent, interim, and adoptive actions
d) permanent, interim, and adaptive actions
e) short term, adaptive, and long term actions

010100020021000B
The ability of operating personnel to deal with abnormal
environmental conditions in a timely and efficient manner is
facilitated by
a) incident plans
b) emergency plans
c) adaptive action plans
d) permanent action plans
e) continuous action plans

010100020021000E
To lessen environmental incident, operating personnel should
know

a) the material they are dealing with

b) the isolation points in the process
c) what is required to contain a release
d) the problems that an upset in a process may cause to the
environment
e) all of the above

010100020021000C
The acceptable design sound level heard at the nearest
permanently or seasonally occupied dwelling would be stated
in the

a) soil impact study

b) wildlife impact statement
c) noise impact statement
d) air quality impact study
e) gas conservation study

010100020021000A
"Permanent action"

a) deals with and eliminates the root problem

b) allows you to live with the problem indefinitely
c) is unattainable
d) requires a plan to address the problem at the earliest
opportunity
e) suggests a time frame for follow up

010100020021000A
The most proficient method of dealing with environmental
impacts due to wastes is to

a) avoid the generation of hazardous waste

b) ensure it conforms with the TDG Act (Alberta)
c) ensure that disposal of material waste confirms with
required legislation
d) conduct periodic inspections of the company used to
dispose of hazardous waste
e) use long term storage

010100020021000B
When decommissioning and abandoning a processing site

a) a site restoration proposal must be done

b) an environmental impact study and a remedial plan must be
made
c) an ERCB approved plan must be implemented
d) an OH&S study must be done
e) a company liability study must be done

010100020021000C
Soil contaminated by a hazardous material should be

a) flushed with plenty of water

b) neutralized by an acidic or basic solution
c) removed, placed in sealed containers and disposed of
d) contained within the defined boundary
e) heated to above 500 degrees C to drive off the
contaminants

Engineering Materials
010100020021000E
Resistance to indentation refers to a metals property which
is

a) brittleness
b) elasticity
c) malleability
d) toughness
e) hardness

010100020021000D
Malleability of a metal

a) will usually decrease as the temperature rises

b) is checked using the Charpy tester
c) means it will crack when struck with a hammer
d) usually increases with the addition of heat
e) means the same as "toughness"

010100020021000C
A material that can be drawn out or extended in length
without breakage is said to be

a) hard
b) brittle
c) ductile
d) chilled
e) malleable

010100020021000D
Materials which will break rather than bend when subjected to
an outside force are said to be

a) tough
b) malleable
c) hard
d) brittle
e) stiff
010100020021000C
In the process of forming iron, limestone is added to

a) pig iron moulds

b) the iron ore in the moulds
c) the molten iron ore in order to form slag
d) make the resulting pig iron more malleable
e) increase the pig iron elasticity

010100020021000E
The result of removing nearly all the impurities and carbon
from pig iron is

a) white cast iron

b) steel
c) low carbon steel
d) coke
e) wrought iron

010100020021000C
Medium carbon steel becomes difficult to weld when the carbon
content exceeds

a) 10%
b) 3.5%
c) 0.35%
d) 0.25%
e) 0.1%

010100020021000E
Pig iron

a) is the raw material from which brass is made

b) has a high percentage of graphite
c) contains at least 2% carbon
d) has most of its carbon in a combined state
e) is the raw material from which cast iron is made

010100020021000D
An element which reduces creep in metal is

a) nickel
b) copper
c) vanadium
d) molybdenum
e) manganese

010100020021000D
In order to avoid residual stresses after welding, alloy
steels

a) cannot contain any carbon

b) must contain copper
c) are not affected by carbon content
d) should be heated before, during, and after welding
e) must be heated after welding

010100020021000D
When nickel is added to alloy steel, it

a) produces increased hardness

b) produces improved machineability
c) causes brittleness
d) produces improved corrosion resistance
e) produces improved elasticity

010100020021000C
When chromium is added to alloy steel it produces

a) increased toughness
b) increased ductility
c) increased hardness
d) improved machineability
e) improved malleability

010100020021000E
Nickel when added to steel

a) improves hardness and brittleness

b) decreases toughness and corrosion resistance
c) improves malleability
d) decreases hardness and brittleness
e) improves toughness and corrosion resistance

010100020021000B
An alloy of copper, tin, and sometimes zinc is

a) brass
b) bronze
c) white metal
d) babbit
e) low carbon steel

010100020021000E
Copper alloys

a) are harder to machine than copper

b) are not as strong as copper itself
c) are less resistant to corrosion than copper
d) are much lower in carbon content than copper
e) are easier to machine than copper itself

010100020021000B
Aluminum is produced from

a) copper and zinc

b) bauxite
c) non-ferrous ore
d) aluminum ore
e) babbit
010100020021000C
Aluminum alloys are used in the construction of

a) condenser tubes
b) motor casings
c) internal combustion engine parts
d) bearing shells
e) valves and piping

010100020021000A
Bismuth, silver and antimony are sometimes found in

a) bearing metals
b) bronze
c) copper
d) brass
e) chrome products

010100020021000D
Relative to bearing metal or babbit, the greater the amount
of lead it contains

a) the greater will be the amount of tin

b) the load it will be able to support will be less
c) the faster the equipment will be able to operate
d) the greater will be the load it will be able to support
e) the less chance it will have of being alloyed with
antimony

010100020021000D
Brass is an alloy of

a) copper and bronze

b) copper and lead
c) brass and lead
d) copper and zinc
e) copper and tin

010100020021000D
Bearing metal

1. is sometimes called babbit metal

2. is sometimes called white metal
3. can be heated to any temperature
4. can be made for different types of service

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000D
Babbit is composed of
a) 75% tin; 15% lead; 10% copper
b) 89% lead; 7.5% tin; 3.5% copper
c) 10% tin; 15% antimony; 75% lead
d) 89% tin; 7.5% lead; 3.5% copper
e) 75% lead; 15% tin; 10% antimony

Welding Methods
010100020021000A
When "plastic state" and "pressure" are terms used to
describe a type of weld, it is

a) forge welding
b) oxy-acetylene welding
c) resistance welding
d) submerged arc welding
e) electric arc welding

010100020021000E
The oldest form of welding is

a) resistance welding
b) spot welding
c) electric arc welding
d) plasma arc welding
e) forge welding

010100020021000D
When a filler rod and very hot flame are used in a welding
process, the weld method is

a) submerged arc welding

b) heli-arc method
c) electric arc method
d) oxy-acetylene method
e) spot-weld method

010100020021000C
Non-alloy low carbon steel filler rods are most often used
in

a) submerged arc welding

b) heli-arc welding
c) oxy-acetylene welding
d) electric arc welding
e) forge welding

010100020021000E
Cast iron and malleable iron are commonly repaired using

a) oxy-acetylene welding
b) submerged arc welding
c) electric arc welding
d) soldering
e) brazing
010100020021000B
A "tinning temperature" is used in

a) soldering
b) brazing
c) forging
d) electric arc welding
e) metal cutting

010100020021000E
When braze welding, the filler rod is usually

a) alloy steel
b) brass
c) antimony
d) aluminum
e) bronze

010100020021000B
When acetylene is stored in a cylinder it is absorbed in

a) water
b) acetone
c) chromate
d) phosphate
e) acetate

010100020021000A
Acetylene should not be used at pressures above

a) 103 kPa
b) 120 kPa
c) 50 kPa
d) 25 kPa
e) 10 kPa

010100020021000A
Soft soldering is a form of braze welding where soldering
temperatures are in the range of

a) 150 - 260 degrees Celsius

b) 500 - 1,000 degrees Celsius
c) 1,000 - 1,200 degrees Celsius
d) 1,200 - 1,500 degrees Celsius
e) 700 - 900 degrees Celsius

010100020021000C
Solder connections are usually used on

a) steel lines
b) stainless steel lines
c) copper lines
d) aluminum lines
e) cast iron lines
010100020021000D
Acetylene hose connections have

a) right hand threads

b) no threads
c) slip-on connections
d) left hand threads
e) quick couplers

010100020021000A
Which of the following is the colour for an acetylene hose?

a) red
b) green
c) black
d) white
e) yellow

010100020021000B
The following grades of Pressure Welders Certificate of
Competency are established under the Boilers Act:

a) "A" and "B"

b) "A", "B", and "C"
c) "A"
d) "B"
e) "AC" and "DC"

010100020021000D
When brought into an oxygen rich atmosphere, steel will burn
at

a) 358 degrees C
b) 507 degrees C
c) 670 degrees C
d) 870 degrees C
e) 1,213 degrees C

010100020021000E
When flame cutting, metal temperature must be brought above

a) 1,000 degrees Celsius

b) 900 degrees Celsius
c) 980 degrees Celsius
d) 1,100 degrees Celsius
e) 870 degrees Celsius

010100020021000B
When flame cutting, a blast of pure oxygen is directed into the
heated metal to

a) blow molten metal out

b) burn away a portion of the metal
c) cool the metal
d) produce slag
e) remove slag

010100020021000D
A standard flame cutting torch has __________ holes in the
tip.

a) four
b) three
c) five
d) seven
e) six

010100020021000B
A rectifier used in arc welding

a) will produce temperatures in the range of 700 to 830

degrees
b) will change AC to DC
c) is used for weld inspection
d) will rectify slag inclusion problems
e) produces an arc in the temperature range of 8,300 to
13,000 degrees C

010100020021000E
Electric arc temperatures may be as high as

a) 3,000 degrees C
b) 4,250 degrees C
c) 5,325 degrees C
d) 7,450 degrees C
e) 8,300 degrees C

010100020021000E
The current supply for electric arc welding may be a/an:

1. alternating current
2. direct current and straight polarity
3. direct current and reverse polarity
4. direct current generators

a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 1, 2, 3, 4

010100020021000D
If a welding electrode has the following identifying number
"E7015", what does the "70" represent?

a) 70 kPa
b) 70,000 kPa
c) 70 psi
d) 70,000 psi
e) 700 psi
010100020021000A
If a welding electrode has the following identifying number
"E6016", what does the "1" represent?

a) the welding position

b) AC or DC with medium penetration
c) DC reverse polarity with medium penetration
d) AC with deep penetration
e) DC with deep penetration

110100020021000E
The electrical power necessary for arc welding may be supplied by:

1. generators
2. transformers
3. rectifiers
4. pumps

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2
d) 1, 2, 4
e) 1, 2, 3

010100020021000C
With reverse polarity

a) the welding electrode is connected to the negative terminal

b) AC power is supplied to the electrode
c) the welding electrode is connected to the positive terminal
d) AC or DC power may be supplied to the electrode
e) DC power is supplied to the electrode

010100020021000C
With straight polarity

a) AC or DC power may be supplied to the electrode

b) DC power is supplied to the electrode
c) the welding electrode is connected to the negative
terminal
d) AC power is supplied to the electrode
e) the welding electrode is connected to the positive
terminal

010100020021000D
A welding electrode stamped "E6010" would have a tensile
strength of

a) 6,000 psi
b) 6,010 psi
c) 6,100 psi
d) 60,000 psi
e) 60,100 psi

010100020021000B
The item which keeps the weld from oxidizing, cooling too
fast, and the bead smooth during submerged arc welding is
the

a) arc temperature
b) flux
c) steadiness of the welder's hand
d) rod composition
e) rod rate of feed

010100020021000A
Advantages of submerged arc welding include:

1. a protective coating is not required over the electrode

2. the arc is not visible
3. weld seams are neat and uniform in appearance
4. a skilled welder is not required to operate the
machinery
5. very little gas or fumes rise from the weld

a) 2, 3, 5
b) 1, 4, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 3, 4, 5
e) 1, 3, 5

010100020021000C
Submerged arc welding is

a) an oxyacetylene welding process

b) an AC electric welding process
c) an AC or DC electric welding process
d) a DC welding process
e) a braze welding process

010100020021000A
A common method used to start the arc in submerged arc
welding is with

a) a piece of steel wool

b) a long wooden match
c) an electric sparker
d) an oil soaked torch
e) a striker similar to that used in oxyacetylene

Welding Terms and Inspection

010100020021000A
When a weld pass is made to deposit a backing weld behind the
root pass, it is termed

a) a backing pass
b) the axis of the weld
c) boxing
d) the lead angle
e) the plug weld

010100020021000B
A gas pocket or weld cavity caused by gas or moisture trapped
in a weld is called

a) a box
b) a blowhole
c) coalescence
d) a crater
e) spatter

010100020021000A
Coalescence is

a) the same as fusion

b) a type of coating used on a welding rod
c) a term used in brazing
d) a term used in soldering
e) the mixing of gases in a cutting torch

010100020021000B
When a weld is made with two pieces of parent metal at or
near the same plane the weld is termed a

a) fusion weld
b) butt joint weld
c) lap join weld
d) bevel angle weld
e) box weld

010100020021000A
When heat from electric current and pressure are used in
welding, it is known as

a) resistance welding
b) forge welding
c) submerged arc welding
d) MIG welding
e) TIG welding

010100020021000E
Non-destructive testing of a weld means

a) testing the weld by means of chemical analysis

b) raising the hydrostatic pressure on a vessel to the point
of rupture
c) mechanical testing of a sample or small portion of a weld
d) thermal shocking a vessel to the point of fracture
e) subjecting the weld to a radiographic inspection

010100020021000E
Slugging is a term which refers to

a) creation of a gas pocket created by gas or moisture

trapped in the weld
b) solid non-metallic material trapped in the weld
c) stresses built up in a structure as a result of welding
d) metal particles being sprayed out during the welding
process
e) adding pieces of unspecified rod or metal as filler
during a weld

010100020021000C
Slag inclusion results from

a) metal particles being sprayed out during the weld process

b) adding pieces of rod or metal as filler to the weld
c) solid non-metallic material being trapped in the weld
d) creation of a gas pocket due to trapped gases
e) stresses built up after the weld process

010100020021000A
A "reducing flame" is one which is

a) rich in acetylene
b) placed an increased distance from the work
c) oxygen rich
d) held perpendicular to the weld axis
e) most likely to cause backfire

010100020021000B
Gas pockets trapped within a weld is commonly called

a) flux
b) porosity
c) spatter
d) slugging
e) fusion

010100020021000C
Flux is

a) a grouping of gas pockets together in a weld

b) the unspecified pieces of scrap metal added to a weld to
speed up the process
c) a granular substance deposited with the weld
d) the metal added as filler to a weld area
e) a gas flame which is neither rich in oxygen or acetylene

010100020021000C
Destructive testing of a weld means

a) destruction of one complete weld of a structure or vessel

b) destruction of the complete vessel after construction
c) mechanical testing of a sample or small portion of a weld
d) raising hydrostatic pressure on a vessel to the point of
rupture
e) thermal shocking a vessel to the point of fracture

010100020021000B
A method of testing a weld which is quick, easy, and
inexpensive is the

a) fluorescent penetrant method

b) visual method
c) ultrasonic method
d) dye penetrant method
e) radiographic method

010100020021000A
The best method of weld inspection if error is to be avoided
is the

a) visual method
b) fluorescent penetrant method
c) ultrasonic method
d) dye penetrant method
e) radiographic method

010100020021000E
When an ultraviolet light is used in weld inspections, the
testing method is

a) destructive
b) dye penetrant
c) ultrasonic
d) radiographic
e) fluorescent penetrant

010100020021000C
The basic difference between fluorescent penetrant and dye
penetrant is that dye penetrant

a) makes valuable use of penetrameters

b) uses less compounds than fluorescent
c) involves the use of a developer compound
d) cannot be reliable in locating porosity in a weld
e) requires a "black" light to detect cracks

010100020021000D
When penetrameters are used for testing welds, the method
being used is the

a) dye penetrant
b) ultrasonic
c) fluorescent penetrant
d) radiographic
e) visual

010100020021000D
When using radiographic inspections, defects such as cracks
and porosity show up as

a) lighter shadows on the photographic paper

b) wave signals on a small screen
c) darker shadows on the penetrameter
d) darker shadows on the photographic paper
e) lighter shadows on the penetrameter

010100020021000B
Ultrasonic inspection involves the use of

a) short wavelength radiations

b) high frequency vibrations
c) fluorescent penetrant dye
d) radiographic penetrameters
e) gamma rays

010100020021000D
Rules for uses of radiographic and ultrasonic inspection are
covered in the

a) Rules for Care and Operation of Power Boilers Code

b) ASME Section IX - Welding and Brazing Qualifications
c) Canadian Standards B-51
d) Power Boiler Code Section I
e) ASME Section II - Materials Specification

Introduction to Piping and Piping Fittings

010100020021000C
The mass of a two metre length of schedule 40 pipe, nominal
size 101.6 mm, is

a) 12.04 kg
b) 8 kg
c) 31.9 kg
d) 26.92 kg
e) 11.48 kg

010100020021000C
For power plants, materials used for the manufacturing of
pipes must be

a) cast iron
b) seamless stainless steel
c) suited to the operating conditions of the piping system
d) case hardened
e) alloyed with sulphur

010100020021000D
In order to convey fluid from one storage tank to another

a) valves are required

b) pumps are necessary
c) drains are required
d) piping is required
e) control valves are necessary
010100020021000A
Two main categories of steel piping manufactured are the

a) seamless or welded type

b) plastic or steel type
c) ferrous or copper type
d) thick or thin type
e) single or double walled

010100020021000B
Since cast iron has a high resistance to corrosion and abrasion,
it is used for

a) underground steam lines

b) ash handling systems
c) condensate lines
d) blow-off piping
e) high pressure service

010100020021000C
Non-ferrous materials used in power plant piping are

a) made of asbestos
b) not allowed by the ASME code
c) usually made of brass and copper alloys
d) made of ceramic materials
e) are made of steel

010100020021000A
Forged steel is used primarily for

a) pipe fittings
b) sewer lines
c) steam lines conveying super heated steam
d) ash handling systems
e) water treatment piping and valves

010100020021000D
The most frequently used material for piping is

a) non-ferrous
b) cast iron
c) pig iron
d) steel
e) plastic

010100020021000E
Cast iron has a high resistance to

a) water pressure
b) condensate pressure
c) tensile stress
d) temperature changes
e) corrosion

010100020021000B
Piping made of copper and brass are called
a) ferrous materials
b) non-ferrous materials
c) soft pipe
d) bronze materials
e) residential piping

010100020021000E
Pipe is manufactured in two main categories, welded and

a) threaded
b) soldered
c) brazed
d) flanged
e) seamless

010100020021000B
Up to and including 304.8 mm pipe, the size of the pipe is expressed
as a measure of

a) circumference
b) inside diameter
c) outside diameter
d) thickness of the wall
e) outside radius

010100020021000C
Commercial pipe is made in standard sizes each having
several different:

1. weights
2. colours
3. thickness'
4. shapes
5. threads

a) 1, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3
d) 4, 5
e) 2, 3, 5

010100020021000A
All classes of pipes of a given size have

a) the same outside diameter

b) the same inside diameter
c) the same length
d) the same expansion coefficient
e) the same mass per metre run of the pipe

010100020021000D
Double extra strong pipe is denoted by

a) SS
b) 2S
c) ES
d) XXS
e) DES

010100020021000C
A newer method used to designate pipe wall thickness is by

a) measuring the thickness with callipers

b) using a comparitor gage
c) using schedule numbers
d) using a pipe gauge
e) using a pipe graph comparitor chart

010100020021000A
As the wall thickness of a pipe increases the

a) inside diameter is reduced

b) outside diameter increases
c) the weight of the pipe decreases
d) the bore of the pipe increases
e) the pipe becomes less suitable for steam service

010100020021000C
The inside diameter of a pipe is expressed as the

a) average pipe size

b) regular pipe size
c) nominal pipe size
d) circumferential pitch
e) central cross section of service

010100020021000D
For varying wall thickness' of pipe, tables are developed
which give the dimensions and

a) volume in cu m
b) length in cm
c) diameter in cm square
d) weight in kg/m
e) thickness in cm

010100020021000C
Up to and including 304.8 mm pipe, the size is expressed as
_________________ inside diameter.

a) natural
b) normal
c) nominal
d) greater
e) reduced

010100020021000E
In most sizes of pipe, schedule forty corresponds to
__________________ wall thickness.

a) excessive
b) regular
c) reduced
d) higher
e) standard

010100020021000A
A newer method used to designate pipe wall thickness is
__________________ number.

a) schedule
b) regulation
c) diameter
d) circumference
e) pipe registration

010100020021000B
Copper and copper alloy piping and tubing is not used in
power plants when

a) pressure is a prime factor

b) temperature is a prime factor
c) instrumentation systems require tubing
d) steam becomes corrosive
e) chemicals are used in the applicable system

010100020021000E
As a piping and pipe fitting material, cast steel is used

a) extensively for fittings

b) mainly for instrumentation and control piping
c) for construction of welded pipe
d) steam traps
e) primarily for special applications

010100020021000C
Pipe fittings which are not clearly identified should be

a) used only with water systems

b) tested and used
c) rejected
d) painted as required by the colour code
e) reported to the boilers branch

010100020021000D
All markings on pipes and pipe fittings must indicate the
following three minimum requirements:

1. material designation
2. inside diameter
3. manufacturer's trademark or name
4. flange type
5. service designation
6. national code colour

a) 1, 2, 6
b) 2, 4, 5
c) 3, 4, 6
d) 1, 3, 5
e) 4, 5, 6

010100020021000C
The piping service symbols "A", "G", "O" stand for:

a) ammonia, grease, and oxygen

b) aluminum, glass, and octane
c) air, gas, and oil
d) air, glycol, and oil
e) ammonia, gas, and octane

010100020021000A
A valve stamped with the following service symbol letters
"G", "A", "S" stands for:

a) gas, air, and steam

b) gaseous substances
c) grease, acetylene, and sulphur
d) glue, acid, and salt brine
e) glycol, air, and saline

010100020021000B
A grey cast iron fitting is identified by

a) the letters G.C.I.

b) not being marked on the fittings
c) the letters G.C.
d) the letters C.I.
e) the letters G.C.I.F.

010100020021000B
Fittings used to connect a straight run of same size piping
are

a) nipples
b) couplings
c) bushings
d) elbows
e) return bends

010100020021000D
Relative to pipe and fittings, an anchor chair is used to

a) install piping at considerable height

b) allow for expansion and contraction of pipe
c) anchor a slip type expansion joint
d) support pipe
e) hold a large fitting in a piping run

010100020021000C
Combine the following gaskets with their use:

1. cork
2. asbestos rope
3. rubber
4. metal asbestos
5. high pressure steam
 6. lubricating oil
7. cold water
8. flue gas ducts

a) 1-7, 4-8, 3-6, 2-5

b) 1-5, 2-6, 3-7, 4-8
c) 1-6, 3-7, 4-5, 2-8
d) 1-8, 2-7, 3-6, 4-5
e) 1-8, 3-6, 2-7, 4-5

010100020021000B
Low pressure steam pipes are usually connected together by:

1. welding
2. glands
3. screwed fittings
4. flanges

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000A
The best material for gaskets in very high temperature areas
would be

a) metallic
b) cork
c) nylon
d) plastic foam
e) rubber

010100020021000C
A disadvantage of using threads to join pipes and fittings is,
that it

a) is more costly
b) cannot be repaired
c) weakens the pipe
d) does not allow for expansion
e) requires the services of a pipe fitter

010100020021000D
The vanstone type flange fits on the pipe

a) in a fixed position
b) by being welded onto the inside circumference of the flange
c) by being threaded on the ends
d) loosely
e) by evenly spaced set screws

010100020021000D
When tightening pipe flange bolts

a) tighten them in sequence

b) the gasket should be held in place by gasket glue
c) the top bolts must be tightened first
d) use a cross-over method or criss-cross method of tightening
e) tighten every second bolt first then tighten the others

010100020021000B
Welding together pipe size of two inch nominal size and
smaller is usually done by

a) the oxygen-acetylene method

b) the socket welded method
c) the butt welded method
d) non-pressure welders
e) pipe fitters

010100020021000C
By using backing rings in butt welded pipes, the backing ring
serves to

a) reinforce the pipe because of bevelling at the joint

b) reduce sludge flow
c) align the pipe
d) support the pipe to the wall
e) prevent welding gases from entering the pipe line

010100020021000D
Ring joint gaskets are

a) round in cross-section
b) flat
c) square in cross-section
d) oval in cross-section
e) hollow

010100020021000A
Gaskets are used in pipe flange joints to

a) prevent leakage because of small imperfections in the

flange face
b) allow for pipe expansion between each flanged joint
c) make up for the misalignment of the pipe
d) provide cushioning in the event of water hammer
e) prevent air ingress in high pressure steam mains

010100020021000A
A bellows type corrugated expansion joint is suitable for
pressures up to approximately

a) 2,000 kPa
b) 500 kPa
c) 1,000 kPa
d) 30,000 kPa
e) 15,000 kPa

010100020021000E
A device which incorporates a swirling motion to remove
moisture from a piping system is the
a) steam trap
b) baffle type separator
c) chevron drier
d) centrifuge
e) centrifugal separator

010100020021000D
The two types of expansion joints are the ________________
and the slip expansion joint.

a) bolted
b) fixed
c) stationary
d) bellows
e) rotating

010100020041000B
Expansion of piping is controlled by:

1. anchoring the pipe at both ends to prevent movement

2. installing a corrugated expansion joint in the line
3. installing an expansion bend in the line
4. anchoring the pipe at both ends and installing hangers
every five metres

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 2, 3, 4

010100020021000A
Expansion bends have the advantage over the expansion joint
for one of the following reasons:

a) being stronger
b) they are thinner
c) they are heavier
d) they are cheaper
e) they are portable

010100020021000D
Expansion bends or joints are implemented in piping systems
to

a) allow for correct piping drainage

b) give allowance for pressure increases
c) protect against water hammer damage
d) allow for expansion and contraction of the piping
e) reduce pipe costs

010100020021000B
Pipe hangers are installed at three metre intervals to:

1. align the pipe

2. keep the pipe out of the way of foot traffic
 3. provide a proper drainage slope
4. support the weight of the pipe, valves, and fluid
contained within the pipe
5. allow for pipe expansion

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 3, 5

010100020021000D
The bellows type expansion joint is good for pressures up
to approximately

a) 7,000 kPa
b) 700 kPa
c) 15,000 kPa
d) 2,000 kPa
e) 5,000 kPa

010100020021000D
A slip type pipe expansion joint:

1. is stronger than the bellows types

2. is actually a pipe within a pipe
3. can have packing added when in service
4. has a lubrication fitting
5. is usually flame fitted to the pipe

a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 1, 2, 5
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 3, 5

010100020021000B
Before admitting any steam to a steam piping system it is
imperative to first

a) warm the line up properly

b) positively ensure that no water or condensate exists in
the piping
c) ensure drain valves are closed
d) crack open the steam valve
e) ensure the steam pressure is at maximum value allowed
without the boiler safety valve opening

010100020021000C
Cold water piping systems are usually insulated so that

a) the loss of heat is prevented

b) the ingress of heat is prevented
c) corrosion is minimized or eliminated
d) appearance is improved
e) water hammer is eliminated
010100020021000E
An insulation suitable for temperatures up to 430 degrees C
is

a) plastic foam
b) asbestos
c) magnesia
d) glass fibre
e) cellular glass

010100020021000C
Ease of application and installation is a desirable property
of

a) pipe fittings
b) asbestos insulation
c) pipe insulation
d) piping
e) tubing

010100020021000C
Improper drainage of steam lines could

a) result in excessive steam pressures

b) cause low pressure in the lines
c) eventually result in water hammer
d) give excessive weight to the pipe
e) render the feed water pump ineffective

010100020021000B
Piping insulation should have the following characteristics:

1. be non-corrosive
2. a low heat conductivity
3. high eddy current values
4. be easy to remove from the pipe
5. retain its shape and insulating value when wet
6. be vermin proof

a) 1, 2, 4, 6
b) 1, 2, 5, 6
c) 1, 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 2, 3, 5
e) 1, 3, 5

010100020021000A
The main purpose of installing insulation on pipe systems is
to

a) prevent heat transfer

b) give the pipe a neat appearance
c) prevent injury to personnel due to contact with the
bare surfaces of the pipe
d) provide a paintable surface
e) prevent condensate from evaporating in the lines

010100020021000C
Plastic foams used for pipe insulation are

a) used for high temperature service

b) for refrigeration system piping only
c) for lower temperature insulation purposes
d) prohibited from power plant use
e) glued directly to the pipe

010100020021000E
Insulating pipes which carry substances lower than the ambient
air temperature, will prevent _________________ on the pipe
and consequent dripping and corrosion.

a) discoloration
b) evaporation
c) water hammering
d) expansion
e) sweating

010100020021000C
The purpose of a steam separator is to
remove ______________ from the steam.

a) oil
b) air
c) moisture
d) gas
e) non-condensables

010100020021000D
The purpose of steam traps is to remove condensate and
_____________________ from steam lines.

a) oil
b) water
c) chemicals
d) non-condensables
e) sludge

010100020021000E
A ______________________ should be installed
just ahead of a steam trap.

a) check valve
b) non return valve
c) pressure gauge
d) pressure reducing valve
e) sediment separator

010100020021000B
A mechanical steam trap

a) can be fitted in any position

b) may have a thermostatic air release
c) should be fitted to the safety valve drain
d) has alcohol inside the float
e) has a very low pressure range of operation

010100020021000C
A thermostatic trap is controlled by a

a) difference in velocity between condensate and steam

b) combination of bucket and float
c) temperature differential between condensate and steam
d) bucket which tips when filled with condensate
e) high level float control

010100020021000C
A purpose of a steam trap is to

a) prevent steam from flowing in the steam line

b) prevent air from flowing in the steam line
c) automatically drain condensate from steam lines
d) cause the water in steam lines to accumulate
e) hold back foreign particles from the steam line

010100020021000C
The purpose of a steam trap is to

a) collect steam for storage purposes

b) reduce high pressure steam to a lower pressure
c) remove condensation from steam lines without allowing steam
to pass
d) remove steam from a steam line without allowing water to pass
e) prevent sludge compounds from entering the steam line

010100020021000D
Steam traps are usually located

a) at the highest point of a steam line

b) at the highest point of a hot water line
c) at the lowest point of a hot water line
d) at the lowest point of a steam line
e) at the hottest point of a steam line

010100020021000E
The operation of a mechanical steam trap depends on the

a) difference in temperature between the steam and condensate

b) difference in specific gravity between the steam and condensate
c) difference in pressure between the steam and condensate
d) liquid level in the condensate tank
e) liquid level in the steam trap

010100020021000B
Two fittings that can be found on a steam separator are:

1. gauge glass
2. pressure gauge
3. vent valve
4. steam trap
5. safety valve
a) 1, 2
b) 1, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 4, 5
e) 2, 5

Introduction to Valves
010100020021000C
A valve which has the best capability of handling slurries
and fluids with high suspended solids is the

a) globe valve
b) gate valve
c) ball valve
d) needle valve
e) plug valve

010100020021000A
A valve having minimum wire drawing and seat erosion is the

a) globe valve
b) gate valve
c) plug valve
d) hand valve
e) wedge gate valve

010100020021000E
A valve which requires specific and routine lubrication is
the

a) butterfly valve
b) globe valve
c) pressure reducing valve
d) check valve
e) tapered plug valve

010100020021000D
A valve which often contains a dashpot to cushion the action
of the valve is the

a) needle valve
b) swing check valve
c) pressure regulating valve
d) lift check valve
e) safety valve

010100020021000A
Increasing the spring tension of a pressure regulating valve
will

a) increase the regulated pressure downstream of the valve

b) close the valve tight
c) decrease the regulated pressure downstream of the valve
d) cause the valve to go to the wide open position
e) reduce or minimize the cycling or "hunting" of the valve

010100020021000B
In order to ensure safe and continuous operation of a
pressure reducing valve, the valve station should have

a) a safety valve on the downstream side

b) a by-pass loop, downstream safety valve, and a downstream
pressure gage
c) the piping to the station made of at least Schedule 80
piping
d) a Y-strainer immediately after the valve
e) a metal rather than composition diaphragm

010100020021000A
A check valve is a valve that

a) allows flow in one direction only

b) allows flow in two directions
c) allows flow at regular intervals
d) does not allow any flow at all
e) has a locking spindle

010100020021000D
The by-pass around a regulating valve should contain a

a) rising stem gate valve

b) non-rising stem gate valve
c) swing check valve
d) rising stem globe valve
e) lift type check valve

010100020021000C
A gate valve:

1. has less restriction in a line than a globe valve

2. should be operated either fully open or fully closed
3. is used to throttle flow
4. is used for different applications than a globe valve

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 2, 4

010100020021000D
A globe valve:

1. has less restriction in a line than a gate valve

2. should be operated either fully open or fully closed
3. is used to throttle flow
4. is used for different applications than a gate valve

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 4

010100020021000B
Butterfly valves have several advantages such as they:

1. only require 1/4 turn to open

2. are self-cleaning
3. provide negligible pressure drop when fully open
4. can have the disc lubricated while in operation
5. are self-adjusting so alignment is not required during
installation

a) 1, 3
b) 2, 3
c) 2, 4
d) 3, 4, 5
e) 1, 2, 5

010100020021000C
The maximum temperature which a non-special alloy steel valve
can be used for is

a) 280 degrees C
b) 425 degrees C
c) 650 degrees C
d) 1,000 degrees C
e) 1,500 degrees C

010100020021000E
Relative to valves, a frequent cause of serious accidents is
due to

a) valves being of the wrong size

b) a lack of valve maintenance
c) inadequate operational training
d) manufacturing defects
e) wrong materials of construction

010100020021000B
In order to extend the life of valve packing we can

a) operate the valve at lower temperatures

b) lubricate the packing regularly with oil
c) replace the packing annually
d) manipulate the valve slower
e) manipulate the valve on a regular basis

010100020021000A
Regular inspection of a valve is important and items which
require close scrutiny are the

a) disc and seat

b) stem and body
c) seat and stem
d) stuffing box and spindle threads
e) hand wheel and packing

010100020021000E
Valve packing, depending on service, may be made from:

1. Teflon
2. manila
3. impregnated asbestos
4. Halon
5. semi-metallic material

a) 1, 2, 5
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 3, 4, 5
e) 1, 3, 5

010100020021000C
"Valve trim" consists of the following parts:

1. stuffing box
2. disc
3. seat ring
4. bonnet
5. valve stem
6. body
7. guide bushings

a) 1, 2, 4, 6
b) 3, 4, 5, 6
c) 2, 3, 5, 7
d) 1, 2, 6, 7
e) 2, 3, 4, 5

010100020021000B
Material designation of a pipe fitting

a) gives where the material is used

b) tells what material makes up the fitting
c) gives the temperature to which the fitting can be
subjected
d) tells what the material is suited for
e) is not required for low pressure steam service

010100020021000D
All markings on pipe and pipe fittings shall be

a) painted with black paint

b) made with capital letters
c) covered for protection
d) legible
e) written vertically in capital letters

010100020021000C
Service designation of a pipe fitting indicates the
a) type of liquid used in the fitting
b) type of gas used in the fitting
c) temperature-pressure rating of the fitting
d) maximum pipe fluid flow velocity
e) maximum viscosity of the fluid

010100020021000C
Pressure and/or temperature rating of a fitting is known as

a) material designation
b) manufacturer's trademark
c) service designation
d) thermal designation
e) work requirement

010100020021000E
The advantage of a rising spindle steam stop valve is that:

1. you can tell from a distance if the valve is open or

closed
2. it provides a place to install isolation tags
3. it may be easily lubricated
4. the threaded part is not exposed to corrosion by the
high temperature steam

a) 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 4
c) 1, 2, 3
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 3, 4

010100020021000B
The purpose of the non-return valve is to

a) prevent water from entering the steam header

b) prevent the back flow of steam
c) drain condensate from the main steam header
d) prevent the safety valve from popping
e) regulate the flow of steam from the boiler

Development of Boiler Design

010100020021000C
A straight tube longitudinal drum boiler with a chain grate
stoker usually had

a) one pass
b) two passes
c) three passes
d) four passes
e) an internal furnace

010100020021000C
The Haycock boiler was
a) a watertube unit
b) of multiple flue gas pass design
c) used around 1720
d) of welded construction
e) a packaged unit

010100020021000A
A characteristic which made early boilers very inefficient
was

a) lack of heating surface

b) an excess of flat surfaces
c) the internal furnace
d) lack of good quality fuels
e) inadequate water treatment

010100020021000A
An early boiler having a longitudinal shell or drum had as
its heating surface

a) only the lower part of the shell

b) the lower part of the shell and the rear plate or head
c) the total shell side and one end plate or head
d) only the one end plate
e) two passes along the shell or drum

010100020021000C
Thermal flooding boilers

a) are often termed "Hot Water Boilers"

b) are low capacity units
c) are used to inject steam into geological formations
d) do not use water as the heat transfer medium
e) are used in the generation of electricity

010100020021000B
The first boiler to have an internal furnace was the

a) HRT boiler
b) Scotch boiler
c) longitudinal drum firetube boiler
d) locomotive boiler
e) watertube boiler

010100020021000E
A _________________ is a water-filled section which
surrounds the firebox in locomotive boilers.

a) crown sheet
b) boiler drum
c) tell tale stay
d) steam dome
e) water leg

010100020021000E
The first boiler to have firetubes became known as the
a) Haycock boiler
b) Scotch boiler
c) Mushroom boiler
d) Haystack boiler
e) HRT boiler

010100020021000D
The water leg was introduced with the

a) scotch boiler
b) longitudinal drum boiler
c) watertube boiler
d) locomotive boiler
e) HRT boiler

010100020021000A
Safety, efficient operation, and economical fuel consumption
are

a) main considerations when designing boilers

b) the main advantages of a watertube unit over a firetube
unit
c) the result of "packaged unit" construction
d) due to improved metals and alloys
e) the results of environmental protection laws

010100020021000C
The steam space of a boiler must be large in order to

a) keep the steam pressure down

b) reduce the cooling effect of water
c) separate the water from the steam
d) accommodate all the steam riser tubes
e) accommodate a steam separator

010100020021000B
Waterlegs generally

a) act as support for a boiler

b) surround a furnace
c) do not act as heating surface
d) do not require staying
e) never presented any waterside problems

010100020021000B
All parts of the boiler exposed to fire or hot gases must be

a) made of firebrick
b) covered by water
c) air cooled
d) fitted with expansion joints
e) covered with ceramic tile

010100020021000B
Boiler structural strength must
a) be at least ten times the normal working pressure rating
b) be at least equal to the various code requirements
c) take into account only pressure values and not consider
temperatures
d) be increased if thinner metal is to be used
e) be verified by the purchaser

010100020021000A
A steam boiler should be compact in design in order to

a) reduce building costs

b) be easier to move
c) weigh less
d) be easier to maintain
e) reduce operating costs

Basic Boiler Terminology

010100020021000C
A boiler which will start and stop without human help once a
start-up is initiated is termed

a) semi-automatic
b) self regulating
c) automatic
d) modulating controlled unit
e) packaged

010100020021000B
The maximum energy input to a hot water supply boiler is

a) 454 L per minute

b) 58.7 kW
c) 20,000 BTU
d) 127 Imperial gallons per minute
e) 587 kW

010100020021000B
For horizontal firetube boilers, the lowest visible water
level in the gage glass is set not less than __________ above
the highest point of the tubes.

a) 2 inches
b) 3 inches
c) 50 mm
d) 1 inch
e) 25 mm

010100020021000E
A low pressure steam boiler is one which operates

a) at an energy input above 58.7 kW

b) above 103 kPa
c) above 121 degrees C
d) above 1100 kPa
e) at or below 103 kPa

010100020021000E
A device used on smaller heating boilers to measure water
"head" or height is the

a) gage glass
b) header
c) pressure gage
d) siphon
e) altitude gage

010100020021000A
An example of a boiler fitting would be a

a) temperature controller
b) forced draft fan
c) combustion chamber
d) drum
e) sootblower

010100020021000D
An induced draft fan handles

a) air from the combustion process

b) air going to the combustion process
c) flue gases going to the combustion process
d) flue gases from the combustion process
e) fuel gases from the combustion process

010100020021000B
The lowest permissible water level of a power boiler is

a) 25 mm below the lowest visible water line

b) 50 mm below the lowest visible water line
c) 25 mm above the fireline
d) 50 mm below the fireline
e) 76 mm below the visible water line

010100020021000E
A device which must be replaced each time it performs its
function is the

a) low water fuel cut-off

b) high steam pressure limiting control
c) safety valve
d) blowoff valve
e) rupture disk

010100020021000C
On older boilers the brickwork which tended to surround the
furnace was termed

a) the boiler firebox

b) refractory
c) the setting of the boiler
d) the boiler casing
e) the windbox

010100020021000D
A device which usually uses air or steam to do its job is the

a) siphon
b) operating control
c) burner
d) sootblower
e) try cock

010100020021000D
A boiler component which surrounds the burner of most boilers
is the

a) waterleg
b) stack
c) uptake
d) windbox
e) refractory

010100020021000E
The low water cut-off is a device fitted to the boiler to
shut the

a) feed water supply off, if the fuel supply is too low

b) feed water supply off, if the steam pressure becomes
too high
c) feedwater supply off, if the boiler temperature becomes
too high
d) fuel valve off if the water level becomes too high
e) fuel valve off if the water level becomes too low

010100020021000C
Manholes are openings through which a person can

a) enter the boiler furnace

b) inspect the boiler uptake
c) enter the boiler shell or drum
d) enter and inspect the steam header
e) enter the ash hopper

010100020021000B
A furnace baffle is

a) used to prevent the fire from striking the tubes

b) installed to direct the hot flue gases
c) used to prevent the water from surging
d) used to deflect the flame
e) installed to prevent carryover

010100020021000D
The windbox of a boiler is

a) where the fuel and air are mixed for combustion

b) what the forced draft fan is installed into
c) the collector of the exhaust gases before they go into
the uptake
d) the ductwork surrounding the burners on the outside of
the boiler into which the air for the burners is
introduced
e) always maintained under a negative pressure

010100020021000A
A check valve

a) allows flow in one direction only

b) regulates the flow of feedwater to the boiler
c) is used to isolate the steam gage
d) is not considered a fitting
e) will "pop" open when pressure inside the drum reaches a
set point

010100020021000C
A steam gage

a) indicates the level of water in a boiler

b) is not considered a boiler fitting
c) indicates the internal pressure of the boiler
d) is required on power boilers only
e) will reset once the boiler pressure has dropped

Firetube Boilers
010100020021000C
HRT boiler firetubes have a diameter range of

a) 25 to 51 mm
b) 51 to 102 mm
c) 76 to 102 mm
d) 102 to 137 mm
e) 125 to 176 mm

010100020021000B
A device used to prevent the carry-over of moisture with the
steam of an HRT boiler is the

a) internal pipe
b) dry pipe
c) nozzle
d) head pipe
e) crown tube

010100020021000C
With regard to a steam boiler, the lettering "HRT" means

a) highly regulated temperature

b) hot return tubes
c) horizontal return tubular
d) highly regulated treatment
e) horizontal receiver tubes
010100020021000A
An advantage of a locomotive boiler over other boilers of the
era was

a) rugged construction
b) better cleaning and repair access
c) improved water circulation
d) less stays were required
e) lower maintenance costs

010100020021000E
A component used to increase the volume of the steam space in
a locomotive boiler was the

a) crown sheet
b) steam leg
c) shell head
d) dry pipe
e) steam dome

010100020021000C
A boiler which utilized a waterleg and was primarily used for
heating purposes was the

a) HRT boiler
b) locomotive boiler
c) firebox boiler
d) Scotch boiler
e) marine boiler

010100020021000D
A major disadvantage of a firebox is

a) first cost is relatively high

b) it has a low heat transfer efficiency
c) it is not very compact
d) cleaning and inspection can be difficult
e) it has only one flue gas pass

010100020021000B
The firebox boiler is a _______________________ pass firetube
boiler.

a) single
b) two
c) three
d) vertical
e) horizontal

010100020021000E
A corrugated furnace will give required strength with thinner
metal, increase heating surface, and

a) increase the boiler mass

b) add to the overall material cost of the unit
c) decrease combustion turbulence
d) will necessitate the boiler being made longer
e) allow for differential expansion and contraction

010100020021000B
The wetback Scotch boiler was designed primarily for

a) building heating service

b) marine service
c) traction engine service
d) railway service
e) very high capacity electrical generation

010100020021000D
In a packaged firetube boiler the flue gas velocity within
the unit is maintained by

a) increasing forced draft fan speed

b) constructing a taller stack
c) varying the firetube lengths
d) varying the total cross-sectional area of the fire tubes
in each pass
e) decreasing forced draft fan speed

010100020021000D
A boiler which is built ready for installation is the

a) Scotch marine boiler

b) firebox boiler
c) HRT boiler
d) packaged boiler
e) locomotive boiler

010100020021000D
A firetube boiler is one which has

a) water on the inside of the tubes and the hot gas of combustion
on the outside.
b) the furnace as the first pass of the burner flame.
c) water on the outside of the tubes and hot water on the inside
of the tubes.
d) water on the outside of the tubes and the hot gas on the inside
of the tubes.
e) internally fired tubes surrounded by water.

010100020021000E
When the hot combustion gases travel through boiler tubes which
are surrounded by the boiler water, the boiler is called a

a) watertube boiler
b) tubular boiler
c) packaged boiler
d) coil type boiler
e) firetube boiler

010100020021000D
The advantages of a packaged boiler are:
 1. lower freight costs because of less handling
2. lower initial cost because they are mass produced
3. quality control is easier to implement
4. the boilers can be factory tested before being sent
to the customer
5. it requires little time to put the unit into operation
at the plant site

a) 1, 3
b) 2, 5
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4, 5
e) 2, 3, 4, 5

Watertube Boilers
010100020021000C
In a longitudinal straight tube boiler the downcomer fed

a) "cool" water to the steam drum

b) "hot" water to a riser
c) "cool" water to a rear header
d) "cool" water to a front header
e) "hot" water to the water tubes

010100020021000D
A packaged watertube boiler having two mud drums is the

a) "O" type
b) "D" type
c) three drum bent-tube type
d) "A" type
e) Sterling type

010100020021000D
High pressure watertubes

a) are always smaller than firetubes

b) are elliptical in cross-section
c) are always straight
d) can be of various bent configurations
e) require pumps for circulation

010100020021000B
Bent tube watertube boilers

a) cannot have the furnace water-lined

b) make more efficient use of the furnace
c) are externally fired
d) cannot be fitted with heat recovery components
e) have poor utilization of floor space

010100020021000C
A cross drum straight tube boiler

a) could not have higher capacity than a longitudinal drum

unit
b) was usually only of single pass design
c) could have more inclined tubes than a longitudinal drum
unit
d) is a very popular design in today's plants
e) was internally fired

010100020021000E
Watertube boilers are better suited to higher pressures
than firetube boilers, because they:

1. incorporate a bent tube design

2. are larger than firetube boilers
3. do not have flat surfaces subjected to pressure
4. usually have smaller diameter tubes
5. have smaller diameter drums

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3, 5
c) 2, 3, 5
d) 1, 2, 5
e) 1, 3, 4, 5

010100020021000C
The use of bent tube boiler designs allows the furnace wall
to be lined with tubes, thereby exposing more of the heating
surface to

a) convection heat
b) conducted heat
c) radiant heat
d) residual heat
e) latent heat

010100020021000D
The bent tube boiler design allows the tubes to be attached
radially on the outside of the

a) furnace
b) superheater
c) economizer
d) shell or drum
e) air preheater

010100020021000D
Since furnace pressure is often positive on a packaged
watertube boiler, in order to prevent flue gas leakage

a) an induced draft fan is incorporated

b) smoke stacks are made taller
c) an economizer is used
d) a steel casing forms a seal for the furnace
e) sootblowers cannot be used
010100020021000A
Excessive vibrations caused by inadequate support of a
watertube boiler can result in

a) insulation failure
b) water level control problems
c) tube failure
d) drum fracture
e) combustion control problems

010100020021000A
A problem with a D-type watertube packaged boiler is

a) excessive vibration
b) ceiling height requirements
c) refractory maintenance for the external furnace
d) its need to be top supported
e) its poor water circulation

010100020021000B
A unit which would most likely utilize a cyclone furnace
would be the

a) Sterling watertube boiler

b) steam generator
c) packaged watertube boiler
d) "D" type boiler
e) three drum bent-tube boiler

010100020021000A
Large steam generating units may have their superheaters
located:

1. beneath the furnace

2. in the convection zone
3. in the main waterwall header
4. in the radiant zone
5. in the downcomer pipe

a) 2, 4
b) 4, 5
c) 1, 3
d) 1, 2, 5
e) 3, 4, 5

010100020021000D
Large steam generators

a) are bottom supported

b) are fired by pulverized coal only
c) have sluggish water circulation
d) are usually of the water tube type
e) have beaded tubes

010100020021000B
Large steam generating units are usually built so that high
pressure, high temperature, and dry steam can be generated in
order that

a) more fuel can be fired

b) large steam turbines can be used to drive electrical generators
c) higher furnace temperatures can be attained
d) less water treatment is necessary
e) stack temperatures can be maintained at a high level
to prevent condensation

010100020021000E
A steam generator economizer is usually located

a) between the air preheater and ID fan

b) between the primary and secondary superheaters
c) after the reheater
d) in the furnace section
e) between the air preheater and primary superheater

010100020021000D
The most economical fuel to burn in a steam generator is

a) natural gas
b) crushed coal
c) heavy fuel oil
d) pulverized coal
e) crude oil

010100020021000A
Economizers

a) increase the boiler efficiency

b) are installed before the superheater
c) increase the steam temperature
d) increase the air temperature
e) increase the flue gas temperature

010100020021000B
Air heaters in a boiler

a) are installed between the superheater and the economizer.

b) reduce the temperature of the flue gases going to the stack.
c) help the boiler from freezing during the winter period.
d) increase the flue gas temperature.
e) maintain a steady higher temperature in the stack.

010100020021000A
Air heaters are implemented in steam generating units in order
to:

1. recover heat from the hot flue gases

2. improve boiler thermal efficiency
3. produce dryer steam
4. heat the feedwater

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 2, 4
d) 3, 4
e) 2, 3, 4

010100020021000B
Combustion air for the burners is preheated in the
_____________________ by hot flue gases.

a) economizer
b) air heater
c) superheater
d) windbox
e) furnace

Electric Boilers
010100020021000D
Electric boilers

a) require tall stacks for pollution dispersal

b) tend not to be very compact
c) require sootblowers when fuel is coal
d) have energy conversion efficiencies close to 100%
e) are not as safe as other boilers

010100020021000D
A main disadvantage of an electric boiler is

a) they are not very compact

b) furnace refractory tends to be high maintenance item
c) vibration requires special footings
d) input energy cost is high
e) energy transfer efficiency is low

010100020021000D
An advantage of an electric boiler is, that it

a) has a high steaming rate

b) can be operated at high pressures and temperatures
c) produces very dry steam
d) has a high efficiency of energy transfer from the
electricity to the boiler water
e) does not require an operator

010100020021000A
An advantage of an electric boiler is that it

a) is silent in operation
b) can rapidly produce steam
c) can produce steam at very high pressures
d) requires only one blow-off valve
e) does not require a sight glass

010100020021000E
Most electric boilers are limited in pressure to about
2100 kPa due to the effect of high temperature on the
a) steam space
b) submerged area
c) boiler fittings
d) vessel structure
e) elements or electrodes

010100020021000D
A boiler which incorporates a basket and a basket drain valve
is the

a) steam generator
b) immersion boiler
c) Sterling boiler
d) electrode boiler
e) thermal flood boiler

010100020021000B
Operating voltage for an electrode boiler may be as high as

a) 30,000 volts
b) 16,000 volts
c) 5,000 volts
d) 550 volts
e) 240 volts

010100020021000B
Electrode boiler capacities can be as high as

a) 16,000 kW
b) 30,000 kW
c) 1,200 kPa
d) 1,200 kW
e) 30,000 kPa

010100020021000D
The electrode type boiler

a) cannot have a varying load

b) must operate at very constant pressure
c) utilizes bundles of electric elements
d) requires water which conducts electricity
e) will produce hydrogen by electrolysis of water

010100020021000B
The steam produced by an electrode type boiler depends on

a) the voltage supplied to the elements

b) the level of water in the basket
c) the number of heating elements engaged
d) the number of baffles
e) the amperage supplied to the elements

010100020021000A
The amount of current passed through the water of an electrode
boiler depends on
a) the depth of the electrodes in the water
b) the control valve setting
c) the steam pressure in the boiler
d) the water quality
e) the water temperature

010100020021000E
One disadvantage of an electric boiler is that it

a) requires alternating current

b) requires DC power
c) has no chimney
d) is not very efficient
e) is very expensive to operate

010100020021000D
A __________ is not required on an electrode electric type
boiler.

a) safety valve
b) gauge glass
c) blow-off valve
d) low water cut-off
e) pressure gauge

010100020021000A
An immersion electric boiler capacity can be as high as

a) 1,500 kW
b) 2,100 kW
c) 30,000 kW
d) 16,000 kW
e) 5,000 kW

010100020021000B
Immersion boiler tube bundles

a) act to conduct current through the water

b) can be easily removed from the unit for maintenance
purposes
c) cannot be used to regulate steaming capacity
d) have very low electrical resistance
e) operate at only one voltage

010100020021000C
There are two general designs of electric boilers. They are the

a) firetube type and water tube type

b) AC and DC type
c) electrode and immersion type
d) grounded and ungrounded type
e) reverse polarity and negative ground

010100020021000B
Control of the immersion heater boiler is done by

a) transforming the voltage to a lower value

b) turning the power on and off to the elements as required
c) a float switch
d) increasing and decreasing water flow
e) recirculating boiler water

010100020021000E
The immersion heater boiler has its elements arranged

a) as isolated units in the steam space

b) equally spaced in the steam space
c) outside the boiler shell to provide easy access for
maintenance
d) for operation in sequence on the underside of the shell
e) as groups of elements submerged in the water space

010100020021000B
Control of the immersion heater boiler is done by turning on
and off the ___________________ supply to one or more
elements as required.

a) water
b) power
c) steam
d) amperage
e) current

Basic Boiler Construction

010100020021000B
Common shell and drum thickness range is

a) 2 to 12 mm
b) 6 to 250 mm
c) 15 to 300 mm
d) 100 to 1,000 mm
e) 200 to 250 mm

010100020021000C
One or more steel plates rolled into cylindrical form and welded
together, with the ends closed by means of end plates or heads,
is called a

a) combustion chamber
b) packaged boiler
c) steam or water drum
d) steam header
e) steam space

010100020021000A
The circumferential seam of a riveted boiler shell utilized
the

a) lap joint, single or double riveted

b) treble riveted butt joint
c) double equal strap double riveted butt joint
d) double unequal strap treble riveted butt joint
e) always a single riveted lap joint

010100020021000A
Head-to-drum circumferential joints are usually

a) double welded butt joints

b) single welded edge joints
c) fillet welded corner joints
d) double welded tee joints
e) fillet welded lap joints

010100020021000C
With regard to welding, heat treatment

a) will increase the hardness of the material

b) results in better penetration of the weld
c) will relieve stresses in the material due to welding
d) is done before the actual welding takes place
e) is done to warm the welding machine before use

010100020021000E
A non-destructive test on a boiler is

a) a tensile test
b) a bend test
c) a shear test
d) an X-ray test
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
Post weld heat treatment is

a) to make the material hot enough for welding

b) heating the material after welding
c) to improve weld penetration
d) to clean up the welded area
e) done to reduce corrosion

010100020021000B
Tubes for high pressure service are usually

a) resistance welded construction

b) roll and pierce construction
c) lap welded construction
d) flared into the drum or tubesheet
e) of 2 metre maximum length

010100020021000C
A tube expander is used to

a) break loose scale in the tube

b) break loose scale outside the tube
c) expand and flare the tube
d) bead the tube
e) expand the entire tube
010100020021000D
The flat surfaces which require staying in a firetube boiler
are the tubesheets, waterlegs, and

a) furnace tubes
b) flue gas baffles
c) uptakes
d) crown sheets
e) access doors

010100020021000A
Boiler stays

a) are used to support flat surfaces in a boiler

b) are mostly used in water tube boilers
c) have to be replaced every two years
d) are used for hot water heating boilers only
e) are made of hollow tubes

010100020021000C
A major force which acts to hold a manway door in place
during boiler operation is

a) the bolt
b) the combination of bolt and yoke
c) pressure within the boiler
d) the manway gasket
e) the yoke

010100020021000E
A boiler nozzle attachment2

a) can be found in the area of the burner

b) is always installed vertically
c) allows a connection for the uptake
d) is used for steam cleaning the fireside
e) nearly always accommodates a valve or fitting

010100020021000B
Manholes are

a) installed on all boilers

b) provided for inspection purposes
c) always circular in shape
d) installed on fossil fired boilers only
e) always oval in shape

010100020021000D
A Morison furnace is

a) found in electric boilers

b) found in locomotive boilers
c) found in watertube boilers
d) found in firetube boilers
e) a ring-reinforced type furnace
010100020021000E
Internal furnaces are

a) mostly used to superheat the steam

b) contained within the windbox of a boiler
c) used to increase the strength of the drum
d) used for oil firing only
e) contained within the shell of the boiler

010100020021000C
With a bottom-supported boiler, the steam drum is usually2

a) a cross-drum configuration
b) supported by an overhead girder arrangement
c) supported by the watertubes
d) supported by piers
e) placed below the centreline of the unit

010100020021000B
Boilers supported from the top

a) are mostly package boilers

b) are free to expand vertically
c) can only be used on small units
d) are usually not of the large water tube type
e) can only use straight tubes

010100020021000D
Three types of furnace water-walls are the tangent tube,
welded fin, and

a) flat stub
b) corrugated
c) refractory backed
d) flat stud
e) metal lath

010100020021000C
In early boilers furnace walls were constructed of brick.
Today this method has been replaced by the use of

a) baffles
b) steel casing
c) tubes to form the furnace walls
d) plastic insulation
e) block insulation

Boiler Draft Equipment

010100020021000D
A way of increasing natural draft is to

a) incorporate a forced draft fan

b) have the outside air temperature increase
c) install an induced draft fan
d) increase stack height
e) decrease the amount of excess air

010100020021000E
When draft is produced by natural means,

a) hot air surrounding the boiler increases draft

b) fans can control the flue gas flow
c) a short stack will increase draft
d) the diameter of the stack will improve the draft
e) cooler air surrounding the boiler increases draft

010100020021000D
Primary air

a) is supplied in the combustion zone

b) is the same as excess air
c) is supplied on all types of burners
d) is pre-mixed with the fuel before being admitted to the
furnace
e) enters the furnace before the fuel

010100020021000B
A more durable chimney for power plant application is the

a) brick chimney
b) reinforced concrete chimney
c) steel chimney
d) insulated steel chimney
e) guy wire supported chimney

010100020021000C
Chimneys are commonly lined with

a) concrete
b) common brick
c) clay
d) mortar
e) insulation

010100020021000C
The advantage of a steel stack over a reinforced concrete
stack is that a steel stack

a) is more durable
b) requires less maintenance
c) is a lower cost
d) has a longer life
e) is more resistant to abrasive flue gases

010100020021000A
Relative to draft, a steam jet is very popular

a) on railway steam locomotives

b) as a fuel atomizer
c) as a forced draft unit
d) for increasing furnace pressure
e) for decreasing draft during cold weather

010100020021000D
What are the advantages of mechanical draft?

1. dependent on atmospheric air temperatures

2. independent of the chimney temperature
3. better draft regulation
4. can be regulated accurately

a) 1, 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000C
In a balanced draft system the air heater is placed:

1. between ID fan and stack

2. between ID fan and boiler
3. between forced draft fan and boiler
4. on inlet ducting to forced draft fan

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 4
e) 1, 3, 4

010100020021000A
The most efficient operation of a fan demands that

a) the speed be only sufficient enough to supply the required

amount of air
b) inlet damper controls are used
c) outlet damper controls are used
d) constant speed electric motors are used
e) gaseous fuels be fired

010100020021000A
Balanced draft

a) means furnace pressure is maintained at some desired

value
b) means air flow is always constant
c) requires an FD and ID fan, never just an FD fan
d) can be accomplished with just a chimney
e) means air and fuel quantities are the same per unit time

010100020021000E
An induced draft fan

a) is physically smaller than a forced draft fan

b) has less expensive materials of construction than an FD
fan
c) handles only air
d) discharges air to the windbox
e) operates at much higher temperatures than an FD fan

010100020021000D
A pressurized furnace is usually associated with

a) balanced draft
b) induced draft
c) natural draft
d) packaged boilers with FD
e) large steam generators

010100020021000A
Induced draft may be accomplished by a:

1. steam jet
2. fan
3. windbox
4. forced draft fan

a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 2, 4
d) 2, 3
e) 3, 4

010100020021000C
In a balanced draft system, the forced draft fan is

a) larger than the induced draft fan

b) the same size as the induced draft fan
c) smaller than the induced draft fan
d) designed to handle hot combustion gases
e) subjected to the products of combustion and high temperatures

010100020021000A
In a forced draft system, the furnace pressure is

a) above atmospheric pressure

b) below atmospheric pressure
c) at atmospheric pressure
d) measured in psi
e) not a factor

010100020021000E
With an axial flow fan the air flow

a) is at right angles to the windbox

b) is at right angles to the shaft
c) does not come in contact with the driving motor
d) is the most efficient
e) is parallel to the shaft

010100020021000A
A boiler with only an induced draft fan

a) will have a negative furnace pressure

b) does need an airtight furnace
c) needs a very long stack
d) will have a positive furnace pressure
e) cannot maintain a stable fire

010100020021000E
Boiler combustion is regulated by

a) varying the speed of an ID fan

b) controlling or regulating the fuel flow
c) varying the speed of an FD fan
d) controlling or regulating the air flow
e) controlling the air and fuel flow

010100020021000A
The simplest way of measuring draft is with

a) an inclined manometer
b) a Bourdon tube device
c) a flexible diaphragm device
d) a hydrometer
e) a bellows measuring device

010100020021000D
The most efficient operation of a fan occurs when

a) draft is balanced
b) draft is FD only
c) draft is ID only
d) speed is just enough to meet the demand
e) speed is at maximum

010100020021000A
When the least amount of energy is desired to drive a fan
with variable output control, the type of control used would
most likely be

a) variable speed coupling

b) inlet damper control
c) outlet damper control
d) register control
e) variable speed driver

010100020021000E
Inlet damper control on a fan

a) is less complicated than an outlet damper control

b) requires more power to drive the fan when the vanes are
closed
c) can only be used when the fan is driven by a steam turbine
d) is used on forced draft fans only
e) requires less power to drive the fan at reduced loads

010100020021000A
Proper draft is important to the plant operator because it

a) produces efficient combustion

b) delivers the products of combustion to a high altitude
c) reduces the volume of ash and slag
d) prevents toxic gases from leaking out of the system
e) satisfies the codes

010100020021000B
With a fan outlet damper control

a) the fan air pressure decreases with a decrease in

air flow
b) the fan air pressure increases with a decrease in
air flow
c) it is placed in the suction side of fan
d) fan output is difficult to control
e) flue gas velocity will rise

010100020021000C
When an air heater is used in a boiler

a) the forced draft fan supplies hot gases to the heater

b) the induced draft fan supplies combustion air to the
air heater
c) it increases the efficiency of the boiler
d) the boiler usually has only a forced draft fan
e) a balanced draft system cannot be incorporated

010100020021000D
Draft measuring instruments can be used to measure:

1. wind box pressure

2. steam pressure
3. air heater flue gas pressure
4. furnace pressure
5. feedwater pressure

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 3, 4, 5

010100020021000E
When a diaphragm draft gauge is used to measure furnace draft

a) furnace draft connections are on both sides of the

diaphragm
b) it can only be used on a balanced draft system
c) it can only be used on a forced draft system
d) it can only be used for positive pressures
e) the furnace draft connection is on one side of the
diaphragm

010100020021000C
Adequate openings for combustion air must be provided in
enclosed boiler rooms. These openings

a) may include doors and windows

b) should be located at the top of the room near the ceiling
c) should be located at the bottom of the room near the
floor
d) are a standard size for all boilers
e) are only for high pressure boilers

010100020021000A
Inclined "U" tubes may be used to measure:

1. fan discharge pressure

2. fan suction pressure
3. air heater flue gas pressure
4. air heater flue gas temperature

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 4
c) 1, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 4

010100020021000B
If a "U" tube is connected to the discharge of a forced draft
fan the

a) connection to the fan will have a higher liquid level

than the open end
b) open end will have a higher liquid level than the
connection to the fan
c) liquid level will be the same in both sides of the
"U" tube
d) liquid will be drawn into the forced draft stream
e) liquid will expand

010100020021000D
The inclined tube manometer operates

a) on a different principle than the "U" tube manometer

b) so that only positive pressure can be measured
c) so that only a vacuum can be measured
d) on the same principle as a "U" tube manometer
e) by displacing a compressed gas

Introduction to Boiler Combustion

010100020021000D
The balanced equation for the complete combustion of hydrogen
is

a) H + O = H O + heat
2 2

b) 2H + O = H O + heat
2 2

c) H + 2O = 2H O + heat
 2 2 2

d) 2H + O = 2H O + heat
2 2 2

e) 2H + 2O = 2H O + heat
2 2 2

010100020021000E
The balanced equation for the incomplete combustion of carbon
is

a) C + O = CO + heat
2

b) 2C + O = CO + heat
2

c) C + 2O = 2CO + heat
2

d) 2C + 2O = 4CO + heat
2

e) 2C + O = 2CO + heat
2

010100020021000D
The purpose of combustion controls is to:

1. control fuel flow and air flow into the furnace

2. maintain the proper ratio of air to flue gas
3. maintain the proper ratio of air to fuel
4. maintain the correct furnace pressure in a balanced
system
5. maintain a negative pressure in the furnace when
using a force draft fan

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 3, 4, 5
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 4, 5

010100020021000C
The combustion equation C + O2 =

a) CO
b) CO + heat
c) CO2 + heat
d) 2 CO2
e) 2C + 2O

010100020021000D
The combustion equation 2 H2 + O2 =

a) H2O + heat
b) H2O
c) 2 H2O
d) 2 H2O + heat
e) 2H + O2

010100020021000A
The combustion equation S + O2 =

a) SO2 + heat
b) 2 SO2 + heat
c) SO2
d) SO2 + S
e) 2S + O

010100020021000B
Which of the following supports combustion?

a) smoke
b) oxygen
c) nitrogen
d) hydrogen
e) carbon dioxide

010100020021000C
Which of the following are necessary to complete combustion
of a fuel:

1. enough air must be supplied

2. the temperature of the furnace must be high enough
3. there must be enough water in the boiler
4. enough time must be allowed for the fuel to burn
5. the safety valve must be properly set
6. the air and fuel must be thoroughly mixed together

a) 1, 3, 4, 6
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 4, 6
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 3, 5, 6

010100020021000B
Which element in the air will combine with the combustible elements
of the fuel?

a) nitrogen
b) oxygen
c) hydrogen
d) carbon dioxide
e) carbon monoxide

010100020021000D
The amount of air required to supply just enough oxygen for
complete combustion is called the

a) exact air
b) perfect air
c) primary air
d) theoretical air
e) secondary air

010100020021000B
Combustion air openings are required by code and combustion
air can be said to be

a) all air which contacts the raw fuel before the burner
b) all air which contributes to the completion of combustion
c) excess air
d) all air which enters the boiler furnace, including high
excess air
e) atomizing air

010100020021000E
The amount of excess air required for combustion is
determined by the

a) ambient temperature of the outside air

b) air supply pressure
c) size of the boiler
d) load on the boiler
e) composition and condition of the fuel

010100020021000C
Insufficient air for combustion will result in:

1. carbon in flue gases

2. high oxygen reading in flue gases
3. low oxygen reading in flue gases
4. high CO in flue gases
5. higher than normal flue gas temperature

a) 1, 2, 3
b) 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 3, 5

010100020021000E
The approximate amount of excess oxygen for gaseous fuel is

a) 10%
b) 7%
c) 5%
d) 15%
e) 2%

010100020021000B
The approximate amount of excess air for fuel oil is

a) 20%
b) 15%
c) 10%
d) 5%
e) 2%
010100020021000A
In winter, the white smoke coming from the stack is

a) wet steam from combustion of the hydrogen in the fuel

b) carbon dioxide
c) sulphur dioxide
d) carbon monoxide from incomplete combustion of the carbon
in the fuel
e) unburned hydrogen

010100020021000A
Black smoke can be caused by

a) insufficient combustion air

b) too high a boiler pressure
c) too much nitrogen in the air
d) too much combustion air
e) high temperature combustion air

010100020021000E
Carbon monoxide is both explosive and

a) inert
b) expensive
c) non-compressible
d) grey in colour
e) toxic

010100020021000D
The refining process for fuel oils involves separating the
crude oil into end products which have distinguishing
characteristics such as specific gravity, viscosity, and

a) colour
b) odour
c) heating value
d) boiling point
e) solids content

010100020021000C
A major disadvantage of oil over coal is

a) the oil does not burn as clean

b) oil is more difficult to control
c) oil is more expensive and less abundant
d) coal requires less storage space
e) oil requires more handling labour

010100020021000A
Ethane is a component of natural gas and constitutes a
percent volume of

a) 10 - 20%
b) 80 - 90%
c) 60 - 70%
d) 5 - 10%
e) 30 - 40%
010100020021000E
Using preheated air with solid fuels

a) increases air pollution

b) creates soot which is heavy and difficult to remove
c) necessitates the use of better grades of fuel
d) reduces the stack temperature
e) starts combustion more quickly

010100020021000D
Engineers must understand the importance of combustion in
order to:

1. order the right grade of fuel

2. burn the fuel completely
3. produce smokeless fires
4. minimize the danger of explosion

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 2, 3, 4

010100020021000E
Carbon which is not combined with hydrogen is referred
to as

a) mono-carbon
b) loose carbon
c) separated carbon
d) ununited carbon
e) fixed carbon

010100020021000A
To which of the following oil burners is the oil supplied under
high pressure?

a) mechanical atomizing burner

b) air atomizing burner
c) rotary cup burner
d) steam atomizing burner
e) multi-spud burner

010100020021000C
When using mechanical fuel oil atomization

a) 70 kPa steam pressure is required at the burner

b) 35 to 40 kPa oil pressure is required
c) high pump pressure is required
d) steam pressure is required to keep the bypass open
e) dry saturated steam or superheated steam should be used

010100020021000B
Which of the following are coal burning apparatus:
 1. underfeed
2. crossfeed
3. overfeed
4. rotary cup

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3, 4
e) 1, 3, 4

010100020021000D
Which of the following types of burners are used for oil
firing?

1. air atomizing
2. ring type
3. rotary cup
4. steam atomizing

a) 2, 4
b) 1, 2, 3
c) 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000D
The air that carries the pulverized coal to the burner is known as

a) induction air
b) secondary air
c) excess air
d) primary air
e) transfer air

010100020021000E
When oil burners are not in use, they should be removed from
the furnace, or the heat may cause

a) evaporation of the fuel

b) corrosion of the burner
c) seizure of the sprayer plate
d) speed reduction of the rotary cup
e) a build up of carbon in the burner

010100020021000D
A mechanical atomizing oil burner has oil pumped under high
pressure through a

a) rotary cup
b) ring burner
c) multi-spud burner
d) sprayer plate
e) recirculation line

010100020021000C
In a steam atomizing oil burner, the _______________________
travels through the central portion of the burner.

a) fire
b) steam
c) oil
d) heat
e) air

010100020021000B
When lighting-up an oil fired boiler that employs steam
atomizing oil burners, the

a) fuel valve is opened before the steam atomizing valve

b) steam atomizing valve is opened before the fuel valve
c) burner must be purged first
d) oil pressure should be approximately 200 kPa greater
than the steam pressure
e) draft fans must be at 50% of full capacity

010100020021000E
Before removing oil burners from the furnace the burner
should be blown out with

a) solvent
b) coal oil
c) a high temperature combustible solvent
d) nitrogen or carbon dioxide
e) steam or air

010100020021000A
If not enough air is given to an oil fired flame

a) the flame will be a dark smoky flame

b) the flame will have a bluish-purple colour
c) a blue-grey smoke will issue from the stack
d) the steam temperature will rise
e) the flame will have a dazzling yellow colour

010100020021000A
When a gas fired burner is burning fuel properly

a) it will have a blue flame with short yellow tips

b) the furnace will pulsate
c) there will be no turbulence
d) it will have a long bright yellow flame
e) the induced draft fan can be shut off

010100020021000C
According to the ASME Code Section Seven, purging of furnace
should be three to five minutes or

a) 2 air changes
b) 5 air changes
c) 8 air changes
d) 15 minutes at one half the fan output
e) 10 minutes if it is a balanced draft system
010100020021000D
Low fuel _____________ in oil burners produces unsafe
conditions of burning.

a) volume
b) flow
c) temperature
d) pressure
e) viscosity

010100020021000C
Poor combustion due to improper amount of air will cause

a) hot furnace temperatures

b) a collection of partly burned air
c) a collection of partly burned fuel which could explode
d) the circulation of flue gases to stop
e) a high carbon dioxide content in the windbox

010100020021000B
Low fuel oil pressure in an oil burner system

a) increases combustion efficiency

b) creates unstable conditions in the furnace
c) causes excessive turbulence in the furnace
d) is usually not possible if the fuel oil tank is more
than one-half full
e) will give a high oxygen reading at the stack outlet

010100020021000D
Three types of mechanical stokers are the underfeed,
overfeed, and

a) sprinkler
b) chain grate
c) pulverizer
d) crossfeed
e) vibragrate

010100020021000E
Relative to boiler combustion, an exhauster fan

a) is the same as an ID fan

b) extracts ashes from a hopper
c) extracts solid particles from the flue gases
d) exhausts dust from the coal crushers
e) extracts pulverized coal from a pulverizer

010100020021000B
When removing a steam atomizing oil burner from service, the
proper sequence is

a) stop steam, stop oil, remove burner

b) stop oil, purge oil side, stop steam, remove burner
c) stop steam, purge steam side, stop oil, remove burner
d) stop oil, stop steam, remove burner
e) purge oil side, stop steam, remove burner

010100020021000D
If, during a flue gas analysis, the excess air to a boiler
furnace is increased

a) CO should increase
2

b) CO should increase

c) O should decrease
2

d) CO should decrease
2

e) O should remain the same

2

010100020021000C
Boiler stack temperature can rise if

a) excess air is reduced

b) the waterside of boiler becomes cleaner
c) the fireside of the boiler becomes fouled
d) flue gas CO value rises
e) fuel flow rate decreases

010100020021000C
CO2 is the chemical symbol for

a) carbon
b) carbon monoxide
c) carbon dioxide
d) hydrocarbon
e) carbonic acid

010100020021000A
Efficient combustion is achieved by controlling the

a) fuel-air ratio
b) steam-water ratio
c) water-fuel ratio
d) steam-fuel ratio
e) air-flue gas ratio

Safety and Relief Valves

010100020021000C
Safety valves "pop" open because the force of the steam

a) acts upon a blowdown ring

b) acts upon a huddling chamber
c) is suddenly increased due to a larger area
d) increases due to the discharge ports
e) decreases the force created by the spring

010100020021000E
If a safety valve is too small then the boiler pressure will

a) rise 5% above the maximum allowable working pressure

(MAWP)
b) not rise more than 15% above the MAWP
c) remain at the MAWP
d) rise to 6% above the MAWP
e) rise more than 6% above the MAWP

010100020021000B
Boiler fittings

a) are not regulated by the ASME Codes

b) must be registered by the government
c) requires only the manufacturer's identity attached
d) may be used at the discretion of power plant personnel
e) are tested by a destructive test

010100020021000C
It is necessary to clearly mark or identify valves
and fittings so that

a) they can be properly stored in the warehouse

b) the manufacturer's reputation is known
c) strength and material can be applied for a particular use
d) the operator knows how it works
e) a proper safety inventory can be maintained

010100020021000E
An agency or code with which fittings must comply with is the

a) Health and Safety code

b) Fittings and Boiler Parts Act
c) Boiler Repair code
d) Plumbing Gas Act
e) ASME code

010100020021000B
If a safety valve fails to open at its popping pressure, you should

a) tap it gently
b) try the lifting lever
c) shut the boiler down
d) raise the pressure
e) reface the valve

010100020021000E
The lip on a safety valve

a) allows it to close slowly

b) is only required if the steam is superheated
c) supplies a drain lip for condensate to collect on
d) makes the valve stronger
e) allows it to "pop" open

010100020021000C
What does the boiler inspector install to prevent tampering with
a safety valve setting?

a) a restraining order
b) a gag
c) a seal
d) a plug
e) a cover plate

010100020021000B
What is the maximum heating surface for a boiler
to have only one safety valve?

a) 75 square metres
b) 47 square metres
c) 36 square metres
d) 28 square metres
e) 19 square metres

010100020021000A
If a boiler has a maximum allowable working pressure of 1000 kPa,
what would be the maximum pressure allowed when the safety
valve is open?

a) 1060 kPa
b) 1400 kPa
c) 1600 kPa
d) 2000 kPa
e) 2500 kPa

010100020021000D
A stop valve is allowed between the safety valve and the boiler
drum when

a) the stop valve is locked open

b) there is more than one safety valve
c) a rupture disc is placed between the stop valve and the
safety valve
d) no stop valves are allowed before or after the safety valve
e) the stop valve is the quick opening type

010100020021000C
Two safety valves are required on a high pressure steam boiler
that has a heating surface larger than

a) 12 square metres
b) 40 square metres
c) 47 square metres
d) 45 square metres
e) 27 square metres

010100020021000A
If the boiler was fired up with the main steam stop valve closed,
the safety valves should ensure that:

a) the pressure cannot exceed the maximum working pressure by more

than 6%
b) the water glass will not burst with the pressure
c) the fuel cut-off will operate
d) the pressure is never more than the hydrostatic test pressure
e) the pressure cannot exceed the maximum working pressure by more
than 3%

010100020021000B
What is the minimum number of safety valves required on a
boiler having a heating surface of 42 square metres?

a) none
b) one
c) two
d) three
e) four

010100020021000E
Each boiler must have a safety valve, preferably

a) placed in a pipe system leading from a boiler valve

b) welded in a horizontal position to the top of the boiler
c) fitted securely to a shut-off valve directly connected
to the top of the boiler
d) at eye level on the front surface of the boiler
e) fitted in a vertical position directly connected
to the top of the boiler

010100020021000E
The safety valves on a boiler meet code requirements and are set
to a popping pressure of 1380 kPa. What would be the maximum
permissible pressure rise in the boiler, if the boiler was fired
at full capacity with the main steam stop valve closed?

a) 25 kPa
b) 37.5 kPa
c) 47 kPa
d) 72.4 kPa
e) 82.8 kPa

010100020021000C
The discharge pipe of a safety valve should be separately
supported

a) because the safety valve is not capable of supporting the

mass
b) so that drainage of the discharge line can occur
c) so that allowance for expansion prevents stress on the
safety valve
d) in order to prevent leakage at the joint
e) so that the valve can be quickly and easily removed

010100020021000A
Cast iron fittings for a boiler can be deemed to have upper
limitations of

a) 1,720 kPa and 232 degrees C

b) 17,200 kPa and 1,100 degrees C
c) 1,100 kPa and 173 degrees C
d) 8,000 kpa and 670 degrees C
e) 3,000 kPa and 150 degrees C

010100020021000D
The popping pressure of a safety valve

a) cannot be changed
b) can only be increased by 5%
c) can only be decreased by 5%
d) can be increased or decreased by up to 5%
e) can be changed any amount

010100020021000D
The blowdown on a safety valve is adjusted by turning the

a) inspector's seal
b) valve disc
c) adjusting nut
d) adjusting ring
e) valve seat

010100020021000E
A blowdown ring on a safety valve is used to

a) adjust the operating pressure of the valve

b) set the opening pressure
c) increase the effectiveness of the safety valve
d) increase the life of the cone shaped lip
e) adjust the blowdown differential

010100020021000E
A try lever safety valve test will

a) ensure the popping pressure is correct

b) indicate that valve capacity is adequate
c) ensure the closing pressure is correct
d) take approximately 2 seconds
e) ensure the valve is free to operate

010100020021000B
When performing a safety valve pop test one of the first
things to do is

a) notify the boiler inspector

b) verify the accuracy of the applicable steam pressure gage
c) notify the chief engineer
d) check the blowdown of the safety valve
e) check the popping pressure

010100020021000A
A safety relief valve is like a safety valve except it
a) does not have a blowdown ring or bottom guides
b) must have greater blowdown
c) may have an isolation valve placed between it and the
pressure vessel
d) must discharge directly to the atmosphere
e) is prone to leakage

010100020021000A
Temperature relief valves can open on a rise in temperature
by the expansion of a wax-filled rod or by the

a) melting of the alloy in a fusible plug

b) melting of a fusible link
c) action of a bi-metal strip
d) action of a Bourdon tube
e) action of a bellows

010100020021000C
If the safety valve starts to leak steam

a) phone the inspector immediately

b) report it to the insurance company
c) pull the test lever and try to clear the seat face
d) break the seal, and tighten down on the spring
e) adjust the blowdown of the safety valve

010100020021000B
An operator should check that a boiler safety valve will open
at its set pressure by

a) sending for the inspector to bring his or her test gauge

b) increasing the boiler pressure until the valve opens and noting
the pressure on the pressure gauge when the valve opened
c) putting a piece of pipe over the lifting lever and lifting the
valve off its seat when the seat pressure is reached
d) connecting the boiler to an air compressor during shut down and
raising the pressure in the boiler until the set pressure is
reached
e) listening to the alarms of the set pressures

010100020021000B
Testing the safety valve by means of the try lever method is
considered good practice when carried out on a

a) weekly basis
b) monthly basis
c) six month basis
d) yearly basis
e) bi-weekly basis

010100020021000B
If, during the testing of a safety valve, the valve does not
open, you would first

a) continue to increase the steam pressure

b) try to open the valve with the lifting lever
c) force it open by striking it with a hammer
d) take the boiler out of service
e) stop the boiler and notify the boiler branch

010100020021000A
Test levers on safety valves should not be used until the boiler
pressure is at least _________ or more of the safety valves normal
popping pressure.

a) 75%
b) 60%
c) 50%
d) 40%
e) 25%

010100020021000C
If a safety valve leaks after a try lever test, the operator
should

a) plug the safety valve outlet

b) reduce the boiler pressure
c) operate the try lever several times to blow away foreign
material
d) fit a gag to the safety valve
e) reduce boiler pressure and call the team leader

010100020021000B
Do not open the safety valve with the test lever

a) if the valve is less than 2.5 cm inlet diameter

b) if the pressure is less than 75% working pressure
c) after 9 p.m. in populated areas
d) if the valve is not vented to the roof
e) if there are more than two safety valves on the boiler

Water Columns and Gage Glasses

010100020021000E
The following condition may be encountered in level
measurement and indication:

a) solids or liquids
b) extremes of heat and cold
c) pressure variations
d) corrosive and explosive conditions
e) all of the above

010100020021000B
Separately mounted gage glasses are used to provide a
__________ indication of level over a certain vertical
distance on the vessel.

a) point
b) continuous
c) diagonal
d) ultrasonic
e) indirect

010100020021000E
The main operating element of a Hopkinson remote water level
indicator is a

a) Bourdon tube
b) Ledoux bell
c) float
d) capsule
e) large diaphragm

010100020021000E
When a differential head meter is used to measure water level
in a boiler steam drum, the connection to the steam space

a) forms the variable leg of the meter

b) is cross connected to the constant or reference leg of
the meter
c) is the low pressure side of the meter
d) has a varying water level
e) forms the constant or reference leg of the meter

010100020021000C
Dirt traps are installed on an "Igema" remote water-level
indicator

a) because of the high amount of suspended solids collecting

in the constant head
b) to prevent mixing of the indicating liquid with boiler
water
c) to prevent indicating liquid contamination
d) so that overfilling of the indicating section is
prevented
e) to prevent osmosis from occurring

010100020021000D
A great advantage of an Igema level indicator over a
Hopkinson unit is

a) it has the highest degree of accuracy

b) it is the least costly to purchase
c) its ability to show steam and water as different colours
d) there are no moving parts
e) it requires no electricity

010100020021000D
A gage glass which shows a clear liquid as being very dark is
the

a) Hopkinson indicator
b) Igema indicator
c) tubular gage glass
d) reflex gage glass
e) flat gage glass

010100020021000E
In a high pressure horizontal firetube steam boiler, the bottom
of the gauge glass should be ____________ above the lowest
permissible water level in the boiler.

a) 1 m
b) 50 cm
c) 47 cm
d) 25.4 mm
e) 51 mm

010100020021000C
If a gage glass breaks, the operator shall immediately

a) shut the boiler down

b) add more water to the boiler
c) shut off the steam valve and water valve on the gage
d) lift the safety valve
e) shut the boiler down

010100020021000B
Try cocks are

a) used to blowdown the gage glass

b) for checking water level while the gage glass is out of
service
c) for draining the gage glass
d) operated simultaneously
e) on the water column drain line

010100020021000C
How many try cocks are installed on the water column of
a boiler, with over 9.3 square metres heating surface?

a) 1
b) 2
c) 3
d) 4
e) 6

010100020021000E
When a firetube boiler is filled for the first time, it
should be confirmed that when the water first appears
in the gage glass, that there is _______ mm of water
over the top of the tubes.

a) 25.4 mm
b) 50.8 mm
c) 84 mm
d) 101.6 mm
e) 76 mm

010100020021000E
Safety shutoff devices are found
a) on water supply systems feeding a boiler
b) on all gage glasses which are under continuous
supervision
c) only on vessels containing toxic liquid
d) on the constant or "reference" lines to remote indicators
e) on gage glasses not under constant supervision

010100020021000A
Tubular gage glasses

a) are suitable for pressures up to 2,800 kPa

b) do not corrode due to high alkalinity
c) indicate the level most accurately
d) can be of any length
e) are not weakened by misalignment

010100020021000D
Gage glasses show a water level which is

a) slightly less than the level if the vessel is at a lower

temperature
b) the same if all liquids have the same temperature
c) slightly higher than boiler level when the pressure is
high
d) slightly lower when the glass water density is higher
e) the actual vessel level regardless of pressure,
temperature or density differences

010100020021000A
When the water connection between boiler and gage glass becomes
plugged, the water level in the glass will show a level after
a while, that is

a) higher than the level in the boiler

b) lower than the level in the boiler
c) the same as the level in the boiler
d) fully filled
e) lower than the bottom of the sight glass

Drum Internals
010100020021000B
The component of a boiler which allows a space for the
introduction of chemicals is the

a) mud drum
b) steam drum
c) injection tank
d) internal feed pipe
e) deaerator

010100020021000A
A boiler steam drum will
a) allow load increases to be accomplished more quickly
b) always be the highest component of a boiler
c) not distribute feedwater to cold sections of the boiler
d) have no bearing or effect on water circulation
e) contain a steam space which will be at higher pressure
than the water space

010100020021000C
At lower pressures, steam

a) has higher densities

b) is more difficult to separate from the water
c) readily rises and separates from the water
d) cannot be separated from water with mechanical devices
e) requires large volume spaces in order to separate

010100020021000C
Steam separation in a modern boiler usually occurs in

a) 1 step
b) 2 steps
c) 3 steps
d) 4 steps
e) 5 steps

010100020021000A
Cyclone separators are used to

a) separate water droplets from the steam

b) accelerate the steam leaving the boiler
c) heat the steam coming out of the drum
d) separate impurities from the water
e) separate water from the steam drum

010100020021000B
Relative to steam drum internals, a boiler water test is
conducted to

a) ensure scrubbers have not corroded away

b) adjust or set the continuous blowdown valve (CBD)
c) ensure the water is not attacking the separators
d) inform us when maintenance is required on drum equipment
e) ensure chemicals are entering the boiler

010100020021000E
The CBD valve is usually a

a) gate valve with a metering device

b) ball valve with a metering device
c) stop/check valve with a metering device
d) butterfly valve with a metering device
e) needle valve with a metering device

010100020021000D
A drum internal which acts to reduce thermal shock and
turbulence is the

a) cyclone separator
b) drip-collector baffle
c) corrugated plate drier
d) internal feed pipe
e) chevron drier

010100020021000E
Some smaller boilers have a pipe and baffle device in the
steam drum which acts as

a) a separator
b) a chemical injection device
c) a scrubber
d) a drip collector baffle
e) an internal feed pipe

010100020021000E
Chemicals are injected into the boiler to

a) prevent corrosion
b) keep sludge dispersed
c) prevent sludge
d) prevent scale
e) all the above

010100020021000D
The chemical injection line is located

a) near the normal water level

b) close to the CBD line
c) in the steam space
d) near the internal feed pipe
e) close to the riser tubes

Fluidized Bed Combustion

010100020021000C
State the abbreviation used for fluidized bed combustion.

a) FC
b) FBCB
c) FBC
d) FBBC
e) FB

010100020021000A
The abbreviation FGD stands for

a) flue gas desulphurization

b) fuel gauge diameter
c) flow gas density
d) fluid gas detector
e) field gas drain

010100020021000E
State the abbreviation for a "fluid catalytic cracker".

a) CC
b) FC
c) FCCB
d) CFC
e) FCC

010100020021000C
FCC, with regard to the refining industry means

a) Federal Communications Commission

b) Fresh condensate control
c) Fluid catalytic cracker
d) Federated consumer costs
e) Fuel Combustion Code

010100020021000D
AFBC stands for

a) Alberta/Federal boiler calculations

b) Alberta foot board control
c) after-fired boiler circuitry
d) atmospheric fluidized bed combustion
e) automatically flooded boiler condenser

010100020021000D
PFBC stands for

a) Provincial/Federal boiler calculations

b) Provincial footboard control
c) pre-fired boiler circuitry
d) petroleum fired boiler control
e) pressurized fluidized bed combustion

010100020021000D
With the AFBC, the combustion air pressure is typically
25 cm of water pressure at the FD fan,16 cm at
the base of the active bed, and _______________ at the
top of the combustion mass.

a) at boiler pressure
b) at flue gas exit temperature
c) negative pressure
d) atmospheric pressure
e) absolute pressure

010100020021000A
With the AFBC, the three pressure zones are typically as
follows at the FD fan, the base of the active bed, and at
the top of the combustion mass respectively.
a) 25 cm of water pressure, 16 cm and atmospheric
b) 20 cm of water pressure, 14 cm and atmospheric
c) 15 cm of water pressure, 10 cm and below atmospheric
d) 30 cm of water pressure, 20 cm and above atmospheric
e) 40 cm of water pressure, 25 cm and above atmospheric

010100020021000C
In FBC, the fuel content by mass of the turbulent inert
material is usually less than

a) 5 percent
b) 3 percent
c) 2 percent
d) 4 percent
e) 1 percent

010100020021000A
AFBC units permit the reduction of furnace temperatures from

a) 1600 to 850 degrees Celsius

b) 1800 to 650 degrees Celsius
c) 1700 to 750 degrees Celsius
d) 1550 to 900 degrees Celsius
e) 1350 to 500 degrees Celsius

010100020021000C
Reducing furnace bed temperatures by use of AFBC units reduces
as well

a) production of hot flue gases

b) efficiency of operation
c) production of NOx's
d) the turbulence of the furnace interior
e) the steam generating capacity

010100020021000B
Crushed coal mixed with pulverized limestone in an AFBC unit
does what?

a) lower the combustion bed temperature

b) act as a desulphuring agent
c) create the perfect fuel; hydrogen
d) pressurizes the fluidized bed
e) produces no gaseous effluent

010100020021000D
What is the percentage of SOx reduction which can be gained
by adding an excess amount of limestone to the bed of an
AFBC unit?

a) 40 - 50 percent
b) 50 - 65 percent
c) 70 - 80 percent
d) 80 - 90 percent
e) 90 - 95 percent
010100020021000B
About the only thing limiting the kind of fuel burned in a
FBC is

a) how well the material has been mixed prior to burning

b) the heating value of the material being burned
c) the amount of slag the fuel will produce
d) the size of the plant using the fuel
e) the size of the burners

010100020021000C
The gradual loss of the fluidized bed in an FBC furnace is
called

a) attrition
b) fluidation
c) carryover
d) reduction
e) starving

010100020021000E
The ash content of a fuel which can be burned in a FBC unit
and which will not burn successfully in any other type of
furnace is

a) 10 percent
b) 30 percent
c) 55 percent
d) 60 percent
e) 70 percent

010100020021000A
Large "clinkers" are not produced in FBC furnaces because
of

a) lower furnace temperatures

b) the fluidized bed created by air passage through the furnace
c) the kind of fuel used
d) the introduction of limestone into the combustion mixture
e) not burning gaseous fuels

010100020021000B
The reason FBC plants can be built smaller than plants
currently in vogue is because of

a) higher steam temperatures and pressures

b) higher heat transfer rates and the absence of wet
exhaust gas scrubbing equipment
c) lower maintenance costs and the ability to burn a wide
variety of fuels
d) less slag production and the elimination of soot-
blowing equipment
e) the burners being smaller

010100020021000D
Steam generators of the FBC type can be reduced in size by
up to

a) 35 percent
b) 15 percent
c) 45 percent
d) 25 percent
e) 10 percent

010100020021000B
Because of the one quarter reduction in size of FBC plants a
significant saving is gained in

a) fuel and waste costs

b) material and construction costs
c) heat and light costs
d) "Clinker" and soot blowing costs
e) fuel storage costs

010100020021000E
Feedthrough tubes are located?

a) in the furnace windbox

b) in the furnace ceiling
c) in the furnace walls
d) in the corners of the furnace
e) in the furnace bottom

010100020021000C
An especially important point in the operation of fluidized
beds composed of fine particles is

a) feedwater temperature
b) solids injection rate
c) bubble size
d) waste solids handling
e) the colour of the limestone

010100020021000E
Operating a PFBC furnace at low temperatures results in

a) the formation of "clinkers"

b) a restricted type of fuel used
c) the need for the installation of soot blowers
d) the generation of wet steam
e) steam temperature limited over the period of heat supply

010100020021000A
Carryover in FBC units results in

a) lower efficiency and higher costing dust collectors

b) lower furnace temperatures and the need for higher
furnace ceilings
c) lower tube location and higher combustion rates
d) lower steam pressures and higher water temperatures
e) overheating of the breeching
010100020021000B
One way of increasing combustion control at low operating rates
in FBC units is to

a) add fuel gas to the combustion process

b) add more expensive control equipment
c) add hot steam to the fluidized bed
d) add an electrical charge to the pulverized limestone
e) close all the air dampers

010100020021000C
To what temperature must the inert bed material of a FBC unit
be heated before the introduction of coal to the furnace for
burning?

a) about 350 degrees Celsius

b) about 500 degrees Celsius
c) about 600 degrees Celsius
d) about 750 degrees Celsius
e) about 900 degrees Celsius

010100020021000D
What is the ignition temperature of coal?

a) 300 degrees Celsius

b) 450 degrees Celsius
c) 550 degrees Celsius
d) 600 degrees Celsius
e) 900 degrees Celsius

010100020021000A
The typical time needed to heat a FBC unit bed to fuel ignition
temperature prior to the introduction of coal is

a) one hour
b) one half hour
c) two hours
d) three hours
e) six hours

010100020021000E
Due to various differences in the operation of FBC plants the
following is required:

a) a considerably larger floor space

b) better qualified operators
c) a taller furnace stack
d) using new technology in the construction of boiler tubes
e) a considerably different control system

010100020021000B
In order to get maximum heat transfer in a FBC furnace it is
required to

a) increase the fuel consumption per hour

b) ensure that the boiler tubes are covered by the expanded bed
c) build larger FBC's
d) add fuel gas to the regular fuel being burned
e) line the floor and ceiling of the furnace with steel plates

Sootblowers
010100020021000B
In addition to reducing heat transfer, soot and ash on
fireside tubes also

a) lessens the chance of furnace explosions

b) increases draft fan power
c) results in the formation of CO in the flue gases
d) raises superheater temperatures
e) results in smoke emissions from the stack

010100020021000E
Relative to Figure 1, in the module the radiant zone is

a) downstream of the economizer

b) downstream of the air preheater
c) between the primary superheater and economizer
d) between the reheater and primary superheater
e) upstream of the reheater

010100020021000D
The steam used for sootblowing is usually

a) greater than boiler drum pressure

b) wet unsaturated steam
c) the same as boiler drum pressure
d) superheated at the sootblower nozzle
e) mixed with compressed air

010100020021000D
A furnace wall sootblower sequence of operation is

a) rotate & blow, extend, retract

b) extend, blow, retract, rotate
c) rotate, extend, blow, retract
d) extend, rotate & blow, retract
e) retract, blow, rotate, extend

010100020021000C
A long retractable sootblower will

a) have nozzles throughout its full length

b) be used to clean furnace walls
c) blow during extension and retraction as it rotates
d) not blow until fully extended
e) require less exterior room than a furnace wall unit
010100020021000B
During a sootblowing operation the boiler firing rate should
be at least

a) 15%
b) 30%
c) 20%
d) 80%
e) 70%

010100020021000C
While a steam sootblower is in operation it is cooled by

a) air
b) flue gases
c) steam
d) water
e) none of the above

010100020021000B
A stationary sootblower

a) has two opposing nozzles at the end of its lance

b) has a row of nozzles throughout the lance length
c) does not rotate while blowing
d) is cooled by air while not in use
e) is cooled by water while not in use

010100020021000C
Shot cleaning pellets have a diameter of approximately

a) 2 cm
b) 6 cm
c) 0.6 cm
d) 0.6 mm
e) 2 mm

010100020021000A
Shot cleaning pellets are transported to the top of the
boiler

a) by using an air stream

b) manually
c) in a steam injection system
d) by a hydraulic hoisting system
e) and are not recycled

010100020021000C
Soot and ash are undesirable on tube surfaces because they

a) increase heat transfer through the heating surfaces

b) cause overheating of the tubes
c) reduce boiler efficiency
d) reduce draft for power requirements
e) reduce the heating surface of the boiler
Continuous and Intermittent Blowdown
010100020021000B
The type of blowdown system used on a boiler is usually a
function of

a) the type of internal water treatment used

b) the type of external water treatment used
c) the temperature at which the boiler operates
d) how long the boiler operates each day
e) water supply temperatures

010100020021000D
An external treatment method which minimizes blowdown is

a) sodium zeolite softening

b) deaeration
c) coagulators
d) demineralization
e) sludge conditioning

010100020021000A
Blowdown guidelines can be found in

a) ASME Section VII

b) ASME Section VIII
c) CSA B51
d) CSA B52
e) applicable provincial Acts and Regulations

010100020021000C
A steam boiler is blown down in order to

a) clean the soot and carbon out of the firebox and tubes
b) lower the operating water level in the boiler
c) discharge sediment and scale forming matter from the boiler
d) test the rated relieving capacity of the safety valves fitted
to the boiler
e) locate the steam level

010100020021000B
The continuous boiler water blowdown is used

a) in place of the main blowdown

b) in addition to the main blowdown
c) to adjust the drum water level
d) to introduce chemicals to the boiler
e) to control the bottom blowdown

010100020021000B
If dissolved solids are not removed from boiler water the
result may be

a) overheating of convection zone tubes

b) foaming and carry-over
c) overheating of radiant zone tubes
d) steam which will be more saturated with latent heat
e) purer steam leaving the steam drum

010100020021000E
Boiler water having the highest Total Dissolved Solids (TDS)
content is found

a) at the bottom of the mud drum

b) at the bottom of the steam drum
c) at the top of the steam drum
d) in the waterwall tubes
e) just below the waterline of the steam drum

010100020021000D
A "rule of thumb" rate of continuous blowdown is
approximately

a) 10% of steaming rate

b) 5% of steaming rate
c) 15% of steaming rate
d) 1% of steaming rate
e) 3% of steaming rate

010100020021000A
According to the CSA B-51 code a blow-off tank is necessary to

a) prevent high temperature and pressure in the sewer

b) prevent blowing off too quickly
c) remove sludge from blow-off water
d) prevent overflowing the sewer
e) reduce the boiler water velocity

010100020021000E
According to the Alberta Boilers Act Regulations, what fitting
is needed between the blow-off valve and the boiler if two boilers
use the same blow-off tank?

a) a non-return valve
b) a steam trap
c) a steam separator
d) an expansion joint
e) a check valve

010100020021000C
A blow off tank is used to

a) lower the dissolved solids in the water

b) lower the pH of the water
c) prevent damage to the sewer
d) keep the condensate hot
e) to prevent sludge from entering the boiler

010100020021000B
Boiler water having the greatest concentration of suspended
solids is found
a) just below the steam drum water line
b) in the bottom of the mud drum
c) at the bottom of the steam drum
d) in waterwall riser tubes
e) in convection zone downcomer tubes

010100020021000C
A blowdown tank will

a) have to be cleaned monthly to remove the collected sludge

b) not be classed as a pressure vessel since it is vented
c) lower the temperature and pressure of the incoming boiler
water
d) not have to have any specific capacity or volume
e) be allowed to accommodate only one boiler

010100020021000D
Water leaving a blowdown tank and entering a sewer must not
exceed

a) 45 degrees C
b) 50 degrees C
c) 75 degrees C
d) 65 degrees C
e) 80 degrees C

010100020021000A
When two seatless valves are used for intermittent blowdown,
the operation sequence is

a) open the downstream valve first and close it last

b) open the upstream valve first and close it last
c) open the downstream valve first and close it first
d) open the upstream valve first and close it first
e) open the upstream valve last and close it last

010100020021000C
The preferred arrangement of valves on a boiler blow-off line is

a) two quick-opening valves

b) a slow-opening valve closest to the boiler followed by a
quick-opening
c) a quick-opening valve closest to the boiler followed by a
slow-opening
d) one valve only (It must be a globe valve.)
e) a quick opening valve and a lift check valve

010100020021000A
A boiler blow down system is equipped with slow and fast opening
valves. The quick opening valve is placed

a) closest to the boiler and opened first

b) furthest from the boiler and opened first
c) closest to the boiler and opened last
d) furthest from the boiler and opened last
e) on the blow off tank
010100020021000E
The blow down system has two valves; they should be opened and
closed in the correct sequence to

a) carry out the blow down accurately

b) prevent excessive blow down
c) prevent a high level in the steam drum
d) prevent the boiler losing level
e) protect the valve closest to the boiler

010100020021000E
The quick opening blow-off valve should be placed

a) at the second blowdown tank

b) second from the boiler
c) furthest from the boiler
d) between the boiler and the check valve
e) nearest to the boiler

Boiler Preparation, Start-up, and Shutdown

010100020021000C
Before starting up any boiler it is necessary that

a) it be properly warmed up
b) it be properly purged
c) it have a valid inspection certificate
d) the water supply system be in service
e) the waterside is boiled out

010100020021000D
New refractory must be thoroughly and properly cured with a
light fire because

a) of its high rate of differential expansion

b) it may burn if not cured
c) it may corrode if not cured
d) it contains moisture which can cause it to fracture if
not cured
e) of the length of time it takes it to heat up

010100020021000A
The external inspection of a boiler

a) may include making sure the valves are in good

operating condition
b) may include making sure the furnace refractory is in order
c) may include making sure the tubes are free of scale
d) must be done after the boiler has been drained
e) may include making sure the exterior of the tubes
are in good condition

010100020021000B
A boiler inspection

a) must be done after every shut down of the boiler

b) must be done when the boiler inspector requests it
c) must be done every two years
d) is done with the owner's permission only
e) must be done before the boiler is ready for start-up

010100020021000C
The first duty of the operator coming on shift is to

a) check the safety valve settings

b) fill out the log book
c) check that water column and gage glass connections are clear
d) talk to his supervisor
e) check the chemical tank levels

010100020021000E
If a new boiler is not properly boiled out, it may result in

a) tubes rupturing
b) a furnace explosion
c) nuisance shutdowns
d) an unwanted high rate of water circulation
e) a foaming condition occurring

010100020021000D
Before lighting up a boiler you should:

1) purge the furnace

2) open the blow down valve
3) check the fuel supply
4) fill the boiler with water

a) 1, 2, 4
b) 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 3, 4
e) 2, 3

010100020021000C
Boiler boiling out procedure should be done

a) at operating pressure
b) before the dry out procedure
c) at one-half the operating pressure
d) once a year
e) just before the annual inspection

010100020021000C
Boiler dry-out means

a) drying out the top and bottom drum

b) igniting the dryers in the top drum
c) drying out the new refractory
d) empty the boiler out
e) drying out the entire boiler before start-up

010100020021000A
On a boiler fuel system having a double block and bleed
set-up

a) the vent valve is a normally open valve

b) at least one of the main-line valves will always be open
c) the main-line valves will open before the prepurge stage
d) the main-line and vent valves all open together
e) the main-line valves are manually operated

010100020021000B
Superheater vents are usually opened before firing a boiler
to

a) allow the superheater to warm up quicker

b) let the first steam produced act as a superheater coolant
c) ensure drum level does not drop
d) verify the operation of the steam flow transmitter
e) enhance boiler water circulation

010100020021000D
A boiler furnace pre-purge

a) is the shortest step in the start-up sequence

b) can take place normally even if there is a low water
condition
c) must be done manually on a fully automatic boiler
d) must last a specific amount of time
e) will take place at the end of a boiler shutdown

010100020021000E
When igniting a gas or oil fired boiler you should ignite from:

1. another burner already in service

2. the hot refractory
3. a hand torch
4. an electrical igniter

a) 1, 2
b) 1, 3
c) 2, 3
d) 1, 2, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000C
A boiler warm-up should

a) be done as quickly as possible

b) be done with low water so that metal heats up faster
c) be done slowly to minimize any differential expansion
d) be completed with a high firing rate
e) not involve any human intervention

010100020021000B
While a boiler is warming up it is good practice to
a) leave all drain valves closed
b) check the low water fuel cut-off device for proper
operation
c) test the safety valve before any pressure develops
d) not interfere in any way with the combustion process
e) go through a sootblowing operation sequence

010100020021000C
When raising pressure in a firetube boiler you should:

1. raise steam slowly

2. raise steam as rapidly as possible
3. check the furnace frequently
4. check the system for leaks

a) 2, 3, 4
b) 1, 2, 3, 4
c) 1, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 3
e) 2, 4

010100020021000D
Two boilers are feeding into the same steam header and each pressure
gage shows a pressure of 350 kPa. The steam pressure gage on the
header will indicate

a) slightly more than 350 kPa

b) 700 kPa
c) slightly more than 700 kPa
d) slightly less than 350 kPa
e) slightly less than 700 kPa

010100020021000C
Before removing a boiler from service for maintenance
purposes it is beneficial to

a) inform the Chief Inspector

b) do as little as possible with the waterside of the unit
c) use sootblowers and clean the fireside well
d) force cool the unit with post-purge air
e) drain the unit before the water cools to ambient
temperature

010100020021000D
On boiler cool-down the vent should be opened

a) as soon as the post-purge is completed

b) when all temperatures are at ambient value
c) any time after the NRV is closed
d) just before the unit goes into a vacuum
e) at no time

010100020021000A
When cooling down a steam boiler that has been taken out of
service, a vent valve on the steam drum should be opened to
a) prevent a vacuum from forming in the boiler
b) release the air from the boiler
c) purge the shell of impure gases
d) let the operator know when the pressure has reached zero
e) prevent pressure build-up in the boiler

Routine and Emergency Boiler Operation

010100020021000A
A wide and rapid fluctuating water level in the boiler gage
glass may be the result of

a) high TDS
b) a vapour bound boiler feed pump
c) low alkalinity
d) low pH
e) boiler firing rate being too low

010100020021000B
A natural gas fired power boiler flame should be

a) very slow, long, and mostly yellow or orange

b) fairly rapid, mostly blue, and some orange
c) very rapid, short, very audible, and have no orange
d) very white and intense, requiring coloured glass for
viewing
e) bright enough to require coloured glass for viewing

010100020021000D
When performing a sootblowing operation it is important to
maintain flame stability and

a) ensure drum water level remains constant

b) firing rate not be allowed to increase
c) stack discharge not become visible
d) dislodged soot and ash leave the boiler with the flue
gases
e) the local environmental agency be notified prior to
blowing

010100020021000C
While blowing down a boiler which is in operation, you should

a) check the rest of the boiler room equipment

b) fill in the log book for your shift
c) concentrate only on blowing down the boiler
d) clean up the area close to the boiler
e) add more water to the boiler to replace the blow down water

010100020021000C
In the event of a low water condition in a boiler the
engineer in charge should
a) shut down the burner immediately
b) continue firing and restore the level
c) shut down the burner, let the unit cool, then inspect it
d) shut down the burner, let the unit cool, then restore
level
e) notify the Chief Engineer before responding to the
condition

010100020021000E
A high water level in a boiler

a) will not be made worse by dropping boiler pressure or

allowing "swell" to occur
b) should cause a high water level shutdown switch to stop
the fire
c) is usually the result of a boiler feedpump malfunction
d) will necessitate an immediate shutdown, cool down, and
inspection
e) is usually the result of a level control malfunction

010100020021000B
In the event of a flame failure, an automatic boiler will
close the fuel valve and usually

a) begin a re-start cycle immediately

b) perform a post-purge
c) reset itself
d) simply restart itself with no human intervention
e) stop the boiler feedpump

010100020021000A
When you first notice that the water level in the boiler gauge
glass can no longer be seen, it is best first to

a) ensure that the boiler is not over filled

b) start the stand-by feed pump or injector
c) shut off the boiler fuel supply
d) close the main steam valve
e) ensure the glass is not leaking

010100020021000B
If the safety valve on a boiler pops and the only pressure gauge
indicates well below pop pressure, you would

a) notify the Boiler Inspector

b) reduce boiler pressure and get the gauge checked
c) shut down to fix the safety valve
d) increase spring pressure on safety valve
e) shut down the boiler and replace the safety valve and
gauge glass

010100020021000E
If the boiler safety valves open during boiler operation, you
should

a) close the non-return valve on the boiler drum

b) shut the boiler down immediately
c) increase the forced draft flow to cool the boiler
d) open the blowdown valves
e) reduce the fuel and air flow to the boiler

010100020021000B
What causes the level in the gage glass to be higher than in
the drum?

a) column drain valve leaking

b) steam valve on the gage glass closed
c) swell in boiler steam drum
d) starting up of the stand-by feedwater pump
e) guage glass steam and water valves are both open

010100020021000C
What causes the level in the gauge glass to be lower than
the water level in the boiler?

a) steam valve on the gauge glass closed

b) shrinkage in the boiler steam drum
c) drain valve on the gauge glass leaking
d) top try cock open
e) the steam pressure is excessively high

010100020021000D
A firetube boiler furnace explosion

a) can be the result of too much scale on boiler tubes

b) is more disastrous than a pressure or waterside explosion
c) may be the result of oil in the water causing a foaming
condition
d) may result from a flame scanner not working properly
e) could be caused by poor water circulation

010100020021000C
A boiler pressure or waterside explosion

a) could be the result of water in the fuel oil

b) could be the result of inadequate ignition
c) may be caused by a low water condition
d) could result from improper sootblowing procedures
e) could be the result of broken refractory

010100020021000A
A reason for many boiler accidents may be due to

a) inadequate training of operating personnel

b) log books being kept up to date and adequate
c) the regular testing and checking of control devices
d) not asking the insurance companies to inspect boilers
more often
e) safety valves being oversized

010100020021000B
The best method of ensuring adequate attention is being given
to the boiler and its controlling and safety devices is to
a) schedule regular testing and checking procedures
b) maintain a log book showing testing results and by whom
they were done
c) request staff to perform checks weekly
d) have faith in the personnel
e) always maintain good oral communication lines about tests
and checks

010100020021000A
Most furnace explosions occur

a) during the lighting up of a boiler burner

b) during the shutting down of a burner
c) during the purge period of lighting a boiler furnace
d) during the period of increasing the load
e) when steam pressure is excessive

010100020021000E
When additional gas burners are required, they may be ignited

a) from an adjacent burner

b) by the flame detector
c) by means of a transformer relay
d) by a flame rod
e) by means of a torch

010100020021000B
The purging process for a furnace should be done

a) before each burner is lit

b) with the fuel valve closed
c) with the fuel valve in the open position
d) before the second burner is lit
e) with the pilot light on

010100020021000D
One cause of flame failure in oil or gas fired boilers is

a) excessive fuel temperature

b) fuel pressure being too high
c) the fuel being too volatile
d) water in the fuel
e) the hydrogen content is too low

010100020021000E
Attempting to light one burner from another burner during the
operation, can

a) cause the lit burner to be blown out

b) cause the fuel oil in the supply tank to surge
c) put the ignitor out
d) not cause the furnace to explode
e) cause a furnace explosion

010100020021000B
If the main burner fails, this could cause
a) the steam atomizing pressure to increase
b) admission of unburned fuel to the furnace which may
explode
c) the boiler efficiency to increase
d) the fuel valve to stay open
e) the pilot light to go out

010100020021000D
Poor combustion due to the insufficient amount of __________
may cause a furnace explosion.

a) gas
b) fuel
c) heat
d) air
e) hydrocarbons

010100020021000E
Failure to __________ the furnace thoroughly before light-up
can cause a furnace explosion.

a) heat
b) drain
c) prime
d) cool
e) purge

010100020021000A
Attempting to light a burner _______________________ may
cause a furnace explosion.

a) from hot refractory

b) without preheating the fuel
c) without first cooling the fuel
d) without a pilot light
e) by pre-purging the furnace

010100020021000C
Pressure explosions occur when a pressure part of the boiler
such as the shell, furnace, or firetube bursts due to too
high a steam pressure or a structural weakening of the metal.
This weakening may be caused by:

1. corrosion
2. thermal stress
3. overheating
4. scale and sludge build-up
5. insufficient combustion air

a) 1, 3, 4, 5
b) 2, 3, 4, 5
c) 1, 2, 3, 4
d) 1, 2, 4, 5
e) 1, 2, 3, 5
External Feedwater Treatment
010100020021000C
Boiler water is treated in order to prevent

a) sludge, mud, pitting, corrosion

b) foaming, corrosion, carryover, sludge
c) sludge, corrosion, scale, carryover
d) scale, sludge, mud, pitting
e) foaming, carryover, pitting, corrosion

010100020021000D
Dissolved solids in raw water

a) cause pitting of boiler surfaces

b) cause grooving of piping surfaces
c) are organic matter
d) cannot be removed with filters
e) cause corrosion of boiler surfaces

010100020021000A
Boiler surfaces may have what appears to be blisters which
are composed of

a) iron oxide
b) sodium sulphite
c) caustic soda
d) ferric sulphate
e) chelates

010100020021000D
Boiler water with an alkalinity that is too high will likely

a) have a lot of scale

b) show signs of pitting
c) have a low pH
d) foam
e) have grooving on its surfaces

010100020021000E
Corrosion products in feedwater can cause

a) slag deposits in superheaters

b) decreased steam pressure
c) increased steam pressure
d) increase in boiler efficiency
e) tube failure

010100020021000C
Boiler water with a pH of 6 is considered

a) alkaline
b) basic
c) acidic
d) neutral
e) acceptable for boiler water
010100020021000B
Which of the following is an example of suspended matter?

a) sodium
b) sand
c) salt
d) calcium
e) magnesium

010100020021000A
Which of the following is an example of dissolved solids?

a) magnesium sulphate
b) oxygen
c) clay
d) sand
e) carbon dioxide

010100020021000C
Temporary hardness in feedwater is caused by

a) calcium sulphate
b) sodium nitrate
c) magnesium bicarbonate
d) calcium carbonate
e) magnesium sulphate

010100020021000E
Feedwater for a high pressure boiler should be

a) treated with phosphate

b) treated with phenolphthalein
c) treated city water
d) treated with salt
e) softened water

010100020021000E
A method of treatment which is often used in conjunction with
settling tanks is

a) deaeration
b) zeolite softening
c) demineralizing
d) lime soda softening
e) filtration

010100020021000B
The result of adding Al (SO ) to the raw water is
2 4 3
a) a higher pH
b) floc
c) corrosion
d) pitting
e) sublimation
010100020021000A
The chemical equation which represents the modification of
bicarbonates in hard water by the use of a zeolite softener
is

a) Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + 2NaHCO

3 2 2 3

b) CaZ + 2NaCl = Na Z + CaCl

2 2

c) MgSO + Na Z = MgZ + Na SO
4 2 2 4

d) Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + NaHCO

3 2 2 3

e) MgZ + 2NaCl = Na + MgCl

2 2

010100020021000D
When using a sodium zeolite water softener, the modification
of the sulphates in hard water is shown by the chemical
equation

a) MgZ + 2NaCl = Na + MgCl

2 2

b) Ca(HCO ) + Na Z = CaZ + 2NaHCO

3 2 2 3

c) CaZ + 2NaCl = Na Z + CaCl

2 2

d) MgSO + Na Z = MgZ + Na SO
4 2 2 4

e) MgSO + Na Z = 2MgZ + 2NaSO

4 2 4

010100020021000C
During the regeneration of a sodium zeolite water softener in
the "Rinse" stage, the item(s) going to the sewer is/are

a) calcium sulphate
b) sulphates and bicarbonates
c) calcium and magnesium ions
d) sodium bicarbonates and sulphates
e) magnesium bicarbonate

010100020021000E
The regenerant used to regenerate a cation demineralizer is

a) hydrochloric acid
b) sodium chloride
c) caustic soda
d) sodium hydroxide
e) sulphuric acid

010100020021000A
The regenerant used to regenerate an anion demineralizer is

a) sodium hydroxide
b) sulphuric acid
c) sodium chloride
d) hydrochloric acid
e) sulfamic acid

010100020021000E
Zeolite of a sodium zeolite softener may be discharged to the
sewer during the

a) injection stage of a regeneration

b) service stage
c) slow rinse stage of a regeneration
d) fast rinse stage of a regeneration
e) backwash stage of a regeneration

010100020021000B
The capacity of a sodium zeolite softener will drop due to
zeolite attrition at about

a) 5% per year
b) 3% per year
c) 15% per year
d) 1% per year
e) 7% per year

010100020021000A
Filters are used

a) for external water treatment

b) to remove dissolved solids
c) to remove calcium bicarbonates
d) for internal treatment
e) to remove hardness

010100020021000C
Water filters must be cleaned

a) if the water becomes hard

b) when the dissolved solids are high
c) by backwashing the filter media
d) by chemically cleaning the filter media
e) once per shift

010100020021000B
Coagulants added to water

a) make the water soft

b) will remove fine particles more readily
c) remove the dissolved solids
d) causes the fine particles to float to the surface
e) remove chemicals not used up
010100020021000C
Lime-soda softeners

a) remove all dissolved solids from the water

b) must be backwashed periodically
c) remove all dissolved solids and gases from the water
d) changes the pH of the water
e) remove the scale forming dissolved solids

010100020021000A
Hot lime-soda softeners

a) can treat larger quantities of water than the cold

process type
b) will remove all dissolved solids from the water
c) are mostly used in small heating plants
d) are only used when using well water
e) are used mostly in large power plants

010100020021000B
Sodium zeolite softeners

a) remove all dissolved solids from the water

b) remove calcium and magnesium from the water
c) are regenerated with an acid solution
d) are regenerated with an alkaline solution
e) remove all dissolved solids and suspended matter
from the water

010100020021000A
Mechanical deaeration

a) removes the dissolved gases from the water

b) is done with the aid of chemicals
c) is used to remove calcium and magnesium from the water
d) is used to remove oxygen only
e) removes all dissolved gases and solids from the water

010100020021000A
Pitting of boiler metal may be prevented by

a) heating the boiler feed water to between 80 and 105 degrees

Celsius before it enters the boiler
b) cooling the feed water to between 4 and 16 degrees Celsius
c) the addition of sodium chloride to the feed water
d) agitating the feed water before it enters the boiler
e) the addition of sodium sulphate to the feed water

010100020021000C
The zeolite inside a water softener is used to

a) regenerate the brine solution

b) rinse the softened water
c) exchange sodium for calcium and magnesium
d) exchange soda for calcium and magnesium
e) exchange calcium for magnesium
010100020021000D
In order to prevent the waste of steam through a deaerator
vent, the component used is a

a) cyclone separator
b) chevron drier
c) scrubber
d) vent condenser
e) dry pipe

010100020021000A
A normal operating pressure range for a deaerator is

a) 70 to 100 kPa
b) 30 to 50 kPa
c) 100 to 150 kPa
d) 10 to 25 kPa
e) 5 to 35 kPa

Internal Feedwater Treatment and Testing Methods

010100020021000D
An acceptable pH value for boiler water is

a) 7.00
b) 6.95
c) 8.35
d) 10.50
e) 11.75

010100020021000A
Relative to internal treatment, it is customary to

a) precipitate dissolved solids with a "precipitator"

b) cause dissolved solids to remain in solution
c) filter out dissolved solids
d) treat the dissolved solids so they remain dispersed
e) condition the dissolved solids so they do not adhere to
metal

010100020021000C
A sludge conditioner will keep precipitated dissolved solids
fluid and well dispersed and

a) permit their removal through a CBD

b) in solution
c) prevent them from adhering to the metal
d) is usually a non-organic compound
e) is injected prior to the water softener

010100020021000C
Two common chemicals used for deaeration are Na SO and
2 3
a) NaOH

b) H SO
2 4

c) N H
2 4

d) Na PO
3 4

e) Na (HCO )
2 3 2

010100020021000C
Carbon dioxide causes return line corrosion and may be

a) removed in the deaerator

b) absorbed by sodium sulphite
c) the result of bicarbonate decomposition
d) neutralized in the boiler with sodium hydroxide
e) neutralized with filming amines

010100020021000A
Excess sulphite is necessary to prevent

a) pitting
b) hardness
c) carry over
d) acidity
e) sludging

010100020021000D
Sludge is usually removed from the boiler by

a) filtering the water before it leaves the boiler

b) raking it into a sludge trap
c) vacuuming it from the bottom
d) blowing down through the bottom blow down connection
e) blowing down through the continuous blow down

010100020021000B
Internal water treatment is

a) used with low pressure boilers only

b) adding chemicals to the boiler water
c) adding a coagulant to the settling tank
d) measuring the pH of the feedwater
e) adding chemicals to the steam in the boiler

010100020021000A
The pH of the water in the boiler

a) is controlled with sodium hydroxide

b) could be controlled with amines
c) must have a value of 7
d) is controlled by adding treated water
e) should be neutral

010100020021000C
Sludge conditioning in a boiler

a) is controlled by the continuous blow down

b) is to prevent pollution from the water blown down from
the boiler
c) prevents the sludge precipitates from adhering to the boiler
plates and tubes
d) is done to mix the sludge with the boiler water
e) neutralizes the sludge forming substances

010100020021000E
Foaming of water in the boiler

a) is due to a high concentration of dissolved gases

b) can be controlled by adding sodium phosphate
c) can be controlled by adding more neutralizing amines
d) can be controlled by adding sulphur to the feedwater
e) can be controlled by the bottom and continuous blow downs

010100020021000A
Sodium sulphite chemical will

a) prevent corrosion due to oxygen in the boiler water

b) precipitate with calcium and magnesium
c) prevent scale adhering to the tubes
d) control foaming
e) control return line corrosion

010100020021000D
Return line corrosion

a) can be controlled by feeding sodium bicarbonate

b) can be prevented by adding sodium phosphate
c) can be prevented by adding sodium sulphite
d) can be controlled by feeding amines
e) can be controlled by adding polymers

010100020021000D
Sodium sulphite is used in boilers to

a) prevent scale formation

b) prevent carryover
c) control dissolved solids
d) prevent oxygen corrosion
e) prevent foaming

010100020021000C
The boiler blowoff should be used to

a) reduce steam pressure

b) reduce feedwater pressure
c) control the total dissolved solids
d) prevent scale formation
e) expel the sodium sulphite
010100020021000D
The pH of the boiler water should be maintained at

a) neutral
b) slightly alkaline
c) 11.5
d) 10.5
e) 7

010100020021000E
To prevent scale formation, inject

a) zeolite
b) sodium chloride
c) phenolphthalein
d) amines
e) phosphates

010100020021000A
One element which leads to caustic embrittlement in boiler tubes is

a) concentration of sodium hydroxide

b) concentration of sodium chloride
c) overheating of boiler parts
d) concentration of sodium sulphite
e) excessive boiler pressure

010100020021000A
The water in a boiler should be kept

a) alkaline
b) neutral
c) acidic
d) at a pH of 14
e) at a pH of 7

010100020021000A
Raw water has hardness due to

a) the salts of calcium and magnesium

b) suspended solids
c) organic material
d) dissolved gases
e) phosphates

010100020021000E
Alkalinity in boiler water may be due to calcium, sodium or
magnesium

a) hydroxides
b) carbonates and bicarbonates
c) bicarbonates
d) hydroxides and bicarbonates
e) hydroxides, carbonates and bicarbonates

010100020021000B
The phenolphthalein or "P" alkalinity test does not indicate
alkalinity due to

a) hydroxides
b) bicarbonates
c) sulphates
d) carbonates
e) phosphates

010100020021000D
The methyl orange or "M" alkalinity test indicates
alkalinity

a) due to carbonates only

b) due to bicarbonates only
c) due to hydroxides only
d) caused by all dissolved impurities contributing to
alkalinity
e) due to organics only

010100020021000B
When conducting a TDS or Total Dissolved Solids test, the
impurity which has a high conductivity and must be
neutralized is

a) sodium phosphate
b) hydroxide alkalinity
c) pH
d) suspended solids
e) sodium chloride

010100020021000B
Boiler water chemicals are injected

a) in measured amounts once per year

b) after considering the water test readings
c) into the water softener
d) to prevent the water becoming too alkaline
e) each time after blowing down

010100020021000B
A residual of 20 to 40 ppm of sodium sulphite is to
be maintained in the boiler water to

a) keep down the sludge

b) prevent pitting in the boiler steam drum
c) prevent scaling the float in the low water cut-off
d) keep feed water lines free of algae
e) reduce the total chemical consumption

010100020021000E
The conductivity meter is used to measure the

a) current
b) alkalinity
c) electrolyte
d) voltage
e) TDS

010100020021000A
Total alkalinity is measured

a) using methyl orange indicator and N50 sulphuric acid

b) to be sure that it is not more than 2500 ppm
c) to keep a check on the dissolved oxygen
d) to control sludge formation
e) by using phenophthalein and N50 sulphuric acid

010100020021000A
Boiler water testing is done in the average power plant every

a) shift
b) week
c) month
d) time the boiler inspector requests it
e) time the chief engineer requests it

010100020021000C
When used as a term during boiler water testing, DS means

a) demineralized steam
b) drain solids
c) dissolved solids
d) dissolved sulphite
e) depleted salts

010100020021000A
Phenolphthalein is

a) an indicator
b) a reagent
c) a buffer
d) an acid softener
e) neutralizing agent

010100020021000E
Titrating is done with

a) a titrant
b) a zeolite
c) an antifoam
d) trisodium phosphate
e) a reagent

010100020021000C
When performing a water test be sure that:

1. all equipment is clean and in good working order

2. results are recorded carefully before making the test
3. test solutions, indicators, and reagents are fresh,
and at full strength
4. test reagents are filtered before use
a) 1, 2
b) 2, 3
c) 1, 3
d) 2, 4
e) 3, 4

010100020021000C
Chemicals are fed to a water tube boiler

a) with a small centrifugal pump

b) into the top drum only
c) with a small positive displacement pump
d) into the bottom drum only
e) prior to operating the blow off valves

010100020021000B
A continuous blow-off is

a) used to reduce the dissolved gases in the boiler

b) installed in the steam drum
c) used on every boiler
d) installed in the lower drum
e) used to reduce sludge