1.The DHCP server feature of EdgeConnect supports static IP address assignments.

 True
 False

2.You can determine the order in which orchestrated loopback addresses are assigned to appliances.

 True
 False

3. Which of these are IP SLA monitor types?

 Tracker
 Ping
 EdgeHA
 VRRP Monitor
 Interface
 HTTP/HTTPS

4. Select all answers that apply. EdgeConnect receives a SYN packet that is not In a tunnel on a WAN
interface. In 8.1.3 and later, which Interface firewall setting drops the SYN packet?

 Stateful
 Allow All
 The other answers are incorrect.
 Harden

5. Select all answers that apply. Into which other protocols can subnet sharing redistribute its routes?

 VRRP
 BGP
 OSPF
 EdgeHA
 Static routing

6. When you have disabled regional routing, hubs automatically re-advertise routes they learn from the
spokes in their local region to hubs in other regions.

 True
 False
7. Select all answers that apply. Which technologies can you use to direct traffic from LAN devices to the
preferred LAN interface of an EdgeHA group of EdgeConnect appliances?

 VRRP
 BGP
 EIGRP
 OSPF

8. EdgeConnect appliances A and B are in an EdgeHA configuration. EdgeConnect A connects wanO to an

MPLS provider. EdgeConnect B connects wanO to a broadband internet provider. How do the appliances
use the interfaces?

 The wanO (Internet) Interface of EdgeConnect B Is active. The wanO (MPLS) Interface of
EdgeConnect a Is passive unless EdgeConnect A fails.
 The wanO (MPLS) Interface of EdgeConnect a Is active. The wanO (Internet) Interface of
EdgeConnect B Is passive unless EdgeConnect A fails.
 This configuration Is Incorrect. You must connect both appliances to both the MPLS and Internet
connections.
 Each EdgeConnect can use the WAN interfaces on both appliances.

9. The lan0 interface of an EdgeConnect connects to a BGP neighbor router. The router is in the same AS
as the EdgeConnect and doesn't connect to any other BGP routers. You can safely configure the default
BGP route maps for a Branch router peer.

 True
 False

10. Which statement about policy maps is FALSE?

 The default policy in any map has the lowest priority.

 Only one map can be active at a time.
 EdgeConnect matches the highest priority map entries first If possible.
 EdgeConnect can simultaneously store multiple maps.
 EdgeConnect matches the highest numbered map entries first If possible.

11. Which statement about QoS and the Shaper is true?

 Queue depth is theoretically Infinite, so EdgeConnect never drops packets.

 QoS ensures that only high-priority traffic reaches its destination.
 if queued traffic waits longer than the Max Wait Time, EdgeConnect must drop the traffic.
 if queued traffic exceeds Max WAN Bandwidth, EdgeConnect must drop the traffic.
 if queued traffic exceeds a tunnel's maximum bandwidth, EdgeConnect must drop the traffic.

12. An appliance uses the management routing table to route traffic between two end devices at
different sites.

 True
 False
13. An EdgeConnect has firewall zones named Default, Trust, and Untrust. Interfaces lanO and Ian1 are
in the Trust zone, interfaces wanO and want are in the Untrust zone, and all of the overlays use the
Default zone. Which security policy permits passthrough traffic from lanO to wanO?

 Permit Untrust to Trust

 Permit Trust to Default
 Permit Default to Untrust
 Permit Trust to Untrust
 EdgeConnect allows this traffic by default.

16. What are the protocols supported by Silver Peak appliances for exchanging routing information?

 OSPF
 Subnet Sharing
 BGP

17. OSPF uses inbound and outbound route maps Per Peer.

 True
 False

18. An EdgeConnect has firewall zones named Default, Trust, and Untrust. Interfaces lanO and Ian1 are
in the Trust zone, interfaces wanO and wan1 are in the Untrust zone, and all of the overlays use the
Default zone. Which security policy permits WAN-to-WAN traffic for overlay traffic?

 EdgeConnect allows this traffic by default.

 Permit Trust to Default
 Permit Default to Untrust
 Permit Trust to Untrust
 Permit Untrust to Trust

19. An OSPF router connects to both EdgeConnect A and B. EdgeConnect A advertises a route with a link
cost of 52, while EdgeConnect B advertises a route with a link cost of 42. Does the router send traffic to
EdgeConnect A or B to reach the destination?

 The router load balances all packets between EdgeConnect appliances A and B.
 EdgeConnect B
 EdgeConnect A

20. Which EdgeConnect in an EdgeHA pair handles TCP Acceleration and Network Memory for locally
initiated flows?

 The EdgeConnect that receives the first packet on the WAN side.
 The EdgeConnect that receives the first packet on the LAN side.
 Both EdgeConnect appliances participate.

21. In order to avoid routing loops, you should never connect BGP peers in a full mesh within the same
AS.
  False
 True

22. Select all answers that apply. Which of these are types of Silver Peak policies?

 Security policies
 QoS policies
 Optimization policies
 Subnet policies
 Route policies

23. You can configure default DHCP server settings on Orchestrator for use in deployment profiles.

 False
 True

24. Select all answers that apply. Which of these statements about subnet sharing are true?

 When EdgeConnect uses subnet sharing, the appliance puts all SYN packets into a tunnel.
 The default route policy handles SYN packets to unknown subnets that don't match other route
policies or the traffic access policies of its Business Intent Overlays.
 When EdgeConnect learns about a remote network via subnet sharing, the appliance can put
the SYN packet into a tunnel.
 EdgeConnect always drops all SYN packet to an unknown subnet that don't match other route
policies or the traffic access policies of its Business Intent Overlays.

25. EdgeConnect can use subnet sharing or the High Throughput link bonding policy, but not both at the
same time.

 False
 True

26. Local Internet breakout Is not supported with H/A.

 False
 True

27. You can configure EdgeConnect to be a DHCP server by assigning a LAN-side interface a static IP
address and enabling DHCP in its deployment profile.

 True
 False

28. An OSPF router connects to both EdgeConnect A and B. EdgeConnect A advertises a link cost of 5 to
the destination, while EdgeConnect B advertises a link cost of 6. Does the router send traffic to
EdgeConnect A or B to reach the destination?
  EdgeConnect B
 EdgeConnect A
 The router load balances all packets between EdgeConnect appliances A and B.

29. The two EdgeConnect appliances in an EdgeHA pair exchange network memory caches with one
another across the HA link.

 True
 False

30. Silver Peak best practice configurations include using EdgeHA for both Active/Active and
Active/Passive high availability configurations.

 True
 False

31. Business Intent Overlays are considered transparent and do not have to be considered as part of
security policy configuration

 False
 True

32. An EdgeConnect has firewall zones named Default, Trust, and Untrust. Interfaces lanO and Ian1 are
in the Trust zone, interfaces wanO and wan1 are in the Untrust zone, and all of the overlays use the
Default zone. Which security policy permits passthrough traffic from lanO to wanO?

 EdgeConnect allows this traffic by default.

 Permit Trust to Default
 Permit Trust to Untrust
 Permit Default to Untrust
 Permit Untrust to Trust

33. Which default route map do you choose to control BGP route advertisements from a branch router
peer?

 default_rtmap_bgp_inbound_pe
 default_rtmap_bgp_outbound_br
 default_rtmap_bgp inbound_br
 default_rtmap_bgp_outbound_pe

34. Whenever a hub re-advertises a route it learns from a spoke in its local region to another spoke in
the local region, the hub adds 50 to the subnet sharing metric.

 False
 True

35. What type of encryption does EdgeConnect use for IPsec tunnels?

 AES-192
 AES-128
  AES-256
 DES
 3DES

36. To connect to a website over a hardened internet interface, traffic will need to be backhauled to a
data center through a tunnel.

 True
 False

37. Which default route map do you choose to control BGP route advertisements to a branch router
peer?

 default_rtmap_bgp_inbound_pe
 default_rtmap_bgp_outbound_br
 default_rtmap_bgp_inbound_br
 default_rtmap_bgp_outbound_pe

38. Select all answers that apply. Which of the following is true of subnet sharing?

 False
 True

39. Select all answers that apply. Which of the following are true of Silver Peak’s BGP implementation?

 It supports ¡BGP.
 EdgeConnect appliances use subnet sharing to propagate the AS_PATH attribute to other
devices using BGP.
 It only allows public AS numbers.
 It only allows private AS numbers.
 It supports eBGP.

40. An EdgeConnect can snoop DNS lookups and cache the results for domain based packet
classification.

 True
 False

41. Traffic matches an overlay. The traffic is destined to an IP address on the Internet. Why might
EdgeConnect drop the traffic?

 You have not configured Zscaler or another cloud-based security service.

 An IP SLA has failed.
 The Preferred Policy Order contains no policies.
 The Preferred Policy Order does not contain Break Out Locally.

42. It is necessary to manually configure at least two Internet passthrough tunnels to load balance
breakout traffic?

 True
  False

43. It is necessary to define which interfaces on an EdgeConnect appliance participate in OSPE

 False
 True

44. The EdgeConnect receives all voice traffic on lanO. The lanO interface of EdgeConnect has the
interface label "Voice." The RealTime Business Intent Overlay uses an overlay ACL to match voice traffic.
Which mechanism is necessary for traffic to match the RealTime overlay?

 The Voice interface label for lan0.

 A packet's source IP address.
 The overlay ACL O A packet's destination IP address.
 The default route policy.

45. You configure the DHCP server settings on a LAN-side interface to determine how EdgeConnect
communicates with an external, LAN-side DHCP server.

 True
 False

46. Your WAN-side interfaces are wanO (MPLS) and wan1 (INET1). If you are NOT using passthrough
tunnels, from which WAN interface does EdgeConnect forward passthrough flows?

 The path with the lowest latency.

 wan1
 The other answers are Incorrect.
 wan0
 The path with the lowest percentage of utilization.

47. What does the TCP window size control?

 The speed of the tunnel connection.

 The number of packets that a device can transmit without requiring an acknowledgement.
 How long an EdgeConnect will wait for a missing packet before requesting a retransmission.
 The number of SYN packets a device can send before requiring a SYN/ACK.
 The number of bytes a device can transmit without requiring an acknowledgement.

48. A BIO has both LAN DSCP and WAN DSCP set to trust-lan. What is the effect on overlay traffic?

 EdgeConnect maintains the original DSCP marking from the LAN in the encapsulating IPsec
packet but not in the encapsulated payload packet.
 EdgeConnect maintains the original DSCP marking from the LAN in the encapsulated payload
packet but not in the encapsulating IPsec packet.
 EdgeConnect maintains the original DSCP marking from the LAN in the encapsulated payload
packet, while the service provider sets the marking in the encapsulating IPsec packet.
 The service provider sets the DSCP markings in both the encapsulated payload packet and the
encapsulating IPsec packet.
  EdgeConnect maintains the original DSCP marking from the LAN in both the encapsulated
payload packet and the encapsulating IPsec packet.

49. Hubs never automatically re-advertise routes they learn from the spokes In their local region to
other hubs in the same region.

 False
 True

50. If an interface goes down, an IP SLA can cause subnet sharing to stop,

 False
 True

51. What is the default metric for eBGP routes?

 20
 250
 50
 200
 70

52. When you have enabled regional routing, hubs automatically re-advertlse routes they learn from the
spokes In their local region to other hubs In the same region.

 False
 True

53. Select all answers that apply. Which of the following are possible causes of asymmetry?

 A misconfigured ACL on a router

 A misconfigured route policy on an appliance
 A saturated link causing dropped packets
 High latency
 Packets being routed around an appliance

54. Which statements best describes an EdgeConnect route map?

 They can set the route metrics for redistributed BGP, OSPF, and subnet shared routes.
 They control the redistribution of routes from one protocol into another.
 They control the administrative distance values for BGP, OSPF, and subnet shared routes.
 They control the redistribution of routes from one EdgeConnect to another.

55. When the first device using OSPF on an ethernet network becomes active, which role does it
assume?

 DROther
 Designated Router (DR)
  Backup Designated Router (BDR)

56. When you connect to a service provider's BGP gateway router from an the wanO interface of an
EdgeConnect. Which type of peer router should you configure it to be?

 Opaque router
 Stub router
 Branch router
 PE-router

57. When you configure the IP Whitelist on Orchestrator, what is the effect?

 You configure the destination IP addresses at which you can access Orchestrator.
 You configure a pool of one-time-password tokens for accessing Orchestrator.
 You configure the source IP addresses from which you can access Orchestrator.

58. As part of its first packet classification strategy, Silver Peak appliances maintain a dynamically
updated cache of millions of domains and addresses.

 True
 False

59. A stateful firewall setting on an EdgeConnect appliance's WAN interface allows a locally initiated,
outbound FTP flow, but drops a remotely initiated, inbound FTP flow.

 False
 True

60. No traffic of any kind is allowed into a Hardened interface outside of an IPsec tunnel.

 True
 False

61. The Ian1 interface of an EdgeConnect connects to a BGP neighbor router. The router is in a different
AS than the EdgeConnect, is a Branch router peer, and uses the default inbound and outbound route
maps for a Branch router. The EdgeConnect advertises routes it learned from subnet sharing to the
router.

 False
 True

62. It is possible to limit the address spaces from which Orchestrator allows logins.

 True
 False

63. Select all answers that apply. You have enabled regional routing. Devices in region A and region B are
part of the CriticialApps overlay. The overlay uses a hub and spoke topology. Hub A in region A learns a
route from a spoke in the same region. Which of these statements is true?

 The other spoke devices in region A learn the route from hub A with a metric of 50.
  The other spoke devices in region A learn the route from hub A with a metric of 100.
 The hubs in region B learn the route from hub A with a metric of 100.
 The hubs in region B learn the route from hub A with a metric of 50.
 The hubs In region B do not learn the route.
 The hubs In region B will learn the route from hub A with a metric of 150.

64. Select all answers that apply. An EdgeConnect has Default, Trust, and Untrust firewall zones.
Interfaces lanO and Ian1 are In the trust zone, interfaces wanO and wan1 are in the Untrust zone, and all
of the overlays use the default zone. Which traffic that enters lanO is intra-zone traffic that EdgeConnect
permits by default?

 Overlay traffic from wan1

 Passthrough traffic from lanO to Ian1
 Overlay traffic from wanO
 WAN-to-WAN routing overlay traffic from wanO to wan1.
 Passthrough traffic from lanO to wan1
 Passthrough traffic from lanO to wanO

65. On which EdgeConnect interfaces can you use OSPF?

 When EdgeConnect uses OSPF, you must add all WAN Interfaces to OSPF.
 When EdgeConnect uses OSPF, you must add all LAN Interfaces to OSPF.
 EdgeConnect can only use OSPF on LAN interfaces.
 EdgeConnect can use OSPF on all of Its LAN or WAN Interfaces.
 EdgeConnect can only use OSPF on WAN interfaces.

66. Which statement about QoS and the Shaper is true?

 If queued traffic exceeds a tunnel's maximum bandwidth, EdgeConnect must drop the traffic.
 Queue depth is theoretically infinite, so EdgeConnect never drops packets.
 If queued traffic exceeds Max WAN Bandwidth, EdgeConnect must drop the traffic.
 QoS ensures that only high-priority traffic reaches its destination.
 If queued traffic waits longer than the Max Walt Time, EdgeConnect must drop the traffic.

67. Each rule in a route map must use the same source protocol.

 False
 True

68. If you configure a BGP router to do so with a network statement, it advertises locally attached
subnets to ¡BGP peers.

 False
 True
69. Select all answers that apply. When would you need to create manual route policies instead of
relying on the unmodified default route policy?

 If you have specific traffic you want to drop.

 If you have specific traffic you want to send via a passthrough tunnel.
 If you have specific traffic that doesn't match the traffic access policy in any Business Intent
Overlay.
 If you want to manually choose a specific tunnel for certain traffic.

70. An EdgeConnect with the WAN interface firewall setting of Harden requires an IPsec tunnel with its
peer EdgeConnect to exchange routes using subnet sharing.

 False
 True

71.Select all answers that apply. Which of the following are true?

 EdgeConnect appliances can perform FEC and POC on the tunnellzed portion of an asymmetric
flow.
 EdgeConnect appliances can perform TCP acceleration on an asymmetric TCP flow.
 EdgeConnect appliances drop asymmetric flows.
 EdgeConnect appliances can deduplicate the tunnelized portion of an asymmetric flow.
 EdgeConnect appliances automatically process asymmetric flows as passthrough shaped traffic.

77. Select all answers that apply. What types of routes can EdgeConnect redistribute into subnet
sharing?

 BGP
 VRRP
 OSPF
 EdgeHA
 Static routes

78. In a subnet table, all else being equal, the route with the lowest metric is preferred.

 False
 True

79. How does the order of Business Intent Overlays Impact policies?

 The BIO order determines the order in which policies are added.
 The BIO order does not have any impact on policies. BIO generated policies are added based on
the creation date/time of the BIO.
 The BIO order does not have any impact on policy generation. BIOS don't add policies.
80. Select all answers that apply. Which of the following is true of subnet sharing?

 The EdgeConnect learns subnets from a router using EIGRP.

 Two EdgeConnect appliances at the same site must advertise the same subnet with the same
metric.
 An EdgeConnect can advertise subnets that are not directly connected to it.
 A tunnel must be up between two appliances for subnet sharing to work.
 The EdgeConnect learns subnets from a router using RIP.

81. When EdgeConnect and an OSPF router are in the Established state, they have formed a full
adjacency.

 False
 True

82. The choice of Set Actions is the same for each of the rules in every route map?

 False
 True

83. You have enabled regional routing. Devices in region A and region B are part of the CriticalApps
overlay. The overlay uses a regional hub and spoke topology. Hub A in region A learns a route from a
spoke in the same region. Which of these statements is true?

 The spokes in region B do not learn the routes.

 The spokes in region B learn the route from hub A with a metric of 50.
 The spokes in region B learn the route from hub A with a metric of 100.
 The spokes in Region B learn the route from hubs in region B with a metric of 50.
 The spokes in region B learn the route from hubs in region B with a metric of 150.
 The spokes in region B learn the route from hubs in region B with a metric of 100.

84. The two EdgeConnect appliances in an EdgeHA pair exchange flow tables and state information with
one another across the HA link.

 False
 True

85. T/F - When using BGP, a Silver Peak appliance still requires a local router to forward traffic.

 True
 False

86. True or False: A separate license Is required to for Silver Peak appliances to be used as SaaS
gateways in current code (8.1.5 and above). Choose False!!!

 False
 Do not choose this answer -choose False- there is no longer a separate SaaS license (this
question can't be deleted for administrative reasons)

87. T/F - A Silver Peak appliance supports DHCP server functionality on the LAN facing interfaces only.
  True
 False

88. You have two WAN-side interfaces: MPLS (WANO) and Internet (WAN1). If you are NOT using
Passthrough tunnels, what WAN interface will a Passthrough flow use?

 The path with the lowest percentage of utilization

 The path with the lowest latency
 WANO
 WAN1
 None of the other answers are correct.

89. T/F - When deploying out of path, WAN-side redirects are always required when subnet sharing is
enabled.

 True
 False

90. What are the three types of Silver Peak Policies? (Choose 3)

 Subnet Policies
 Optimization Policies
 Insurance Policies
 Route Policies
 QOS Policies

91. Which of the following statements, regarding QoS and the Shaper, is true?

 A packet must be dropped if Max Wait Time is exceeded.

 A packet must be dropped if Max WAN bandwidth is exceeded.
 A packet must be dropped if a tunnel's Max bandwidth is exceeded.
 Because queue depth is theoretically infinite, packets will never be dropped.
 QoS ensures that only high priority traffic will reach its destination.

92. Which of the following are WCCP messages? (Select 3)

 HIA - Here I Am
 ICMP - Insert Cache Monitoring Packet
 RA - Redirect Assign
 RSA - Request Server Authority
 ISY -1 See You
93. T/F - A WCCP appliance in a service group sends I SEE YOU messages to the WCCP routers.

 False
 True

94. Which is true regarding the Silver Peak SaaS Optimization feature?

 The optimal Gateway to use for each SaaS application is determined via RTT measurements and
advertised to all EdgeConnect appliances.
 The path to use each SaaS offering is manually determined and configured
 The wanO port of the master EdgeConnect appliance is used for all SaaS traffic
 The optimal path to use for all SaaS traffic is determined via loss and jitter measurements and
advertised to all EdgeConnect appliances

95. T/F - You have configured a manual route policy with a priority of 10, in which you selected a specific
tunnel as a Destination in the set action and the Fallback is pass-through. Dynamic Path Control (DPC)
can select a lower loss alternative if that policy is matched, and the tunnel goes down.

 True
 False

96. When would you need to create manual Route Policies instead of relying on the unmodified default
route policy? (Choose 4)

 If you have specific traffic you want to drop.

 If you have specific traffic that doesn’t match the traffic access policy in any Business Intent
overlay.
 If you have specific traffic you want to send via a pass through tunnel.
 If you want to manually choose a specific tunnel for certain traffic.
 If you want to auto optimize all traffic.

97. Which of the following are possible causes of asymmetry? (Select 3)

 A misconfigured ACL on a router

 Packets being routed around an appliance
 High latency
 A misconfigured route policy on an appliance
 A saturated link causing dropped packets

98. Which is NOT part of the Business Intent Overlay configuration?

 All other answers are part of the BIO configuration

 Topology
 Overlay Down Action/Peer Unavailable Action
 Traffic Access Policy/Match Traffic O Link Bonding Policy
 Link Brownout Thresholds
99. Which of the following is true of subnet sharing? (Choose 3)

 A subnet advertised with a numerically higher metric will always be preferred over one with a
lower metric.
 An appliance can be configured to advertise subnets, but ignore advertisements from other
appliances.
 If a routing protocol is not in use, subnets not directly attached to the appliance must be
manually added to the configuration in order to be advertised.
 An appliance must advertise all connected subnets, or none It is not possible to select which
ones are advertised.
 If a device has learned a destination subnet from a peer, and receives a SYN from the LAN
addressed to a device on the subnet, the SYN can be placed in the tunnel.
 If you are using auto opt with subnet sharing, and a destination subnet has been learned from a
peer, a flow to that subnet will never be tunnelized until the ACK and SYN/ACK both have been
seen by appliances on both ends.

100. Which of the following are true statements? (Choose 2)

 Shared subnet information will override a route policy that specifies a tunnel in the Destination
if the 'Use Shared Subnet Information' box is checked in the Subnets configuration.
 A manual route policy with a tunnel as a Destination will always override shared subnet
information.
 If the Destination in a matched route policy is 'auto-optimized', and shared subnet information
exists, the subnet table information will be used to pick a path to a destination.

101. How many subnets minimum are recommended for the end devices and the Silver Peaks with
Policy Based Routing (PBR) as a best practice?

 4
 3
 2
 1
 You don’t need subnets, as all communications takes place at layer 2.

102. T/F - Subnet Sharing and Dynamic Path Control (DPC) are mutually exclusive.

 False
 True

103. Which of the following are true? (Choose 2)

 Silver Peak appliances drop asymmetric flows

 Silver Peak appliances can perform FEC and POC on the tunnelized portion of an asymmetric
flow
 Silver Peak appliances can perform TCP acceleration on an asymmetric TCP flow.
 Silver Peak appliances automatically process asymmetric flows as pass-through shaped
  Silver Peak appliances can deduplicate the tunnelized portion of an asymmetric flow.

104. A SYN packet arrives on the WAN-side outside a tunnel. In 8.1.3 and above, which Firewall setting(s)
will drop the packet. (Select all that apply)

 Allow All
 Harden
 Stateful
 None of the other answers is correct

105. T/F - Assigning a permanent IP address to an interface and enabling the DHCP option in the
deployment profile allows the appliance to act as a DHCP server for devices on the LAN.

 False
 True

106. Which statements are true regarding TCP proxy? (Choose 2)

 A TCP proxy acts as a man-in-the-middle

 A Silver Peak appliance acting as a TCP proxy can accelerate an asymmetric flow
 TCP proxy is performed by any intermediate device that forwards packets from a host to a
server.
 A TCP proxy responds locally on behalf of a remote host.

107. T/F - The Deployment for an appliance can be updated from Tree View.

 False
 True

108. Which firewall setting is the default for a LAN-side interface?

 Allow All
 Harden
 Stateful
 None of the other answers is correct
 There is no option to set a LAN-side firewall

109. T/F - The DHCP Server settings on an appliance LAN-side interface determines how the interface
will communicate with an external LAN-side DHCP server.

 False
 True

110. Routers in the same BGP AS by default will advertise... (Choose 2)

 All the routes they have learned to all the other routers that AS.
 0 Routes learned from iBGP peers to each other
 Routes learned from eBGP peers to each other.
 0 Locally attached subnets to each other if configured to do so.
111. A SYN packet arrives from a device on the LAN side of an appliance matching a route policy that will
send the packet into a passthrough tunnel to an external site on the internet. Which stateful firewall
setting will prevent a TCP session from starting between the LAN device and the external site? (Select all
that apply)

 Harden
 Allow All
 Stateful
 None of the other answers is correct.

112. BGP sessions between peers use which of the following as a transport protocol?

 Layer 3 only
 TCP
 z.153
 UDP
 A Cisco proprietary protocol

113. How many subnets minimum are recommended at each site for the end devices and the Silver
Peaks with a simple VRRP deployment?

 4
 You don’t need subnets--all communication takes place at layer 2.
 2
 1
 3

114. True or False: The shortest RTT (Round Trip Time) from the gateways to SaaS providers is used to
select the best path through available SaaS gateways.

 False
 True

115. What type of encryption is used to protect IPSEC tunnels?

 Triple DES
 AES-128
 AES-192
 AES-256
 RSA

116. T/F - You can configure the Orchestrator to rotate IPsec keys on a Daily, Weekly, Monthly or Yearly
basis.

 False
 True

117. T/F - It is possible in a WCCP deployment to configure two service groups and a single ACL on a
router and do both WAN and LAN side redirection for TCP and UDP traffic in both directions.
  False
 True

118. How does a Policy Based Rrouting (PBR) router detect a failure of a Silver Peak appliance?

 It can't. If all devices go down, traffic black holes

 An SLA should be configured on the router which detects if the device is responding or not.
 The failing appliance always sends a message to the router to say it is going down.
 The router fails to receive an I SEE YOU message from the appliance
 The router fails to receive a HERE l AM message from the appliance
 It sends an ICMP Ping to the appliances as part of the PBR protocol, and if the device fails to
respond to 3 consecutive pings, it marks it down.

119. T/F - If you are connecting to Autonomous Systems on the internet, you should be using an AS
number assigned by an issuing authority.

 True
 False

120. T/F - If you are connecting to Autonomous Systems on the internet, you should be using an AS
number assigned by an issuing authority.

 True
 False

121. T/F - Any VRRP deployment with redundant Silver Peaks requires the appliances to be in the same
subnet as the end devices.

 False
 True

122. The TCP window size controls what?

 The number of bytes a device can transmit without requiring an acknowledgement

 The speed of the tunnel connection.
 The number of packets that a device can transmit without requiring an acknowledgement.
 The number of SYN packets a device can send before requiring a SYN/ACK
 How long a Silver Peak will wait for a missing packet before requesting a retransmission

123. T/F - Silver Peak does not propagate AS-Path between appliances via subnet sharing.

 False
 True

124. A Silver Peak appliance is deployed in-line at each of two sites, A and B. A Business Intent Overlay is
in use that matches all traffic and uses a link bonding policy of High Throughput. Subnet sharing is
enabled. Assume there is only one locally attached LAN subnet at both sites. Two parallel underlay
tunnels exist between the Silver Peaks at the two sites named TunneM and Tunnel2.. (Choose 3)
  The SYN/ACK for TCP sessions initiated by a device at Site B to a device at Site A could be placed
in either tunnel.
 The SYN/ACK for TCP sessions initiated by a device at Site B to a device at Site A will always be
placed in TunneM.
 The SYN/ACK reply from Site B for sessions initiated by a device at Site A might be placed in
either tunnel by the Silver Peak at Site B.
 All TCP sessions initiated by devices from Site A to devices at Site B will only use Tunnel 1 for the
flow in both directions.
 The SYN for TCP sessions initiated by a device at Site B to a device at Site A could be placed in
either tunnel.

125. Routers in different BGP autonomous systems can advertise all...(Select all that apply)

Their locally attached subnets to each other if configured to do so.

 Prefixes they learned from eBGP peers to each other

 Prefixes they learned via iBGP to each other

126. What calculation is used when Load Balancing tunnels?

 The tunnel with the lowest utilization (i.e. 1 Mbps vs 1 3Mbps utilized)
 The tunnel with the least number of flows
 The tunnel with least packet loss
 The tunnel with least latency
 The tunnel with the lowest percentage of utilization (i.e. 45% vs. 50% utilized)

127. Which of the following is true of SaaS optimization. (Choose three correct answers)

 An EdgeConnect appliance cannot simultaneously be a SaaS gateway and optimize SaaS traffic
 Saas Gateways learn SaaS IP addresses from the Unity Cloud Portal
 SaaS gateways calculate the round trip time from a customers WAN network to each SaaS
service
 An EdgeConnect appliance cannot be a SaaS gateway.
 EdgeConnect appliances acting as SaaS gateways advertise the best routes to other Silver Peak
appliances in a customer’s network

128. T/F BGP peers in the same AS should never be connected in a full mesh to avoid routing loops.

 False
 True

129. Which best describes a Business Intent Overlay?

 A definition of the criteria, used by Orchestrator to automatically create overlay connections

between appliances
 A physical transport network between two sites.
  The business need for adopting SDWAN
 Logical connections between sites
 The requirements document used to define an SDWAN.

130. In a Business Intent Overlay configuration, which of the following are valid Overlay Down actions?
(Choose 3)

 Underlay Tunnel
 Overlay Tunnel
 Drop
 Pass Through
 Pass Through Unshaped

131.T/F - Layer 3 GRE return to a Cisco router that doesn't have hardware support can cause high CPU
usage on the router.

 True
 False

132. Which of the following are NOT true regarding deployments which use subnet sharing with only
directly attached subnets? (Choose 2)

 LAN side redirects on the router to which the appliance is attached are not required for out of
path deployments
 Redirects on either the WAN or LAN side are always required.
 WAN side redirects on the router to which the appliance is attached are not always required for
out of path deployments
 LAN side redirects are not required for bridge (in line) mode deployments.
 WAN side redirects on the wan router are not required for bridge (in line) mode deployments

133. Which of these statements is a Silver Peak best practice for BGP?

 Assign a different AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at different sites.
 Assign the same AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at the same site.
 Assign the same AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at different sites.
 Assign a different AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at the same site.

134. Select all answers that apply. An EdgeConnect can act as which type of OSPF router?

 Area Border Router (ABR)

 Autonomous System Boundary Router (ASBR)

135. Select all answers that apply. What do BGP neighbors in different autonomous systems advertise to
one another?

 They advertise all of the prefixes they learned from iGP peers to one another.
 They advertise all of the prefixes they learned from eBGP peers to one another.
  If you configure them to do so, they advertise all of their locally attached subnets to one
another.

136. When EdgeConnect redistributes BGP routes into OSPF, what role does it have?

 Area Border Router (ABR)

 Autonomous System Boundary Router (ASBR)

137. A route map can be configured on Orchestrator and pushed out to the appliances which can use
the route map.

 True
 False

138. When deploying EdgeConnect out of path with subnet sharing enabled, the appliance always
requires LAN-side redirects.

 True
 False

139. OSPF has one route map per peer.

 True
 False

140. When EdgeConnect load balances tunnels, what calculation does it use?

 The tunnel with the lowest utilization (i.e. 1.0 Mbps vs. 1.3 Mbps utilization).
 The tunnel with least latency.
 The tunnel with the lowest percentage of utilization (I.e. 45% vs. 50% utilization). O The tunnel
with the least number of
 flows.
 The tunnel with least packet loss.

141. It’s possible to configure an IP SLA to monitor reachability of a critical server via Ping, and raise or
clear an alarm, without taking any other action on the appliance.

 False
 True

142. Does an EdgeConnect appliance's internet WAN interface that is configured with the Stateful+SNAT
firewall mode allow local internet breakout to SaiesForce.com?

 True
 False

143. The default outbound BGP PE route map allows you to redistribute subnet shared routes into BGP
into advertisements that peer.

 True
 False
144. Silver Peak can exchange routes with a Cisco Router via Subnet Sharing.

 False
 True

145. Select all answers that apply. Which statements about Forward Error Correction (FEC) are true?

 FEC corrects out of order packets on a link.

 FEC recovers lost packets.
 FEC allows you to accelerate asymmetric flows.
 Enabling FEC reduces the bandwidth requirements for optimized traffic.
 Enabling FEC consumes additional bandwidth on a link.

146. Whenever a hub re-advertises a route it learns from a spoke in its local region to another spoke in
the same region, the hub adds 100 to the subnet sharing metric.

 False
 True

147. Select all answers that apply. EdgeConnect appliances A and B are in an EdgeHA configuration.
EdgeConnect A connects wanO to an MPLS provider. EdgeConnect B connects wanO to a broadband
internet provider. For local internet breakout traffic, where does NAT happen?

 The wanO interface of EdgeConnect A.

 The HA interface of EdgeConnect B.
 The wanO interface of EdgeConnect B.
 The HA interface of EdgeConnect A.

148. It is possible for an appliance to advertise a route that it doesn’t actually use to route traffic

 False
 True

149. You can configure the Orchestrator to rotate IPsec keys on a daily, weekly, monthly, or yearly basis.

 False
 True

150. When you have enabled regional routing, hubs automatically re-advertise routes they learn from
the spokes in their local region to other hubs in the same region.

 True
 False

151. Select all answers that apply. Which of these are Service Level Objective thresholds?

 MOS
 Jitter
 Round-Trip Time
 Packet Loss
  Latency

152. Select all answers that apply. On which EdgeConnect interfaces can you configure the DHCP server
feature?

 lan0
 wan1
 mgmt0
 wan0
 mgmtl
 lan1

153. Which of these statements is a Silver Peak best practice for BGP?

 Assign a different AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at different sites.
 Assign the same AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at the same site.
 Assign the same AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at different sites.
 Assign a different AS number to all of your EdgeConnect appliances that are at the same site.

154. Select all answers that apply. What do BGP neighbors in different autonomous systems advertise to
one another?

 They advertise all of the prefixes they learned from iGP peers to one another.
 They advertise all of the prefixes they learned from eBGP peers to one another.
 If you configure them to do so, they advertise all of their locally attached subnets to one
another.

155. A route map can be configured on Orchestrator and pushed out to the appliances which can use
the route map.

 True
 False

156. When deploying EdgeConnect out of path with subnet sharing enabled, the appliance always
requires LAN-side redirects.

 True
 False

157. OSPF has one route map per peer.

 True
 False

158. When EdgeConnect load balances tunnels, what calculation does it use?

 The tunnel with the lowest utilization (i.e. 1.0 Mbps vs. 1.3 Mbps utilization).
  The tunnel with least latency.
 The tunnel with the lowest percentage of utilization (I.e. 45% vs. 50% utilization).
 The tunnel with the least number of flows.
 The tunnel with least packet loss.

159. It’s possible to configure an IP SLA to monitor reachability of a critical server via Ping, and raise or
clear an alarm, without taking any other action on the appliance.

 False
 True

160. Does an EdgeConnect appliance's internet WAN interface that is configured with the Stateful+SNAT
firewall mode allow local internet breakout to SaiesForce.com?

 True
 False

161. The default outbound BGP PE route map allows you to redistribute subnet shared routes into BGP
into advertisements that peer.

 True
 False

162. Silver Peak can exchange routes with a Cisco Router via Subnet Sharing.

 False
 True

163. Select all answers that apply. Which statements about Forward Error Correction (FEC) are true?

 FEC corrects out of order packets on a link.

 FEC recovers lost packets.
 FEC allows you to accelerate asymmetric flows.
 Enabling FEC reduces the bandwidth requirements for optimized traffic.
 Enabling FEC consumes additional bandwidth on a link.

164. An EdgeConnect has firewall zones named Default, Trust, and Untrust. Interfaces lanO and Ian1 are
in the Trust zone, interfaces wanO and want are in the Untrust zone, and all of the overlays use the
Default zone. Which security policy permits traffic from the LAN into an overlay to a peer EdgeConnect?

 Permit Default to Untrust

 Permit Untrust to Trust
 Permit Trust to Default
 Permit Trust to Untrust
 EdgeConnect allows this traffic by default.

165. Silver Peak appliances support only iBGP.

 False
 True
166. Which of these are valid peer unavailable options for a Business Intent Overlay?

 Use MPLS1
 Use Best Route
 Underlay Tunnel
 Drop
 Overlay Tunnel

167. The purpose of the AS PATH attribute is to prevent routing loops between different autonomous
systems.

 True
 False

168. An EdgeConnect only supports DHCP server functionality on its LAN-side interfaces.

 True
 False

169. Loopback interfaces cannot be created directly on appliances.

 True
 False

170. All of the appliances in a network can simultaneously change to a new IPsec encryption key on a
predetermined schedule.

 False
 True

171. Loopback interfaces are a hardware option only available on physical appliances.

 False
 True

172. WAN-to-WAN routing (i.e. internal hairpinning) allows a hub EdgeConnect appliance to relay traffic
between two spoke EdgeConnect appliances that don't have a tunnel between them.

 False
 True

173. An EdgeConnect can be a member of how many OSPF areas?

 3
 1
 4
 The number of areas is only limited by the hardware the EdgeConnect appliance uses.
 2
174. The wan1 interface of an EdgeConnect connects to a BGP neighbor router. The router is in a
different AS than the EdgeConnect, is a PE-router peer, and uses the default inbound and outbound 21
for a PE-router. The EdgeConnect advertises routes it learned from subnet sharing to the router.

 True
 False

175. Select all answers that apply. Which of these are types of Silver Peak policies?

 Security policies
 QoS policies
 Optimization policies
 Subnet policies
 Route policies

176. Select all answers that apply. What types of routes can EdgeConnect redistribute into subnet
sharing?

 BGP
 VRRP
 OSPF
 EdgeHA
 Static routes

177. Which firewall setting is the default for a LAN-side interface?

 Allow All
 Harden
 Stateful
 None of the other answers is correct
 There is no option to set a LAN-side firewall

178. When deploying EdgeConnect out of path with subnet sharing enabled, the appliance always
requires LAN-side redirects.

 True
 False

179. You can configure the Orchestrator to rotate IPsec keys on a daily, weekly, monthly, or yearly basis.

 False
 True

180. In which deployment mode must both EdgeConnect appliances be into use EdgeHA?

 In-line Router mode (ILRM)

 Bridge mode
 Server mode
181. When you have disabled regional routing, hubs automatically re-advertise routes they learn from
the spokes in their local region to other hubs in the same region.

 True
 False

182. For Orchestrator and later, IPsec UDP tunnel are the only type of tunnels the EdgeConnect
appliances support.

 True
 False

183. You configure a manual route policy with a priority of 10, a specific tunnel for the Destination
setting, and passthrough for the Fallback setting. If traffic matches this manual route policy, and the
tunnel goes down, Dynamic Path Control (DPC) can select an alternative path with lower packet loss.

 True
 False

184. An EdgeConnect can propagate the AS_PATH attribute between appliances via subnet sharing.

 False
 True

185. Which of these is NOT a configurable component of a Business Intent Overlay?

 Traffic Access Policy/Match Traffic

 Topology
 Service Level Objective Thresholds
 Peer Unavailable Option
 All other answers are parts of the BIO configuration
 Link Bonding Policy

186. Whenever a hub re-advertises a route it learns from a spoke in its local region to a hub In another
region, the hub adds 50 to the subnet sharing metric.

 False
 True

187. Whenever a hub re-advertises a route it learns from a spoke in its local region to a hub In another
region, the hub adds 100 to the subnet sharing metric.

 True
 False

188. The lan0 interface of an EdgeConnect connects to a BGP neighbor router. The router is in the a
different AS than the EdgeConnect and connects to other BGP routers across the internet. As which BGP
Peer Type should you configure the router in EdgeConnect?

 Opaque router
  Branch router
 stub router
 PE-router

189. By default EdgeConnect does NOT automatically redistribute routes from all routing protocols into
the SD-WAN fabric.

 True
 False

190. If an interface goes down, an IP SLA can cause subnet sharing to stop.

 False
 True

191. You can configure a static route to only apply to LAN-to-WAN traffic.

 False
 True

192. Network administrators organize BGP routers into autonomous systems.

 False
 True

193. It is necessary to define which interfaces on an EdgeConnect appliance participate in OSPF.

 False
 True

194. What is the default action for traffic flowing between two different security zones?

 Permit
 Deny

195. What is the default destination for the global IP SLA rule that all BIOs use for local Internet
breakout?

 amazon.com
 www.silver-peak.com
 sp-ipsla.silverpeak.cloud
 microsoft.com

196. When using BGP, an EdgeConnect still requires a local router to forward traffic.

 False
 True

197. An EdgeConnect has firewall zones named Default, Trust, and Untrust. Interfaces lanO and Ian1 are
in the Trust zone, interfaces wanO and want are in the Untrust zone, and all of the overlays use the
Default zone. Which security policy permits traffic from the LAN into an overlay to a peer EdgeConnect?
  Permit Trust to Default
 Permit Default to Untrust
 Permit Untrust to Trust
 EdgeConnect allows this traffic by default.
 Permit Trust to Untrust

199. Which transport protocol do BGP sessions use between neighbors?

 UDP
 TCP
 ip multicast
 CDP
 DCCP

200. You should always use Reset All in the flow table to make sure a connection gets reset.

 False
 True

201. Which interface must you disconnect in order to manage an EdgeConnect using a loopback
interface?

 lan0
 wan0
 mgmt1
 wan1
 mgmt0
 Ian1

202. Which firewall setting is the default for an EdgeConnect appliance's LAN interface?

 EdgeConnect LAN interfaces don't have a default firewall setting.

 Allow All
 Harden
 stateful
 The other answers are incorrect.

203. On an ethernet network, EdgeConnect always assumes the Designated Router role.

 False
 True

204. An EdgeConnect advertises routes to a BGP peer when the EdgeConnect is in which BGP state?

 Established
 Active
  Connect

205. When an EdgeHA pair with an overlay that uses the High Availability link bonding policy
experiences a failure on one of the WAN links, what happens to SD-WAN flows?

 The remaining appliance can no longer provide TCP acceleration.

 The flows continue uninterrupted.
 The EdgeConnect must re-establish the flow.

206. Select all answers that apply. Which of the following is true of subnet sharing?

 Two EdgeConnect appliances at the same site must advertise the same subnet with the same
metric.
 A tunnel must be up between two appliances for subnet sharing to work.
 The EdgeConnect learns subnets from a router using EIGRP.
 An EdgeConnect can advertise subnets that are not directly connected to it.
 The EdgeConnect learns subnets from a router using RIP.

207. “Inbound’ traffic is coming from the LAN into the Silver Peak.

 False
 True

208. Which statement best describes a Business Intent Overlay?

 The requirements documentation you use to define an SD-WAN.

 Definition of the criteria, used by Orchestrator to automatically create overlay connections
between appliances.
 The logical connections between sites.
 A physical transport network between two sites.
 The business need for adopting SD-WAN.

209. Select all answers that apply. What do BGP routers advertise by default to their BGP neighbors in
the same AS?

 They advertise the routes they learned from eBGP peers to one another.
 If you have configured the routers to do so, they advertise their locally attached subnets to one
another.
 They advertise the routes they learned from ¡BGP peers to one another.
 They advertise all of the routes they have learned to all other routers In the AS.

210. Which default route map do you choose to control BGP route advertisements from a provider edge
router peer?

 default_rtmap_bgpJnbound_br
 default_rtmap_bgp_outbound_pe
 default_rtmap_bgp_outbound_br
 default_rtmap_bgp_inbound_pe
211. Hubs never automatically re-advertise routes they learn from spokes in their local region to hubs in
other regions.

 False
 True

212. When you configure the IP Whitelist on Orchestrator, what is the effect?

 You configure the source IP addresses from which you can access Orchestrator.
 You configure the destination IP addresses at which you can access Orchestrator.
 You configure a pool of one-time-password tokens for accessing Orchestrator.

213. The default outbound BGP PE route map allows you to redistribute subnet shared routes into BGP
advertisements to that peer.

 False
 True

214. An EdgeConnect has a Max WAN Bandwidth of 5 Mbps. Five QoS traffic classes are in use, and each
traffic class has a minimum bandwidth setting of 20%. Each traffic class also has the default maximum
bandwidth setting of 100%. There are two tunnels to different destinations. The first tunnel has a
maximum bandwidth of 5 Mbps. The second tunnel has a maximum bandwidth of 1 Mbps. Which
statement about this scenario is true?

Answer: This configuration is not allowed because the sum of the two tunnels max bandwidth
setting exceeds the appliance e's Max bandwidth.

215. You can update the deployment for an EdgeConnect from the tree view by right-clicking on the
appliance.

 True
 False

216. Network administrators organize BGP routes into automous systems.

 False
 True

217. Select all answers that apply. EdgeConnect A at site 1 has these WAN interfaces: INET1, INET2,
MPLS1, and MPLS2. EdgeConnect B at site 2 has these WAN interfaces: INET1, INET2, MPLS1, and
MPLS2. Which interfaces on Edgeconnect A can you put into a cross-connect group?

 INET1
 INET2
 MPLS1
 MPLS2
220. Which of the following is NOT a QoS best practice?

Answer: The sum of the Maximum Bandwidth settings for all traffic classes in use should not excced
100% of the appliance’s Max bandwidth