MODULE 1 5.

The amount of heat needed to raise the temperature of one lb of that substance one
degree Fahrenheit is:
1. Which of the following is the basis of Bernoulli’s law for fluid flow? A. Specific heat
A. The continuity equation B. Btu
B. The principle of conservation of energy C. Latent heat
C. The principle of conservation of mass
D. Relative heat
D. Fourier’s law
Answer: B
Answer: B
6. What is the study of condition of air and moisture in the atmosphere?
2. A leak from a faucet comes out in separate drops. Which of the following is the main A. Atmospherics
cause of this phenomenon? B. Psychometrics
A. Gravity C. Thermodynamics
B. Air resistance D. Gas dynamics
C. Viscosity of fluid
D. Surface tension Answer: B

Answer: D 7. What is the gage used to measure 0.001 to 1 atm pressure?

A. Bourdon
3. The measure of the fluid resistance when acted upon by an external force is called: B. Water manometer
A. Tackiness C. Mercury manometer
B. Density D. Metallic diaphragm
C. Flash point
D. Viscosity Answer: C

Answer: D 8. One of the types of non-material nuclear radiation is:

A. Transmulation radiation
4. The heat transfer process in a cooling tower consists of a transfer of heat from water to: B. Walton radiation
A. None of the above C. Gamma radiation
B. Vapour D. Betatron radiation
C. Unsaturated air
D. Ice Answer: C

Answer: C
9. Which engine is suitable in the power plant to generate power of 100 hp to 5000 hp? 13. The part that directs the flow of the refrigerant through the compressor:
A. Gasoline engine A. Wrist pin
B. Diesel engine B. Valve
C. Motor C. Piston
D. Steam engine D. Connecting rod

Answer: B Answer: B

10. In an internal combustion engine, the stroke that discharges gas inside the engine’s 14. The odorless refrigerant; its boiling point varies over a wide range of temperatures:
cylinders: A. Freon 22
A. Inlet B. Freon 12
B. Exhaust C. Freon refrigerants
C. Compression D. Ammonia
D. Power
Answer: A
Answer: B
15. The boiling point of Freon 22 is:
11. The ratio between the actual power and the apparent power in any circuit is known as A. -41.04 ̊F
the ___________ of the circuit. B. 40.60 ̊F
A. Measured power C. -38.40 ̊F
B. Capacity D. -31.40 ̊F
C. Power factor
D. KVAR Answer: A

Answer: C 16. Medium pressure when applied to valves and fittings, implies they are suitable for a
working pressure off from:
12. The product of complete combustion of gaseous hydrocarbons A. 862 to 1200 kpa
A. Carbon dioxide and water B. 758 to 1000 kpa
B. Carbon monoxide C. 500 to 1000 kpa
C. Carbon monoxide, water and ammonia D. 659 to 1050 kpa
D. Water, carbon monoxide and carbon dioxide
Answer: A
Answer: A

17.
 A general term for a device that receives information in the form of one or more physical 21. A device whose function is to pass an information in an unchanged form or in some
guantities, modifies the information and/or its form, if required, and produces a modified form:
resultant output signal: A. Relay
A. Converter B. Sensor
B. Transducer C. Transmitter
C. Sensor D. Transducer
D. Scanner
Answer: A
Answer: B
22. A device whose primary function is to meter the flow of refrigerant to the evaporator:
18. In process of pair formation, a fair cannot be formed unless the quantum has an energy A. Sniffer valve
greater than: B. Equalizers
A. 2 moC2 C. Thermostatic expansion valve
B. ½ m V2 D. Crossover valve
C. 0.5Mev
D. hv/C Answer: C

Answer: A 23. The volume remaining when the piston reaches the end of the compression stroke:
A. Air cell
19. The temperature of hot metals can be estimated by their color. For steel iron, the color B. Combustion chamber
scale at 2200 ̊F is roughly: C. Turbulence chamber
A. white D. Pre-combustion chamber
B. orange
C. dark red Answer: B
D. yellow
24. Specific heat capacity is an SI derived unit described as:
Answer: A A. J/kg
B. W/m- ̊K
20. Mathematically, a thermodynamic property is which of the following? C. J/m3
A. A point function D. J/kg- ̊K
B. Discontinuous
C. A path function
Answer: D
D. Exact differential

Answer: A
25. The fundamental difference between pipe and tubing is: 29. Engines using heavy fuels require heating of the fuel so that the viscosity at the injector
A. The dimensional standard to which each is manufactured is:
B. Compression joints A. Around 200 SSU
C. The smoothness of the surface B. 100 SSU or less
D. Bell and spigot joint C. 200 SSU 50
D. 150 SSU or slightly higher
Answer: A
Answer: D
26. One of the most popular types of compressor is basically made of:
A. Roots type blower 30. The temperature of a fluid flowing under pressure through a pipe is usually measured by:
B. Pulse turbo charger A. Glass thermometer
C. Constant pressure turbocharger B. Electric-resistance thermometer
D. Turbo compressor C. Thermocouple
D. All of the above
Answer: A
Answer: D
27. Crankshaft of reciprocating type of compressor is basically made of:
A. Semi-steel 31. An increase in the deposition of slag and ash on the surface for heating of oil-fired boilers
B. Aluminium alloy in both marine and stationary service has affected boiler efficiency. The following are the
C. Cast iron causes except:
D. Steel forging A. Low temperature corrosion of the cold section of air heaters and duct works
B. Slagging of high temperature superheater surfaces
Answer: C C. High temperature corrosion of steel
D. Increase of heat transfer in the boiler
28. A chemical method of feedwater treatment which uses calcium hydroxide and sodium
carbonate as reagents: Answer: D
A. Thermal treatment
B. Lime soda treatment 32. The type of filter where the filtering element is replaceable:
C. Demineralization process A. Paper edge filter
D. Ion exchange treatment B. Metal edge filter
C. Pressure filter
Answer: B D. Filter with element

Answer: D

33.
 Which does not belong to the group? 37. What is the function of the compression joint of pipes or tubes?
A. Air injection system A. It is used to connect two pipes by welding
B. Mechanical injection system B. It is used to connect two pipes by pressing both ends
C. Time injection system C. When tightened, compress tapered sleeves so that they form a tight joint on
D. Gas admission system the periphery of the tubings they connect
D. It connects two pipes with the use of threaded couplings
Answer: C
Answer: C
34. Cooling water system consists of equipment to dissipate that absorbed by the engine
jacket water. Lube oil and the heat to be removed from air intercooler in measurable to 38. The component of rotary pump
keep the engine outlet water temperature constant and the differential of the cooling A. Gears
water at a minimum preferably not to exceed: B. Piston
A. 10 to 30 ̊F C. Impeller
B. 10 to 50 ̊F D. Screw
C. 10 to 20 ̊F
D. 10 to 40 ̊F Answer: D

Answer: C 39. An instrument commonly used in most Research and Engineering Laboratories because it
is small and fast among the other thermometers:
35. There are two board types in the classification of lubricating oils, they are: straight and A. Mercury thermometer
____ B. Liquid-and-glass thermometer
A. Active C. Gas thermometer
B. Inactive D. Thermocouple
C. Crooked
D. Additives Answer: D

Answer: D 40. What is the term used to express the ration of specific humidities, actual versus saturated
A. Relative humidity
36. Amount of air required in the low by-pass factor B. Absolute humidity
A. Does not change C. Degree of saturation
B. Greater D. Percent saturation
C. Lesser
D. Indeterminate Answer: D

Answer: C

41.
 What is the process whereby a fissionable species is utilized as a source of neutrons to 45. How do you treat a statement that is considered a scientific law?
produce more nuclei of its own kind than are used up? A. We postulate to be true
A. Developing B. Accept as a summary of experimental observation
B. Culturing C. We generally observed to be true
C. Multiplying D. Believe to be derived from mathematical theorem
D. Breeding
Answer: B
Answer: D
46. The transmission of heat from one place to another by fluid circulation between the
42. A process of heat transfer to motion of matter caused by a change in density: spots of different temperatures is called”
A. Absorption A. Convection
B. Radiation B. Radiation
C. Conduction C. Conservation
D. Convection D. Conduction

Answer: D Answer: A

43. What is the most efficient thermodynamic cycle? 47. What is reoffered by control volume
A. Carnot A. An isolated system
B. Diesel B. Closed system
C. Rankine C. Fixed region in space
D. Brayton D. Reversible process only

Answer: A Answer: C

44. The diagonal lines in the psychrometric chart represent: 48. Which of the following types of flow meters is most accurate?
A. Effective temperature A. Venture tube
B. Dry-bulb temperature B. Pitot tube
C. Wet-bulb temperature C. Flow nozzle
D. Dew-point temperature D. Foam type

Answer: C Answer: B
49. Pneumatic tools are powered by: 53. The specific measurement of moisture content air:
A. Steam A. Relative humidity
B. Water B. Percent saturation
C. Natural gas C. Degree of saturation
D. Air D. Specific humidity

Answer: D Answer: D

50. A graphical representation between discharge and time is known as: 54. Highest pressure drop in refrigeration cycle:
A. Hectograph A. Compressor
B. Monograph B. Condenser
C. Hydrograph C. Expansion valve
D. Topograph D. Evaporator

Answer: C Answer: C

51. In a diesel engine, what elements in the fuel that make the work of the lubricant more 55. What is an expansion loop?
difficult? A. A double long radius elbow to minimize friction losses
A. Water and ash content B. A pipe bent to a loop to change direction
B. High octane number C. A pipe expander fitting
C. High cetane number D. A large radius bend in a pipe line to absorb longitudinal expansion in the pipe
D. Sulphur and asphaltene content line due to heat

Answer: D Answer: D

52. What is the function of a radiation pyrometer? 56. What is the color code of steam pipe lines?
A. Boiler water height A. Silver gray
B. Boiler pressure B. Green
C. Furnace temperature C. Red
D. Boiler drum pressure D. Yellow

Answer: C Answer: A
57. What is absorb by sulphites in boiler water treatment? 61. Which of the following refrigerant is most highly toxic?
A. Oxygen A. Ammonia
B. carbon dioxide B. Freon 12
C. Impurities settled in mud drums C. Sulfur dioxide
D. Carbon dioxide and oxygen D. Methyl chloride

Answer: C Answer: A

58. What is meant by choking in pipe flow? 62. Water turbine converts:
A. The specified mass flow rate cannot occur A. Mechanical energy into electrical energy
B. Shock waves always occur B. Hydraulic energy into electrical energy
C. A valve is closed in a line C. Mechanical energy into hydraulic energy
D. A restriction in flow area occurs D. Hydraulic energy into mechanical energy

Answer: A Answer: D

59. What is a check valve? 63. How do you differentiate surge from water hammer?
A. A valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one direction only A. Time for a pressure to traverse the pipe
B. A valve designed to release the excess pressure B. The pressure reservoir at the end of the pipe
C. A valve which allows flow of fluid in either direction C. Rate of deceleration of flow
D. A valve used for checking the pressure of fluid D. Relative compressibility of liquid

Answer: A Answer: A

60. What is the prime purpose of providing alubricating oil pre-heater in an emergency 64. Throttling of the refrigerant through the expansion valve in a vapor refrigeration cycle
stand-by diesel genset? is:
A. To keep the lub oil viscosity down under cold condition and enhance the A. Reversible adiabatic process
starting of the cold engine B. Constant entropy process
B. To avoid moisture condensation in the engine C. Irreversible adiabatic process
C. To avoid corrosion to engine parts D. Isometric process
D. To see to it that the lubrication system is functioning properly
Answer: C
Answer: A
65. Assuming real process, the net entropy change in the universe is: 70. The main cause of air pollution as a result of burning fuel oil is:
A. Must be calculated A. Sulfur dioxide
B. Equal to zero B. Silicon dioxide
C. Negative C. Hydrogen dioxide
D. Positive D. Nitrogen dioxide

Answer: D Answer: D

66. What characterizes a reaction turbine? 71. What takes place in a uniflow scavenging?
A. Steam losses,velocity as it leaves the diaphragm A. Turbo blower exhaust header to create vacuum in cylinders
B. Steam strikes the blades at right angles B. Air reversing direction in cylinders
C. Steam will react with a force in the diaphragm C. Uses two blowers to purge cylinders
D. Steam is deflected D. Air travelling in one direction

Answer: C Answer: D

67. The work done in an adiabatic process in a system; 72. One joule of work is done by a force of one newton acting through a distance of:
A. Is equal to change in total energy in a closed system A. One meter
B. Is equal to the net heat transfer plus the entropy change B. One inch
C. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus entropy change C. A foot
D. Is equal to the change in total energy of closed system plus net heat transfer D. One cm

Answer: D Answer: A

68. How do you increase the output of a centrifugal pump? 73. In a centrifugal pump, if the impeller is kept the same and the speed varied, the pump
A. Speed up rotation output shall change in accordance to the equation:
B. Install recirculation A.
C. Increase the suction pipe area B.
D. Increase the discharge pipe area C.
D.
Answer: A
Answer: D
69. Based on the first law of thermodynamics, which of the following is wrong?
A. The heat transfer equals the work plus energy change
B. The heat transfer cannot exceed the work done
C. The net heat transfer equals the net work of the cycle
D. The net heat transfer equals the change if no work is done

Answer: B
74.
 In an imhoff tank: 78. With regards to corrosion of metals, passivation is the process that:
A. The effluent contains very little dissolved exygen A. Intensifies deterioration temporarily
B. There are no settling compartments B. Changes the composition of the metal
C. The sludge and raw sewage are not mixed C. Inhibits further deterioration
D. The sludge and fresh sewage are well mixed to give complete digestion D. Alters the grain size of the metal

Answer: C Answer: C

75. A thermodynamic system which undergoes a cyclic process during a positive amount of 79. (U + PV ) is a quantity called:
work as done by the system: A. Flow energy
A. Reversed Rankine cycle B. Shaftwork
B. Heat pump C. Enthalpy
C. Reversible-Irriversible process D. Internal energy
D. Heat engine
Answer: C
Answer: D
80. An adiabatic process with no work done is:
76. The transmission of heat from hot body to cold body by electromagnetic waves is A. Isometric
called: B. Throttling
A. Conduction C. Isobaric
B. Absorption D. Polytropic
C. Convection
D. Radiation Answer: B

Answer: D 81. If an initial volume of an ideal gas is compressed to one-half its original volume and to
twice its original temperature, the pressure
77. The boiling point of freon 12 : A. Doubles
A. B. Quadruples
B. C. Remains constant
C. D. Halves
D.
Answer: B
Answer: C

82.
 The increase in enthalpy of a substance when it undergoes some phase change at 86. A type of boiler which incorporates furnace water cooling in the circulatory system is
constant pressure and temperature otherwise known as:
A. Heat of fusion A. Integral-grate boiler
B. Heat of vaporization B. None of the above
C. Heat of transformation C. Integral-furnace boiler
D. Heat of crystallization D. Integral-cogeneration boiler

Answer: B Answer: C

83. If the anti freeze at a certain temperature has a concentration of a known value, what 87. One of the best known safety practices in industrial plant is:
will be its behavior as it progressively cools? A. To provide alert security
A. It remains a liquid until the temperature drops to a certain point B. To provide machines with appropriate guards
B. Cooling the solution below the limit liquefies the entire mixture C. To maintain a fire brigade
C. It freezes out most of water into ice D. To train delivery personnel
D. Its stoppage in cooling will result in water and ice mixture
Answer: B
Answer: A
88. Which of the four does not belong to the group?
84. Dew point is which of the following? A. Class d fire – fire caused by lpg
A. Adiabatic saturation temperature B. Class b fire – fire caused by oil and other hydrocarbons
B. Temperature of grains of moisture per lb of bone dry air C. Class c fire – electrical fire
C. Temperature of 50% RH D. Class a fire – fire caused by light combustible materials like paper and wood
D. Wet bulb temperature
Answer: A
Answer: A
89. All heavy machinery should be supported on solid foundations of sufficient mass and
85. Air used for comfort cooling shall maintain a movement of from: base area to prevent or minimize transmission of:
A. 4570 to 7620 mm/min A. Objectionable vibration to the building and occupied space
B. 7800 to 9200 mm/min B. Objectionable vibration or forces from nearby machine
C. 8500 to 10000 mm/min C. Better control of the drainage system
D. 8.0 to 10.0 m/min D. Objectionable sound coming from the exhaust

Answer: A Answer: A
90. On existing installation boiler, to lowest factor of safety permissible shall be: 94. A specimen is subjected to load. When the load is removed, the strain disappears. From
A. 7 this information, which of the following can be deduced about this material?
B. 6 A. It is elastic.
C. 5 B. It has a high modulus of elasticity.
D. 4.5 C. It is plastic.
D. It is ductile.
Answer: D
Answer: A
91. The age limit of horizontal return tubular flue or cylinder boiler having a longitudinal
lap joint and operating at a pressure in excess of 0.345 mpa or 3.45 bar gage shall be 95. A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall on the blades or buckets
A. 18 years and due to the impulses of water, the turbine starts to move:
B. 35 years A. Pelton wheel
C. 30 years B. Steam turbine
D. 20 years C. Francis turbine
D. Reaction turbine
Answer: C
Answer: A
92. What is the name for a vector that represents the sum of two vectors?
A. Scalar 96. What condition exists in an adiabatic throttling process
B. Tensor A. Enthalpy is variable
C. Resultant B. Enthalpy is constant
D. Tangent C. Entropy is constant
D. Specific volume is constant
Answer: C
Answer: B
93. Which of the process where work done is zero?
A. Isentropic 97. The specific gravity of a substance is the ratio of its density to the density of:
B. Polytropic A. Mercury
C. Isometric B. Gas
D. Isobaric C. Air
D. Water
Answer: C
Answer: D
98. Which is used as a moderator in certain types of nuclear reactors?
A. Vapor
B. Heavy water
C. Hot water
D. Cold water

Answer: B

99. Yeast as raw material for beer making is added to the equipment called:
A. Fermenters
B. Brew kettle
C. Cooler
D. Starting tubs

Answer: A

100. What keeps the moisture from through the system?

A. Dehydrator
B. Aerator
C. Trap
D. Humidifier

Answer: A
MODULE 3 5. SI unit of viscosity is:
A. 10 times poise
1. The velocity of a fluid particle at the center of the pipe section is: B. 9.81 times poise
A. Maximum C. 1/9.81 times poise
B. Minimum D. 1/10 times poise
C. Average
D. Logarithmic Average Answer: A

Answer: A 6. Alcohol finds use in manometers as:

A. It provides a suitable meniscus for the inclined tube
2. Which if incorrect statement Apparent shear forces? B. Its density being less can provide longer length for a pressure difference,
A. Can never be found if frictionless fluid regardless of its motion thus more accuracy can be obtained.
B. Can never be found when the fluid is at rest C. A and B above are correct
C. Depend upon cohesive forces D. Cheap and easily available
D. May occur owing to cohesion when the fluid is at rest
Answer: C
Answer: D
7. Which of the following is not a dimensionless parameter?
3. Density in terms of viscosity is A. Pressure coefficient
A. Kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity B. Weber number
B. Dynamic viscosity / kinematic viscosity C. Darcy weishbach friction friction factor
C. Kinematic viscosity / dynamic viscosity D. Kinetic viscosity
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Answer: B
8. The normal stress is the same in all directions at a point in fluid:
4. The Reynolds number for pipe flow is given as follows: A. Is independent of the motion of one fluid layer relative to an adjacent
A. 2VD/v layer
B. VDμ/δ B. When there is no motion of fluid layer relative to an adjacent layer
C. VDρ/μ C. Only if the fluid is frictionless
D. VD5/μ D. Only is fluid is frictionless and incompressible

Answer: C Answer: B
9. The upper critical Reynolds number for pipe flow is: 13. Mass density of liquid (ρ) is given by which of the following:
A. Of no practical importance to designers A. ρ = mass / volume
B. Always used to design pipes for strength B. ρ = metric slug / m2
C. The number at which turbulent flow changes over to laminar flow C. ρ = kg sec2 / m4
D. The number at which laminar flow changes into turbulent flow D. all of the above

Answer: A Answer: D

10. A liquid compressed in a cylinder has volume of 1 liter at 1 MN/m2 and a volume of 14. Property of a fluid whereby its own molecules are attracted is known as:
995 cu. m at MN.m2. The bulk modulus of elasticity is: A. adhesion
A. 200 MPa B. cohesion
B. 1100 MPa C. viscosity
C. 15 MPa D. compressibility
D. 110 MPa
Answer: B
Answer: A
15. Mercury does not wet glass because of the property known as:
11. The length of mercury column at a piece at an altitude will change with respect to A. adhesion
that at ground in a B. cohesion
A. Linear relation C. surface tension
B. Parabolic relation D. viscosity
C. Will remain constant
D. First slowly and then steeply Answer: C

Answer: D 16. Under which condition is the specific weight of water is 1000 kg/m3?
A. At normal pressure 760 mm
12. The volumetric change of a fluid caused by a resistance is called: B. At 4°C temperature
A. Volumetric strain C. At mean sea level
B. Volumetric index D. All of the above
C. Compressibility
D. Adhesion Answer: D

Answer: D
17. The pressure at a point in a fluid will not be same in all directions if the fluid is: 21. Uniform flow takes place when:
A. In motion A. Conditions remain unchanged with time at any point
B. Viscous B. Rate of change of velocity of fluid is zero
C. Viscous and static C. At every point the velocity vector is identical in magnitude and direction
D. Viscous and is in motion for any given instant
D. The change in transverse direction is zero
Answer: D
Answer: C
18. Which of the following can be used to measure the flow of water in a pipe of
diameter 3000 mm? 22. The equation of continuity of fluids is applicable only if:
A. Venturimeter A. The flow is steady
B. Rotameter B. The flow is one directional
C. Nozzle C. The velocity is uniform over the cross-sections
D. Pitot tube D. All of the above

Answer: D Answer: D

19. An ideal fluid is one that: 23. The continuity equation for an ideal fluid flow
A. Is very viscous A. States that the net rate of in-flow into any small volume must be zero
B. Obeys Newton’s law is viscosity B. Applies to irrotational only
C. Is assumed in problems in conduit flow C. States that the energy remains constant along stream line
D. Frictionless and incompressible D. States that energy is constant everywhere in the fluid

Answer: D Answer: D

20. The equation of continuity of flow is applicable if: 24. Neglecting the forces due to inertia, gravity and frictional resistance, the design of a
A. The flow is one directional channel can be made by comparing:
B. The flow is steady A. Weber number
C. The flow is compressive B. Reynolds number
D. All of the above conditions together C. Froude’s number
D. Prandtl number
Answer: D
Answer: C
25. The ratio for turbulent flow as: A. 4σ / wd
A. One of the physical properties of fluid B. 4dσ / w
B. Dependent upon the flow and density C. 4wd / σ
C. The viscosity divided by the density D. 4wσ / d
D. A function of temperature and pressure of fluid
Answer: A
Answer: B
30. McLeod gauge used for low pressure measurement operates on the principle of:
26. For smooth flow turbulent flow, the friction factor changes as: A. Gas law
A. B. Boyle’s law
B. C. Charles’ law
C. D. Pascal’s law
D.
Answer: B
Answer: D
31. A Kaplan turbine is:
27. In order to avoid cavitation in the pipeline, the pipeline over the ridge is laid is such A. A high head mixed flow turbine
a way that it is more than: B. A impulse turbine, inward flow
A. 2.4 m above the hydraulic gradient C. A reaction turbine, outward flow
B. 6.4 m above the hydraulic gradient D. Low head axial flow turbine
C. 10,0 m above the hydraulic gradient
D. 5.0 m above the hydraulic gradient Answer: D

Answer: B 32. Select one turbine that is different from the others:
A. Francis turbine
28. The continuity equation is applicable to: B. Kaplan turbine
A. Viscous unviscous fluid C. Propeller turbine
B. Compressibility of fluids D. Pelton wheel
C. Conservation of mass
D. Steady unsteady flow Answer: D

Answer: C

29. The rise or fall of head “h” in a capillary tube of diameter “d” and liquid surface 33.
tension “σ” and specific weight “w” is given by:
 Running away speed or a Pelton wheel gives 37. The ratio of the specific speed for a centrifugal pump based on unit discharge to
A. Actual operating speed that on unit power is (H = Head, P = HP, Q = Discharge) given by:
B. No load speed A.
C. Full load speed B.
D. No load speed when the governor mechanism fails C.
D.
Answer: D
Answer: C
34. Select the turbine that different from others:
A. Pelton wheel 38. A ship whose hull length is 100 m is to travel at 10 m/sec. for dynamic similarity, at
B. Banki turbine what velocity a 1:25 model be towed through water?
C. Jonval turbine A. 10 m/sec
D. Kaplan turbine B. 25 m/sec
C. 2 m/sec
Answer: D D. 50 m/sec

35. Which of the following is relative velocity? Answer: C

A. The difference between two velocities
B. The average between the higher velocity and average velocity 39. For stable equilibrium of floating body its metacenter should lie
C. Average velocity A. Below the center of gravity
D. Vector difference of two velocities B. Below the center of buoyancy
C. Above the center of buoyancy
Answer: D D. Above the center of gravity

36. Which is higher head? Answer: D

A. 33 inch Hg
B. 31.0 ft water 40. Center of pressure of an inclined plane lies
C. 1.013 kg kcm2 A. At the centroid
D. 75.0 cm of Hg B. Above the centroid
C. Below the centroid
Answer: A D. At metacenter

Answer: C

41.
 The line of action of the buoyant force always acts through the centroid of the: 45. The pitot tube is a device used for measurement of
A. Submerged body A. Pressure
B. Volume of the floating body B. Flow
C. Volume of the fluid vertically above the body C. Velocity
D. Displaced volume of the fluid D. Discharge

Answer: D Answer: C

42. An equipotential line is one that : 46. Hygrometer Is used to find out
A. Has no velocity component tangent to it A. Specific gravity of liquids
B. Has uniformly varying dynamic pressure B. Specific gravity of solids
C. Has no velocity component normal to it C. Specific gravity of gases
D. Exists in case of rotational flow D. Relative humidity

Answer: A Answer: A

43. Hydraulic jump is used to 47. Mach number is significant in case of

A. Increasing the flow rate A. Supersonics, as with projectiles and jet propulsion
B. Reducing the flow rate B. Full immersion or completely enclosed flow, such as with pipes, aircraft
C. Reducing the velocity flow wings, nozzles, etc
D. Reducing the energy flow C. Simultaneous motion through two fluids where there is a surface of
discontinuity, gravity forces, and wave making effects, as with ship’s hulls
Answer: D D. All of the above

44. The lowest portion to storage basin from where the water is not drawn is: Answer: A
A. Bottom storage
B. Sub soil storage 48. The fluid forces taken into consideration in the Navier Stokes equation are:
C. Spring reserve A. Gravity, pressure and viscous
D. Dead storage B. Gravity, pressure and turbulent
C. Pressure, viscous and turbulent
Answer: D D. Gravity, viscous and turbulent

Answer: A

49.
 Rocks having excessive internal stresses may produces spalling, are called that: 53. Orifice refers to an opening
A. Stratified rocks A. With closed perimeter and of regular form through which water flows
B. Popping rocks B. With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in thick
C. Crushed rocks wall
D. Swelling rocks C. With partially full flow
D. In hydraulic structure with regular provision
Answer: A
Answer: D
50. Permissible velocity of water flowing through concrete tunnel, is generally:
A. 4-5 m/s 54. The value of coefficient of discharge in comparison to coefficient of velocity is
B. 10-12 m/s found to be:
C. 13-13 m/s A. More
D. 20 m/s B. Less
C. Same
Answer: A D. More/Less

51. The maximum continuous power available from a hydro-electric plant under the Answer: B
most adverse hydraulic conditions , is called:
A. Base power 55. Weir refers to an opening:
B. Firm power A. Having closed perimeter and of regular from through which water flows
C. Primary power B. With prolonged sides having length of 2 to 3 diameters of opening in thick
D. Secondary power wall
C. With partially full flow
Answer: B D. In hydraulic structure with regular provision

52. The ratio of maximum load to the rated plant capacity is called: Answer: C
A. Load factor
B. Utilization factor 56. The pressure force, in Newtons, on the 15 cm dia head light of an automobile
C. Maximum load factor traveling at 25 m/s will be:
D. Capacity factor A. 10.4
B. 6.8
Answer: B C. 5.6
D. 4.8

Answer: B
57. What will be the pressure, kPa, at height of 200 m in an isothermal atmosphere? 61. Which of the following give the optimum intermediate pressure in case of two-
Assuming T = 20°C. Assume Patm = 100 kPa. stage compression?
A. 87 A. P4 = (P1 + P3)/2
B. 82 B. P2 = P1 + (P1 + P2)/2
C. 79 C. P2 =
D. 71 D. P2 = P1 +

Answer: C Answer: C

58. What pressure differential, in pascals, exists at the bottom of a 3 m vertical wall 62. In the polytropic process, we have PVn = constant, if the value of n is infinitely large,
when the temperature inside is 20°C. Assume equal pressure at the top. the process is called:
A. 15 A. Constant volume process
B. 12 B. Constant pressure process
C. 9 C. Constant temperature process
D. 6 D. Isothermal process

Answer: D Answer: A

59. Select the parameters that determine the friction factor of turbulent flow in rough 63. The thermodynamic cycle used in a thermal power plant is:
pipe are: A. Ericsson
A. Froude number and relative roughness B. Brayton
B. Froude number and mach number C. Carnot
C. Reynolds number and relative roughness D. Rankine
D. Mach number and relative roughness
Answer: D
Answer: C
64. For the same heat input and same compression ratio:
60. Power transmitted through a pipe is maximum when the loss of head due to friction A. Both Otto cycle and Diesel cycle are equally efficient
is: B. Otto cycle is less efficient compared to diesel cycle
A. One-third of the total head supplied C. Efficiency depends mainly on working substance
B. One-half of the total head supplied D. None of the above is correct
C. One-fourth of the total head supplied
D. Equal to the total head supplied Answer: C

Answer: B
65. The change in enthalpy for small temperature change ΔT for an ideal gas is given by 69. Brayton cycle has:
the relation: A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
A. ΔH = CpΔT B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
B. ΔH = CvΔT C. One constant pressure, one constant volume, two adiabatic processes
C. ΔH = Cp / ΔT D. Two isothermals, constant volume and a constant pressure process
D. ΔH = Cp / Cv ΔT
Answer: B
Answer: A
70. Diesel cycle consists of:
66. The SI unit of pressure is A. Two isentropic and two constant volume processes
A. kg/cm2 B. Two isentropic and two constant pressure processes
B. mm of water column C. Two adiabatic and two isothermal
C. Pascal D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
D. Dynes per square cm
Answer: A
Answer: C
71. Diesel cycle consists of:
67. Superheated vapor behaves A. Isentropic, isothermal, constant volume, constant pressure process
A. Just as gas B. Two constant volume, one constant pressure, one isothermal process
B. Just as steam C. Two isentropic, one constant volume, one constant pressure process
C. Just as ordinary vapor D. Two constant pressure, one constant volume, one isentropic process
D. Approximately as a gas
Answer: C
Answer: D
72. Ericsson cycle has:
68. A Stirling cycle has: A. Two isothermal and two constant pressure processes
A. Two isothermal and two adiabatic B. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
B. Two adiabatic and two isentropic C. Two isothermal and two isentropic processes
C. Two adiabatic and two constant pressure processes D. Two adiabatic, constant volume and constant pressure processes
D. Two isothermal and two constant volume processes
Answer: A
Answer: D
73. Brayton cycle cannot be used in reciprocating engines even for same adiabatic 77. If the value of n is definitely large in a polytropic PVn = C, then the process is called
compression ratio and work output because A. Volume process
A. Otto cycle is highly efficient B. Pressure process
B. Brayton cycle is less efficient C. Temperature process
C. Brayton cycle is for low speed engines only D. Enthalpy process
D. Large volume of low pressure air cannot be sufficiently handled in
reciprocating engines Answer: A

Answer: D 78. A heat exchange process where in the product of pressure and volume remains
constant is:
74. Which cycles is generally used for gas turbine? A. Heat exchange process
A. Otto cycle B. Isentropic process
B. Dual cycle C. Throttling process
C. Rankine cycle D. Hyperbolic process
D. Brayton cycle
Answer: D
Answer: D
79. Which of the following provides the basis for measuring thermodynamic property
75. Antifreeze chemicals are: of temperature?
A. Same as refrigerants A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
B. Those that are added to refrigerants for better performance B. First law of thermodynamics
C. Those that lower down the freezing points if liquid C. second law of thermodynamics
D. Those that do not freeze at all D. third law of thermodynamics

Answer: C Answer: A

76. Clog point of an oil refer to: 80. 1 watt is:

A. The point of maximum contamination of oil A. 1 Nm/s
B. The level of impurities beyond which oil ceases to flow B. 1 Nm/mt
C. The temperature at which oil solidifies C. 1 Nm/hr
D. The temperature at which paraffin and waxes in oil start precipitating D. 1 kNm/hr

Answer: D Answer: A

81.
 For a six compression of air set, the minimum work conditions are: 85. Under ideal conditions, isothermal, isobaric, isochoric and adiabatic processes are:
A. Pressure rise per stage will be equal A. Dynamic processes
B. Work done in successive stages will be in geometrical progression B. Stable processes
C. Cylinder volumes will be the same C. Quasi-static processes
D. Temperature rise in the cylinders will be the same D. Static processes

Answer: D Answer: C

82. In case of steam engine, the cut-off ratio is the ratio of: 86. Isentropic flow is:
A. Pressure at cut-off to supply pressure A. Perfect gas law
B. Pressure at cut-off to exhaust pressure B. Irreversible adiabatic flow
C. Pressure at cut-off to mean effective pressure C. Ideal fluid flow
D. Fraction of piston stroke which the piston has traveled when cut-off D. Reversible adiabatic flow
occurs
Answer: D
Answer: D
87. Exhaust gases from an engine possess:
83. The reason for insulating the pipes are: A. Solar energy
A. They may not break under pressure B. Kinetic energy
B. There is minimum corrosion C. Chemical energy
C. Capacity to withstand pressure is increased D. stored energy
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized.
Answer: B
Answer: D
88. the extension and compression of a helical spring is an example of:
84. The rate of radiant energy, that is emitted by a surface at any temperature and in A. Isothermal process
small wavelengths is found from the known rate of energy, that under the same B. Thermodynamic process
conditions will be emitted from a black surface, by multiplying with absorptivity. C. Adiabatic process
Above enunciation is called: D. Reversible process
A. Lambert’s law
B. Kirchhoff’s law Answer: D
C. Planck’s law
D. Stefan boltzmann’s law

Answer: B

89.
 at critical point, the latent enthalpy of vaporization is: 93. A heat engine has the following specifications: power developed – 50 kW, fuel
A. only depends on temperature burned per hour – 3 kg, heating value of fuel – 75,000 kJ/kg, temperature limits –
B. zero 627 and 27°C. This heat engine is:
C. minimum A. Reality
D. maximum B. Impossible
C. Costly
Answer: B D. Cheaper

90. Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free expansion process? Answer: B
A. Heat supplied = zero
B. Heat rejected = zero 94. A heat engine is supplied heat at the rate of 30,000 J/s gives an output of 9 kW. The
C. Work done = zero thermal efficiency of engine is:
D. Change in temperature = zero A. 30%
B. 43%
Answer: D C. 50%
D. 55%
91. An ideal engine absorbs heat at a temperature of 127°C and exhausts heat at a
temperature of 77°C. Its efficiency will be: Answer: A
A. 13%
B. 50% 95. The RMS velocity of hydrogen at N.T.P. is approximately:
C. 33% A. 3838 m/s
D. 77% B. 1839 m/s
C. 4839 m/s
Answer: A D. 839 m/s

92. The triple point of a substance is the temperature and pressure at which: Answer: B
A. The solid and liquid phases are equilibrium
B. The liquid and gaseous phases are in equilibrium 96. Select the cycle that consists of two isothermal and constant volume processes.
C. The solid, liquid and the gaseous phases are in equilibrium A. Joule cycle
D. The solid does not melt, the liquid does not boil and the gas does not B. Diesel cycle
condense C. Otto cycle
D. Ericsson cycle
Answer: D
Answer: D
97. “It is impossible to construct a heat engine that operates in a cycle and receives a
given quantity of heat from a high temperature body and does equal amount of
work.” The above statement is known as:
A. Gay-Lussac law
B. Kinetic theory
C. Kelvin-Planck law
D. Joule-Thomson law

Answer: C

98. For steam nozzle, which of the following ratios will have the values less than unity?
A. Pressure at inlet / pressure at outlet
B. Specific volume at inlet / specific volume at outlet
C. Temperature of steam at inlet / temperature of steam at outlet
D. None of the above

Answer: B

99. In case of axial flow compressors for minimum fluid friction and blade tip clearance
losses, the blades of an axial flow compressor are designed for:
A. 80% reaction
B. 85% reaction
C. 60% reaction
D. 53% reaction

Answer: D

100. Which is the engine used for fighter bombers?

A. Turbo prop
B. Turbo jet
C. Ramjet
D. Pulsejet

Answer: C
MODULE 4 6. Which is not correct for calculating air-standard efficiency?
A. All processes are reversible
1. In a diesel engine fuel is injected: B. Specific heat remains unchanged at all temperatures
A. At the beginning of compression stroke C. No account of the mechanism of heat transfer is considered
B. Before the end of compression stroke D. Gases dissociate at higher temperature
C. At the end of compression stroke
D. After the end of compression stroke Answer: D

Answer: B 7. According to Pettlier Thomson effect

A. Heat can be converted into work
2. A Bell-Coleman cycle is a reversed: B. Work can’t be converted into heat
A. Stirling cycle C. All of the above
B. Brayton cycle D. None of the above
C. Joule cycle
D. Carnot cycle Answer: B

Answer: C 8. What cycle is used in thermal power plant?

A. Brayton
3. Ericson cycle consists of the following four processes: B. Reversed carnot
A. Two isothermals and two constant volume C. Rankine
B. Two isothermals and two constant isentropics D. Carnot
C. Two isothermals and two constant pressure
D. Two adiabatics and two constant pressure Answer: C

Answer: B 9. Substance is flowing in a pipe of 200 mm inside diameter at an average velocity of 3

m/sec. at a given section of the pipe line the pressure is 1.5 MN/m2 absolute. What
4. The constant pressure gas turbine works on the principle of: is the flow work of 0.5 cubic meter, expressed in joules passing this section?
A. Carnot cycle A. 25000 J
B. Bell-Coleman cycle B. 75000 J
C. Rankine cycle C. 100000 J
D. Brayton cycle D. 1 J

Answer: B Answer: B

5. A steam nozzle changes:

A. Kinetic energy into heat energy
B. Heat energy into potential energy
C. Potential energy into heat energy
10. An insulated 2 kg box falls from a balloon 3.5 km above the earth. The change in the
D. Heat energy into kinetic energy
internal energy of the box after it has hit the earth’s surface will be approximately:
Answer: D A.
 70000 kJ B. It represents a straight line on pv versus v plot
B. 7 kJ C. It has three roots of identical value at the critical point
C. 68.6 kJ D. The equation is valid for diatomic gases only
D. 0 kJ
Answer: C
Answer: C
16. A passout turbine mostly operates on low pressure in the range:
11. A control volume refers to: A. 10-20 kg/cm2
A. A fixed region in space B. 50-100 kg/cm2
B. A reversible process C. 100-150 kg/cm2
C. An isolated system D. 150-300 kg/cm2
D. A specified mass
Answer: A
Answer: A
17. Rankine cycle efficiency for fixed steam temperature of any volume up to critical
12. Which of the following gas can be measured the lowest temperature? temperature will be maximum for steam pressure of:
A. Nitrogen A. Critical pressure
B. Helium B. 200 kg/cm2
C. Oxygen C. 100 kg/cm2
D. Hydrogen D. 203.5 kg/cm2

Answer: B Answer: A

13. In actual gases the molecular collisions are 18. A Lungstorm turbine is:
A. Plastic A. Reaction turbine
B. Elastic B. Impulse turbine
C. Inelastic C. Outward radial flow turbine
D. Inplastic D. Inward flow impulse turbine

Answer: C Answer: C

14. The Beattie-Bridgeman equation of state is quite accurate in cases of: 19. Dryness factor of steam is:
A. All pressures above atmospheric pressure A. Weight of dry steam/weight of stuff
B. Densities less than about 0.8 times the critical density B. Weight of moisture/weight of dry steam
C. Near critical temperature C. (weight of stuff-weight of moisture)/weight of stuff
D. None of the above D. All of the above

Answer: B Answer: A

15. Which of the following statements about Van der Waals equation is correct? 20. Centrifugal blowers can supply:
A. It is valid for all pressure and temperature A. Large volume of air at low pressures
 B. Small volumes of air at high pressures B. Variable pressures
C. Large volumes of air at high pressures C. Compound pressures
D. Small volumes of air at low pressures D. Positive and negative pressures

Answer: A Answer: D

21. For gas turbines compressors generally used are of: 26. In a condensing steam engine:
A. Lobe type A. Condensed steam is supplied
B. Centrifugal type B. Steam condenses inside cylinder
C. Axial flow type C. Steam condenses as soon as it leaves the cylinder
D. Reciprocating type D. Exhaust steam is condensed in the condenser

Answer: C Answer: D

22. Select the one that is a safety device on a compressor: 27. The performance of a reciprocating compressor can be expressed by:
A. relief valve A. Isothermal work/indicated work
B. strainer B. Adiabatic work/indicated work
C. over speed shut down C. Isothermal work/adiabatic work
D. over pressure shut down D. Adiabatic work/adiabatic input

Answer: B Answer: A

23. In a four stage compressor system first and third pressure are 1 and 9 kg/cm2 28. Compression ratio in engine is:
respectively. What will be the fourth stage delivery pressure? A. Discharge pressure/suction pressure
A. 9 kg/cm2 B. Stroke volume/clearance volume
B. 81 kg/cm2 C. Stroke volume/(stroke volume+clearance volume)
C. 27 kg/cm2 D. (stroke volume+clearance volume)/stroke volume
D. 243 kg/cm2
Answer: B
Answer: C
29. Stoichiometric ratio is:
24. Generally steam turbines in power station operate at: A. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by volume
A. 3000 rpm B. Chemically correct air-fuel ratio by weight
B. 1000 rpm C. Theoretical mixture of air for complete combustion
C. 4000 rpm D. Actual ratio of air to fuel for maximum efficiency
D. 500 rpm
Answer: B
Answer: A

25. A compound pressure gauge is used to measure:

A. Complex pressures 30. Hot spots are:
 A. Do not exist in engines A. Increased
B. The hottest spots in engines B. Decreased
C. The spots where heavier functions of fuel are vaporized C. Independent of compression ratio
D. Hottest point within the engine cylinder D. Depends on other factors

Answer: C Answer: A

31. Flash point for diesel fuel oil should be: 36. During idling in a compression ignition the air fuel ratio may be of the order of:
A. Minimum 49 C A. 30
B. Maximum 49 C B. 200
C. Maximum 200 C C. 150
D. Maximum 300 C D. 100

Answer: A Answer: A

32. A regenerator in a gas turbine 37. Vapour lock is:

A. Reduces heat loss during exhaust A. Lock of vaporization of fuel to atmospheric pressure
B. Allows use of higher compression ratio B. Excess fuel supply to engine because of faster evaporation
C. Improves thermal efficiency C. Complete or partial stoppage of fuel supply because of vaporization of fuel
D. Allows use of fuels of inferior quality in supply steam
D. Locking carburetor jets because of vapour pressure
Answer: C
Answer: C
33. Morse test is conducted on:
A. Single cylinder engines 38. Flash point of a liquid is the temperature at which:
B. Multi cylinder engines A. The fuel emits the vapors at a rate which produces an inflammable
C. VEE engines mixture with air
D. Vertical engines B. The fuel spontaneously ignites
C. The fuel ignites with clearly visible flash
Answer: B D. The fuel ignites without a spark
34. Prony break is used for testing of: Answer: A
A. Small engines
B. Large engines 39. Volumetric efficiency of a well designed engine may be in the range:
C. Engines having small flywheel A. 75 to 90 %
D. High speed engines B. 60 to 75 %
C. 30 to 50 %
Answer: A D. Below 30 %
35. The mean effective pressure of a diesel cycle having fixed compression ratio will
increase if cut off ratio is:
Answer: A

40. Scavenging efficiency of a four-stroke diesel engine is: 44. An orsat apparatus is used for:
A. 80-90% A. Volumetric analysis of the flue gases
B. 60-80% B. Gravimetric analysis of the flue gases
C. Below 60% C. Smoke density analysis of the flue gases
D. 100-95% D. All of the above

Answer: D Answer: A

41. The thermal efficiency of a dual cycle engine with fixed compression ratio and fixed 45. Piston rings are made of:
quantity of heat and with increase in pressure ratio, will: A. Alloy steel
A. Increase B. Carbon steel
B. Remain the same C. Copper
C. Decrease D. Cast iron
D. Depends on other factors
Answer: D
Answer: A
46. Total on solid impurities in feed water for a boiler depend upon:
42. Loss of power is due to: A. Boiler pressure
A. Poor compression B. Quantity of steam to be generated
B. Restricted exhaust C. Type of fuel available
C. Clogging of air cleaner D. Quantity of steam
D. Low injection pressure
Answer: A
Answer: D
47. Tidal power is the power generated from;
43. Detonation of pinging noise is due to: A. Waves of the ocean
A. Early timing of fuel injection B. Rise and fall of tides
B. Late timing of fuel injection C. Thermal energy of ocean water
C. Head of piston carbonized D. Raw sea water
D. Valve springs weak or broken
Answer: B
Answer: B
48. Load curve refers to the plot of:
A. Load versus generating capacity
B. Load versus current
C. Load versus time
D. Load versus cost of power

Answer: C
 Answer: B

49. In power station practice “spinning reserve” is: 54. In a four stroke engine if a valve opens 25C before bottom dead center and closes
A. Reserve generating capacity that is in operation but not in service 10C after top dead center, the valve should be:
B. Reserve generating capacity that is connected to the bus and ready to take A. Puppet valve
load B. Exhaust valve
C. Reserve generating capacity that is available for service but not in C. Inlet valve
operation D. Spring valve
D. Capacity of the part of plant that remains under maintenance
Answer: B
Answer: B
55. In a vapour compression cycle the lowest temperature is found in:
50. On which factor bursting pressure of boiler does not depend? A. Receiver
A. Tensile strength of the shell B. Condenser
B. Thickness of the shell C. Expansion valve
C. Diameter of the shell D. Evaporator
D. Shear strength of the shell
Answer: D
Answer: D
56. The moisture in the refrigeration system can be removed with the help of:
51. On which does the working pressure of a boiler does not depend? A. Driers
A. Tensile strength of the shell B. Evaporators
B. Thickness of shell C. Dehumidifiers
C. Factor of safety D. Coolers
D. Type of fuel being fired
Answer: A
Answer: D
57. Which of the following refrigerants has lowest freezing point temperature?
52. Sticking valves: A. Freon 12
A. Valve tappet clearance incorrect B. Ammonia
B. Valve springs of defective material C. Freon 22
C. Valve guides gummed D. Freon 11
D. Lubricating oil of poor quality
Answer: C
Answer: B
58. During compression in a vapour compression cycle when the refrigerant is
53. Total sulphur content in a diesel fuel oil must not exceed: superheated.
A. 0.1% A. COP is reduced
B. 0.5% B. COP remains unchanged
C. 0.2% C. Work done is increased
D. 0.15% D. Refrigerating effect is reduced
Answer: A Answer: B

59. The coefficient of performance of a refrigerator is given by: 64. Horsepower per ton of refrigeration is expressed as:
A. COP = Input / Output A. 4.75/COP
B. COP = Work spent to cause the refrigerating effect over Desired B. 4.75 x COP
refrigerating effect C. COP/4.75
C. COP = Desired refrigerating effect over work spent to cause the D. 4.75 x COP x 2
refrigerating effect
D. COP = Net refrigerating cycle over ideal refrigerating cycle Answer: C

Answer: C 65. The highest temperature in vapour compression cycle is produced during:
A. condenser discharge
60. A Bell-Coleman cycle is; B. expansion valve
A. reversed Otto cycle C. evaporator
B. reversed Joule cycle D. compressor discharge
C. reversed Rankine cycle
D. reversed Carnot cycle Answer: D

Answer: B 66. Which type of compressor is used in the refrigeration system?

A. Reciprocating
61. Critical temperature is that temperature above which: B. Centrifugal
A. A gas will never liquefy C. Rotary Sliding vane
B. A gas gets immediately liquefy D. all of the above
C. Water gets evaporated
D. Water will never evaporate Answer: D

Answer: A 67. A thermometer in vapour compression system is installed in the main line close to
the compressor:
62. Rating of domestic refrigerator is of the order of: A. Because it helps the operator in adjusting compressor for greatest
A. 0.1 ton efficiency
B. 50 tons B. Because temperature indicates whether liquid or vapour refrigerant is
C. 100 tons going to compressor
D. 4 tons C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Answer: A
Answer: A
63. The COP of a domestic refrigerator is:
A. less than 1
B. more than 1
C. equal to 1
D. depend upon the make of it
 Answer: D

68. Which refrigerant has highest critical point temperature? 73. For a heat pump cycle that operates between the condenser temperature of 27oC
A. Ammonia and evaporator temperature of -23oC, the Carnot COP will be equal to:
B. Freon 11 A. 0.5
C. Freon 12 B. 1.5
D. Freon 22 C. 5
D. 6
Answer: B
Answer: D
69. A Carnot refrigerator extracts 100 kcal of heat per minute from a cold room which is
maintained at 15C and it is discharged to atmosphere 30C. the horsepower needed 74. The leaks in a refrigeration system using Freon can be detected by:
to run the unit would be: A. halide torch which on detection forms greenish flame lighting
A. 1 to 1.5 B. sulphur sticks which on detection from white smoke
B. 1.5 to 2 C. using certain reagents
C. 2 to 2.5 D. smelling
D. 5.5 to 6
Answer: A
Answer: B
75. The lower horizontal line of the refrigeration cycle plotted on pressure-enthalpy
70. White ice is: diagram represents:
A. fast cooled water A. compression of the refrigerant vapour
B. sub cooled water B. evaporation of the refrigerant liquid
C. due to dissolved air, gases and impurities C. condensation of the refrigerant vapour
D. formed by blowing air during freezing D. metering of the refrigerant liquid

Answer: C Answer: B

71. Clear ice: 76. Select the one in which secondary refrigerant is used:
A. Is pure ice a. Domestic refrigerator
B. Contains dissolved gases b. Room air conditioner
C. Contains dissolved air c. Deep freezer
D. Is formed by blowing air during freezing d. Ice plant

Answer: D Answer: D

72. Dry ice is: 77. The secondary refrigerant used in milk chilling plant is generally
A. free from water A. Brine
B. free from dissolved air or gases B. Ammonia solution
C. does not contain impurities C. Glycol
D. solidified form of carbon dioxide D. Sodium silicate
Answer: C Answer: C

78. A refrigerant cycle is generally a/an: 83. Which refrigerant is used for the air – conditioning of passenger air craft cabin?
A. Open cycle A. Ammonia
B. Closed cycle B. Freon 12
C. Mixed cycle C. Freon 11
D. Hybrid cycle D. Air

Answer: B Answer: D

79. Refrigerant no. R – 717 is: 84. Oil separator in a refrigeration cycle is installed between the:
A. Ammonia A. Compressor and condenser
B. Freon 22 B. Condenser and evaporator
C. Freon 12 C. Metering device and evaporator
D. Methyl chloride D. Evaporator and compressor

Answer: A Answer: A

80. In which part of the vapour compression cycle there is abrupt change in pressure 85. A flash chamber in installed in the refrigeration circuit as so to:
and temperature: A. Improve overall heat transfer coefficient
A. Solenoid valve B. Reduce pressure losses through the evaporator
B. Evaporator valve C. Reduce the size of evaporator by avoiding vapors going to evaporator
C. Expansion valve D. All of the above
D. Drier
Answer: D
Answer: C
86. In case during air conditioning of a space the sensible heat added as 100 kcal/sec
81. A plate or vane used to direct or control movement of fluid or air within the and latent heat added is 50 kcal/sec, then the sensible heat factor is given by:
confined area is called: A. 0.255
A. Baffle B. 0.333
B. Bellows C. 0.500
C. Regulator D. 0.670
D. Diffuser
Answer: D
Answer: A
87. The psychrometric chart in air conditioning determines the
82. Brazing is used for joining two: A. Wet bulb and dry bulb temperatures
A. Two ferrous metal B. Psychrometric temperature requirements
B. One ferrous and non – ferrous material C. Saturation temperature and relative humidity
C. Two non – ferrous materials D. Moist air condition
D. Two non – metals
Answer: D Answer: C

88. The color of the flame of halide torch, in case of leakage of Freon refrigerant will 93. In sensible heating cooling, following parameter remains unchanged:
change to: A. Dry bulb temperature
A. Yellow B. Wet bulb temperature
B. Red C. Relative humidity
C. Green D. Humidity ratio
D. Orange
Answer: D
Answer: C
94. Boiling temperature of Freon 12 is:
89. The drift loss in cooling towers is about: A. – 33.33 C
A. 1 % only B. – 78.5 C
B. 12 to 15 % C. – 29.8 C
C. 10 to 20 % D. – 40 C
D. 30 to 40 %
Answer: C
Answer: C
95. Boiling temperature of Freon 22 is:
90. Cooling towers are used for cooling water: A. – 33.33 C
A. To be injected in circulating air B. – 78.5 C
B. To be used for humidification C. – 29.8 C
C. To be used for filtration of air D. – 40 C
D. To be used for cooling the compressor
Answer: D
Answer: D
96. The following gas is preferred in refrigeration system:
91. By which of the following processes heat mainly dissipates in cooling towers? A. Freon 11
A. Conduction B. Freon 12
B. Convection C. CO2
C. Radiation D. NH3
D. Evaporation
Answer: B
Answer: D
97. In a hot wire anemometer the rate loss from sensing element is a function of:
92. Which one is commonly used liquid absorbent? A. Mass rate of flow
A. Silica gel B. Pressure
B. Activated alumina C. Velocity of flow
C. Ethylene glycol D. All of the above
D. Any one of the above
Answer: C
98. Curtis turbine is:
A. An impulse turbine
B. A pressure compounded turbine
C. A velocity compounded turbine
D. A velocity pressure compounded turbine

Answer: D

99. Which one is a displacement compressor?

A. Reciprocating compressor
B. Vane blower
C. Centrifugal blower
D. Axial flow compressor

Answer: B

[Link] is:
A. Change of mass flow rate in proportion to pressure ratio
B. Change of mass flow rate in inverse proportion to pressure ratio
C. Fixed mass flow rate irrespective of pressure ratio
D. All of the above

Answer: C
MODULE 5 7. Which of the following would cause low head pressure
A. Too much cooling water
1. A refrigerating unit of one ton capacity can remove: B. Insufficient refrigeration gas
A. 500 BTU per min C. Insufficient cooling water
B. 288 BTU per min D. A and B
C. 200 BTU per min
D. 100 BTU per min Answer: D

Answer: C 8. The principle of the mechanical refrigeration is:

A. The absorption of temperature under heat ,
2. Too much oil in the compressor would: pressure, compression and expansion
A. Absorb too much refrigerant from the system B. The compression of a liquid under temperature and
B. Damage the expansion valve expansion
C. Cause leakage through the shaft seals C. The absorption of heat under temperature,
D. Deposit oil on the condenser tubes compression pressure and expansion
D. The conversion of liquid to gas
Answer: A
Answer: C
3. Refrigerant with the lowest boiling point is:
A. NH3 9. The function of the expansion valve is to:
B. CO2 A. Change the high-pressure liquid to low pressure
C. F-12 liquid
D. F-22 B. Regulate the amount if liquid refrigerant to the
expansion coils
Answer: B
C. Change the gas refrigerant to liquid
4. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the removal of: D. Shut off the flow of refrigerant to the condenser
A. 288,000 BTU per 24 hrs
Answer: B
B. 28,000 BTU per 24 hrs
C. 28,800 BTU per 24 hrs 10. The oil separator (trap) is located between
D. 280,000 BTU per 24 hrs A. Compressor discharge valve and the condenser
B. Condenser and the receiver
Answer: A
C. Receiver and the king valve
5. Which of the following would cause a high suction pressure D. Receiver and the expansion valve
A. Expansion valve not open wide enough
Answer: A
B. Expansion valve open too wide
C. King valve not open wide enough 11. The purpose of oil trap is:
D. Dirty dehydrator A. To remove oil from the charging tank
B. To add oil to the compressor
Answer: B
C. To remove oil from the refrigerating gas
6. Which of the following would cause high head pressure D. None of the above
A. Dirty condenser
Answer: C
B. Insufficient cooling water
C. Air in the condenser 12. The boiling point of ammonia at atmospheric pressure is:
D. All of the above A. -28 oC
B. +28 oC
Answer: D
C. +28 oF
D. -28 oF

Answer: D
13. The boiling point of CO2 at atmospheric pressure is: 19. The thermal expansion valve
A. +110 oF A. Controls the amount of gas coming from the
B. -110 oF dehydrator
C. +110 oC B. Maintains a constant superheat of the gas leaving
D. -110 oC the evaporator coils
C. Controls the amount of gas going to the receiver
Answer: B D. Removes trap oil from the refrigerant
14. The boiling point of Freon at atmospheric pressure is Answer: B
A. -22 oF
B. +22 oF 20. Water in the refrigerant is liable to:
C. +22 oC A. Freeze on the expansion seat and cut the flow of
D. -22 oC liquid refrigerant
B. Emulsify the oil in the compressor
Answer: A C. Freeze in the king valve
D. Clog the oil trap
15. The dehydrator is located between
A. Receiver and the king valve Answer: A
B. Receiver and the expansion valve
C. Condenser and the king valve 21. The purpose of the scale trap is to:
D. Condenser and the receiver A. Control the amount of scale going to the
compressor
Answer: B B. Remove insoluble gases from the refrigerant
C. Remove dirt, scale and metal chips from the
16. The purpose of the dehydrator is to:
refrigerant
A. Remove oil from the refrigerant
D. Dissolve scale and dirt in the system
B. Add more refrigerant to the system
C. Remove moisture from the refrigerant Answer: C
D. Remove moisture from the crankcase oil
22. A double-seated valve allows the valve to be:
Answer: C A. Packed only in the closed position
B. Packed in wide open or closed position
17. Which of the following would you apply if a person got Freon
C. Operated as a suction or discharge valve
in his eyes
D. Removed for replacement without shutting down
A. Soapy water
B. Sterile mineral oil Answer: B
C. Clean water
D. Sodium bicarbonate 23. Sensible heat:
A. Can be measured with a thermometer
Answer: B B. Cannot be measured with a thermometer
C. Changes receiver tank
18. The thermal expansion valve is located between the:
D. Increases with the cold
A. Receiver and the king valve
B. King valve and the solenoid valve Answer: A
C. Solenoid valve and the evaporator coils
D. Charging valve and the solenoid valve 24. The latent heat of fusion is the amount of heat required to
convert
Answer: C A. Two lbs of ice at 32 oF to one lb of ice at 32 oF
B. One lbs of ice at 32 oF to one lb of water 32 oF
C. One lb of ice at 32 oF to one lb of steam at 32 oF
D. Two lbs of ice at 32 oF to one lb water at 32 oF

Answer: B
25. The latent heat of vaporization of water is: 31. The solenoid valve is
A. 144 BTU A. A pressure-controlled stop valve
B. 940 BTU B. A Freon-controlled check valve
C. 970 BTU C. A temperature-controlled stop valve
D. 288 BTU D. None of the above

Answer: C Answer: C

26. The latent heat of vaporization is the amount of heat 32. The latent heat of fusion ice is:
required to convert: A. 144 BTU
A. 1 lb of water at 212 oF to one lb of steam at 212 oF B. 188 BTU
B. 1 lb of water at 180 oF to one lb of steam at 180 oF C. 940 BTU
C. 2lbs of water at 212 oF to one lb of steam at 212 oF D. 500 BTU
D. 1 lb of ice at 32 oF to one lb of steam at 212 oF
Answer: A
Answer: A
33. Latent heat:
27. Too high suction pressure could be caused by: A. Can be measured with a thermometer
A. Expansion valve open too wide B. Can be measured with a pyrometer
B. Leaky suction valves C. Cannot be measured with a thermometer
C. Expansion valve bulb not working properly D. Changes as the refrigerant cools
D. Any of the above
Answer: C
Answer: D
34. Absolute zero is
28. How is an ammonia system purged so that the operator will A. 970o below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
not be overcome by the fumes? B. 460o below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
A. In the atmospheric line C. 144 o below zero on the Fahrenheit scale
B. Into a bucket of water D. The same as zero on the centigrade scale
C. Into a bucket of lube oil
D. Back into the compressor Answer: B

Answer: B 35. When the evaporator coils are located in the ice box, the
system is known as a:
29. How is a CO2 system purged? A. Direct system
A. When CO2 comes out, frost will form on a price of B. Low-pressure system
metal held near the outlet C. Indirect system
B. Through the king valve D. High-pressure system
C. The CO2 will come out in liquid form
D. Pumped out with suction pump Answer: A

Answer: A 36. The amount of CO2 or Freon in a cylinder is measured by:

A. Pressure
30. How is a Freon system purged? B. Volume
A. The same as the ammonia system C. Weight
B. The same as the CO2 system D. Psi
C. Back to the extra supply bottle
D. With a reefer pump Answer: C

Answer: B
37. An excessive high head pressure could be caused by 43. If frost forms on the cylinders, the cause would be
A. Solenoid valve shutoff A. Expansion valve not open wide enough
B. Insufficient cooling water to the condenser B. Charging valve left open
C. Insufficient cooling water to the evaporator coils C. Expansion valve open too wide
D. Too much cooling water to the condenser D. Dehydrator not working properly

Answer: B Answer: C

38. The solenoid valve is controlled by: 44. Which of the following would cause a high head pressure?
A. The amount of liquid in the system A. Icebox door left open
B. The amount of gas in the system B. Insufficient cooling water
C. The temperature in the condenser C. Too much cooling water
D. The thermal switch operated by the icebox D. Suction valve not open enough
temperature
Answer: B
Answer: D
45. The high pressure side of the system is sometimes referred
39. The purged valve is located to as the:
A. In the lowest part of the system A. Suction side
B. In the highest part of the system B. Cold side
C. On the receiver discharge C. Hot side
D. On he evaporator coils D. Filling side

Answer: B Answer: C

40. The system should be purged 46. A ton of refrigeration is equal to the cooing effect of:
A. While the system is operating A. 2000 lbs of ice melting in 24 hrs
B. While starting up the system B. 2000 lbs of ice melting in 12 hrs
C. After the system has been shutdown for a few C. 2000 lbs of water being converted to ice
hours D. 2240 lbs of ice melting in 24 hrs
D. Once a week
Answer: A
Answer: C
47. The scale trap (liquid strainer) is located between:
41. The function of compressor is to A. Compressor and oil separator
A. Pull the refrigerant gas through the system B. King (liquid) valve and expansion valve
B. Increase the pressure of the refrigerant C. Expansion valve and evaporator coils
C. Discharge the refrigerant to the condenser D. Evaporator coils and compressor
D. All of the above
Answer: B
Answer: D
48. When there is a Freon leak, the halide torch will burn:
42. The expansion valve is located between the A. Orange
A. Receiver and the evaporator B. Blue
B. Evaporator and the compressor C. White
C. Compressor and condenser D. Green
D. Condenser and receiver
Answer: D
Answer: A
49. Which of the following could be use to check a leak in an 55. Air can be prevented from getting into the system by:
ammonia system A. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the high-
A. Litmus paper pressure side digit
B. Halide torch B. Keeping the dehydrator clean at all times
C. Sulphur stick C. Keeping all glands and stuffing boxes on the low
D. A and C pressure side tight
D. Running the refrigerant through the aerator
Answer: D
Answer: C
50. Valves and piping in an ammonia system are made of
A. Iron 56. The agent used in an indirect reefer system is:
B. Brass A. Sodium chloride
C. Copper B. Potassium chloride
D. Bronze C. Calcium chloride
D. A and C
Answer: A
Answer: D
51. In an ammonia system, the oil gage must be kept:
A. Closed except when checking oil valve 57. The ammonia leak will turn litmus paper:
B. Open at all times A. Blue
C. Closed when machine is shut down B. Red
D. Open when machine is shut down C. Green
D. Yellow
Answer: A
Answer: A
52. Freon is
A. Colorless 58. A sulphur stick burning in the presence of ammonia will give
B. Odorless off a:
C. Nonpoisonous A. Dense yellow smoke
D. All of the above B. Dense white smoke
C. Dense reed smoke
Answer: D D. Dense green smoke
53. Which of the following gasket materials should be used on a Answer: B
Freon system?
A. Metallic 59. If the compressor were to run continuously without lowering
B. Asbestos the temperature, the trouble would probably be:
C. Rubber A. Insufficient refrigerant in the system
D. A and B B. Leaks
C. Leaky discharge valves
Answer: D D. Any of the above
54. A double pipe condenser has: Answer: D
A. Two piping system side by side, one with cooling
water and one with refrigerant 60. Ammonia leaks in the condenser can be detected:
B. A small pipe inside a larger pipe, the cooling water A. Smelling the discharge water
passing through the small pipe and the refrigerant B. Applying litmus paper to the circulating water
through the large pipe discharge
C. Two pipes for cooling water and one for the C. Adding water to peppermint to the system and
refrigerant tracing the smell
D. None of the above D. Applying a soapy mixture to the condenser heads
and looking for bubbles
Answer: B
Answer: B
61. When purging an ammonia condenser into a bucket of 66. If an electrically operated compressor failed to start, the
water, one can tell when the air is out and ammonia starts to cause might be:
come through by the: A. An open switch
A. Smell of ammonia being liberated from the water B. A blown fuse
B. Color of the water turning green C. Burned-out holding coils in solenoid valve
C. Color of the water turning bluish D. Any of the above
D. Chang of the bubbling soud of air to the crackling
sound of ammonia Answer: D

Answer: D 67. The oil separator is located between the:

A. Evaporator and compressor
62. Large leak in a Freon system cannot always be detected with B. Compressor and condenser
a halide torch because it changes color with the slightest C. Condenser and dehydrator
amount of Freon present. A large leak can be detected easier D. Solenoid valve and the thermal expansion valve
by applying:
A. Sheets of litmus paper to all joints and watch for Answer: B
color change
68. To help the person who have been exposed to ammonia gas,
B. A soapsuds solution, mixed with a little glycerin to
one would:
hold the solution together, and watch for bubbles
A. Apply artificial respiration
C. A thin layer of mineral oil to all joints and watch for
B. Wrap in warm blankets
bubbles
C. Apply cold compresses
D. A lighted candle at the joints and watching for leaky
D. Douse with cold water
spots blowing candle flame
Answer: A
Answer: B
69. If the compressor short cycles on the low-pressure cutout,
63. When the evaporator coils are located in a brine solution and
the trouble might be:
the brine is pumped through the icebox, the system is known
A. Lack of refrigerant
as:
B. Dirty trap and strainers
A. A direct system
C. Too much frost on coils
B. An indirect system
D. Any of the above
C. A low-pressure system
D. A double-evaporator system Answer: D

Answer: B 70. Ammonia will corrode

A. Copper
64. Obstruction of the expansion valve usually caused by:
B. Bronze
A. Congealed oil in the system
C. Brass
B. Scale
D. All of the above
C. Water in the system
D. All of the above Answer: D

Answer: D 71. The dehydrating agent in the Freon system is usually:

A. Slaked lime
65. Too low suction pressure could be caused by
B. Sodium chloride
A. Dirty scale traps
C. Activated alumina
B. Shortage of refrigerant gas
D. Calcium chloride
C. Too much oil in the system
D. Any of the above Answer: C

Answer: D

72.
 If any of the electrical controlled devices in a Freon system A. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
malfunction, which of the following valves will also circulating water temperature is too high
automatically shut off? B. It is difficult to condense the refrigerant if the
A. King valve circulating water temperature is too high
B. Expansion valve C. Due to high pressure it is difficult to keep oil from
C. Solenoid valve mixing w/ refrigerant
D. Condenser cooling water inlet valve D. It takes more refrigerant to keep the icebox cold

Answer: C Answer: A

73. Many pressure gages on a Freon system have two dials or 78. The crossover connection in an ammonia system can be used
graduations on one gage. The two dials represent: to:
A. Pressure and temperature A. Reduce the pressure on the discharge side of the
B. Liquid pressure and gas pressure condenser
C. Suction and discharge pressure B. Hot gas defrost
D. Cooling water inlet and outlet temperatures C. Pump air out of the system
D. Add refrigerant ti the system
Answer: A
Answer: B
74. A leaky discharge valve can usually be detected by:
79. Another name for the discharge pressure is:
A. A fluctuating high pressure gage A. Suction pressure
B. A drop in icebox temperature B. Absolute pressure
C. A discharge pressure lower than normal C. Head pressure
D. Any of the above D. Condenser pressure

Answer: D Answer: C

75. The suction in a Freon system should be: 80. Oil used in refrigerating system is:
A. The pressure w/c corresponds w/ a temperature A. Lube oil SAE 20
about 20%f below the temperature of the icebox B. Straight mineral oil
B. The pressure w/c corresponds w/ a temperature C. Lube oil SAE 10
equal to the temperature of the icebox D. Vegetable oil
C. The pressure w/c corresponds w/ a temperature
about 20o above the temperature of the icebox Answer: B
D. None of the above
81. The discharge pressure of the compressor should be:
Answer: A A. The pressure w/c corresponds to a temperature
from 5o to 10oF below that of the condenser
76. The disadvantage of a CO2 system over an ammonia system discharge
is the fact that: B. The pressure w/c corresponds to a temperature
A. The CO2 system requires a large prime mover from 5o to 15oF higher than
B. The CO2 system operates at a much higher pressure The condenser discharge
C. The pipes and fitting of CO2 system must be of the C. The pressure w/c corresponds to a temperature is
high pressure type equal to that of the condenser discharge
D. All of the above D. None of the above

Answer: D Answer: B

77. One disadvantage of CO2 system is the fact that: 82.

 A leaky suction valve can usually be detected by: 88. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance on it, be
A. A fluctuating suction pressure gage sure to:
B. A higher suction pressure A. Pump down system
C. Closing in on the suction valve no effect on the B. Have spare parts ready
suction pressure C. Purge the system
D. Any of the above D. A and B

Answer: D Answer: D

83. The purpose of relief valves on refrigerating machines is to: 89. Some causes of a noisy compressor are:
A. Prevent overloading in the icebox A. Worn bearings, pins, etc
B. Bypass the compressor when dehydrating B. Too much oil in crankcase
C. Prevent excessive pressure in case of stoppage on C. Slugging due flooding back of refrigerant
the discharge side of the system D. Any of the above
D. A and B
Answer: D
Answer: C
90. Slugging is usually caused by:
84. The relief valve on an ammonia machine is located: A. Too much oil in the system
A. On the discharge pipe from the condenser B. Too much refrigerant in the system
B. On the discharge king valve C. Expansion valve not operating properly
C. In the compressor head D. Too much cooling water condenser
D. A or B
Answer: C
Answer: C
91. Zinc rods are found in the:
85. The relief valve on a CO2 machine is located: A. Evaporator coils
A. On the discharge pipe of the condenser B. Salt water side of condenser
B. Next to the king valve C. Compressor crankcase
C. On the discharge pipe between the compressor and D. Refrigerant side of condenser
the discharge valve
D. In the compressor head Answer: B

Answer: C 92. A double trunk piston is used to:

A. Prevent gas from getting to crankcase
86. Excess frost on the evaporator coils: B. Absorb some of the side trust
A. Keeps the icebox cooler C. Prevent oil from mixing w/ the refrigerant
B. Hollow sidewalls D. All of the above
C. Diffuser fans
D. Air vents to deck Answer: D

Answer: B 93. The purpose of the receiver is to:

A. Cool the refrigerant gas
87. Air circulation in the icebox is accomplished by the use of: B. Separate the oil from refrigerant
A. Louver pump C. Store the refrigerant
B. Hollow sidewalls D. Condense the refrigerant
C. Diffuser fans
D. Air vents to deck Answer: C

Answer: C
94. When a pressure gage reads zero, the absolute pressure is: 100. If the thermal expansion valve becomes inoperative the
A. 30 psi iceboxes will have to be controlled by the:
B. 14.7 psi A. Solenoid valve
C. 0 psi B. Manual expansion valve
D. 17.4 psi C. King valve
D. Manual solenoid valve
Answer: B
Answer: B
95. The heat to change a solid to a liquid is called:
A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Sensible heat of fusion
C. Latent heat of liquid
D. Specific heat of fusion

Answer: A

96. The heat used to change a gas a vapor is called:

A. Latent heat of fusion
B. Latent heat of vaporization
C. Specific heat of vaporization
D. Latent heat of the gas

Answer: B

97. Sweating of the crankcase is caused by:

A. Too much superheat
B. Insufficient super heat
C. Expansion valve hang up
D. Too much oil in the system

Answer: D

98. If an automatic freon system will not start up, check the:
A. High pressure cutout
B. Low pressure of cutout
C. Reset mechanism
D. All of the above

Answer: D

99. The cooling water side of the condenser should be opened

for inspection every:
A. 6 months
B. Year
C. Two years
D. Three months

Answer: D
MODULE 6 7. Air is removed from the system by:
A. Increasing the amount of cooling water
1. The low pressure cutout switch is operated by: B. Opening the purge valve
A. A magnet C. Running the refrigerant through the aerator
B. Bellows D. Running the refrigerant through a deaerator
C. Spring tension
D. Water pressure Answer: B

Answer: B 8. The suction pressure switch is operated by:

A. Electric current
2. A good refrigerant should be: B. Thermocouple
A. Non poisonous C. Pressure on bellows
B. Non explosive D. A relay cutout
C. Non inflammable
D. All of the above Answer: C

Answer: D 9. A hot suction line might be caused by:

A. Insufficient refrigerant
3. If a refrigerating system extracted 48,000 Btu per hour, he B. Insufficient lubrication
tonnage of the machine would be: C. Expansion valve closed too much
A. 5 tons D. Too much refrigerant
B. ½ tons
C. 2 tons Answer: A
D. 4 tons
10. The device used for low-pressure control and high-pressure
Answer: D cutout on a compressor is called a:
A. Cutout
4. The purpose of the low-pressure cutout switch is to: B. Pressure controller
A. Maintain iquid refrigerant at the suction of the C. Controller switch
compressor D. Cutout switch
B. Maintain a preset suction pressure to the
compressor Answer: B
C. Cut out the compressor at a set pressure
11. Thermal expansion valves are usually of the:
D. Cut compressor in and out at a preset pressure
A. Bellows type
Answer: D B. Magnetic type
C. Diaphragm type
5. The most likely cause of high superheat would be: D. A or C
A. Too much refrigerant
B. Expansion valve open to wide Answer: D
C. Expansion valve closed too much
12. Liquid reaching the compressor through the suction line is
D. Back-pressure back set to high
called:
Answer: C A. Flooding back
B. Superheating
6. The purpose of the evaporator is to: C. Overflowing
A. Absorb latent heat of vaporization D. Recycling
B. Absorb latent heat of fusion
C. Transfer latent heat of vaporization Answer: A
D. Transfer latent heat of fusion

Answer: A
13. Pressure controllers are usually of the: 19. If the compressor short cycles on high pressure cutout,
A. Diaphragm-type construction which of the following would you check?
B. Bellows-type construction A. Be sure system is getting cooling water
C. Magnetic-type construction B. If plenty of cooling water is running through but it is
D. Pilot-valve type construction not picking up heat, the condenser tubes will need
cleaning
Answer: B C. Check for too much refrigerant in the system
D. All of the above
14. If the cooling water to the condenser should suddenly fail:
A. The solenoid valve will close Answer: D
B. The expansion valve will close
C. The compressor will shutdown 20. In a refrigerating system the temperature is at its highest
D. An alarm will ring to notify the engineer between the:
A. Condenser and receiver
Answer: C B. Compressor and condenser
C. Receiver and evaporator
15. If the solenoid valve controls the:
D. Evaporator and compressor
A. Low-pressure cutout switch
B. High-pressure cutout switch Answer: B
C. Low-water cutout switch
D. Automatic trip 21. A Freon unit will tend to short-cycle when operating under:
A. Heavy loads
Answer: A B. Normal conditions
C. Light loads
16. If the solenoid valve controls the:
D. All of the above
A. Amount of refrigerant entering the evaporator coils
B. Amount of refrigerant going to the expansion valve Answer: C
C. Amount of refrigerant going to the compressor
D. Pressure of the refrigerant going to the evaporator 22. Short-cycling means that the machine:
coils A. Grounds out frequently
B. Stops and starts frequently
Answer: B C. Runs too fast
D. Runs too slow
17. As Freon passes through the expansion valve:
A. The volume decreases and the pressure increases Answer: B
B. The volume increases and the volume increases
C. The pressure decreases and the volume increases 23. Freon is:
D. The volume decreases and the pressure decreases A. Non corrosive
B. Flammable
Answer: C C. Non toxic
D. A and C
18. When checking zinc plates in a condenser, one should:
A. Paint the plates with red lead Answer: D
B. Install all new plates
C. Clean the plates and renew worn-out ones 24. A refrigerant should have a:
D. Ground each plate to the shell A. High latent heat
B. High sensible heat
Answer: C C. Low latent heat
D. Low sensible heat

Answer: A

25.
 A method of reducing capacity without reducing compressor 31. If the compressor runs continually, the cause might be the:
speed is called: A. High-pressure cutout switch is jammed open
A. Low-pressure by passing B. Low-pressure switch is jammed shut
B. High-pressure by passing C. Thermal bulb is not operating properly
C. Hot-gas by passing D. Scale trap is clogged
D. Short-cycling
Answer: B
Answer: C
32. The solenoid valve can be typed as a:
26. The thermal expansion valve responds to the: A. Thermal valve
A. Amount of superheat in the vapor leaving the coil B. Magnetic stop valve
B. Amount of superheat in the liquid C. Bellows valve
C. Temperature in the evaporator coils D. Bimetallic valve
D. Pressure in the evaporator coils
Answer: B
Answer: A
33. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long
27. The bulb for the thermal expansion valve is located: period of time but the oil level was rising slowly, the thing to
A. In the middle of the evaporator coils do would be to:
B. Near the evaporator coil outlet A. Drain out sufficient oil to bring it down to the proper
C. Near the evaporator coil inlet running level
D. On the bottom row of the evaporator B. Shut down the compressor and check the oil level
with the machine stopped
Answer: B C. Check the dehydrator cartridge
D. Check to see if there is too much refrigerant in the
28. A thermostat is a:
system
A. Temperature-operated switch
B. Pressure-operated switch Answer: B
C. Super-heat operated switch
D. Back-pressure-operated switch 34. If the compressor had been running satisfactorily for a long
period of time but suddenly the compartment temperature
Answer: A started to rise, the trouble might be:
A. The solenoid valve is jammed shut
29. The element of the thermostat switch are usually of the:
B. The expansion valve may have water frozen in it
A. Diaphragm type
C. A refrigerant leak has developed
B. Bimetal type
D. Any of the above
C. Valve type
D. Pilot-valve type Answer: D

Answer: B 35. When charging a Freon system, all the valves should be in
their normal position except the:
30. When heavy electrical currents are involve the thermostat
A. Expansion valve
will be operated by a:
B. Purge valve
A. Small circuit breaker
C. Ling valve (liquid)
B. Pressure pipe
D. Solenoid valve
C. Fusetron
D. Relay Answer: C

Answer: D
36. Abnormal discharge temperatures would be caused by: 41. If the temperature in the icebox is too high, the trouble could
A. Leaky suction valves be:
B. Leaky discharge valves A. A clogged scale trap
C. Faulty piston rings B. Air in the system
D. Any of the above C. Automatic controls not functioning properly
D. Insufficient cooling water to the condenser
Answer: D
Answer: C
37. A device for holding open the suction valve and drawing gas
from the suction manifold and returning it to the suction line 42. Oil is added to a Freon compressor by:
without compressing it is called a: A. Pouring through oil hole in base
A. Discharge line bypass B. Pumping in with a hand pump
B. Cylinder unloader C. Pumping in with an electric-driven pump
C. Suction line bypass D. Shutting down the machine and pouring in through
D. Relief valve the crankcase inspection plate

Answer: B Answer: B

38. As heat is removed from a substance it gets colder. When no 43. If no gaskets are used in the piping joints of a Freon system,
more heat can be removed and the temperature cannot be the joints must be:
lowered any further, we have reached: A. Finished joints
A. Perfect zero B. Welded joints
B. Double zero C. Ground joints
C. Absolute zero D. Soldered joints
D. Cold zero
Answer: C
Answer: C
44. When adding oil to a Freon system one must be sure that:
39. The boiling point of the water in an open container at sea A. All air is removed from the pump and fittings
level is 212. If the pressure on the pen container is B. There is too high suction pressure
decreased, such as going up to the top of a mountain, the C. The discharge pressure is too high
boiling point will be: D. The condenser is shut down
A. Increased
B. Decreased Answer: A
C. The same
45. If the head pressure is too high:
D. None of the above
A. The relief valve should open before the high-
Answer: B pressure cutout
B. The relief valve should open and let excess
40. Another name for liquid valve is the: refrigerant go to receiver
A. Master valve C. The high-pressure cutout switch should operate
B. King valve before the relief valve opens
C. Freon valve D. Close in on the suction valve
D. Shutoff valve
Answer: C
Answer: B

46.
 If the compressor-discharge temperature is higher than the 52. The scale trap is located between the:
receiver temperature: A. King valve and the expansion valve
A. Increase the amount of cooling water to the B. Solenoid valve and expansion valve
condenser C. Evaporator and receiver
B. Decrease the amount of the cooling water to the D. Compressor and evaporator
condenser
C. Add more refrigerant to the system Answer: A
D. Remove some of the refrigerant from the system
53. If the high-pressure switch on the compressor opens and
Answer: B stops the compressor, a possible cause could be:
A. Too much cooling water going through the
47. The dehydrator is used to:
condenser
A. To remove moisture from the system
B. Not enough refrigeration in the system
B. To remove air from the system
C. A leak in the evaporator coils
C. When adding refrigerant to the system
D. No enough cooling water going through the
D. A and C
condenser
Answer: D
Answer: D
48. If the discharge side of the thermal expansion valve is
warmer than the inlet side, the: 54. The capacity of a refrigerant unit can be regulated by:
A. Expansion valve is working normally A. Changing the speed of the compressor
B. Expansion valve is not working normally B. Changing the amount of cooling water to the
C. Solenoid valve is not working normally condenser
D. Scale trap is dirty C. Changing the amount of refrigerant in the system
D. Any of the above
Answer: B
Answer: D
49. The oil level in the compressor should be checked:
A. While the compressor is in operation 55. Which of the following would not cause high suction
B. Just before starting the compressor pressure?
C. After a long period of operation A. Insufficient refrigeration
D. B and C B. Leaky suction valves
C. Expansion valve stuck open
Answer: D
D. Suction valve not adjusted properly
50. The relief valve is located on the:
Answer: A
A. Discharge side of the condenser
B. Discharge side of compressor 56. A device used to keep moisture from passing through the
C. Outlet of the evaporator coils system is called a:
D. Receiver tank A. Humidifier
B. Aerator
Answer: B
C. Dehydrator
51. The expansion valve on a Freon system controls the: D. Trap
A. Superheat of the gas leaving the compressor
Answer: C
B. Back pressure in the evaporator
C. Temperature of the ice 57. If the compressor runs continuously, the cause might be a:
D. Superheat of the gas leaving the evaporator A. Defective thermal bulb
B. Clogged scale trap
Answer: D C. Stuck high-pressure switch
D. Stuck low-pressure switch

Answer: D
58. Dairy products should be kept at a temperature of: 64. When securing a Freon system for repairs:
A. A. Pump down to 1 or 2 lbs pressure
B. B. Pump down to a slight vacuum
C. C. Pump down to 10 to 15 lbs pressure
D. D. Remove all refrigerant from the system

Answer: C Answer: A

59. The purpose of the expansion valve bypass is to: 65. The solenoid valve is located between the:
A. Increase the efficiency of the plant A. Scale trap and the thermal expansion valve
B. Increase the capacity of the evaporator B. Thermal expansion valve and the evaporator
C. Control the refrigerant the evaporator in case the C. King valve and the scale trap
automatic valves fail D. Automatic and manual expansion valves
D. Bypass the compressor
Answer: A
Answer: C
66. When starting a refrigerant system, always:
60. Frost on the outside of the thermal expansion valve may be A. Vent the condenser
caused by: B. Vent the evaporator
A. Air in the system C. Bypass the condenser
B. Too much superheat D. None of the above
C. Moisture in the system
D. Any of the above Answer: A

67. Before securing a compressor to do maintenance work on it,

Answer: C
be sure to:
A. Have gas mask handy
61. The charging valve is located between the:
B. Notify the captain
A. King valve and the expansion valve
C. Make arrangement to have perishables taken care
B. Receiver and the condenser
D. A and C
C. Compressor and the receiver
D. Evaporator coils and the compressor Answer: D

Answer: A 68.
A. 106
62. A high suction pressure and a cold crankcase indicate: B. 110
A. Air in the system C. 100
B. Leaky suction valves D. 100
C. Expansion valve open too wide
Answer: D
D. B or C
69. A good refrigerant should
Answer: D
A. Have a low boiling point
63. A high temperature in the icebox could not be caused by: B. Have a high latent heat
A. Insufficient refrigeration C. Be able to be liquefied at normal sea-water
B. Air in the system temperatures
C. Expansion valve open too wide D. All of the above
D. Too much refrigerant in the system
Answer: D
Answer: C
70. is equivalent to: 76. The valve that prevents water from backing out of the boiler
A. 50 into the feedline is the:
B. 60 A. Bottom-blow valve
C. 40 B. Skin valve
D. 55 C. Feed-check valve
D. Feed-stop valve
Answer: B
Answer: C
71. is equivalent to:
A. 150 77. The fuel oil heart is located:
B. 160 A. On the discharge side of the service pump
C. 158 B. On the suction side of the service pump
D. 155 C. On the discharge side of the transfer pump
D. Between the settling tank and the service pump
Answer:C
Answer: A
72. Low suction pressure is caused by:
A. Air in the system 78. Boilers “pulsations” are caused by:
B. Leaky compressor suction valves A. Too high fuel pressure
C. Solenoid valve not functioning properly B. Insufficient airhe boiler beyond
D. Expansion valve causing flooding back C. Forcing the boiler beyond capacity
D. All of the above
Answer:C
Answer: D
73. The charging connection in a refrigerating system is located:
A. Before the receiver 79. In the forced draft system:
B. Between the condenser and the receiver A. Each furnace has its own fan
C. Between the receiver and the king valve B. One fan supplies air to all furnaces
D. Between the king valve and the solenoid valve C. The fan is located in the uptake
D. None of the above
Answer: D
Answer: B
74. If there is too much Freon in the system:
A. The compressor will short cycle 80. In the closed fireroom system:
B. The compressor will run continuously A. Each boiler has its own fan
C. The safety valve will discharge B. Each furnace has its own fan
D. It will mix with the oil in the crankcase C. The fan is located in the uptake
D. The fireroom is supplied with air from one fan
Answer: A
Answer: D
75. Water tube boilers have:
A. One fusible plug 81. The air cock on a boiler is located at the
B. No fusible plugs A. End of the superheater
C. Two fusible plugs B. Highest point of the steam and the water drum
D. None of the above C. Superheater inlet
D. Top of the return headers
Answer: B
Answer: B
82. Soot blowers should be used in proper sequence so that: 88. On taking over a watch, the fireman should check:
A. Excess stresses will not be set up in the boiler A. The water level in the boilers
B. The decks will not be covered with soot B. The bilges
C. The soot will be swept toward the uptakes C. The periscope
D. There will not be loss of steam pressure D. All of the above

Answer: C Answer: D

83. What is the first thing you would check on taking over a
89. When you are cleaning fuel-oil burner tips, use a:
watch?
A. Steel scraper
A. A bilges
B. Wire brush
B. The periscope
C. Brass knife
C. The water level
D. Pocket knife
D. The oil pressure

Answer: C Answer: C

84. The boiler with its fan (blower) located in the uptake is 90. What is the amount of liquid in a tank if you get an ullage
operating on: sounding of 11’4” and the empty ullage sounding of the tank
A. Induced draft is 32’2”
B. Forced draft A. 20’8”
C. Natural draft B. 20’10”
D. None of the above C. 21’8”
D. 21’10”
Answer: A

85. A fire room that is completely isolated (closed) operates:

A. Induced draft Answer: B
B. Forced draft
C. Natural draft 91. The amount of steam generated by a boiler is dependent
D. None of the above upon:
A. The size of the sprayer plate
Answer: B B. The oil pressure
C. The air pressure
86. How many feedwater lines are connected to the boiler? D. All of the above
A. One
B. Two Answer: D
C. Three
D. Four 92. When installing a new gage glass in a water gage you should
secure the bolts from:
Answer: B
A. Top of bottom
87. If the water in the gage gage glass has not been blown down B. Bottom of top
for a period of time, the level of the water in the glass will be: C. Center, alternately, toward each end
A. The same as that in the steam and water drum D. Top of bottom or bottom of top
B. Less than that in the steam and water drum
Answer: C
C. More than that in the steam and water drum
D. None of the above 93. One of the main purpose of refractories in a boiler furnace is
to:
Answer: B
A. Help preheat the air for the furnaces
B. Help preheat the feedwater
C. Protect economizer from excessive heat
D. Prevent excessive furnace heat losses
Answer: D

94. All fuel-oil tanks are vented through a: [Link] pressure of 200 lbs is equivalent to what absolute
A. Check vent to the settling tanks pressure?
B. Gooseneck vent located on the main deck A. 215
C. Check valve to the transfer pump B. 200
D. Gooseneck vent which discharges to the settlers C. 185
D. 115
Answer: B
Answer: A
95. All fuel-oil service pump steam valves are fitted with:
A. Safety lock
B. Automatic controls
C. Reach rods leading to a location outside the
fireroom
D. Reach rods leading to the engine room

Answer: C

96. Which of the following fire extinguishers would not be found

in the fireroom?
A. Foam type
B. Sand
C.
D.

Answer: D

97. What is the average fuel-oil temperature range of the oil in

the discharge line to the burners?
A.
B.
C.
D. a

Answer: A

98. Which of the following is common type of oil burner?

A. Bethlehem
B. Todd
C. B & W
D. All of the above

Answer: D

99. The boiler gage glasses should be blown down:

A. Once a day
B. At the beginning of every watch
C. Every 12 hours
D. Every 8 hours

Answer: B
MODULE 7 7. The weight of a body means the:
A. Mass of a body
1. Entropy is the measure of: B. Volume of a body
A. The change in enthalpy of a system C. Force of gravity on a body
B. Randomness or disorder D. Molecular weight
C. The internal energy of a gas
D. The heat capacity of a substance Answer: C

Answer: B 8. Superheated vapour behaves:

A. Just as gas
2. An engine cycle containing two adiabatic and two B. Just as steam
isothermal processes: C. Just as ordinary vapour
A. Carnot cycle D. Approximately as a gas
B. Rankine cycle
C. Otto cycle Answer: D
D. None of the above
9. Measure of ability of a boiler or steam generator to
Answer: A transfer the heat given by the furnace to the water and
steam:
3. Is the attraction between like molecules: A. Furnace efficiency
A. Absorption B. Boiler efficiency
B. Adhesion C. Grate efficiency
C. Diffusion D. Stoker efficiency
D. Cohesion
Answer: B
Answer: D
10. One million of a meter:
4. In the polytropic process PVn = constant, if the value of n is A. Micron
infinitely large, the process is called: B. Omicron
A. Constant volume process C. Dicron
B. Constant pressure process D. tricron
C. Constant temperature process
D. Adiabatic process Answer: B

Answer: A 11. A valve which constitute the ultimate line of defense

against occurrence of hazardous steam pressure in the
5. When a fluid flows full through a pipe of cross-section boiler:
area A and with velocity v, the flow or discharge is: A. Blow off valves
A. A2/2v B. Safety valves
B. Av2 C. Globe valves
C. A2v D. Gate valves
D. Av
Answer: B
Answer: D
12. Dust which are mainly fine ash particles:
6. The volume of a fluid passing a cross section of a stream in A. Fly ash
unit time is called: B. Soot
A. Steady flow C. Cinder
B. Uniform flow D. sawdust
C. Discharge
D. Continuous flow Answer: A

Answer: C

13.
 Temperature at which ignition point of fuel vapors rising 19. Property which measures fluid’s resistance to flow:
above the heated oil will occur when exposed to an open A. Volatility
flame: B. Density
A. flash point C. Viscosity
B. pour point D. Ignition quality
C. fine point
D. ignition point Answer: C

Answer: A 20. An apparatus used to reduce the oxygen content of the

feedwater by heating and subsequentation:
14. Any chemical reaction accompanied by light and heat: A. Economizer
A. Radiation B. Superheater
B. Combustion C. Evaporator
C. Fission D. Deaerator
D. Fusion
Answer: D
Answer: B
21. Is the minimum temperature at which the fuel will no
15. Difference in pressure measure above or below longer pour freely:
atmospheric pressure: A. Fail point
A. Draft B. Pour point
B. Chimney C. Flash point
C. Stack D. Fire point
D. Breeching
Answer: B
Answer: A
22. A measure of ratio of inertia to viscous forces in fluids:
16. Is the removal of the burnt gases from and admitting the A. Moody’s No.
fresh charge into the power cylinder of an engine by the B. Avogrado’s No.
use of air: C. Atomic No.
A. Scavenging D. Reynold’s No.
B. Supercharging
C. Turbo-charging Answer: D
D. Injecting
23. One metric horsepower is equal to:
Answer: A A. 746 watts
B. 1000 watts
17. Peak load for a period of time divided by installed C. 735.5 watts
capacity: D. 784 watts
A. Demand factor
B. Utilization factor Answer: C
C. Load factor
24. Presence of impurity droplets of water in the steam flow:
D. Capacity factor
A. Carryover
Answer: B B. Foaming
C. Blow-by
18. It is the admittance of oil between two surfaces that are in D. Embrittlement
contact and in relative motion to one another:
A. Injection Answer: A
B. Lubrication
25. An increase in pressure in a pipe caused by a sudden
C. Supercharging
velocity decrease:
D. scavenging
A. Cavitation
Answer: B B. Water hammer
C. Contraction
D. Ball hammer

Answer: B
26. Atoms of the same elements which have the same atomic 32. Cavitation is the result of:
number and chemical properties but different atomic A. Static pressure in a fluid becoming less than
masses and molecular weights: fluid
A. Isobars B. Pump under impact load
B. Isomers C. Improper welding technique
C. Isotones D. Exposure to concrete salt water
D. Isotopes
Answer: A
Answer: D
33. Low temperature physics which is concerned with the
27. The breakdown of heavy atomic nucleus to produce nuclei phenomena that occurs at extremely low temperature:
of lighter elements, yielding neutrons and gamma rays: A. Cryogenics
A. Fusion B. Gyrogenics
B. Fission C. Tryogenics
C. Radioactivity D. Pyrogenics
D. Disintegration
Answer: A
Answer: B
34. Entrance losses between tank and pipe, or loss thru nozzle
28. The length of time it takes for the disintegration rate of a and valves are generally expressed as a function of:
radioactive substance to decrease by half: A. Kinetic energy
A. Middle life B. Pipe diameter
B. Second life C. Volume flow rate
C. Half life D. Friction factor
D. Lifetime
Answer: A
Answer: C
35. Rods of cadmium or carbon steel used in a nuclear reactor
29. Temperature of which air must be cooled in order to to absorb neutron so as to control fission:
condense: A. Welding rods
A. Condensing temperature B. Control rods
B. Precipitation temperature C. Nuclear rods
C. Dewpoint D. Fission rods
D. Moisturizing temperature
Answer: B
Answer: C
36. Doubling the speed N of a centrifugal pump, all of the
30. The total energy of a compressible or incompressible flow following are true except:
across any section in a pipeline is a function of: A. Head H is increased by a factor of 4
A. Pressure, temperature, velocity B. Volume flow rate Q is increased by a factor of 2
B. Pressure, density, velocity C. Head, power, and volume flow rate are
C. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above independent variable
datum D. Horsepower P is increased by a factor of 8
D. Specific gravity, viscosity, velocity
Answer: C
Answer: C
37. Transfer of energy by electromagnetic waves:
31. Heavy hydrogen, the isotope of hydrogen having an A. Convection
atomic mass of 2: B. Conduction
A. Deutron C. Radiation
B. Deuterium D. Emission
C. Anthorium
D. thorium Answer: C

Answer: B
38. The hydraulic formula is used to find the: 45. measure of combustibility of diesel fuel:
A. Velocity of flow in a closed conduit A. Diesel index
B. Length of pipe in a closed conduit B. Cetane number
C. Friction factor of a pipe C. Octane number
D. Quantity of discharge thru an orifice D. Fuel index

Answer: D Answer: A

39. The determination of moisture, volatile matter, fixed 46. A negatively charged particle which is present in every
carbon and ash in coal: atom:
A. Ultimate analysis A. Electrode
B. Dialysis B. Proton
C. Dulong’s analysis C. Electron
D. Proximate analysis D. Ozone

Answer: D Answer: C

40. U + Pv is a quantity called: 47. An opening lava or in a volcanic area thru which steam and
A. Flow velocity other hot gases are escaping into the air:
B. Enthalpy A. Fumarole
C. Internal energy B. Crater
D. entropy C. Volcanic cracks
D. Crevice
Answer: B
Answer: A
41. Measure of the knocking tendency of gasoline:
A. Rating number 48. Radioactive gases resulting from disintegration of
B. Octane number radioactive element:
C. Diesel index A. Emanation
D. Fuel number B. Amanation
C. Onanation
Answer: B D. Animation
42. A process with zero heat transfer: Answer: A
A. Isentropic
B. Isothermal 49. The lowest temperature of a fuel at which vapour are
C. Polytropic evolve fast enough to support continuous combustion:
D. Quasi-static A. Fire point
B. Flash point
Answer: A C. Gas point
D. Vapour point
43. A substance such as graphite, paraffin, or heavy water is
used in a nuclear reactor to slow down neutrons: Answer: A
A. Reactor
B. Cladding 50. Ratio of the amount of heat taken up by a substance to the
C. Moderator temperature at which the substance exists:
D. Coolant A. Enthalpy
B. Entropy
Answer: C C. Internal energy
D. Flow energy
44. Taking place without change in volume:
A. Isochoric Answer: B
B. Isobaric
C. Isothermal
D. isentropic

Answer: A
51. An adiabatic process is characterized by which of the 56. A steam power cycle is modelled by the ideal cycle known
following? as the:
A. The entropy change is zero A. Otto cycle
B. The heat transfer is zero B. Diesel cycle
C. It is isothermal C. Rankine cycle
D. The work is zero D. Brayton cycle

Answer: B Answer: C

52. Which of the following statements about Carnot 57. In an ideal refrigeration cycle, liquid leaves the condenser
Efficiency is NOT TRUE? and is expanded in such manner that the enthalpy of the
A. It is the maximum efficiency any power cycle can liquid is equal to the enthalpy of the resulting saturated
obtain while operating between two thermal mixture. This type of expansion is known as:
reservoir A. A throttling process
B. Absolute temperature scales must be used when B. An isothermal process
performing Carnot efficiency calculations C. Compression process
C. It depends only on the temperatures of the D. An isochoric process
thermal reservoirs
D. No reversible power cycle operating between Answer: A
two thermal reservoirs can have an efficiency
58. In case of a regenerative gas turbine engine, which of the
equal to the Carnot efficiency
following is false?
Answer: D A. The regenerator improves the efficiency of the
engine
53. A rigid container is heated by the sun. There is no shaft B. The amount of energy required during
work associated with the container. From the first law of combustion is less than that required in a similar
thermodynamics, you determine the resulting work to be: gas turbine if the power is constant
A. Equal to the heat transfer C. The exit temperature of the regenerator is higher
B. Equal to the volume times the change in pressure that the inlet temperature of the compressor
C. Equal to the change in internal energy D. There is no heat rejected to the atmosphere in a
D. Equal to zero regenerative gas turbine engine

Answer: D Answer: D

54. An inventor claims to have built an engine which will 59. A heat sink will dissipate heat more rapidly at:
revolutionize the automotive industry. Which of the A. Its temperature is the same as the temperature
following would be the best to determine if the inventor’s of the surrounding air
claims are true? B. Its surface area is increased
A. Conservation of mass C. It is covered with a material having a high
B. Zeroth law of thermodynamics thermal resistance
C. First law of thermodynamics D. It is kept away from air currents
D. Second law of thermodynamics
Answer: B
Answer: D
60. Cavitation in fluid mechanics refers to:
55. The isentropic process efficiency is used to compare A. The separation of the air flow behind a wing
actual devices such as turbines, compressors, nozzles, B. The oscillations of a plate due to turbulent
diffusers to ideal ones. Which statement is true? fluctuations
A. Only the ideal device is considered adiabatic C. The liquid to gaseous phase transition of a fluid
B. The inlet state and exit pressure are the same for due to low pressure
both the ideal and actual device D. The condensation of vapour into liquid due to
C. The ideal device operate irreversibly high pressure
D. The efficiency can be greater than one.
Answer: A
Answer: B
61.
 Heat is transferred at constant volume process to the 67. Which property of fluids is of fundamental importance in
thermodynamic system of a fixed mass. The the study of hydraulics?
thermodynamic system will produce: A. Unit weight
A. Small amount of work B. Mass density
B. Zero work C. Viscosity
C. Large amount of work D. All of the above
D. Negative work
Answer: D
Answer: B
68. The ratio of the kW-hr generated to the product of the
62. The Reheat Rankine Cycle is proposed to decrease: capacity of the plant in kW to the number of hours the
A. Volumetric flow rate of the working fluid plant has been in actual use:
B. Mass flow rate of cooling water in condenser A. Diversity factor
C. Back pressure of the turbine B. Utilization factor
D. Moisture content in the low pressure stages of C. Load factor
the turbine D. Demand factor

Answer: D Answer: B

63. Is the condition of pressure and temperature at which a 69. When a certain mass of fluid in a particular state passes
liquid and its vapour are indistinguishable? through a series of processes and returns to its original
A. Dew point state it undergoes a:
B. Triple point A. Cycle
C. Absolute humidity B. Reversible non-flow process
D. Critical point C. Irreversible process
D. equilibrium
Answer: D
Answer: A
64. Summation of all the heads in one section is equal to the
summation of all heads in other section: 70. When a gas is heated at constant volume, the process is
A. Archimedes principle called:
B. Bernoulli’s principle A. Isobaric
C. Torrecelli’s principle B. Isometric
D. Boyle’s law C. Adiabatic
D. polytropic
Answer: B
Answer: B
65. The per unit mass per unit degree change in temperature
is called: 71. The latent of heat vaporization in joules per kg is equal to:
A. Heat of fusion A. 3.35 × 105
B. Heat of vaporization B. 22.6 × 105
C. Relative heat C. 4.19 × 103
D. Specific heat D. 5.40 × 102

Answer: D Answer: B

66. The ratio of the density of a substance to the density of 72. If the volume of the confined gas is constant, the pressure
some standard substance is called: is directly proportional to the absolute temperature. This
A. Relative density is known as:
B. Specific gravity A. Kelvin’s law
C. Specific density B. Boyle’s law
D. Relative gravity C. Charles law
D. Joules law
Answer: B
Answer: C
73. When property changes cease, the bodies are said to be: 79. Is the attraction between unlike molecules:
A. Triple point A. Diffusion
B. Change in volume B. Cohesion
C. Change in pressure C. Extraction
D. Thermal equilibrium D. Adhesion

Answer: D Answer: D

74. Exhaust gases from an engine possess: 80. When gas is heated at constant pressure, the process is
A. Solar energy called:
B. Kinetic energy A. Isothermal
C. Chemical energy B. Isometric
D. Stored energy C. Adiabatic
D. Isobaric
Answer: B
Answer: D
75. Which of the following provides the basis for measuring
thermodynamic property of temperature? 81. The locus of the elevations to which water will rise in the
A. Zeroth law of thermodynamics piezometer tube is termed:
B. First law of thermodynamics A. Energy gradient
C. Second law of thermodynamics B. Friction head
D. Third law of thermodynamics C. Hydraulic gradient
D. Hydraulic radius
Answer: A
Answer: C
76. The external pressure applied to a confined fluid increases
the pressure of every point in the fluid by an amount 82. The total energy in the compressible or incompressible
equal to the external pressure. This is known as: fluid across any section in a pipeline is a function of:
A. Pascal’s law A. Pressure and velocity
B. Archimedes principle B. Pressure, density, velocity, and viscosity
C. Torrecelli’s theorem C. Pressure, density, and velocity
D. Bernoulli’s principle D. Flow energy, kinetic energy, height above datum
and internal energy
Answer: A
Answer: D
77. A type of water turbine where a jet of water is made to fall
on the blades or buckets and due to the impulse of water 83. The process of one substance mixing with another
the turbine starts moving: because of molecular motion:
A. Steam turbine A. Diffusion
B. Reaction turbine B. Saturation
C. Francis turbine C. Absorption
D. Pelton wheel D. Adhesion

Answer: D Answer: A

78. The ratio of the sum of the individual demands of the 84. Absolute viscosity of a fluid varies with pressure and
system to the overall maximum demand of the whole temperature and is defined as a function of:
system: A. Density and angular deformation ate
A. Demand factor B. Density and shear stress
B. Utilization factor C. Angular deformation rate only
C. Diversity factor D. Shear stress and angular deformation rate
D. Load factor
Answer: D
Answer: C
85. The mass of water vapour per unit volume of air:
A. Absolute humidity
B. Specific humidity 91. The amount of heat passing through a body 1 m2 cross-
C. Relative humidity section and 1 m thick in 1 hr at a temperature difference
D. Critical humidity of 1°C:
A. Quantity of heat
Answer: A B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat of solid
86. A body wholly or partly immersed on a fluid is vouyed up D. Thermal conductivity
by a force equal to the weight of the fluid it displaces. This
is known as: Answer: D
A. Bernoulli’s theorem
B. Torrecelli’s theorem 92. Anti-freeze chemicals are:
C. Pascal’s theorem A. Same as refrigerant
D. None of the above B. Those that are added to refrigerants for better
performance
Answer: D C. Those that lower down the freezing points of
liquids
87. The ratio of the average load over the designated period D. Those that do not freeze at all
of time to peak load in that period:
A. Diversity factor Answer: C
B. Plant use factor
C. Capacity factor 93. At the pressure and temperature, equal volumes of al
D. None of these gases contain equal number of molecules. This is known
as:
Answer: D A. Boyle’s law
B. Charles law
88. Is a substance that exists, or is regarded as existing, as a C. Avogrado’s law
continuum characterized by low resistance to flow and D. Faraday’s law
the tendency to assume the shape of its container:
A. Fluid Answer: C
B. Gas
C. Ice 94. States that a heat engine cannot transfer heat from a body
D. Volume to another at higher temperature unless external energy
is supplied to the engine:
Answer: F A. First law of thermodynamics
B. Planck’s law
89. The reason for insulating pipe is: C. Second law of thermodynamics
A. It will not break under pressure D. Third law of thermodynamics
B. There is minimum corrosion
C. Capacity to withstand pressure is increased Answer: C
D. Heat loss from the surface is minimized
95. This law states that pressure applied at a point in a
Answer: D confined liquid is transmitted equally to all other points:
A. Boyle’s law
90. Which of the following relations is not applicable in a free B. Charles law
expansion process? C. Lenz’s law
A. Heat supplied equal to zero D. Pascal’s law
B. Heat rejected is equal to zero
C. Work done is equal to zero Answer: D
D. Change in temperature is equal to zero
96. When the expansion or compression of gas takes place
Answer: D without transfer of heat to or from the gas, the process is
called:
A. Isothermal
B. Isentropic
 C. Adiabatic If the temperature of a confined gas is constant, the
D. Reversible product of the pressure and volume is constant. This is
known as:
Answer: C A. Kelvin’s law
B. Boyle’s law
97.
C. Charles law
D. Joules law

Answer: B

98. Weight per unit volume is termed as:

A. Specific gravity
B. Density
C. Weight density
D. Specific density

Answer: C

99. An instrument that measures density:

A. Manometer
B. Hydrometer
C. Barometer
D. Hydraulic meter

Answer: B

100. The temperature to which the air must be cooled at

constant pressure to produce saturation is called:
A. Boiling point
B. Critical point
C. Dew point
D. Vaporization point

Answer: C
MODULE 8 the calculated or net fan requirements. These factors are
intended to cover conditions encountered in the operation
1. The total stack flow loss is usually less than how many that cannot be evaluated. The usual factors are in what order
percentage of the calculated draft? of net weight increase of air gas?
A. 3% A. 10 – 20%
B. 5% B. 20 – 25%
C. 7% C. 10 – 15%
D. 9% D. 5 – 10%
ANSWER: B ANSWER: A

2. A fan in which the fluid is accelerated parallel to the fan axis 7. The temperature of hot metals can be estimated by their
is: color. For steel or iron, the color scale at 2200F is roughly:
A. Axial centrifugal flow fan A. White
B. Mixed axial fan B. Orange
C. Mig axial fan C. Dark red
D. None of the above D. Yellow
ANSWER: A ANSWER: A

3. It acts as a throttle valve, introducing enough resistance into 8. When a temperature of a thermometer is changed over a
the system to restrict the fan output to any desired quantity: wide range the glass will slowly creep. This is known as:
A. Throttle fan drive system A. Thermal expansion
B. Throttling calorimeter B. Thermal equilibrium
C. Expansion valve C. Intermediate equilibrium
D. None of the above D. None of the above
ANSWER: D ANSWER: C

4. The most efficient method of controlling output as far as 9. The temperature of a fluid flowing under pressure through a
power is concerned is by: pipe is usually measured by:
A. Constant speed A. Glass thermometer
B. Accelerated speed B. Electric resistance
C. Constant accelerated speed C. Thermocouple thermometer
D. None of the above D. All of the above
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D

5. When vane control is used for mechanical draft fans and 10. When gas temperature below 1000F are to be measured,
where a wide load range is required, it is advisable to use: which of the following should be used:
A. Four speed drive motor A. Bare thermocouple
B. Single speed drive motor B. Resistance pyrometer
C. Triple speed drive motor C. Mercury in glass thermometer
D. None of the above D. All of the above
ANSWER: D ANSWER: D

11. Which of the following should not be used for cleaning

anthracite and bituminous coals:
6. To ensure that a boiler unit will not be limited in
A. Cleaning of mine face
performance by fans, it is necessary to add safety factors to
 B. Picking out impurities manually following are the causes except:
C. Gravity concentration A. Increase of heat transfer in the boiler
D. None of the above B. High-temperature corrosion steels
C. Low temperature corrosion of the cold sections of
ANSWER: D air heaters and duct works
D. Slagging of high temperature superheater surfaces
12. Furnaces fired with oil are usually for furnace heat release
rates above: ANSWER: A
A. 135,000 Btu/hr-ft2
B. 140,000 Btu/hr-ft2 17. Acid will react with fly ash in the cooler areas of the boiler to
C. 145,000 Btu/hr-ft2 form hygroscopic salts. Which of the following belongs to
D. 150,000 Btu/hr-ft2 the group of hygroscopic salts>
A. Ammonium trisulfate
ANSWER: A B. Hydrogen disulfide
C. Sodium bisulfate
13. If dust collecting equipment is installed for a cyclone furnace
D. All of the above
boiler unit, the ash escaping from the stack to the
atmosphere may be diminished to how many percent of the ANSWER: D
total?
A. 1-2% 18. The spent cooking liquor containing the lignin dissolved from
B. 2-3% the wood is called:
C. 3-45 A. Inorganic salts
D. 4-5% B. Soda liquor
C. Hard liquor
ANSWER: A D. None of the above
14. Difficulty in tapping the slag has been experienced when the ANSWER: D
calculated coal-ash viscosity at 2600F exceeds how many
poises? 19. In using the free caustic treatment, the successful range of
A. 250 pH value is from:
B. 255 A. 11-11.5
C. 260 B. 10.5-11
D. 275 C. 9.5-10
D. 7-8.5
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: A
15. Ash is introduced into the crucible at an elevated
temperature held at that temperature until it becomes 20. This term refers to the controlled device which can stop at
uniformly fluid and decomposition gases have been any point in its stroke and can be converted without
expelled, this temperature is usually in the range of: completing its stroke:
A. 2400-2600F A. Modulating means
B. 2600-2800F B. Throttling range
C. 2800-3000F C. Control point shift
D. None of the above D. Floating action

ANSWER: B ANSWER: D

16. An increase in the decomposition of slag and ash on the 21. It is the process in which water vapour is added to the air
surface of heating of oil-fired boilers in both marine and stream by adiabatic evaporation:
stationary service has affected boiler efficiency. The A.
 Sensible heating C. Changes the composition of metal
B. humidifying D. Inhibits further deterioration
C. evaporative cooling
D. none of the above ANSWER: D

ANSWER: C 28. In the process of pair formation, a pair cannot be formed

unless the quantum has an energy greater that:
22. The chemical commonly used to speed sedimentation of A. 0.5 MeV
sewage is: B. 2 MoC2
A. Sulphuric acid C. ½ MV2
B. Copper sulfate D. hv/C
C. Lime
D. Methylene blue ANSWER: B

ANSWER: C 29. one of the two types of nonmaterial nuclear radiation is:
A. transmulation radiation
23. The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of: B. Gamma radiation
A. Nitrogen C. Betatron radiation
B. Hydrogen sulfide D. Rutherford radiation
C. Carbon dioxide
D. Methane ANSWER: B

ANSWER: D 30. The amount of transferred heat required to change the

temperature of one unit weight of a substance one degree
24. The quantity of chlorine required to satisfactorily chlorine unit of temperature:
sewage is usually: A. Latent heat
A. 0-25 B. Heat of fusion
B. 30-60 C. BTU
C. 65-90 D. None of the above
D. 95-100
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: A
31. Which of the following is not a fixed number of
25. The ratio of oxygen available to the oxygen required from characteristics of the machine?
the stabilization of sewage is called: A. Indicated engine efficiency
A. Biochemical oxygen demand B. Compression efficiency
B. Oxygen-ion concentration C. Brake engine efficiency
C. Relative stability D. None of the above
D. Bacterial stability factor
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C
32. Represents the loss due to mechanical friction of the moving
26. Which of the following is true about design of grit chambers? parts to the engine, expressed as horsepower is:
A. Temperature is an important factor A. Indicated horsepower
B. Intensifies deterioration temporarily B. Brake horsepower
C. The detention period should be at least 30 min. C. Combined horsepower
D. The maximum velocity of flow is 1 ft/sec D. None of the above

ANSWER: D ANSWER: D

27. With regard to corrosion of metals, passivation is the process 33.

that:
A. Intensifies deterioration
B. Intensifies deterioration temporarily
 Work output of the system divided by the energy changeable B. Trixotropic
by the system is known as: C. Dilatant
A. Mechanical efficiency D. Vacuum
B. Adiabatic efficiency
C. Compressor efficiency ANSWER: A
D. None of the above
39. The sum of the three types of energy at any point in the
ANSWER: D system is called:
A. Internal energy
34. The amount of heat given up by the products of combustion B. Pressure heads
on being cooled to the initial temperature after complete C. Enthalpy
combustion at constant pressure (or volume), corrected to a D. None of the above
standard state of a one atmosphere and 77F is:
A. Higher heating value ANSWER: D
B. Lower heating value
40. The vertical distance from pump centreline to the free
C. Heating value
surface of the liquid in a discharge tank or point of free
D. None of the above
discharge:
A. Static discharge head
ANSWER: C
B. Total discharge head
C. Net positive discharge head
35. Area of the indicator card multiplied by the scale of the
D. Potential head
indicator spring divided by the length of indicator card is
known as: ANSWER: A
A. Indicated maximum pressure
B. Brake maximum pressure 41. A law which states when two bodies, isolated from other
C. Actual cylinder pressure environment are in thermal equilibrium with a third body,
D. None of the above the two are in thermal equilibrium with each other is called:
A. Stefan Boltzman law
ANSWER: D B. Zeroth law
C. Kauffman law
36. If the viscosity of a certain liquid decreases with agitation at
D. Planck law
constant pressure, the liquid is said to be:
A. Thixotropic ANSWER: B
B. Newtonian
C. Dilatant 42. Mathematically, a thermodynamic property is which of the
D. All of the above following:
A. A point function
ANSWER: A B. A path function
C. Discontinuous
37. An example of a Newtonian or true is which of the following?
D. Exact differential
A. Glues
B. Molasses ANSWER: A
C. Clay slurries
D. None of the above

ANSWER: D

38. The phenomenon by which the air enters a submerged 43.

suction pipe from the water surface is called:
A. Vortex
 Enthalpy of an ideal gas is a function only of: 49. An adiabatic process with no work done is:
A. Internal energy A. Isobaric
B. Entropy B. Isometric
C. Pressure C. Throttling
D. Temperature D. Polytropic

ANSWER: D ANSWER: C

44. Power may be expressed in unit of: 50. A device which continuously and indefinitely discharge more
A. Ft-lb energy that it receives is known as:
B. Btu/hr A. Carnot engine
C. Hp-hrs B. Refrigerating machine
D. Kw-hrs C. Rankine engine
D. Perpetual motion machine
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D
45. The second law of thermodynamics states that:
A. Heat energy cannot be completely transformed 51. (U + Pv) is a quantity called:
into work A. Flow energy
B. Energy cannot be neither created nor destroyed B. Shaft work
C. Mass is indestructible C. Enthalpy
D. Internal energy is due to molecular motion D. Internal energy

ANSWER: A ANSWER: C

46. The system is said to be thermodynamics equilibrium: 52. Name the process that has no heat transfer:
A. When all of its parts are the same temperature A. Isentropic
B. When the system is not accelerating B. Isothermal
C. If it has no tendency to undergo further chemical C. Quasi-static
reaction D. Reversible
D. There is no tendency towards spontaneous change
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: D
53. The purpose of a multistage compression is to:
47. The change of an internal energy of an ideal gas is a function A. Prevent vaporization of the lubricating oil
only of the temperature change is a statement: B. Prevent its ignition should the temperature
A. Kirchoff’s law become too high
B. Avogadros law C. Reduce compressor work and thus saves energy
C. Joules law D. All of the above
D. Machs law
ANSWER: D
ANSWER: C
54. A type of compressor which is often used for supercharging
48. Entropy is a measure of: diesel engines:
A. The change in enthalpy of a system A. Axial compressor
B. The heat capacity if a substance B. Rotative compressor
C. The internal energy of a gas C. Roots blower
D. Randomness or disorder D. Centrifugal compressor

ANSWER: D ANSWER: C
55. In fan laws, at constant pressure the speed, capacity and 61. Heat flow through a conduction body by transfer from one
power vary inversely as the: molecule to the next without visible movement of the body
A. Square of the density is:
B. Square root of the density A. Radiation
C. Cube of its density B. Conduction
D. Density C. Convection
D. Absorption
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
56. The sum of the pressure head, elevation head, and the
velocity head remain constant. This is known as: 62. Heat transmission carried by the movement of the
A. Torrecelli’s theorem heatedfluid away from a hot body as in the heating of water
B. Archimedes principle by a hot surface:
C. Boyle’s law A. Radiation
D. Bernoulli’s theorem B. Conduction
C. Convection
ANSWER: D D. Absorption
57. The type of deep well pump used for 500 gpm and 200 ft. ANSWER: C
head is:
A. Piston 63. Transmission of heat from a hot to a cold by electromagnetic
B. Gear waves is called:
C. Turbine A. Radiation
D. Centrifugal B. Conduction
C. Convection
ANSWER: C D. Absorption
58. The speed at which the exact model of the pump would have ANSWER: A
to run it were designed to deliver 1 ft. head per stage:
A. Peripheral speed 64. Term not used in relation to lubricating oil;
B. Specific speed A. Demulsibility
C. Rotative speed B. Neutralization number
D. Translation speed C. Conradson number
D. Cetane number
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: D
59. Formation of bubbles in a low pressure area in a centrifugal
pump and later their sudden collapse, is called: 65. In comparing the operation of a diesel and gasoline engine:
A. Explosion A. The diesel operating temperature are in general
B. Corrosion higher
C. Compression B. The gasoline operating temperature are in general
D. Cavitation higher
C. Additive type lube oils should not be used in
ANSWER: D gasoline engines
D. Soot production in the diesel is less than in gasoline
60. The power required to deliver a given quantity of fluid
against a given developed head, with no losses in the pump ANSWER: A
is called:
A. Brake power
B. Hydraulic power
C. Indicated power
D. Wheel power

ANSWER: B
66.
 A receiver in an air compression system is used to: 71. In compressing air in a water jacketed air compressor the
A. Avoid cooling air before using power required to drive it:
B. Reduce the work needed during compression A. Is dependent of the quality of water circulated for a
C. Collect water and grease suspended in the air given pressure range
D. Increase the air discharge pressure B. Does not depend on the given pressure range
C. Depend on the temperature change of the air for a
ANSWER: C given pressure range
D. Only depend on the exponent of the expansion
67. The heating value of fuel:
valve
A. Cannot be determined from its Baume reading
B. Is of the order of 18,500 Btu per lb at usual ANSWER: C
temperature
C. Varies considerably with the oil temperatures 72. In the usual commercial ammonia refrigerating system the
D. In Btu per lb is less than for a No. 2 than No. 6 oil ammonia that has just passed through the expansion valve:
A. Has greater enthalpy that it had before entering the
ANSWER: B expansion valve
B. Is all in a liquid state
68. In plotting the brake horsepower versus speed in a wide
C. Is partially vaporized
open throttle test for a spark ignition engine the BHP curve:
D. Has become highly superheated
A. Is a straight line
B. Tends to concave downward ANSWER: C
C. Tends to concave upward
D. Has no characteristic shape 73. A single acting air compressor is to be preferred to a two
stage compressor in some large high pressure installations
ANSWER: B because:
A. Less power is required to drive it
69. In a four cycle gasoline engine, when properly turned the
B. The discharge temperature of the air is lower
valve operation will usually be such that the:
C. A cylinder oil with a lower flash point may be used
A. Intake opens after the top dead center
D. The first cost of the compressor is lower
B. Intake closes beforebottom dead center
C. Exhausts open before bottom dead center ANSWER: C
D. Exhausts closes after bottom dead center
74. Reversible adiabatic expansion is at constant:
ANSWER: C A. Pressure
B. Volume
70. The possibility of detonation in a spark ignition engine will be
C. Temperature
increased by;
D. Entropy
A. Lowering the compression ratio
B. Lowering the inlet air temperature ANSWER: D
C. Lowering the jacket water temperature
D. Advancing the spark timing 75. The change of water from the solid to the vapour phase:
A. Always occur in two steps solid to liquid and then
ANSWER: D liquid to vapour
B. Can occur directly at elevated pressure
C. Can occur directly at extremely low pressure
D. Can occur directly at elevated pressure and
elevated temperature

ANSWER: C
76. As the pressure increases, the heat of vaporization per 81. The absolute viscosity of a fluid:
pound of water A. Is usually expressed in Saybolt minutes
A. Decreases B. In centipoises is 100 times the number of poises
B. Remains constant C. When expressed in the English system is in the units
C. First increases and then decreases of lbs per second per square inch
D. First decreases and then increases D. Cannot be converted to a value of kinematic
viscosity
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
77. One type of pipe which is not recommended for use in
ammonia refrigerating system is: 82. If gas is expanded isothermally in a cylinder:
A. Brass A. It must have been completely insulated
B. Welded B. Heat must have been added during the process
C. Steel C. Heat must have been abstracted to make the
D. seamless process possible
D. No work is done
ANSWER: A
ANSWER: B
78. Based on the 1986 PSME CODE, for piping identification
water pipes should be painted with what color? 83. With increasing load based on a steam generator having
A. Yellow good combustion control:
B. White A. Economizer gas outlet temperature decreases
C. Green B. Furnace pressure is approximately constant
D. Black C. Air temperature entering air heater increases
D. Air temperature leaving air heater decreases
ANSWER: C
ANSWER: B
79. In a refrigeration system the heat absorbed in the
evaporator per pound of refrigerant passing through: 84. The carbon dioxide percentage in the flue gases for perfect
A. Equals the increase in enthalpy combustion of a fuel oil compared to coal and based on the
B. Equals the increase in volume same excess air percentage of each is:
C. Does not depend on the refrigerant used A. Not uniquely determined by the above conditions
D. Is decreased if precooler is used B. The same
C. Higher
ANSWER: A D. Lower
80. In the operation of the usual rotary gear pump handling a ANSWER: D
liquid:
A. The liquid is trapped between the meshing teeth 85. The air off take from a surface condensercarries:
B. The liquid is trapped between the gear teeth and A. Dry air
case and is carried around to the discharge B. Air saturated with steam
C. A high discharge head gives exceptionally good C. Air and steam at unequal temperatures
efficiency D. Air and steam at equal partial pressure
D. Grit in fluid being pumped is not objectionable
ANSWER: B
ANSWER: B
86. The pH values of a solution:
A. Decreases with increasing acidity
B. Is obtained gravimetrically
C. Decreases with decreasing acidity
D. Is 7 for neutral solution at any temperature

ANSWER: A
87. The primary object of washing coal is to decrease: 92. As commonly used the pH value:
A. Dustiness A. Has no relation to the hydrogen ion concentration
B. Ash fusion temperature B. Will be lower if boiler water is treated with caustic
C. Ash is to decrease soda
D. Volatile matter C. For boiler water is usually kept at a value between 5
and 6
ANSWER: A D. Of 7 represents a neutral solution
88. A 12 I.D circular dust has air flowing past a given suction with ANSWER: D
an averagevelocity of 1000 ft/min. the quantity of air flowing
past this section is: 93. And the dry and wet bulb readings in air are identical:
A. 9425 ft3/min A. The thermometers are in error
B. 785 ft3/min B. The air is saturated
C. 785 ft3/min C. The relative humidity is zero percent
D. 1000 ft3/min D. The mixture is completely dry

ANSWER: B ANSWER: B

89. In the testing of the quantity of steam entering a steam 94. The brake mean effective pressure of an internal
engine: combustion engine is:
A. A throttling calorimeter will give the correct value A. Obtained from the indicator card
for any initial quality of the steam B. A computed value from brake measurements
B. A throttling calorimeter can only be used where the C. Greater than the indicated mean effective pressure
initial quality of the steam is high D. Can be determine without knowing the engine
C. A barrel calorimeter would give the most accurate speed
result
D. A separating calorimeter must be used where the ANSWER: B
initial quality is high
95. The age limit of a horizontal return tubular, flue or cylinder
ANSWER: D boiler having a longitudinal lap joint and operating at a
pressure in excess of 0.345 MPa:
90. In the flow of the steam through nozzle: A. 20 years
A. The back pressure never has an effect on the flow B. 30 years
rate C. 35 years
B. The flow rate is constant for back pressure below D. 25 years
the critical pressure
C. The approach velocity never has any effect in the ANSWER: B
value of the exit velocity
96. A valve designed to allow a fluid to pass through in one
D. The critical pressure will occur at 30% of the initial
direction only:
pressure
A. Gate valve
ANSWER: B B. Float valve
C. Globe valve
91. When considering the characteristics of a reciprocating D. Check valve
engine:
A. The steam rate is given as the pound of steam per ANSWER: D
horsepower output
B. The brake output is obtained for the indicator cards
C. The heat rate is expressed in terms of number of
BTU per horsepower hour
D. Compounding increases the thermal efficiency

ANSWER: C 97.
 A vessel permanently connected to a system by inlet and
outlet pipes storage of liquid refrigerant:
A. Refrigerant container
B. Liquid receiver
C. Flash tank
D. Surge tank

ANSWER: B

98. It is the temperature at which vapour forms above the liquid

fuel:
A. Pour point
B. Flash point
C. Fire point
D. Diesel index

ANSWER: B

99. The tendency for a pump to cavitate will be increase if:

A. The fluid temperature is raised
B. Inlet edges are rounded
C. The suction line velocities are lowered
D. The impeller has smooth finish

ANSWER: A

[Link] iron is a term referring to an iron coated with:

A. Tin
B. Zinc
C. Magnesium
D. Aluminium

ANSWER: B
MODULE 9 7. In an imhoff tank:
A. The effluent contains very little dissolved oxygen
1. The chemical most commonly used to speed sedimentation B. There are no settling compartments
of sewage is: C. The sludge and fresh sewage are well mixed to give
A. Sulphuric acid complete
B. Copper sulphate D. The sludge and raw sewage are not mixed
C. Lime
D. Methylene blue Answer: D

Answer: C 8. The percent total solids in most domestic sewage is

approximately:
2. The gas from sludge digestion tanks is mainly composed of: A. 0.01
A. Nitrogen B. 0.1
B. Hydrogen sulphide C. 1.0
C. Carbon dioxide D. 10.0
D. Methane
Answer: B
Answer: D
9. Intermittent sand filters are primarily used to:
3. The quantity of chlorine in parts per million required to A. Remove offensive odors
satisfactorily chlorinate sewage is usually: B. Supply fertilizer to farmers
A. 0 – 25 C. Oxidize putrescible matter
B. 30 – 60 D. Neutralize sludge
C. 35 – 90
D. 95 – 120 Answer: C

Answer: A 10. To divert excessive flow from combined sewers designers

often use:
4. The ratio of the oxygen available to the oxygen required for A. A cipoletti weir
stabilization of sewage is called: B. A V-notch weir
A. Biochemical oxygen C. A broadcrested
B. Oxygen-ion concentration D. A leaping weir
C. Relative stability
D. Bacterial-stability factor Answer: D

Answer: C 11. The most important factor in determining high temperature

behaviour of an alloy:
5. Most of the bacteria in sewage are: A. Dispersion
A. Parasitic B. Ionization
B. Saprophytic C. Crystallization
C. Pathogenic D. Composition
D. Anaerobic
Answer: D
Answer: B
12. At relatively high temperatures and low rates of straints,
6. In the design of grit chambers: structures will perform better if their material is:
A. Temperature is an important factor A. Fine-grained
B. Baffles are essential B. Their favour is independent to the grain
C. There should be a 5 to 1 ratio of length to depth C. Course-grained
D. The maximum velocity to flow is 1 ft per sec D. None of the above
Answer: D Answer: C

13.
 With regards to corrosion of metals, passivation is the 19. The quantity of heat required to raise the temperature of 1
process that: lb pure water from 32 to 212 oF under standard atmospheric
A. Intensifies deterioration pressure:
B. Intensifies deterioration temporarily A. Btu
C. Changes the composition of metal B. Specific heat
D. Inhibits further deterioration C. Latent heat
D. Heat of fusion
Answer: D
Answer: A
14. In the process of pair formation, a pair cannot be formed
unless the quantum has an energy greater than: 20. A measure of the ability to transfer heat to other bodies
A. 0.5 MeV based on a reference temperature (absolute zero) where a
B. 2 moC2 body has given up all the thermal energy it can possibly can:
C. ½ mV2 A. Absolute temperature
D. 3.5 MeV B. Temperature gage
C. Atmospheric temperature
Answer: B D. None of the above
15. One of the two types of non-material nuclear radiation is: Answer: A
A. Transmulation radiation
B. Walton radiation
C. Gamma radiation
D. Betatron radiation

Answer: C

16. The quantity of heat required to evaporate 1 lb saturated

liquid:
A. Latent heat of vaporization
B. Specific heat
C. Latent heat
D. Heater

Answer: A

17. Amount of transferred heat required to change the

temperature of one unit of weight of a substance one degree
unit of temperature:
A. Btu
B. Latent heat
C. Specific heat
D. Heating system

Answer: C

18. The quantity of heat required to change the state of a

substance from solid to liquid without change of
temperature:
A. Heat of fusion
B. Latent heat of evaporation
C. Absolute latent heat
D. Btu

Answer: A