Davinci Medical Academy

preventive & SOCIAL MEDICINE

1. Small pox was eradicated in - May 1980

2. Indicator of socio-economic development - Infant mortality rate
3. Sentinel surveillance is used to assess - Hidden/missing cases
4. Sullivan index provides - Life expectancy minus probable duration of bed disability
& inability to perform major activities
5. Severity of the disease best assessed by - case fatality rate
6. Killing power of a disease is - case fatality rate
7. MC pneumoconiosis in India - Silicosis
8. Mid-day meals should provide - 1/3 calories & 1/2 proteins
9. Which of following doesn’t multiply but completes its developmental cycle in
the host -Microfilaria
10. Amplifier host of Japanese encephalitis/KFD - Pigs
11. Host for chikungunya - Man
12. Exclusive breast feeding recommended in India upto - 6 months
13. Disinfecting action of chlorine on water in mainly due to - Hypochlorus acid
14. Disease occurring before the age of 65 yrs - Pre senile.
15. Sensitivity is measured by - True positive
16. Specificity is measured by - True negative
17. Best method for prevention of infection by medical professional in a hospital
setup-Hand washing.
18. FAST questionnaire is used to diagnose - Alcoholic
19. Programme designed for the benefit for pregnant woman & infant - Janani
suraksha yojna
20. Best indicator of socioeconomic development of a country is - IMR
21. MCC of Infant mortality rate (IMR) in India - Low birth weight & prematurity
22. Who will prepare malarial parasite smear slide - Health assistant(male)
23. Chandler’s index is used for - Hook worm (Ankylostoma duodenale) no. of hook-
worm eggs per gram of stool - 250 eggs is dangerous
24. Socially attained behaviour is – Culture
25. For determination of socio-economic status of urban population -modified
kuppusamy scale
26. Human developement index (HDI) - life expectancy at birth Income per capita,
Literacy rate
27. Prevention of risk factor development of CAD - primordial level of prevention
28. Pt is made to walk early after surgery, -rehablitation
29. Endemic of a disease means - is constantly present in population
30. Most important function of sentinel surveillance - to find total amount of disease
in a population
31. Bhopal gas tragedy is - single exposure point source epidemic

Preventive & Social Medicine

Davinci Medical Academy
 32. Case fatality rate = total no. of deaths due to a disease x 100 total no. of cases due
to a disease
33. Epidemiological triad are - Host/environmental factors/agent
PHYSIOLOGY
34. When a child lost in hands & unable to do routine works called as - Impairment
35. Natural history of disease is studied by - Longitudinal study
36. Disease elimination means - preventing the transmission chain
37. Iodine salt supplementation is - Specific protection
38. Water borne disease - Amoebiasis
39. Chemoprophylaxis is prevention of - Primary
40. Surveilance is - Scrutiny of factors
41. Morbidity is measured by - Active surveillance
42. Serial interval is - Time gap between primary & secondary case
43. Hypothesis is a - variable to be tested
44. Case fatality rate is a method measuring - Virulence
45. A graph shows uniform curve with no secondary curves - pointed epidemic
46. Rapid rise & fall in epidemic curve without any secondary waves is seen in
- point source epidemic
47. Case control study is a type of - Analytical study
48. Recall bias is most commonly associated in which study -case control study
49. Incidence rate is measured by - cohort study
50. Relative risk is calculated by - cohort studies
51. Odd’s ratio is calculated by - case control study
52. Incubation period of yellow fever is - 2-6 days
53. Disease notifiable to WHO is - Cholera / Plague / Yellow fever
54. Infective period of chicken pox is - 2 days prior & 5days after appearance of rash

Preventive & Social Medicine

55. Hospital acquired infection of surgical wound is mostly by - Instruments
56. Hospital based study is - Cross over study
57. Herd immunity is seen in - polio/measles/diptheria/pertusis/mumps/rubella/
smallpox.
58. Herd immunity is not seen in - Tetanus
59. Vaccine most commonly associated with allergic reaction & shock - DPT
60. All Live vaccines & meningococcal are contraindicated in pregnancy
61. BCG should be given - immediately after birth
62. BCG/H.influenza/yellow fever is diluted with - NS
63. Measles/MMR vaccine is diluted with - Distilled water/sterile water
64. Rabies vaccine is prepared from - Fixed virus
65. Antisera is obtained from - Horse
66. First immunization of the Baby - Colostrum
67. Administration of which vaccine can result in paralysis in children - Sabin polio
vaccine
68. Yellow fever vaccination starts protection after how many days of injection - 10
days
69. Ring vaccination is - given around 100 yards of a case detected
70. A full course of immunization against tetanus with 3 doses of TT confers im-
munity for how many years - 5 yrs
71. Vaccine administered as Nose drops - Influenza
72. Gap between two live vaccines - 4 weeks
73. BCG is given - Intra dermal
74. Best way to sterilize glass syringes is - Hot air
75. Cold sterilization is done by - Ionizing radiation

Davinci Medical Academy

76. True negatives are detected by - specificity
77. High false positive cases signify that disease has - high incidence & low preva-
lence
78. False negative means - person has disease but shows negative test result
79. Positive predict value of a test depends upon - prevalence of disease
80. Acc. To WHO blindness is inability to count fingers at a distance - 3 metres
81. Chinese letter arrangement of bacilli under microscope - cornybacterium
diptheriae
82. Negri bodies/Hydrophobia is seen in - Rabies
83. Bull neck appearance is seen in - Diptheria
84. Subacute sclerosing pan encephalitis is a complication of - Measles
85. Kala azar is transmitted by - sand fly
86. Perinatal transmission of Hepatitis B is max in - 3rd trimester
87. MC oppurtunistic pneumonia in AIDS is - pneumocystis carnii pneumonia
88. DOC for a pregnant lady with cerebral malaria - Quinine
89. MC site for Hydatid cyst in human body is - right postero superior lobe of liver
90. DOC of LGV - Doxycycline
91. Best indicator of HIV progression in body is - CD4:CD8 ratio
92. Dose of rabies immunoglobulin is - 20 IU/kg body weight
93. Cyclops are found in the life cycle of - Dracunculiasis
94. Vector for dengue fever is - Aedes
95. Major side effect of streptomycin - Oto-toxicity
96. Major side effect of rifampicin - Hepatitis
97. Major side effect of ethambutol - colour blindness/optic neuritis
98. Vitamin A defeciency - Night blindness
99. Enteric fever is caused by - Salmonella typhi
100. MC cause of blindness in India - Cataract
101. DOC for cholera in Adults - Doxycycline
102. Typhoid ulcer perforates in - 3rd week
103. Virus causing rabies in man - street virus
104. Q-fever is caused by - Coxiella Brunetti
105. Tick transmits - Rocky mountain spotted fever
106. Poliomyelitis is transmitted by - Fecal oral route
107. MC cancer world wide is - Lung cancer
108. Certificate of yellow fever is valid for duration of - 10 yrs
109. SAFE - Surgery/Antibiotics/Face washing/Environmental improvement
110. Which of the following hepatitis is associated with higher mortality in
pregnancy-Hepatitis E
111. Koplik spots appear in - Prodromal stage in measles
112. MC complication of Mumps in children - Aseptic meningitis
113. Diptheria carrier are diagnosed by - throat culture

Preventive & Social Medicine

114. Schick test indicates - carrier for - diptheria
115. Treatment for pertussis children - prophylactic antibiotic for 10 days
116. Child with pertussis should be isolated for 3-4 weeks
117. Chemoprophylaxis for meningococcal meningitis - Rifampicin
118. DOC for cholera chemoprophylaxis - Tetracyclines
119. Guinea worm infestation is common in workers of - stepwells
120. Highest level of Health care is - Tertiary care
121. Vector for transmission of Bancroftian filaria - Culex fatigans
122. Clinical incubation period of Filariasis is - 8 - 16 months
123. KFD is transmitted by - Ticks
124. Highly infectious clinical form of plague is - Pneumonic plague
125. Plague is caused by - Rat flea
126. Scrub typhus is transmitted by - Mite
127. Endemic typhus is transmitted by - Louse
128. Mode of transmission of Q fever - Aerosols
129. R.prowazekki is transmitted by - Louse
130. Rash starting peripherally is a feature of - Q-fever
131. Kala-azar - sandfly - man is the reservoir - aldehyde test is positive
132. Leprosy commonly spreads by - Droplet
133. MC nerve involved in leprosy - Ulnar nerve
134. Lepromin test is valuable for - Prognosis of disease
135. MTP in India can be carried out till - 20 weeks period of gestation
136. World AIDS day is on - 1st december
137. In HIV infected child which vaccine should not be given - OPV

Davinci Medical Academy

138. First case of AIDS was reported in - 1984
139. Incubation period less than few hours - Food poisoning
140. Arboviruse disease - yellow fever,japanese encephalitis,dengue,chickungunya
141. SSPE subacute sclerosing pan-encephalitis is associated with - Measles
142. CUT 380 AIUCD should be replaced every 10 yrs
143. Nova T has - Silver core
144. Serious complication of oral contraceptives - Leg vein thrombosis
145. Side effect of Mini pill - irregular bleeding, depression
146. Mini pill contains - only progesterone
147. Current recommendation for initiating breast feed - as early as possible
148. Recommended door & windows area in a class must be - 25%
149. According to protocol for uncomplicated pregnancy no. of minimum visits
must be - 3
150. Breast feeding is contraindicated in - Open TB
151. Guthrie test is done in neonates for mass screening of - Phenylketonuria
152. Additional daily energy requirement during 1st 6 months for a lactating wom-
an is- 550Kcal
153. Best parameter for assessment for chronic malnutrition - Height for age
154. Pasteurization of milk is determined by - phosphatase test
155. Pellagra & casal’s necklace is seen in - defeciency of Vit B3 niacin
156. Vitamin K is given to every child - At birth
157. IOC for iron deficiency anemia - serrum ferritin
158. Most essential fatty acid - linoleic acid
159. Vit D deficiency in children - rickets/in adults - osteomalacia
160. Burning sole syndrome is seen in deficiency of - pantothenic acid
161. Twin fortified salt contains - Iodine + iron
162. Epidemic dropsy is caused by - Sanguinarine
163. Richest source of cholesterol is - Egg
164. Indian reference man is - 60 kg
165. Dental carries is due to deficiency of - Fluorine
166. Macrocytic anemia - B12 deficiency
167. Acculturation means - culture contact
168. Moderate mental retardation – IQ 35-49
169. Tiger mosquito - aedes
170. Amount of bleaching powder required for disinfection of 1000 litre of water -
2.5 grams
171. Propagative type of biological transmission - plague
172. Most reliable evidence of fecal contamination of water is provided by - Coliform
bacteria
173. Most undesirable metal in drinking water is - Lead
174. DOC for scabies - 5% permethrin and oral ivermectin

Preventive & Social Medicine

175. Normal life span of mosquito is - 8-34 days
176. Ortho-toluidine test is done to detect - free & combined chlorine in water
177. In fresh bleaching powder available chlorine is - 33%
178. One tablet of chlorine is effective to disinfect how much quantity of water - 20L
179. Chlorine demand is measured by - Horrock’s apparatus
180. Recommended hardness of water - 50-150
181. Best parameter to measure air pollution - SO2
182. Black fly causes - onchocerciasis
183. Culex mosquito transmits - japanese encephalitis
184. Paris green is used to eliminate the larva of - Anophele
185. nuisance mosquito is - Culex
186. Post disaster commonly reported disease - gastroenteritis
187. Aniline dyes are associated with - Ca bladder
188. Bagassosis is caused by - sugarcane dust
189. Byssinosis is due to - cotton dust
190. Pneumoconiosis more prone to develop tuberculosis - Silicosis
191. Under ESI act sickness benefit is given for a period of - 91 days
192. Immersion foot syndrome are seen in - Trench foot
193. Wrist drop may be caused as industrial hazard in - Battery industry
194. Monday fever associated with - Byssinosis
195. Silicosis affects - Upper lobes of lungs
196. MC abused agent in India - Tobacco
197. Maximum loss of DALY occurs in which psychiatric disorder - Depression
198. Ivory towers of disease - Large hospitals

Davinci Medical Academy

199. PHC was introduced as result of report - Bhore committee
200. 3 months training in PSM during internship is recommended by - Bhore
committee
201. Each subcenter 1 male & 1 female health worker is recommended by-Kartar
singh committee
202. Multipurpose worker scheme in India was introduced by - Kartar singh commit-
tee
203. PERT is a technique for - Network analysis
204. First referral unit is - CHC
205. Sub - centre is for population- 5000
206. CHC is for population - 1,20,000
207. Anganwadi is for population - 1000
208. No.of beds in a community health center is - 30
209. Preparing slides for Malaria is performed only by - male MPW
210. Eligible couple register is maintained at - Subcentre
211. Age at which a person is considered as dependent is - Age below15 & above 65
212. PHC- 30000 in plain area \20000 in hilly area
213. Mid year population estimated on – 1st July
214. ICDS started in which year – 1975
215. Paradoxical carrier – Who gets infected from another carrier
216. World health day – 29th September
217. Vaccines strain changed every year- Influenza
218. DOC for scrub typus – Doxycycline
219. Role of Mg in OPV- Stablizer
220. Passive immunity from mother to child transferred in – Diphtheria
221. Lethal BMI for adult males – 13
222. Poor man Iron source – Jaggery
223. Richest source of Vitamin B12- Meat
224. World diabetes day – 14th November

Preventive & Social Medicine

 MCQ’s
1. The parameters of sensitivity and specifici- D. Epidemiological investigations
ty are used for assessing: Ans. B
A. Criterion validity
B. Construct validity 7. A measure of location which divides the dis-
C. Discriminant validity tribution in the ratio of 3:1 is:
D. Content validity A. Median
Ans. A B. First quartile
C. Third quartile
2. Chi-square test is used to measure the de- D. Mode
gree of: Ans. C
A. Causal relationship between exposure
and effect. 8. The following statements about meningo-
B. Association between two variables. coccal meningitis are true, except:
C. Correlation between two variables. A. The source of infection is mainly clinical
D. Agreement between two observations. cases.
Ans. B B. The disease is more common in dry and
cold months of the year.
3. Elements of primary health care include all C. Chemoprophylaxis of close contacts of
of the following except: cases is recommended.
A. Adequate supply of safe water and ba- D. The vaccine is not effective in children
sic below 2 years of age.
sanitation. Ans. A
B. Providing essential drugs.
C. Sound referral system. 9. The Protein Efficiency Ratio (PER) is de-
D. Health education. fined as:
Ans. C A. The gain in weight of young animals per
unit weight of protein-consumed.
4. For the calculation of positive predictive B. The product of digestibility coeffecient
value of a screening test, the denominator and biological value.
is comprised of: C. The percentage of protein absorbed
A. True positive + False negative into
B. False positive + True negative the blood.
C. True positive + False positive D. The percentage of nitrogen absorbed
D. True positive + True negative from the protein absorbed from the
Ans. C diet.
Ans. A
5. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of pe-
diatric iron-folic acid tablets supplied un- 10. The Vitamin A supplement administered
der Rural Child Health (RCH) program are: in “Prevention of nutritional blindness in
A. 20 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. children programme” contain:
B. 40 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. A. 25,000 i.u./ml
C. 40 mg iron & 50 micrograms folic acid. B. 1 lakh i.u./ml
D. 60 mg iron & 100 micrograms folic acid. C. 3 lakh i.u./ml
Ans. A D. 5 lakh i.u./ml
Ans. B
6. In the management of leprosy, lepromin 11. A 5 year old boy passed 18 loose stools in
test is most useful for: last 24 hours and vomited twice in last 4
A. Herd immunity hours. He is irritable but drinking fluids.
B. Prognosis The optimal therapy for this child is:
C. Treatment A. Intravenous fluids

Davinci Medical Academy

 B. Oral rehydration therapy A. Uncorrected refractive error
C. Intravenous fluid initially for 4 hours B. Cataract.
fol C. Glaucoma
lowed by oral fluids. D. Squint.
D. Plain water add libitum. Ans. A
Ans. B
15. Most important epidemiological tool used
12. Study this formula carefully: for assessing disability in children is:
A. Sensitivity. A. Activities of Daily Living (ADL) scale.
B. Specificity. B. Wing’s Handicaps, Behaviour and Skills
C. Positive Predictive value. (HBS) Schedule.
D. Negative Predictive value. C. Binet and Simon IQ tests.
Ans. A D. Physical Quality of Life Index (PQLI).
Ans. B
13. The ‘P’ value of a randomized controlled tri-
al comparing operation A (new procedure) 16. Scope of family planning services include all
and operation B (Gold standard is 0.04). of the following except:
From this, we conclude that: A. Screening for cervical cancer.
A. Type II error is small and we can accept B. Providing services for unmarried
the findings of the study. mothers.
B. The probability of false negative C. Screening for HIV infection.
conclusion that operation A is better D. Providing adoption services.
than operation B, when in truth it is not, Ans. C
is 4%.
C. The power of study to detect a differ- 17. Class II exposure in animal bites includes
ence the following:
between operation A and B is 96%. A. Scratches without oozing of blood.
D. The probability of a false positive B. Licks on a fresh wound.
conclusion that operation A is better C. Scratch with oozing of blood on palm.
than operation B, when in truth it is D. Bites from wild animals.
not, Ans. B
is 4%.
Ans. D 18. Elemental iron and folic acid contents of
iron and folic acid adult tablets supplied un-
14. The commonest cause of low vision in India der the “National Programme for Anaemia
is: Prophylaxis” are:

Preventive & Social Medicine

 A. 60 mg of elemental iron and 250
microgram of folic acid. 24. A child aged 24 months was brought to the
B. 100 mg of elemental iron and 500 Primary Health Centre with complaints
micrograms of folic acid. of cough and fever for the past 2 days. On
C. 20 mg of elemental iron and 750 examination, the child weighed 11 kg., re-
micrograms of folic acid. spiratory rate was 38 per minute, chest in-
D. 200 mg of elemental iron and 1000 drawing was present. The most appropriate
micro-grams of folic acid. line of management for this patient is?
A. Classify as pneumonia and refer ur-
19. Denominator while calculating the second- gently
ary attack rate includes: to secondary level hospital.
A. All the people living in next fifty houses. B. Classify as pneumonia, start antibiotics
B. All the close contacts. and advise to report after 2 days.
C. All susceptibles amongst close contact. C. Classify as severe pneumonia, start
D. All susceptibles in the whole village. antibiotics and refer urgently.
Ans. C D. Classify as severe pneumonia and refer
urgently.
20. The response which is graded by an observ- Ans. C
er on an agree or disagree continuum is
based on: 25. All are true about DOTS except:
A. Visual analog scale. A. Continuation phase drugs are given in a
B. Guttman scale. multi- blister combipack
C. Likert scale. B. Medication is to be taken in presence of
D. Adjectival scale. a
Ans. C health worker
21. For calculation of sample size for a preva- C. Alternate day treatment
lence study all of the following are neces- D. Improves compliance
sary except: Ans. C
A. Prevalence of disease in population.
B. Power of the study. 26. Basanti a 29 years aged female from Bihar
C. Significance level. presents with active tuberculosis. She deliv-
D. Desired precision. ers baby. All of the following are indicated
Ans. D except:
A. Administer INH to the baby
22. Leprosy is considered a public health prob- B. Withhold breastfeeding
lem if the prevalence of leprosy is more C. Give ATT to mother for 2 years
than: D. Ask mother to ensure proper disposal
A. 1 per 10,000 of
B. 2 per 10,000 sputum
C. 5 per 10,000 Ans. B
D. 10 per 10,000
Ans. A 27. Under the national TB programme, for a
PHC to be called a PHC-R, requisite is:
23. For controlling an outbreak of cholera, all A. Microscopy
of the following measures are recommend- B. Microscopy plus Radiology
ed except: C. Radiology
A. Mass chemoprophylaxis. D. None of the above
B. Proper disposal of excreta. Ans. B
C. Chlorination of water.
D. Early detection and management of 28. A person has received complete immuni-
cases. zation against tetanus 10 years ago, now
Ans. A he presents with a clean wound without

Davinci Medical Academy

 any lacerations from an injury sustained 3 The MMR is:
hours ago. He should now be given: A. 14.5
A. Full course of tetanus toxoid B. 13.8
B. Single dose of tetanus toxoid C. 20
C. Human tetanus globulin D. 5
D. Human tetanus globulin and single Ans. B
dose of toxoid
Ans. B 32. 10 babies are born in a hospital on same day.
All weigh 2.8 kg each. Calculate the standard
29. The false statement regarding tetanus is: deviation:
A. Five doses of immunisation provide life A. Zero
long immunity B. One
B. TT affords no protection in the present C. Minus one
injury D. 0.28
C. TIG is useful in lacerated wound Ans. A
D. TT and Ig both may be given in suspect-
ed 33. Out of 11 births in a hospital, 5 babies
tetanus weighed over 2.5 kg and 5 weighed less than
Ans. A 2.5 kg. What value does 2.5 represent:
A. Geometric average
30. A certain community has 100 children out B. Arithmetic average
of whom 28 are immunised against measles. C. Median
2 of them acquired measles simultaneously. D. Mode
Subsequently 14 get measles. Assuming the Ans. C
efficacy of the vaccine to be 100%. What is
the secondary attack rate? 34. A man weighing 68 kg, consumes 325 gm
A. 5% carbohydrate, 65 gm protein and 35 gms fat
B. 10% in his diet. The most applicable statement
C. 20% here is:
D. 21.5% A. His total calorie intake is 3000 kcal
Ans. C B. The proportion of proteins, fats and
carbohydrates is correct and in
31. A community has a population of 10,000 accordance with a balanced diet
and a birth rate of 36 per 1000. 5 maternal C. He has a negative nitrogen balance
deaths were reported in the current year. D. 30% of his total energy intake is de-

Preventive & Social Medicine

rived communities X and Y; Y shows more false
from fat +ve cases as compared to X. The possibility
Ans. B is:
A. High sensitivity
35. A country has a population of 1000 million; B. High specificity
birth rate is 23 and death rate is 6. In which C. Y community has high prevalence
phase of the demographic cycle does this D. Y community has low prevalence
country lie: Ans. C
A. Early expanding
B. Late expanding 41. ELISA is performed on a population with
C. Plateau low prevalence of hepatitis B. What would
D. Declining be the result of performing double screen-
Ans. B ing ELISA tests?
A. Increased sensitivity and positive
36. In a population of 10,000, beta carotene predictive value
was given to 6000; it was not given to the B. Increased sensitivity and negative
remainder. 3 out of the first group got lung predictive value
cancer while 2 out of the other 4000 also got C. Increased specificity and positive
lung cancer. The best conclusion is: predictive value
A. Beta carotene and lung cancer have no D. Increased specificity and negative
relation to one another predictive value
B. The p value is not significant Ans. C
C. The study is not designed properly
D. Beta carotene is associated with lung 42. While testing a hypolipidemic drug, serum
cancer lipid levels were tested both before and af-
Ans. A ter its use. Which test is best suited for the
statistical analysis of the result:
37. A subcentre in a hilly area caters to a popu- A. Paired t-test
lation of: B. Student’s test
A. 1000 C. Chi square test
B. 2000 D. None of the above
C. 3000 Ans. A
D. 5000
Ans. C 43. Type 1 sampling error is classified as:
A. Alpha error
38. In a community, an increase in new cases B. Beta error
denotes: C. Gamma error
A. Increase in incidence rate D. Delta error
B. Increase in prevalence rate Ans. A
C. Decrease in incidence rate
D. Decrease in prevalence rate 44. Virulence of a disease is indicated by:
Ans. A A. Proportional mortality rate
B. Specific mortality rate
39. More false positive cases on screening in a C. Case fatality ratio
community signify that the disease has: D. Amount of GDP spent on control of
A. High prevalence disease
B. High sensitivity Ans. C
C. Low prevalence
D. Low sensitivity 45. Which of the following diseases needs not to
Ans. C be screened for in workers to be employed
in a dye industry in Gujarat ?
40. The same screening test is applied to two A. Anemia

Davinci Medical Academy

 B. Bronchial asthma population group.
C. Bladder cancer C. Exhibits seasonal pattern.
D. Precancerous lesion D. Is prevalent among animals.
Ans. A Ans. B
46. Best test to detect iron deficiency in com-
munity is: 50. Which one of the following is a good index
A. Serum transferrin of the severity of an acute disease?
B. Serum ferritin A. Cause specific death rate.
C. Serum iron B. Case fatality rate.
D. Hemoglobin C. Standardized mortality ratio.
Ans. B D. Five year survival.
Ans. B
47. Which of the following is not a complete
sterilization agent: 51. Which one of the following statements
A. Glutaraldehyde about influence of smoking on risk of coro-
B. Absolute alcohol nary heart disease (CHD) is not true?
C. Hydrogen peroxide A. Influence of smoking is independent of
D. Sodium hypochlorite other risk factors for CHD.
Ans. B B. Influence of smoking is only additive to
other risk factors for CHD.
48. Seasonal trend is due to: C. Influence of smoking is synergistic to
A. Vector variation other risk factors for CHD.
B. Environmental factors D. Influence of smoking is directly related
C. Change in herd immunity to number of cigarettes smoked per day.
D. All of the above Ans. B
Ans. B
52. Antibiotic treatment of choice for treating
49. ‘Endemic disease’ means that a disease: cholera in an adult is a single dose of:
A. Occurs clearly in excess of normal A. Tetracycline.
expectancy. B. Co-trimoxazole.
B. Is constantly present in a given C. Doxycycline.

Preventive & Social Medicine

 D. Furazolidone. D. Iodine level in soil.
Ans. C Ans. C

53. All of the following statements are true 58. What is the color-coding of bag in hospi-
about congenital rubella except: tals to dispose off human anatomical wastes
A. It is diagnosed when the infant has IgM such as body parts:
antibodies at birth. A. Yellow.
B. It is diagnosed when IgG antibodies B. Black.
persist for more than 6 months. C. Red.
C. Most common congenital defects are D. Blue.
deafness, cardiac malformations and Ans. A
cataract.
D. Infection after 16 weeks of gestation 59. WHO defines adolescent age between:
results in major congenital defects. A. 10-19 years of age.
Ans. D B. 10-14 years of age.
C. 10-25 years of age.
54. Q 123. The recommended daily energy in- D. 9-14 years of age.
take of an adult woman with heavy work is: Ans. A
A. 1800.
B. 2100. 60. In a village having population of 1000, we
C. 2300. found patients with certain disease. The re
D. 2900. sults of a new diagnostic test on that disease
Ans. D are as follows.
Test result Disease
55. All of the following methods are antilarval Present Absent
measures except: + 180 400
A. Intermittent irrigation. – 20 400
B. Paris green. What is the percent prevalence of disease?
C. Gamusia affinis. A. 0.20
D. Malathion. B. 2
Ans. D C. 18
D. 20
56. All of the following are true about the herd Ans. D
immunity for infectious diseases except:
A. It refers to group protection beyond 61. The following tests are used to check the
what efficiency of pasteurization of milk except:
is afforded by the protection of A. Phosphatase test.
immunized individuals. B. Standard plate count.
B. It is likely to be more for infections that C. Coliform count.
do not have a sub-clinical phase. D. Methylene blue reduction test.
C. It is affected by the presence and Ans. D
distribution of alternative animal hosts.
D. In the case of tetanus it does not protect 62. What will be the BMI of a male whose weight
the individual. is 89 kg and height is 172 cm:
Ans. B A. 27
57. The best indicator for monitoring the im- B. 30
pact of iodine deficiency disorder control C. 33
programme is: D. 36
A. Prevalence of goiter among school Ans. B
children.
B. Urinary iodine levels among pregnant 63. The most common side effect of IUD inser-
women. tion is:
C. Neonatal hypothyroidism. A. Bleeding.
Davinci Medical Academy
 B. Pain. C. Legitimate.
C. Pelvic infection. D. Efferent.
D. Ectopic pregnancy. Ans. D
Ans. A
69. The standard normal distribution:
64. For the treatment of case of class III dog A. Is skewed to the left.
bite, all of the following are correct except: B. Has mean = 1.0
A. Give immunoglobulins for passive C. Has standard deviation = 0.0
immunity. D. Has variance = 1.0
B. Give ARV. Ans. D
C. Immediately stitch wound under
antibiotic coverage. 70. The PEFR of a group of 11 year old girls fol-
D. Immediately wash wound with soap low a normal distribution with mean 300 1/
and water. min and standard deviation 20 1/min:
Ans. C A. About 95% of the girls have PEFR
between 260 and 340 1/min.
65. A 2-year-old female child was brought to B. The girls have healthy lungs.
a PHC with a history of cough and fever for C. About 5% of girls have PEFR below 260
4 days with inability to drink for last 12 1/min.
hours. On examination, the child was hav- D. All the PEFR must be less than 340 l/
ing weight of 5 kg and respiratory rate of min.
45/minute with fever. The child will be clas- Ans. A
sified as suffering from:
A. Very severe disease. 71. The events A and B are mutually exclusive,
B. Severe pneumonia. so:
C. Pneumonia. A. Prob (A or B) = Prob (A) + Prob (B).
D. No pneumonia. B. Prob (A and B) = Prob (A). Prob (B).
Ans. A C. Prob (A) = Prob (B).
D. Prob (A) + Prob (B) = 1.
66. The information technology has revolution- Ans. D
ized the world of medical sciences. In which
of the following year the Information Tech- 72. Total cholesterol level = a + b (calorie in-
nology Act was passed by the Government take) + C (physical activity) + d (body mass
of India? index); is an example of:
A. 1998. A. Simple linear regression.
B. 2000. B. Simple curvilinear regression.
C. 2001. C. Multiple linear regression.
D. 2003. D. Multiple logistic regression.
Ans. B Ans. C

67. Transplantation of Human Organs Act was 73. The Hb level in healthy woman has mean
passed by Government of India in: 13.5 g/dl and standard deviation 1.5 g/dl,
A. 1996 what is the Z score for a woman with Hb lev-
B. 1993 el 15.0 g/dl:
C. 1998 A. 9.0
D. 1994 B. 10.0
Ans. D C. 2.0
D. 1.0
68. Which one of the following is not source of Ans. D
manager’s power?
A. Reward
B. Coercive

Preventive & Social Medicine

74. The diagnostic power of a test to correctly B. A patient with a high level of systolic BP
exclude the disease is reflected by: is also likely to have a high level of
A. Sensitivity serum cholesterol.
B. Specificity C. A patient with a low level of systolic BP
C. Positive predictivity is also likely to have a low level of serum
D. Negative predictivity. cholesterol.
Ans. D D. About 80% of the variation in systolic
blood pressure among his patients can
75. Infant mortality does not include: be explained by their serum cholesterol
A. Early neonatal mortality. values and vice a versa.
B. Perinatal mortality. Ans. A
C. Post neonatal mortality.
D. Late neonatal mortality. 77. The most common cancer affecting Indian
Ans. B urban women in Delhi, Mumbai and Chen-
nai is:
76. A cardiologist found a highly significant A. Cervical cancer.
correlation coefficient (r=0.90, p=0.01) be- B. Ovarian cancer.
tween the systolic blood pressure values C. Breast cancer.
and serum cholesterol values of the patients D. Uterine cancer.
attending his clinic. Which of the following Ans. C
statements is a wrong interpretation of the
correlation coefficient observed?
A. Since there is a high correlation, the
magnitudes of both the measurements
are likely to be close to each other.

Davinci Medical Academy

Preventive & Social Medicine