Questions 1-10 are based on the following power and, at the moment, in skill, she compensated for

passage. by a quality so mysteriously and implacably egocentric

This passage is adapted from James Baldwin, Another that no one has ever been able to name it. This quality
Country. ©1990 by Gloria Baldwin Karefa-Smart. Originally involves a sense of the self so profound and so powerful
published in 1962. Eric, an actor, and Vivaldo, a writer, are 30 that it does not so much leap barriers as reduce them to
watching Vivaldo’s girlfriend, Ida, sing with a band that her atoms—while still leaving them standing, mightily, where
brother, the Kid, once played with. they were; and this awful sense is private, unknowable,
not to be articulated, having, literally, to do with
She was not announced; there was merely a brief
something else; it transforms and lays waste and gives life,
huddle with the piano-player; and then she stepped up
35 and kills.
to the mike. The piano-player began the first few bars,
She finished her first number and the applause was
Line but the crowd did not take the hint.
stunned and sporadic. She looked over at Vivaldo with
5 “Let’s try it again,” said Ida, in a loud, clear voice.
a small, childish shrug. And this gesture somehow
At this, heads turned to look at her; she looked calmly
revealed to Eric how desperately one could love her, how
down on them. The only sign of her agitation was in her
40 desperately Vivaldo was in love with her. The drummer
hands, which were tightly, restlessly clasped before her—
went into a down-on-the-levee-type song, which turned
she was wringing her hands, but she was not crying.
out to be a song Eric had never heard before:
10 Somebody said, in a loud whisper, “Dig, man, that’s
Betty told Dupree
the Kid’s kid sister.”
She wanted a diamond ring.
There were beads of sweat on her forehead and on her
45 And Dupree said, Betty,
nose, and one leg moved out, trembling, moved 15 back.
I’ll get you most any old thing.
The piano-player began again, she grabbed the mike like
“My God,” muttered Vivaldo, “she’s been working.”
15 a drowning woman, and abruptly closed her eyes:
His tone unconsciously implied that he had not been,
You
and held an unconscious resentment. And this threw
Made me leave my happy home.
50 Eric in on himself. Neither had he been working—for a
You took my love and now you’ve gone,
long time; he had merely been keeping his hand in. He
Since I fell for you.
looked at Vivaldo’s white, passionate face and wondered if
20 She was not a singer yet. And if she were to be judged
Vivaldo were now thinking that he had not been working
solely on the basis of her voice, low, rough-textured, of
because of Ida: who had not, however, allowed him to
no very great range, she never would be. Yet, she had
55 distract her. There she was, up on the stand, and unless all
something which made Eric look up and caused the
the signs were false, and no matter how hard or long the
room to fall silent; and Vivaldo stared at Ida as though
road might be, she was on her way. She had started.
25 he had never seen her before. What she lacked in vocal

2
 She and the musicians were beginning to enjoy each 3
other and to egg each other on as they bounced through
60 a ballad of cupidity, treachery, and death; and Ida had According to the narrator, Ida’s singing voice sounds
created in the room a new atmosphere and a new A) surprisingly loud and high.
excitement. Even the heat seemed less intolerable. The B) flawed and untrained.
musicians played for her as though she were an old friend
come home and their pride in her restored their pride in C) beautiful but limited in range.
65 themselves. D) incapable of reaching low notes.
The number ended and Ida stepped off the stand, wet
and triumphant, the applause crashing about her ears like
foam. She came to the table, looking at Vivaldo with a 4
smile and a small, questioning frown, and, standing, took It can most reasonably be inferred that Eric and Vivaldo,
70 a sip of her drink. They called her back. The drummer when compared to Ida,
reached down and lifted her, bodily, onto the stand, and
the applause continued. A) are less able to captivate a group of people.
B) have significantly less musical knowledge.
C) more strongly prefer the comfort of friendships over
1 the difficulty of work.
The passage most strongly suggests that Ida’s D) have expended less effort in pursuing their career
performance has which effect on Eric and Vivaldo? goals.
A) The song lyrics reach them deeply.
B) Her voice bothers their sense of aesthetics.
5
C) They both begin to perceive her in a new way.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer
D) They both realize they are in love with her. to the previous question?
A) Lines 22-25 (“Yet, she . . . before”)
2 B) Lines 38-40 (“And this . . . with her”)
Lines 28-35 (“This . . . kills”) primarily serve to C) Lines 40-42 (“The drummer . . . before”)
A) allude to obstacles that Ida had overcome in D) Lines 50-51 (“Neither . . . hand in”)
pursuing a singing career.
B) suggest that Ida has some unpleasant personal
qualities. 6

C) illustrate the remarkable power of Ida’s stage In lines 54 and 55, the author italicizes the words “him”
presence. and “her” primarily to
D) describe how Ida’s singing affects some listeners A) reveal the envy Vivaldo harbors toward Ida for
negatively. putting more effort toward her singing career than
their relationship.
B) suggest a contrast between the effect Ida has on
Vivaldo’s work and the effect Vivaldo has on Ida’s
work.
C) highlight the positive effect Ida’s relationship with
Vivaldo has had on her self-confidence.
D) underscore the mutual distractions that both Ida and
Vivaldo must face as creative artists.

3
7 Questions 11-21 are based on the following
passage and supplementary material.
As used in line 56, “signs” most nearly means
This passage is adapted from Ian Tattersall, Masters of the
A) indications. Planet: The Search for Our Human Origins. ©2012 by Ian
B) symbols. Tattersall.
C) directions. Some of the most notable technological advances in
D) warnings. hominid history, including the domestication of fire,
the invention of compound tools, and the building
Line of shelters, predated language. Such achievements
8 5 are impressive indeed. But language facilitated the
imposition of symbolic information processing upon
Based on the passage, which statement best describes the older cognitive processes. And this added an entirely
relationship between Ida and the band? new dimension to the way in which hominids saw the
A) Ida sings with the band to help them achieve a world, and eventually reimagined it.
musical comeback. 10 That this momentous event took place in Africa—the
B) Ida and the band develop a mutual rapport that is continent in which we find the first fossil evidence of
mutually exhilarating. creatures who looked just like us, and (somewhat later)
the earliest archaeological suggestions of symbolic
C) The band members promote Ida’s career out of activities—is corroborated by a recent study of the
regard for her brother. 15 sounds used in spoken languages around the world.
D) The band members restrain their resentment over The study of comparative linguistics makes it clear that
Ida’s quick success. languages have evolved much as organisms have done,
with descendant versions branching away from the
ancestral forms while still retaining for some time the
9 20 imprint of their common origins. Many scientists have
accordingly used the differentiation of languages as a
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer
guide to the spread of mankind across the globe. And in
to the previous question?
doing this they have traditionally concentrated on the
A) Lines 3-4 (“The piano player . . . hint”) words that make up those languages. But this has proved
B) Lines 14-15 (“The piano player . . . eyes”) 25 a tricky endeavor, for individual words change quite
rapidly over time: so rapidly that beyond a time depth
C) Lines 58-62 (“She and . . . excitement”)
of about five thousand years, or ten at the very most,
D) Lines 70-72 (“They . . . continue”) it turns out to be fairly hopeless to look for substantial
traces of relationship. As a result, while language has
30 indeed proven useful in tracing the movement of
10 peoples around the Earth over the last few thousand
As used in line 64, “restored” most nearly means years, linguists have been somewhat stymied when it
comes to its very early evolution.
A) fixed. Cognitive psychologist Quentin Atkinson has
B) updated. 35 recently suggested an alternative. According to Atkinson,
C) retrieved. in seeking the origins of language we are better off
looking not at words as a whole, but at the individual
D) revived. sound components—the phonemes—of which they are
comprised. This makes sense, because the phonemes
40 are much more bound by biology than are the ideas
that their combinations represent. And when Atkinson

4
 looked at the distribution of phonemes in languages 60 the rapidity with which languages evolve. The key thing,
around the world, he found a remarkable pattern. The though, is that the genetic and phonemic patterns are
farther away from Africa you go, the fewer phonemes essentially the same, and that both point to an origin in
45 are typically used in producing words. Some of the very Africa. Atkinson’s analysis suggests that the convergence
ancient “click” languages of Africa, spoken by people point may be in southwestern Africa, which is also
with very deep genetic roots, have over a hundred 65 in line with one recent genetic study. And his results
phonemes. English has about 45; and in Hawaii, one of imply not only that modern Homo sapiens originated
the last places on Earth to be colonized by people, there in a single place, but also that the same thing was true
50 are only 13.1 Atkinson attributes this pattern to what is for language (or at least, for the form of language that
known as “serial founder effect”: a phenomenon, well survives today). In which case, there is a strong argument
known to population geneticists, that is due to the drop 70 for a fundamental synergy between biology and language
in effective population size each time a descendant in the rapid takeover of the world by articulate modern
group buds off and spreads away from an ancestral one. humans.
55 With each successive budding, genetic—and apparently
also phonemic—diversity diminishes. 1
The author refers to the Polynesian language Hawaiian, the main
The signal of this effect in the five hundred or so language spoken by the people of Hawaii prior to their contact
with Europeans in the eighteenth century.
languages analyzed by Atkinson is weaker than the one
found in the genes, but this difference is plausibly due to

Phonemic Diversity and Distance from Postulated Language Origin Site for 10 Language Families
Distance from postulated
Mean phoneme language origin site in
diversity (0 = southwestern Africa to
global mean; geographic center
Examples of increasing values = of language family
Language family languages in family increasing diversity) (kilometers)
Afro-Asiatic Arabic, Somali 0.316 4,164
Altaic Turkish, Uzbek −0.040 10,703
Australian Alawa, Tiwi −0.738 17,922
Indo-European English, Hindi 0.069 9,025
Khoisan Deti, Sandawe 0.652 1,161
Mayan Huastec, Jakaltek −0.198 22,267
Niger-Congo Igbo, Swahili 0.665 3,050
Sino-Tibetan Burmese, Mandarin 0.543 12,153
Trans-New Guinea Ekari, Kewa −0.152 18,038
Yanomam Shiriana, Sanuma −0.623 25,619

Adapted from Quentin D. Atkinson, “Phonemic Diversity Supports a Serial Founder Effect Model of Language
Expansion from Africa.” ©2011 by American Association for the Advancement of Science.

5
11 14
It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that the According to the passage, which statement best describes
author views the advent of language as the relationship between phonemes and population
A) inevitable, because early hominids possessed the shifts?
biological capacity for speech. A) The number of phonemes used by a population
B) pivotal, because it changed the way that hominids determines the diversity of descendant groups.
made sense of their existence. B) When descendant groups of a population merge
C) overvalued, because important advancements in with one another, the total number of their
technology had already taken place. phonemes increases.

D) fortunate, because it accelerated hominids’ C) Phonemic diversity in a population changes only

expansion across the African continent. with early branching of descendant groups.
D) As a population’s size decreases in descendant
groups, the number of phonemes also decreases.
12
Which choice best supports the idea that the pace at
15
which languages evolve has posed a challenge to research
into the migration of modern humans? As used in line 56, “diminishes” most nearly means
A) Lines 20-22 (“Many . . . globe”) A) relaxes.
B) Lines 22-24 (“And in . . . languages”) B) criticizes.
C) Lines 24-29 (“But this . . . relationship”) C) removes.
D) Lines 35-39 (“According . . . comprised”) D) declines.

13 16
As used in line 40, “bound” most nearly means Lines 45-48 (“Some . . . phonemes”) mainly serve to
A) restricted. A) provide an example in support of a claim made by
B) resolved. the author.

C) secured. B) note an exception to a pattern described in the

passage.
D) bordered.
C) define a term that may be unfamiliar to some
readers.
D) describe an occurrence that raises additional
research questions.

6
17 20
Based on the passage, Atkinson’s research suggests which The table indicates that the language family with the
relationship between genetic and phonemic diversity? greatest distance from the postulated language origin site
A) Genetic diversity provides stronger evidence of to its geographic center includes which two languages?
the effects of a group’s divergence from ancestral A) Turkish and Uzbek
populations than phonemic diversity does. B) Huastec and Jakaltek
B) The genetic diversity of a group tends to increase at a C) Ekari and Kewa
steadier rate than does the phonemic diversity of the
language spoken by that group. D) Shiriana and Sanuma

C) When genetic and phonemic diversity in a group

reach a certain threshold, the group is likely to 21
diverge into multiple descendant groups.
Based on the passage and the table, the Indo-European
D) Genetic diversity points to a single origin event for
language family arose through a smaller number of
language, while phonemic diversity suggests the
successive buddings from ancestral populations than did
possibility of more than one such event.
which other language family?
A) Khoisan
18 B) Niger-Congo
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer C) Mayan
to the previous question? D) Afro-Asiatic
A) Lines 50-54 (“Atkinson . . . one”)
B) Lines 55-56 (“With . . . diminishes”)
C) Lines 57-60 (“The signal . . . evolve”)
D) Lines 65-69 (“And his . . . today”)

19
According to the table, what is the distance between the
geographic center of the Trans-New Guinea language
family and the postulated language origin site in
southwestern Africa?
A) 12,153 kilometers
B) 17,922 kilometers
C) 18,038 kilometers
D) 25,619 kilometers

7
 Questions 22-32 are based on the following Researchers who have examined lactate levels right
passage and supplementary material. after exercise found little correlation with the level of
This passage is adapted from Stephen M. Roth, “Why Does
muscle soreness felt a few days later. This delayed-onset
Lactic Acid Build Up in Muscles? And Why Does It Cause 45 muscle soreness, or DOMS as it is called by exercise
Soreness?”. ©2006 by Scientific American, a division of physiologists, is characterized by sometimes severe
Nature America, Inc. muscle tenderness as well as loss of strength and range of
motion, usually reaching a peak 24 to 72 hours after the
As our bodies perform strenuous exercise, we begin extreme exercise event.
to breathe faster as we attempt to shuttle more oxygen 50 Though the precise cause of DOMS is still unknown,
to our working muscles. The body prefers to generate most research points to actual muscle cell damage
Line most of its energy using aerobic methods, meaning with and an elevated release of various metabolites into the
5 oxygen. Some circumstances, however, require energy tissue surrounding the muscle cells. These responses
production faster than our bodies can adequately deliver to extreme exercise result in an inflammatory-repair
oxygen. In those cases, the working muscles generate 55 response, leading to swelling and soreness that peaks a
energy anaerobically. This energy comes from glucose day or two after the event and resolves a few days later,
through a process called glycolysis, in which glucose depending on the severity of the damage. In fact, the
10 is broken down or metabolized into a substance called type of muscle contraction appears to be a key factor in
pyruvate through a series of steps. When the body has the development of DOMS. When a muscle lengthens
plenty of oxygen, pyruvate is shuttled to an aerobic 60 against a load—imagine your flexed arms attempting to
pathway to be further broken down for more energy. But catch a thousand pound weight—the muscle contraction
when oxygen is limited, the body temporarily converts is said to be eccentric. In other words, the muscle is
15 pyruvate into a substance called lactate, which allows actively contracting, attempting to shorten its length,
glucose breakdown—and thus energy production—to but it is failing. These eccentric contractions have been
continue. The working muscle cells can continue this 65 shown to result in more muscle cell damage than is seen
type of anaerobic energy production at high rates for with typical concentric contractions, in which a muscle
one to three minutes, during which time lactate can successfully shortens during contraction against a load.
20 accumulate to high levels.
A side effect of high lactate levels is an increase in Figure 1
the acidity of the muscle cells, along with disruptions of Lactate Levels at Rest and during Exercise
other metabolites. The same metabolic pathways that
permit the breakdown of glucose to energy perform
25 poorly in this acidic environment. On the surface, it
seems counterproductive that a working muscle would
produce something that would slow its capacity for more
work. In reality, this is a natural defense mechanism for
the body; it prevents permanent damage during extreme
30 exertion by slowing the key systems needed to maintain
muscle contraction.
Contrary to popular opinion, lactate or, as it is
often called, lactic acid buildup is not responsible
for the muscle soreness felt in the days following
35 strenuous exercise. Rather, the production of lactate
and other metabolites during extreme exertion results
in the burning sensation often felt in active muscles,
though which exact metabolites are involved remains
unclear. This often painful sensation also gets us to stop
40 overworking the body, thus forcing a recovery period in Adapted from Penny E. Shockett et al., “Plasma Cell-Free
which the body clears the lactate and other metabolites. Mitochondrial DNA Declines in Response to Prolonged Moderate
Aerobic Exercise.” ©2016 by Penny E. Shockett et al.

8
 Figure 2 22
Inflammatory Markers after Exercise
The passage most strongly suggests that the body can
generate energy anaerobically only
A) during rapid breathing.
B) when it has sufficient oxygen.
C) while it breaks down lactate.
D) for a limited amount of time.

23
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer
to the previous question?
A) Lines 1-3 (“As our . . . muscles”)
B) Lines 11-13 (“When . . . energy”)
C) Lines 14-17 (“But when . . . continue”)
D) Lines 17-20 (“The working . . . levels”)

24
The main purpose of the passage is to
A) examine what causes tenderness in muscles after
exercise.
B) describe the process by which glucose is broken
down.
C) question why lactate accumulates in muscle cells.
Adapted from Franchek Drobnic et al., “Reduction of Delayed Onset
Muscle Soreness by a Novel Curcumin Delivery System (Meriva®): D) argue for more research on metabolic pathways.
A Randomised, Placebo-Controlled Trial.” ©2014 by Franchek
Drobnic et al.
25
As used in line 30, “maintain” most nearly means
A) justify.
B) contend.
C) sustain.
D) repair.

9
26 30
The passage most strongly suggests that the effects of Which of the following statements about the
high levels of lactate in the body inflammatory markers represented in figure 2 is true?
A) prevent muscle cells from becoming too acidic. A) The concentration of the markers increased during
B) are commonly misunderstood. the first 24 hours after exercise.

C) bring on muscle soreness a few days later. B) The concentration of the markers decreased during
the first 24 hours after exercise.
D) are generally harmful to the body.
C) The concentration of the markers increased during
the first 2 hours after exercise but then decreased.
27 D) The concentration of the markers decreased during
the first 2 hours after exercise but then increased.
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer
to the previous question?
A) Lines 21-23 (“A side . . . metabolites”) 31
B) Lines 32-35 (“Contrary . . . exercise”) It can most reasonably be inferred from the passage that
C) Lines 35-39 (“Rather . . . unclear”) high levels of the proteins represented in figure 2 are
D) Lines 42-44 (“Researchers . . . later”) most likely correlated with high levels of
A) anaerobic energy production.
B) muscle cell damage.
28
C) lactate buildup.
According to the passage, how do high lactate levels
D) glucose breakdown.
function as a defense mechanism?
A) They prevent people from overworking their bodies.
B) They ensure oxygen reaches the muscles. 32
C) They protect metabolites from disruption. According to the passage, which of the following
D) They improve the functioning of metabolic statements best describes the relationship between the
pathways. information depicted in the two figures and DOMS?
A) Figure 1 depicts information about a factor that
indicates DOMS, and figure 2 does not.
29 B) Figure 2 depicts information about factors that
As used in line 42, “right” most nearly means indicate DOMS, and figure 1 does not.
A) satisfactorily. C) Figures 1 and 2 both depict information about
factors that indicate DOMS.
B) appropriately.
D) Neither figure 1 nor figure 2 depicts information
C) immediately.
about factors that indicate DOMS.
D) exceedingly.

10
 Questions 33-42 are based on the following these ideas would have meant the destruction of self-
passage. government through centralization of government. It
would have meant the undermining of the individual
This passage is adapted from a speech delivered in 1928
by Herbert Hoover, “Rugged Individualism.” Hoover was initiative and enterprise through which our people have
campaigning for the office of president of the United 45 grown to unparalleled greatness.
States as a member of the Republican Party. The Republican Party from the beginning resolutely
turned its face away from these ideas and these war
After the war [the First World War], when practices. A Republican Congress co-operated with
the Republican Party assumed administration of the Democratic administration to demobilize many of
the country, we were faced with the problem of 50 our war activities. At that time the two parties were in
Line determination of the very nature of our national life. accord upon that point. When the Republican Party
5 During one hundred and fifty years we have builded up came into full power it went at once resolutely back to
a form of self-government and a social system which is our fundamental conception of the state and the rights
peculiarly our own. It differs essentially from all others and responsibilities of the individual. Thereby it restored
in the world. It is the American system. It is just as 55 confidence and hope in the American people, it freed and
definite and positive a political social system as has ever stimulated enterprise, it restored the government to its
10 been developed on earth. It is founded upon a particular position as an umpire instead of a player in the economic
conception of self-government in which decentralized game. . . .
local responsibility is the very base. Further than this, There has been revived in this campaign, however,
it is founded upon the conception that only through 60 a series of proposals which, if adopted, would be a
ordered liberty, freedom, and equal opportunity to the long step toward the abandonment of our American
15 individual will his initiative and enterprise spur on the system and a surrender to the destructive operation of
march of progress. And in our insistence upon equality governmental conduct of commercial business. Because
of opportunity has our system advanced beyond all the the country is faced with difficulty and doubt over certain
world. 65 national problems—that is, prohibition, farm relief, and
During the war we necessarily turned to the electrical power—our opponents propose that we must
20 government to solve every difficult economic problem. thrust government a long way into the businesses which
The government having absorbed every energy of give rise to these problems. In effect, they abandon the
our people for war, there was no other solution. For tenets of their own party and turn to state socialism as
the preservation of the state the Federal Government 70 a solution for the difficulties presented by all three. It is
became a centralized despotism which undertook proposed that we shall change from prohibition to the
25 unprecedented responsibilities, assumed autocratic state purchase and sale of liquor. If their agricultural
powers, and took over the business of citizens. To a large relief program means anything, it means that the
degree we regimented our whole people temporarily government shall directly or indirectly buy and sell and
into a socialistic state. However justified in time of war, 75 fix prices of agricultural products. And we are to go into
if continued in peace-time it would destroy not only our the hydro-electric power business. In other words, we
30 American system but with it our progress and freedom are confronted with a huge program of government in
as well. business.
When the war closed, the most vital of all issues There is, therefore, submitted to the American people
both in our own country and throughout the world was 80 a question of fundamental principle. That is: shall we
whether governments should continue their war-time depart from the principles of our American political and
35 ownership and operation of many instrumentalities of economic system, upon which we have advanced beyond
production and distribution. We were challenged with all the rest of the world, in order to adopt methods based
a peace-time choice between the American system on principles destructive of its very foundations?
of rugged individualism and a European philosophy
of diametrically opposed doctrines—doctrines of
40 paternalism and state socialism. The acceptance of

11
33 36
As used in line 7, “peculiarly” most nearly means Based on the passage, in which of the following scenarios
A) incomprehensibly. would Hoover likely support government intervention in
business affairs?
B) strangely.
A) The economy is in a downturn and major
C) distinctly. corporations are verging on bankruptcy.
D) privately. B) The price of wheat has fallen dramatically and
farmers are unable to sell their crops.

34 C) An ally of the United States is at war and requires

donations of food and clothing.
It can reasonably be inferred from the passage that
D) The United States is at war and materials for combat
Hoover credits the United States with which advantage
must be manufactured.
over other nations?
A) The equal strength of the two major US political
parties leads to policies that are beneficial to all of 37
the nation’s citizens..
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer
B) The strength of character of citizens of the United to the previous question?
States allows them to solve seemingly intractable
conflicts quickly during challenging times. A) Lines 19-22 (“During . . . solution”)

C) The many prior political influences that led to the B) Lines 22-26 (“For . . . citizens”)
US form of self-government also worked to give it a C) Lines 32-36 (“When . . . distribution”)
diverse and complex national life. D) Lines 46-48 (“The Republican . . . practices”)
D) The political organization of the United States
embodies a recognition that a nation’s well-being
depends on its ability to provide personal liberty to 38
its citizens.
Based on the passage, which choice states a possible
inconsistency in Hoover’s argument about American
political institutions?
35
A) Although Hoover characterizes foreign political
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer models as potentially injurious to American
to the previous question? institutions, he acknowledges the appropriateness of
A) Lines 1-4 (“After . . . life”) such models during certain times of crisis.
B) Lines 5-8 (“During . . . system”) B) Although Hoover insists that American institutions
C) Lines 10-12 (“It is . . . base”) are weakened by the antagonism between
Democratic and Republican ideologies, he values the
D) Lines 12-16 (“Further . . . progress”) diversity of opinion engendered by the American
two-party system.
C) Although Hoover considers America’s institutions to
have originally grown out of an enterprising spirit,
he argues that this spirit has waned as the United
States has become a more modern society.
D) Although Hoover believes that American institutions
are incompatible with a strong, centralized
government, he advocates for a more robust federal
role in the enforcement of laws.

12
39 42
Hoover indicates in the passage that the continuation In the passage, Hoover implies that recent interactions
of US wartime domestic policies into peacetime would between Republican and Democratic legislators have
result in a shifted from
A) competition among local governments for limited A) effective collaboration on shared goals to stalled
resources. negotiations caused by an inability to compromise.
B) defeat of the Republican Party in national elections. B) cooperation in pursuit of common aims to deep
C) vulnerability to domination by former allies in disagreement about fundamental political principles.
Europe. C) consensus on a range of issues to mutual suspicion
D) lessening of the energy and productivity of US that the opposing party does not have the nation’s
citizens. best interests at heart.
D) collegial goodwill despite disagreements on policy
positions to character attacks and personal hostility.
40
As used in line 79, “submitted” most nearly means
A) posed.
B) yielded.
C) endorsed.
D) registered.

41
Which choice best identifies the function of the
question in lines 79-84 in the context of Hoover’s overall
argument?
A) It asserts that an earlier course of action
recommended by Hoover is both a practical
necessity and a moral obligation.
B) It reiterates Hoover’s claim that the United States’
history as a revolutionary republic makes it superior
to other nations.
C) It affirms Hoover’s belief that nations advance when
their political parties do not take extreme positions
but are willing to compromise.
D) It implies Hoover’s advocacy of a particular position
by positing an alternative that is undesirable by
comparison.

13
 Questions 43-52 are based on the following local and global scales, means that extinction rates could
passages. increase very rapidly in the future.
Passage 1 is adapted from The University of Auckland,
Dr. Costello says that the discovery and naming of
“Naming Species before Extinction.” ©2013 by The species is critical to their conservation. Naming a species
University of Auckland. Passage 2 is adapted from Geoffrey 45 gives formal recognition to its existence, making its
Giller, “Are We Any Closer to Knowing How Many Species conservation far easier.
There Are on Earth?” ©2014 by Scientific American, a
division of Nature America, Inc. Passage 2
Julian Caley, a researcher at the Australian Institute of
Passage 1
Marine Science, and his coauthors looked at published
Claims that most species will go extinct before they
estimates of the total number of species in the world as
can be discovered have been debunked by researchers in
50 well as reckonings of the number of terrestrial insects,
an article published in Science.
terrestrial arthropods, marine species and coral reef-
Line The scientists show that the claims are based on two
dwelling species. Within each group, the researchers
5 key misconceptions: an over-estimation of how many
found that there was no indication that the estimates
species may exist on Earth, and the erroneous belief that
were converging on a number or a range.
the number of taxonomists (people who describe and
55 The main problem, Caley says, is that new estimates
identify species) is declining.
usually fail to take previous work into account. “No one
“Our findings are potentially good news for the
really refers to the information that’s already gained,”
10 conservation of global biodiversity,” says lead author
he says. Caley also points out that many of these past
Associate Professor Mark Costello from The University
estimates used multiple different techniques to arrive at
of Auckland, who published the work with Professor
60 their estimates, including extrapolations based on the
Nigel Stork from Griffith University and Professor Bob
density of species in a study area or the rate at which new
May from Oxford.
species are being discovered and described. But a larger
15 The authors propose that there are 5, plus or minus
problem is that many are just single-number estimates.
3, million species on Earth—far fewer than has been
Normally, he explains, statistical calculations have an
widely believed—of which 1.5 million species have been
65 associated margin of error. This range incorporates the
named. This re-affirms previous estimates by the three
likelihood that the actual number of species is not, say,
authors, which spanned the upper and lower reaches of
five million—it could be five million plus or minus three
20 this range.
million, for a total range of two million to eight million
“Over-estimates of the number of species on Earth
species globally. (This was, in fact, the estimate of one
are self-defeating because they can make attempts
70 paper that included a range.)
to discover and conserve biodiversity appear to be
The team calls for future estimates to include these
hopeless,” says Dr. Costello. “Our work suggests that
ranges and to be statistically based, instead of what
25 this is far from the case. We believe that with just a
they call “simple best guesses.” When taking past work
modest increase in effort in taxonomy and conservation,
into account, the authors wrote, estimates that are not
most species could be discovered and protected from
75 statistically based should carry less weight or possibly be
extinction.”
excluded altogether.
The authors conclude that there have never been
Nigel Stork, a professor at Griffith University, is a
30 so many people describing new species—including
coauthor of the paper that gave the two million to eight
professionals and amateurs, the number may near
million species range. Stork agrees about the need for
50,000. And the community continues to grow, in large
80 improved statistical approaches when making estimates.
part due to the development of science in Asia and South
He takes issue, however, with Caley’s conclusion that
America, regions that are rich in biodiversity and where
there is no convergence of global species estimates.
35 many new species are being discovered.
“[Caley] says that the global species richness estimates
While the research suggests that species are more
haven’t converged,” Stork notes. “I don’t necessarily
likely to be discovered than to go extinct, the authors do
85 agree.” Caley’s paper reaches that conclusion by including
not underplay the seriousness of the threats to species
what Stork calls “sheer guesses.” If only papers with
and their habitats. The combination of over-hunting,
statistically based methodologies are included, then there
40 habitat loss and climate change, now occurring at both
is convergence, as Stork and others wrote in their paper.

14
43 47
As used in lines 1 and 4, “claims” most nearly means In Passage 2, Stork objects to Caley’s claim that
A) interests. A) there is no emerging consensus among global species
B) demands. estimates.

C) assertions. B) species estimates should be presented as a range of

numbers.
D) possessions.
C) estimates based on guesses should carry less weight.
D) new estimates fail to take previous work into
44 account.
Which choice provides the best evidence that the
researchers discussed in Passage 1 are optimistic about
48
the prospects for protecting threatened species?
A) Lines 4-8 (“The scientists . . . declining”) As used in line 50, “reckonings” most nearly means

B) Lines 15-20 (“The authors . . . range”) A) inspections.

C) Lines 25-28 (“We . . . extinction”) B) assessments.

D) Lines 32-35 (“And the . . . discovered”) C) valuations.

D) critiques.

45
49
According to Passage 1, before publishing the study
discussed in the passage, Costello and his coauthors had Which of the following statements best describes a
A) made estimates that fell within the range of two relationship between the two passages?
million to eight million species. A) Passage 2 considers the research discussed in Passage
B) published articles that suggested the number of 1 in the context of other similar studies.
taxonomists was declining. B) Passage 2 discusses a specific instance of a general
C) underestimated the number of species on Earth that phenomenon discussed in Passage 1.
had been discovered and named. C) Passage 2 provides further evidence that serves to
D) suggested species were going extinct at a faster rate strengthen the claims made in Passage 1.
than new species were being discovered. D) Passage 2 refutes the central findings of the study
described in Passage 1.

46
The main purpose of the third paragraph in Passage 2
(lines 71-76) is to
A) make a recommendation for future researchers to
follow based on Caley’s findings.
B) offer additional evidence that supports the findings
of Caley’s research.
C) draw conclusions from Caley’s research data.
D) critique the methodology used by Caley when
designing his study.

15
50 52
Based on the information in the passages, Caley (Passage The researchers described in both passages would most
2) would most likely approve of which of the following likely agree with which of the following statements about
aspects of the study described in Passage 1? estimates of the number of species on Earth?
A) The exclusion of data from previous estimates A) Estimates that are very large will be more likely to
B) The use of multiple techniques to arrive at the encourage conservation efforts than will estimates
estimate that are very small.

C) The presentation of the figure as a single-number B) Estimates that are not statistically based should
estimate be considered less credible than estimates that are
statistically based.
D) The inclusion of a range of values in the estimate
C) Estimates with very broad margins of error should
be considered less accurate than estimates without
51 margins of error.
D) Estimates of individual species are more likely to
Which choice provides the best evidence for the answer
align with previous estimates than are estimates of
to the previous question?
the number of species in the world.
A) Lines 55-58 (“The main . . . says”)
B) Lines 58-62 (“Caley . . . described”)
C) Lines 62-63 (“But . . . estimates”)
D) Lines 71-73 (“The team . . . guesses”)

16
Questions 1-11 are based on the following passage. 1
A) NO CHANGE
Predictive Analytics for Actuaries B) mathematics, statistics,
C) mathematics statistics,
Dorothy Andrews is an actuary—a professional who
D) mathematics, statistics;
calculates and manages risk. Like all actuaries, Andrews uses

knowledge of 1 mathematics; statistics; and economics to

2
make projections about risks, such as whether a company A) NO CHANGE
will lose money on a product or transaction. Andrews has B) herself—
C) herself,
distinguished 2 herself in the field of actuarial science as
D) herself;
a pioneer in the use of predictive analytics, a method that

analyzes large amounts of data to determine the variables that

contribute to the likelihood of particular outcomes.

18
 Actuaries are dedicated to 3 helping insurance companies 3
improve their insurance policies. This is what drew Andrews Which choice most effectively sets up the discussion that
follows in the passage?
to enter the profession more than twenty-five years ago, after
A) NO CHANGE
she earned an MA in mathematical statistics from Boston B) helping banks manage their investments.
University. After doing stints at an insurance company and C) finding practical solutions to real-world problems.
D) guiding companies to determine the best price for
then a bank, 4 the United States Department of Agriculture
new products.
(USDA) offered her the opportunity to employ predictive

analytics, and she eagerly accepted it. “I have always enjoyed 4

the challenge of applying different statistical theories to new A) NO CHANGE
B) she eagerly accepted the opportunity to employ
problems where I didn’t have any past experience,” Andrews
predictive analytics at the United States Department
reflected in a 2017 interview. Her team’s challenge was vital: to of Agriculture (USDA).
C) predictive analytics was employed by her after she
5 examine how predictive analytics is used by USDA.
eagerly accepted the opportunity to work at the
United States Department of Agriculture (USDA).
D) the opportunity to employ predictive analytics at the
United States Department of Agriculture (USDA)
was offered to her, which she eagerly accepted.

5
Which choice most effectively sets up the main idea of
the paragraph that follows?
A) NO CHANGE
B) help ensure the safety of the country’s food supply.
C) assist banks in establishing cost-effective loans.
D) advise insurance companies of the risks farmers
encounter.

19
 At USDA, Andrews was part of a team that developed the 6
Public Health Information System (PHIS). USDA describes A) NO CHANGE
B) are compiling and organizing
PHIS as “a dynamic, comprehensive data analytic system”
C) have compiled and organized
that 6 compile and organize data collected by USDA
D) compiles and organizes
inspectors who 7 monitor food-production facilities. PHIS

provides USDA staff with the information needed to analyze 7

trends in inspection data. This information helps them A) NO CHANGE
B) eyeball
enhance the timeliness and efficiency of inspections. PHIS
C) espy
also enables USDA personnel to access and share inspection
D) check up on
reports in real time. As a result, they can act quickly when

risk factors such as unusual lab results or code violations are 8

detected. Andrews considers her work at USDA a highlight of Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at
the underlined portion?
her career.
A) left and returned to the insurance industry,
After the 2010 launch of PHIS, Andrews 8 left USDA. B) stopped working at USDA and returned to working
again in the insurance industry,
When she left, she returned to working in the insurance
C) left her work on that program at USDA so that she
industry, where she uses predictive analytics to manage could return to insurance,
financial risk to the benefit of her company’s clients. She D) returned to the insurance industry,

also 9 educates actuaries about applications of predictive

9
analytics. In 2017, for instance, she delivered a speech on the
Which choice provides a supporting example of the
contributions Andrews has made to her field?
A) NO CHANGE
B) sees opportunities for ambitious actuaries in any
number of industries.
C) has a background in statistics.
D) adjusts her techniques to appeal to certain categories
of clients.

20
topic at the annual meeting of the International Association 10
of Black Actuaries. That same year, Andrews earned a newly A) NO CHANGE
B) became
created credential: Certified Specialist in Predictive Analytics.
C) becomes
It’s not possible to know whether the use of predictive
D) had become
analytics 10 will become even more widespread in actuarial

science, 11 especially since Andrews no longer works for 11

USDA. Which choice offers the most effective conclusion for the
paragraph and passage?
A) NO CHANGE
B) even though banks and insurance companies have
benefited from advice from actuaries.
C) but consumers, as well as many businesses, should
attempt to understand it.
D) but Andrews’s work increases the likelihood of that
outcome.

21
Questions 12-22 are based on the following passage. 12
Which choice best sets up the quotation that follows in
the paragraph?
Monstrous Mash-ups
A) NO CHANGE
Seth Grahame-Smith’s book Pride and Prejudice and
B) were taken aback by the introduction of supernatural
Zombies is a genre mash-up that polarized literary critics horror elements into a beloved work of literature.
C) praised the effort to modernize a classic but
when it was released in 2009. As the title suggests, Pride and
somewhat inaccessible text.
Prejudice and Zombies reimagines Jane Austen’s 1813 novel D) hailed the novel as one of the first commercially
successful reinventions of a classic work.
Pride and Prejudice by placing Austen’s characters in a world

overrun by zombies. While some saw Grahame-Smith’s

13
book as a way to interest younger readers in Austen’s novels,
A) NO CHANGE
others 12 appreciated the extremely engaging narrative that B) the classic texts
attracted a new generation of readers. “Is nothing sacred?” C) the literary predecessors that came before and
D) the original texts that were used as models
asked one critic. In the world of literary mash-ups, the answer

is likely no. Nevertheless, these genre-blending books may

ultimately lead readers to gain a deeper understanding of 13

their literary predecessors and the classic original texts on

which they are based.

22
 Mash-up novels can illuminate what a source text might 14
only imply. In his 1877 novel Anna Karenina, Leo Tolstoy A) NO CHANGE
B) families’ expectation
depicts his characters’ machine-like devotion to social
C) family’s expectation
convention or to the actual machines of the industrial age. The
D) family’s expectation’s
2010 mash-up Android Karenina makes Tolstoy’s figurative

world of automatons literal by adding a cyborg revolt plot to 15

the original narrative. A) NO CHANGE
B) were
Pride and Prejudice and Zombies, similarly, reveals the
C) had been
underlying tensions in Austen’s novel. Austen’s heroine,
D) will be
Elizabeth Bennet, initially rejects her 14 families expectations

that she marry, fearing her loss of autonomy. Elizabeth’s 16

freedom is further threatened by laws that do not allow A) NO CHANGE
B) her
women to inherit property. In Pride and Prejudice and
C) them
Zombies, these restrictive customs 15 are personified as
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
zombie hordes. The mash-up also represents Elizabeth’s

intellectual strength and refusal to submit to social customs by

making 16 it a fearless zombie hunter.

23
 Though some consider mash-up novels unworthy of 17
serious analysis, 17 many published authors find mash- Which choice best introduces this paragraph?
A) NO CHANGE
ups enjoyable to write. In his research, PhD candidate John
B) others feel mash-ups disrespect their literary
S. Caughey 18 deliberates that by reading a mash-up and predecessors.
the sources on which it is based, students can learn how an C) students are attracted to this genre’s horror elements.
D) educators recognize the value of teaching this genre.
author follows genre conventions—such as the choice to

set a narrative in a rural, isolated location—when writing.

18
Professor Ryan Cordell also uses mash-ups in the classroom
A) NO CHANGE
to a creative end. His students craft their own mash-ups, B) debates
rewriting published fiction in the style of other authors. C) argues
D) combats
This prompts them to uncover subtle 19 similarities and

differences in authors’ styles.

19
A) NO CHANGE
B) similarities and differences,
C) similarities, and differences
D) similarities, and, differences

24
 The sustained popularity of literary mash-ups with today’s 20
readers 20 suggest that this genre is more than a passing fad. A) NO CHANGE
B) suggests
21 Helping readers appreciate literature in new ways and
C) are suggesting
inspiring creativity, mash-ups should be seen as useful tools.
D) have suggested
22 Given the success of Pride and Prejudice and Zombies, all

writers should consider penning a mash-up. 21

At this point, the writer is considering adding the
following sentence.
Sense and Sensibility and Sea Monsters infuses a
classic work with the supernatural aspects of fantasy
and horror.
Should the writer make this addition here?
A) Yes, because it provides a specific example to support
a claim made in the paragraph.
B) Yes, because it reiterates an important claim about
mash-ups mentioned earlier in the passage.
C) No, because it contradicts the main argument of the
passage.
D) No, because it introduces unnecessary new
information.

22
The writer wants a conclusion that restates the main
argument of the passage. Which choice best accomplishes
this goal?
A) NO CHANGE
B) Writers should do research when exploring
the option of combining a literary classic and a
supernatural story.
C) Mash-ups could create challenges for students with
limited knowledge of a particular genre.
D) Far from spoiling the originals, they can
be enlightening, if occasionally monstrous,
supplements.

25
Questions 23-33 are based on the following passage. 23
A) NO CHANGE
The Place of Geography B) ecologists, or
C) ecologists,
[1] As traditionally defined, the discipline of geography
D) ecology,
explores the physical properties of Earth’s surface and the

human societies spread across it. [2] In his 2010 address to

24
the Association of American Geographers (AAG), Thomas The writer wants to add the following sentence to this
paragraph.
J. Baerwald of the National Science Foundation lauded
However, this definition fails to account for
geography’s embrace of “diversity, adaptability, multiple geography’s most salient characteristic: its
interdisciplinary nature.
perspectives, and an ever-growing range of approaches.”
To make this paragraph most logical, the sentence should
[3] Geographers routinely collaborate with scholars be placed
and professionals in other fields— 23 some in ecology, A) after sentence 1.
B) after sentence 2.
sociologists, epidemiologists, and political scientists, to name
C) after sentence 3.
a few. [4] While interdisciplinarity can raise concerns about
D) after sentence 4.
geography’s survival as a distinct discipline, it’s the key to the

field’s continued success. 24

26
 Recent AAG Presidential Achievement Award 25 winners 25
25 have made significant contributions to their field. The Which choice best sets up the examples that follow in the
paragraph?
2015 winner Diana Liverman works with legislators to
A) NO CHANGE
enhance sustainability in the United States and Mexico; 2016 B) represent a variety of academic institutions.
winner Audrey Kobayashi helps community activists increase C) exemplify geographers’ wide-ranging endeavors.
D) are deeply committed to advancing the public’s
housing options in Vancouver; and 2017 winner Roger Downs
understanding of geography.
26 has a PhD from the University of Bristol. This diversity

is essential to 27 geography. Demonstrating its relevance to 26

other fields and to societies worldwide. Which choice provides a third example that is most
consistent with the other two examples in the sentence?
A) NO CHANGE
B) is a past winner of the Pennsylvania Geographical
Society’s Distinguished Geographer Award.
C) is the author of several publications about
environmental cognition.
D) partners with psychologists in Pennsylvania to study
how children apply spatial concepts.

27
A) NO CHANGE
B) geography, demonstrating
C) geography demonstrating,
D) geography demonstrating and

27
 It’s perhaps inevitable, 28 subsequent to its fundamental 28
interdisciplinarity, that geography is experiencing something A) NO CHANGE
B) unlike
of an identity crisis, as reflected in name changes at college
C) regardless of
and university geography departments. In a 2017 article,
D) given
Oklahoma State University’s Amy E. Frazier and Thomas

A. Wikle examined the renaming phenomenon, identifying 29

eighty-nine US and Canadian 29 institutions whose A) NO CHANGE
B) institutions, whose geography departments were
geography departments were renamed between 1990 and
renamed,
2014. The most common change was to include “environment” C) institutions whose geography departments were
renamed,
in the department name. Some departments kept “geography”
D) institutions, whose geography departments were
but added “geology” to their names as a result of department renamed
mergers. Many 30 decommissioned the word “geography”

altogether, adopting names like “earth and environment.” 30

A) NO CHANGE
B) junked
C) dropped
D) ditched

28
 Fortunately, though, Frazier and Wikle also found that 31
31 their research showed geography was taught in these A) NO CHANGE
B) the subject of geography continued to still be taught
renamed departments. 32 However, the responses of the
C) geography as a topic was one that, they discovered,
geographers surveyed were “overwhelmingly positive with teachers were still teaching
respect to the impacts of name changes on their department D) geography was still being taught

and, more broadly, on the discipline of geography.”

32
Baerwald concluded his address by extolling geographers’
A) NO CHANGE
interdisciplinary pursuits and 33 securing those assembled
B) Moreover,
that “we can and will continue to . . . engage in the same C) Thus,
kinds of unbounded inquiry with others that first attracted D) Conversely,

us to geography.” Thanks in large part to those engagements, 33

geography is well positioned to thrive in the future. A) NO CHANGE
B) insuring
C) assuring
D) ensuring

29
Questions 34-44 are based on the following passage and 34
supplementary material.
A) NO CHANGE
Acupuncture’s Effectiveness B) the locations of which
C) the acupoints’ locations
Acupuncture, an ancient Chinese technique in which
D) their locations
small needles are applied to specific “acupoints” on the body,

has found a role in many Western countries as an alternative

35
means of treating a variety of health conditions, including Which choice provides the most effective transition from
the information in the previous paragraph?
back pain and headaches. The effectiveness of acupuncture
A) NO CHANGE
in reducing pain has long been attributed to the stimulation
B) In an attempt to answer these questions,
of these acupoints, 34 the locations of them were identified C) After identifying patients who might benefit from
acupuncture,
thousands of years ago in China. How does acupuncture
D) Focusing on the role of protein receptors,
relieve pain?Are the acupoints the main factor?

35 Having established the acupoints’ locations,

36
researchers at the University of Michigan evaluated the effects A) NO CHANGE
of acupuncture on patients with chronic pain symptoms. B) Therefore,
C) In addition,
36 For example, chronic pain is often associated with
D) DELETE the underlined portion, adjusting the
signaling problems in a patient’s endorphin capitalization as needed.

30
neurotransmitters, which normally block pain by binding to 37
specific protein receptors found on the surface of neurons in A) NO CHANGE
B) treatment: with needles inserted at known acupoints,
the brain. Over a four-week period, patients were given nine
C) treatment, with needles inserted at known acupoints,
sessions of either a traditional acupuncture 37 treatment,
D) treatment with needles inserted at known acupoints:
with needles inserted at known acupoints or a “sham”

acupuncture treatment, in which needles were placed in 38

incorrect locations. The researchers compared how the two A) NO CHANGE
B) receptor’s success in binding to endorphins in
treatments affected protein 38 receptors’ success in binding to
different brain regions.
endorphins in different brain regions. C) receptors’ success in binding to endorphins in
different brain region’s.
After the monthlong experiment, positron emission
D) receptors success in binding to endorphin’s in
tomography (PET) brain scans 39 were used. The PET different brain region’s.
scans revealed that the binding potential of the receptors
39
Which choice most effectively combines the sentences at
the underlined portion?
A) were used and they revealed
B) that were used revealed
C) were used for revealing
D) revealed

31
to endorphins had improved in 40 both those patients 40
treated with traditional acupuncture and those treated Which choice is best supported by the information in the
graph?
with sham acupuncture. Binding potential is a measure of
A) NO CHANGE
both the density of receptors on neurons and the receptors’ B) patients treated with traditional acupuncture but not
in those treated with sham acupuncture.
ability to attract substances to bind to them. The prefrontal
C) patients treated with both traditional and sham
cortex, cingulate cortex, and caudate regions of traditional acupuncture.
acupuncture patients all showed a 41 5 percent or greater D) patients treated with sham acupuncture but not in
those treated with traditional acupuncture.
decrease in receptor binding potential compared to that

measured four weeks earlier. In contrast, many brain regions

41
of participants receiving the sham treatment showed small The writer wants to use accurate information from the
graph to highlight the effectiveness of a treatment. Which
decreases in receptor binding potential.
choice best accomplishes this goal?
A) NO CHANGE
Effects of Traditional and Sham Acupuncture
B) 10 percent or greater increase
on Receptor Binding Potential after 4 Weeks
C) 15 percent or greater decrease
D) 25 percent or greater increase

Adapted from Richard E. Harris et al., “Traditional Chinese Acupuncture

and Placebo (Sham) Acupuncture Are Differentiated by Their Effects on
p-Opioid Receptors (MORs).” ©2009 by Elsevier.

32
 The study helps explain the pain-blocking mechanism of 42
traditional acupuncture. However, the study 42 produced A) NO CHANGE
B) produced another
and yielded another additional finding that ran counter to
C) yielded a second
the researchers’ assumptions. All the patients in the study—
D) yielded an
whether treated with traditional acupuncture or sham

acupuncture—showed significant reductions in pain ratings. 43

If the researchers are correct that traditional acupuncture A) NO CHANGE
B) for
provides pain relief through receptor-endorphin binding,
C) and
then there must be a separate mechanism 43 by which sham
D) DELETE the underlined portion.
acupuncture relieves pain. Researchers’ next task is to identify

44 that; only then can acupuncture’s effectiveness be fully 44

explained. A) NO CHANGE
B) that pain;
C) that mechanism;
D) that treatment;

33
34
1 3
Presently, the Moon is at an average distance of 384,400 If 6x + 12 = 3 , which of the following must be true?
kilometers (km) from Earth. The average distance of
the Moon from Earth increases by approximately 38 km A) 6x = 9
every one million years. Which equation best models the
relationship between the average distance of the Moon B) 6x + 6 = 3
from Earth d , in km, and the time t , in millions of
C) 2x + 4 = 1
years, from the present?
2
A) d = 38(t + 384,400) D) 3x + 6 = 3
B) d = 38t + 384,400
C) d = 38(t − 384,400)
D) d = 38t − 384,400

4
|3 − x| = 0
If x is the solution to the given equation, what is the
2 value of −3 + x ?

A = bh A) −3

The given equation relates the area A , height h , and B) 0

base length b of a parallelogram. Which equation gives C) 3
the height in terms of the base length and the area? D) 9
A
A) h = b
b
B) h = A

C) h = Ab

D) h = A − b

35
5 7
Which of the following is equivalent to 7w(p + 5) ? P + 0.014P = 507
A) p + 35w At the start of the year, Malik opened a bank account
B) 7wp + 5 with P dollars. During that year, Malik made no
additional deposits or withdrawals. At the end of the year,
C) 7wp + 35 the account earned interest and increased to $507. Which
D) 7wp + 35w of the following is the best interpretation of 0.014P in
this context?
A) The amount of interest earned
B) The amount invested at the start of the year
C) The total amount in the account at the end of the
year
D) The rate at which the investment earned interest
6 during the year

In triangle ABC , point E lies on line segment BC and

point D lies on line segment AB . What is the sine of
angle C ?
5
A) 13
B) 2 b 13 l
5

12
C) 13

D) 2 b 13 l
12

36
8
The speed of sound in dry air v , in meters per second (m/s), can
be approximated by the equation v = 331.4 + 0.6T , where T is the
air temperature in degrees Celsius (°C). Which graph models the
relationship between T and v ?

A) B)

C) D)

37
9 10

What is an equation of the line shown?

The graph of y = f (x) is shown. If f (a) = 0 , which of the A) 3x − 2y = 9
following could be the values of a ? B) 3x + 2y = −5
A) −1 C) x − y = 9
B) −2 D) x + y = −5
C) −3
D) −4

11

The function f is defined by f (x) = b 4 l .What is the

1 -x

value of f (2) ?
1
A) 16
1
B) 2
C) 2

D) 16

38
12 14
x2 − 2x − 2 = 0 3x − y = 2
What is a solution to the given equation? The given equation is one of the two equations in a
A) −2 + 6 linear system. The system has no solution. Which of the
following could be the other equation in the system?
B) −1 + 3
A) 3x − y = 2
C) 1 + 3
B) 3x − 2y = 4
D) 2 + 6
C) 6x − 2y = 2
D) 6x − 2y = 4

13
Which expression is NOT a factor of x4 − 5x2 + 4 ?
15
A) x + 2
Circle A: x2 + y2 = 49
B) x − 1 Circle B: x2 + (y − 5)2 = 49
C) x2 − 4 In the xy-plane, which translation of the graph of circle A
D) x2 + 1 would result in the graph of circle B?
A) 5 units right
B) 5 units left
C) 5 units up
D) 5 units down

39
40
16 19
In the xy-plane, the y-intercept of the graph of 5x − 2y = −11
y = 700 ∙ (3)x is (0, c) , where c is a constant. What is the 2x + 5y = 13
value of c ? The solution to the given system of equations is (x, y) .
What is the value of y ?

17
The function n is defined by n(x) = 6x − 3 . What is the 20
value of n(4) ? The area of a triangle is 8 square units. A second triangle
has side lengths 5 times those of the first triangle. What is
the area, in square units, of the second triangle? (The area
of a triangle with base b and height h is equal to
1
2 bh .)

18
In the xy-plane, the graph of the quadratic function f is
a parabola with vertex (2, 3) . The function g is defined
by g(x) = f (x) + 2 , and the graph of g has vertex (h, k) .
What is the value of h ?

41
42
1 3
The table shows the mean diameter, in kilometers (km), For the linear function f , the graph of y = f (x) in the
for Saturn’s 8 largest moons. 1
xy-plane has a slope of 4 and passes through the point
(0, 3) . Which equation defines f (x) ?
Moon name Mean diameter (km)
1
Titan 5,510 A) f (x) = 4 x−3
Rhea 1,530 1 3
B) f (x) = 4 x− 4
Iapetus 1,460
1 1
Dione 1,120 C) f (x) = 4 x− 3
Tethys 1,060 1
D) f (x) = 4 x+3
Enceladus 498
Mimas 392
Hyperion 286

The mean diameter of Earth’s moon is 3,476 km. What

fraction of Saturn’s 8 largest moons have a mean diameter
that is greater than the mean diameter of Earth’s moon?
4
1
A) 9 The distance from Earth to the star Proxima Centauri
1 is approximately 1.30 parsecs. Which of the following
B) 8 is the best approximation of the distance from Earth to
7 Proxima Centauri, in light-years? (Use 1 parsec = 3.26
C) 8 light-years.)
8
D) 9 A) 1.96
B) 2.51
C) 4.24
D) 4.56

2
In 2015, the population of a certain city was 80,000. Each
year after 2015, the population increases by 1,000. Which
function type best models the population as a function of
time?
A) Decreasing exponential
B) Increasing exponential
C) Decreasing linear
D) Increasing linear

43
5
Questions 7 and 8 refer to the following
The line graph shows the number of customers at a coffee
information.
shop for its first 10 days since opening.
In a 2016 survey, 200 school administrators were asked
about changes at their schools. The administrators indicated
whether or not their schools made curriculum changes and
whether or not their schools made technology changes. The
table summarizes the responses.

Technology No Total
change technology
change
Curriculum changes 30 80 110
No curriculum change 40 50 90
Total 70 130 200
For how many of these 10 days did the coffee shop have
fewer customers than it did on the previous day?
7
A) 1
What percentage of the administrators responded “no
B) 2
curriculum changes”?
C) 3
A) 45%
D) 4
B) 55%
C) 65%
D) 100%

6
There are 70.0 grams of dissolved salt in a certain 2,000.0
gram sample of seawater. The amount of dissolved salt is
p% of the sample of seawater by mass. What is the value
of p ?
A) 3.5
B) 96.5
C) 103.6
D) 2,857

44
8
Which of the following bar graphs displays the data shown in the table?

A) B)

C) D)

45
9 11

Black Red Total The scatterplot shows the relationship between two
variables, x and y . A line of best fit for the data is also
Pen 15 5 20 shown.
Pencil 8 3 11
Total 23 8 31

The table shows the distribution of type and color of

items that are in a jar. If a pen is selected at random from
the jar, what is the probability that the pen is red?
A) 0.05
B) 0.20
C) 0.25
D) 0.75

For how many of the data points does the line of best fit
predict a greater y-value than the actual y-value?
A) 4
10 B) 5
If 5x + 6 = 15 , what is the value of 10x ? C) 6
A) 1.8 D) 9
B) 2.4
C) 9
D) 18

46
12 14
What is an equation of the line that passes through the
points (1, 2) and (3, 6) in the xy-plane?
1
A) y = 2 x
1 1
B) y = 2 x + 2

C) y = 2x

D) y = 2x + 2

What is the slope of the line shown in the graph?

4 15
A) − 3
At the beginning of a certain day, a company’s stock
3 price was $29. By the end of that day, the stock price had
B) − 4
decreased by p% . Which expression represents the stock
3
C) 4 price, in dollars, at the end of that day?
4
D) 3 A) 29p

B) 29(1 − p)

C) (29p)(100)
p
D) 29(1 − 100 )

13
The graph of y > x in the xy-plane contains the point
(a, 2a) , where a is a constant. What must be true about
the value of a ?
A) It is zero.
B) It is positive.
C) It is negative.
D) There is no possible value of a .

47
16
Questions 18 and 19 refer to the following
At the start of an experiment, approximately 100 million
information.
bacteria were present in a liquid growth solution. Over
the next 6 hours, the number of bacteria approximately d(t) = 0.88t + 149.60
doubled every hour. Which of the following exponential
On August 20, 1997, NASA launched the Voyager 2
equations best models the relationship between the
spacecraft from Earth. The function d models the distance,
number of bacteria P , in millions, and the amount of
in millions of kilometers, that Voyager 2 was from the Sun
time t , in hours, after the start of the experiment, where
t days after it was launched, for t ≤ 300 .
t≤6?
A) P = 100 + 2t
18
B) P = 2(100)t
Which of the following is the best interpretation of the
C) P = 100(2)t
value 0.88 in this context?
D) P = (200)t
A) The estimated distance, in millions of kilometers,
that Voyager 2 was from Earth when launched
B) The estimated distance, in millions of kilometers,
that Voyager 2 was from the Sun when launched
C) The estimated increase per hour in Voyager 2’s
distance, in millions of kilometers, from the Sun
D) The estimated increase per day in Voyager 2’s
17 distance, in millions of kilometers, from the Sun

In the xy-plane above, points A and B are on the circle

with center O . What is length of AB ?
A) 5
B) 6
C) 2 5
D) 5 2

48
19 20
Which of the following is the graph of y = d(t) in the
ty-plane?
A)

The graph of the function f is shown. Which of the

following could define f ?
A) f (x) = −x2 − 2x − 3
B) B) f (x) = −x2 + 4x + 3
C) f (x) = x2 − 2x − 3
D) f (x) = x2 + 4x + 3

C)

D)

49
 22
Questions 21 and 22 refer to the following
It took the group 2 days to complete the drive through
information.
Florida, Georgia, and South Carolina. They traveled twice
A group of friends started a road trip in Miami, Florida, and as many miles the first day as the second day. What is the
drove approximately 1,524 miles north along Interstate 95 (I- distance, in miles, that the group traveled the first day?
95). They ended their trip in Houlton, Maine. The table shows A) 231
the approximate distance, in miles, the friends drove on I-95
B) 347
in the first three states of their road trip.
C) 462
D) 693
State Distance traveled (miles)
Florida 382
Georgia 112
South Carolina 199

21
During the first x miles of driving in Georgia, the
group traveled an average of 8 miles per hour due to
slow traffic. For the rest of the drive in Georgia, they
traveled an average of 55 miles per hour. The total drive
time in Georgia was 2.25 hours. Which of the following
equations represents this situation?
1
A) 8(112 − x) + 55x = 2.25
1
B) 8x + 55(112 − x) = 2.25
1 1
C) 8 (112 − x) + 55 (x) = 2.25
1 1
D) 8 (x) + 55 (112 − x) = 2.25

50
23 24
Daily Electric Fan Sales C(t) = 3.8 ∙ (1.045)t
The cost C(t) , in cents, of a postage stamp t years after
1950 can be modeled by the given exponential function,
where 0 ≤ t ≤ 64 . What is the best interpretation of the
value 3.8 in this context?
A) The model estimates that the cost of a postage stamp
was 3.8 cents in 1950.
B) The model estimates that the cost of a postage stamp
was 3.8 cents in 2014.
C) The model estimates that the cost of a postage stamp
increased by 3.8 cents each year from 1950 to 2014.
D) The model estimates that the cost of a postage stamp
increased by 3.8% each year from 1950 to 2014.

The dot plots shown summarize the daily sales of electric

fans at a store for the 25 days the store was open in April
and June, respectively. Which of the following was (were)
the same for daily sales in April and in June? 25

I. Mean
II. Standard deviation
A) I only
B) II only
C) Both I and II
D) Neither I nor II

The scatterplot for a data set is shown in the xy-plane

above. Of the following equations, which best models the
data?
A) y = 20 ∙ (1.2)x
B) y = 60 ∙ (1.2)x
C) y = 20 ∙ (0.8)x
D) y = 60 ∙ (0.8)x

51
26 28
x2 + k = 0 Group A and Group B each consist of 60 people. All the
In the quadratic equation shown, k is a constant. For people in each group were asked to rate a product on a
which of the following values of k will the equation have scale from 1 through 6. The results are summarized in the
no real solutions? frequency table.

A) −2
B) −1 Frequency
Rating
Group A Group B
C) 0
1 11 8
D) 1
2 15 13
3 16 11
4 11 10
5 3 11
6 4 7

27 Which statement correctly compares the Group A

median rating to the Group B median rating?
(x + 2) 2 - 5
x+2 A) The Group A median rating is equal to the Group B
Which of the following is equivalent to the given median rating.
expression? B) The Group A median rating is greater than the
Group B median rating.
A) x − 3
C) The Group A median rating is less than the Group B
x2 - 1 median rating.
B) x + 2
5 D) There is not enough information to compare the
C) 1 − x + 2 median ratings.
5
D) x + 2 − x + 2

52
29 30
Cube A has a side length of x meters. The volume of
Cube B is 8 times as large as the volume of Cube A. What
is the side length of Cube B, in meters, in terms of x ?
(The volume of a right rectangular prism is equal to
lwh , where l and w are the length and width of the
base, respectively, and h is the height.)
A) 2x
B) 3x
C) 8x
D) 512x

A teacher uses a classroom projector to display an image

on a flat surface. The graph shows the relationship
between the area A(d) , in square feet, of the image and
the distance d , in feet, of the projector from the surface.
Which of the following best represents this relationship?
18
A) A(d) = 5 d2
5
B) A(d) = 18 d2

C) A(d) = b 5 d l
18 2

D) A(d) = b 18 d l
5 2

53
54
31 34
Catie is planning a boating trip and needs to bring one x(x − 10)(x + 8)(x − 4)2 = 0
2.5-gallon container of drinking water for every 2 days What is the largest value of x that satisfies the given
of the trip. If she is planning an 8-day trip, how many equation?
containers of drinking water will she need?

35
32
The US peck and US bushel are standard units of dry Length of rule Number of
1 in years Chinese monarchs
volume. One US peck is equivalent to 4 US bushel. How
1 4
many US bushels are equivalent to 48 US pecks? 2 2
3 3
4 2
5 2
6 7
7 1
8 2
33
9 1
A bag of trail mix contains a total of 900 calories. There
10 1
are 6 servings in the bag and each serving has a mass of
28 grams. What is the number of calories per gram, to the
nearest hundredth of a gram, of trail mix? From 223 BCE to 906 CE, there were 25 Chinese
monarchs whose length of rule lasted from 1 to 10 years.
The table shows the distribution of the monarchs by
length of rule. What is the median length of rule, in years,
of the 25 monarchs?

55
36 38
9x − 6 = ax + 4 5(x + y) = 50
In the given equation, a is a positive integer constant less 2x + 5y = 10
than 10. The equation has exactly one solution. What is The solution to the given system of equations is (x, y) .
the greatest possible value of a ? What is the value of 3x ?

37
A circle in the xy-plane has its center at (1, −7) and has a
radius of 3. An equation of this circle is
x2 + y2 + ax + by + c = 0 . What is the value of c ?

56