Practice Test 2

Section I
The Exam

AP® Environmental
Science Exam
SECTION I: Multiple-Choice Questions

DO NOT OPEN THIS BOOKLET UNTIL YOU ARE TOLD TO DO SO.

Instructions

At a Glance Section I of this examination contains 100 multiple-choice questions. Fill in only
the ovals for numbers 1 through 100 on your answer sheet.
Total Time
1 hour and 30 minutes
Number of Questions Indicate all of your answers to the multiple-choice questions on the answer sheet.
100 No credit will be given for anything written in this exam booklet, but you may use
Percent of Total Grade the booklet for notes or scratch work. After you have decided which of the suggested
60% answers is best, completely fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet. Give
Writing Instrument only one answer to each question. If you change an answer, be sure that the previous
Pencil required mark is erased completely. Here is a sample question and answer.

Sample Question Sample Answer

Chicago is a A B C D E
(A) state
(B) city
(C) country
(D) continent
(E) village

Use your time effectively, working as quickly as you can without losing accuracy.
Do not spend too much time on any one question. Go on to other questions and
come back to the ones you have not answered if you have time. It is not expected
that everyone will know the answers to all the multiple-choice questions.

About Guessing

Many candidates wonder whether or not to guess the answers to questions about
which they are not certain. Multiple choice scores are based on the number of
questions answered correctly. Points are not deducted for incorrect answers, and
no points are awarded for unanswered questions. Because points are not deducted
for incorrect answers, you are encouraged to answer all multiple-choice questions.
On any questions you do not know the answer to, you should eliminate as many
choices as you can, and then select the best answer among the remaining choices.

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346 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam

 Section I

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Section I
Time—90 minutes
Part A

Directions: Each set of lettered choices below refers to the numbered questions or statements immediately following it. Select
the one lettered choice that best answers each question or best fits each statement and then fill in the corresponding oval on
the answer sheet. A choice may be used once, more than once, or not at all in each set.

Questions 1-5 refer to the following kinds of species Questions 11-15 refer to the following environmental
interactions. disasters.

(A) Parasitism (A) Chernobyl, Ukraine

(B) Mutualism (B) Love Canal, New York
(C) Competition (C) Bhopal, India
(D) Predator/prey (D) London, England
(E) Commensalism (E) Chesapeake Bay, Maryland

1. Cheetahs and antelope 11. When this chemical plant exploded, thousands of people
died from inhaling pesticides.
2. Mycorrhizae and plant roots
12. Chemicals leaking out of a dump caused leukemia in
3. Humans and tapeworms local children.

4. A hawk eats a mouse 13. The burning of coal produced smog so thick that many
people died of respiratory illnesses.
5. Two birds fight over a nest
14. This estuary is eutrophied, and many plant and animal
species are now unable to live there.
Questions 6-10 refer to the following kinds of federally
owned lands.
15. An explosion in a nuclear reactor spread radioactive
(A) National Forests materials over thousands of hectares in this region.
(B) National Resource Lands
(C) National Wildlife Refuges
(D) National Parks
(E) National Wilderness Preservation Areas

6. These lands are reserved for recreation and fishing,

but not for commercial use.

7. These multiuse lands can be logged and fished.

8. These lands provide a domestic energy and mineral

supply.

9. Motor vehicles are banned from these hunting and

fishing areas.

10. These habitats provide protected breeding areas for

many animals.

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Practice Test 2 | 347

 Section I

Questions 16-20 refer to the following waste disposal Questions 26-30 refer to the following forms of air pol-
methods. lution.

(A) Landfill (A) O3

(B) Incineration (B) SO2
(C) Chemical treatment (C) Pollen
(D) Biological treatment (D) Soot
(E) Discharge into sewers and rivers (E) Hydrocarbons

16. This method can produce leachate. 26. This gas originates from the combustion of coal.

17. This method reduces the acidity of a solution. 27. Produced by plants, this can cause allergic reactions.

18. This method can release toxic gases. 28. This can be destroyed by CFCs.

19. This method can cause high biological oxygen demand 29. One source of this is spilled gasoline.
(BOD).
30. Small particles that can irritate both the eyes and lungs.
20. This method involves the use of bacteria and fungi.

Questions 21-25 refer to the following renewable energy

sources.

(A) Solar energy

(B) Hydrogen fuel cells
(C) Tidal energy
(D) Geothermal energy
(E) Wind energy

21. This source can harm migratory birds.

22. Water and electricity are products of this source.

23. This source of energy relies on water flowing in and out

of bays.

24. This source converts radiant energy into heat or

electricity.

25. This source utilizes heat or steam from deep

underground.

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348 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam

 Section I

Part B

Directions: Each of the questions or incomplete statements below is followed by five suggested answers or completions. Select
the one that is best in each case and then fill in the corresponding oval on the answer sheet.

31. Exposure to which of the following noises would cause 34. The shrinking of the Aral Sea and the ecological
the most damage to a person’s hearing? disaster that followed was mainly caused by
(A) A vacuum cleaner (A) the diversion of the sea’s two feeder rivers for
(B) A chain saw agricultural use
(C) A factory (B) withdrawing groundwater from the area
(D) The firing of a rifle (C) a major earthquake that hit the region
(E) A lawn mower (D) the loss of swamplands in the area
(E) the massive use of pesticides
32. The phrase that best defines population density is
35. Which of the following is a negative impact of
(A) the number of individuals in a certain geographic
overfishing a particular species of edible fish?
area
(B) the rate at which a population increases I. Loss of so many fish that there is no longer a
(C) the maximum number of individuals that a habitat breeding stock
can sustain II. The removal of non-target species
(D) the time it takes for a population to increase to III. The reduction of other species that rely on the
carrying capacity edible species as food.
(E) one way that populations can be grouped in a (A) I only
certain geographic area (B) II only
(C) I and II only
(D) II and III only
A
(E) I, II, and III
B 36. Which type of irrigation results in the greatest amount
of water lost to evaporation?
I. Flood irrigation
Production

II. Drip irrigation

III. Low-pressure central pivot irrigation
C
(A) I only
(B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
Time
(E) II and III only

33. The graph above represents possible depletion curves

of a nonrenewable resource. Curve C best describes the
resource as it
(A) has just been discovered and no technology exists
to use the resource
(B) is quickly used up and is not recycled
(C) is newly discovered and in high demand
(D) has expanding reserves and consumption is
reduced
(E) has some recycling and no reserves are being
discovered

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Practice Test 2 | 349

 Section I

Questions 37-40 refer to the following graph. 41. The long-term storage of phosphorus and sulfur is in
which of the following forms?
(A) Bacteria
(B) Rocks
C (C) Water
(D) Plants
K (E) Atmosphere
1 D
42. The movement of sections of the earth’s lithosphere is
B known as
(A) mass depletion
A (B) plate tectonics
(C) background extinction
2 (D) migration
(E) emigration

37. The population is growing at its highest rate at which 43. Which of the following best defines the Green
letter? Revolution?
(A) A (A) An international effort to stop the construction of
(B) K nuclear power plants
(C) D (B) A group whose goal is to improve how nations
(D) B affect the environment
(E) C (C) Increasing the yield of farmland by using more
fertilizer, better irrigation, and faster growing
38. Which of the following phrases best describes line K in crops
the graph above? (D) A method of getting more people to recycle paper
(A) The rate of population growth and cardboard
(B) The carrying capacity of the environment (E) A method that makes a viable soil conditioner by
(C) The time it takes for the population to double in using household waste
size
44. Which of the following best defines the phrase “infant
(D) The number of individuals in the population at the
mortality rate”?
beginning of the study
(E) The birth rate of the population (A) How many children live in each square hectare
(B) The number of births in a population
39. The best label for the axis labeled 2 in the graph (C) The number of infant deaths per 1,000 people aged
above is zero to one
(A) time (D) The difference between the birth rate and the death
(B) population number rate in a population
(C) logistic growth rate (E) The total number of children in a population
(D) environmental resistance
45. The release of chemicals from underground storage
(E) birth rate
tanks is most likely to pollute which of the following?
40. Which of the following statements is true concerning (A) A landfill
the events occurring at point D in the graph above? (B) The atmosphere
(A) Environmental resistance is high. (C) The ecotone
(B) Environmental resistance is low. (D) Aquifers
(C) The population will continue to fall. (E) The hydrosphere
(D) The prey population will soon rise.
(E) The population is above its carrying capacity.

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350 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam

 Section I

46. The United States Congress recently failed to ratify 48. Which of the following best describes the goals of the
which of the following international agreements that is CAFE standards?
designed to control the release of carbon dioxide?
(A) Reduce pollution by coal fired power plants
(A) CITES agreement (B) Increase habitat diversity in certain areas
(B) Kyoto Protocol (C) Improve the quality of air around cities
(C) Montreal Protocol (D) Protect certain endangered species
(D) Clean Air Act (E) Improve the fuel efficiency of automobiles in the
(E) RCRA United States

47. Which of the following is the most sustainable way to 49. Which of the following best describes the use of DDT?
ensure sufficient energy for the future?
(A) It supplies needed nitrogen to plants
(A) Find more fossil fuels (B) It kills weeds and unwanted plants
(B) Develop more effective solar power generators (C) It decreases the amount of pollution from car
(C) Build more nuclear reactors exhaust
(D) Reduce waste and inefficiency in electricity use (D) It is a chemical involved in photosynthesis
and transmission (E) It is an insecticide
(E) Increase the amount of electricity generated using
natural gas

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Practice Test 2 | 351

 Section I

Questions 50-52 refer to the following world population graph.

12
11
10 Total population
9
8
Population (billions)

7 Less developed countries

6
5
4
3
2
1 More developed countries

1950 2000 2050 2100 2200

50. Which of the answers below best describes the change 52. According to the graph, in the year 2000 the less
in the population of less developed countries between developed countries had a population that was how
the years 1950 and 2050? many times bigger than the developed countries?
(A) There will be an increase of approximately 1 (A) 12 times
billion. (B) 8 times
(B) There will be an increase of approximately 4 (C) 4 times
billion. (D) 1.5 times
(C) There will be an increase of approximately 10 (E) 0.5 times
billion.
(D) There will be a decline of 1 billion.
(E) There will be a decline of 6 billion.

51. According to the graph, the total population of the world

is most likely to increase due to which of the following?
(A) The rise in populations of developed countries
(B) The continued emigration of people
(C) The use of more fossil fuels
(D) The rise in populations of developing countries
(E) An increase in the amount of food produced in less
arable land

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352 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam

 Section I

Fresh Water Usage, United States 2000 56. Which of the following is the root cause of habitat loss;
especially in less developed nations?
Domestic use
(A) road building
1%
(B) poverty
(C) conversion of forest to farmland
(D) capturing exotic animals for resale
(E) a warm, moist habitat
Power plant 57. Per capita income can best be defined as
cooling Irrigation
46% 46% (A) how long the average person lives
(B) the concentration of people in a city
(C) the total amount of income in a country
(D) how much money each person makes
(E) how many people are worth more than one million
Mining dollars
Industrial
1%
6% 58. The motion of tectonic plates accounts for most of
Earth’s
53. According to the diagram above, cooking, showering
and using toilets accounted for approximately what (A) CO2 emissions
percent of total water use? (B) formation of rivers
(C) change of seasons
(A) 92 percent (D) volcanic activity
(B) 46 percent (E) oil formations
(C) 40 percent
(D) 6 percent 59. “K” and “r” are used to describe which of the following
(E) 1 percent aspects of populations?

54. One result of increased troposphere temperatures that (A) The place in a habitat where these organisms live
are observed today is (B) The number of males and females in the population
(C) The number of predators each population has
(A) an increase in skin cancers in people (D) The reproductive tactics used by populations
(B) an increase in the average global sea level of (E) The time it takes a population to double
10 to 20 cm
(C) more radon seepage into people’s homes 60. Convectional heating and cooling of the atmosphere
(D) a deeper permafrost in Arctic regions transfers which of the following to other parts of the
(E) lakes and ponds remaining frozen longer into the earth?
spring
I. Heat
55. All of the following gases contribute to rising global air II. Moisture
temperatures EXCEPT III. Nutrients

(A) methane (A) I only

(B) nitrogen dioxide (B) II only
(C) ozone (C) III only
(D) carbon dioxide (D) I and II only
(E) water vapor (E) I, II, and III

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Practice Test 2 | 353

 Section I

Questions 61 and 62 refer to the following diagram.

Ocean surface

Sediment and remains

of dead organisms

Erosion and
weathering
Sea bed

Rock A

Rock C
Heat and
pressure
Melting and
cooling

Rock B

61. Which of the following gives the correct sequence in the 62. Which of the following rock types would contain the
rock cycle shown above? greatest number of fossils?
(A) Rock A—Metamorphic/Rock B—Igneous/ (A) Igneous rock only
Rock C—Sedimentary (B) Metamorphic rock only
(B) Rock A—Sedimentary/Rock B—Metamorphic/ (C) Sedimentary rock only
Rock C—Igneous (D) Igneous and metamorphic rock
(C) Rock A—Igneous/Rock B—Sedimentary/ (E) Sedimentary and igneous rock
Rock C—Metamorphic
(D) Rock A—Metamorphic/Rock B—Sedimentary/
Rock C—Igneous
(E) Rock A—Sedimentary/Rock B—Igneous/
Rock C—Metamorphic

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354 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam

 Section I

63. The North Atlantic Current provides which of the 69. Which of the following fishing techniques is most
following for Europe and North America? damaging to ocean bottom ecosystems?
(A) Fish to feed predators such as killer whales (A) Trawling
(B) Warm water that moderates land temperatures (B) The use of drift nets
(C) Large amounts of CO2 to promote photosynthesis (C) Long lines
(D) Cold saltwater to help form icebergs (D) Purse-seine
(E) Mineral-rich waters to reduce depleted mineral (E) Fish farming
reserves
70. Which of the following treaties is responsible for lower
64. Which of the following indoor air pollutants is levels of CFC production world wide?
composed of microscopic mineral fibers that can
(A) Montreal Protocol
produce lung cancer in humans?
(B) Kyoto Protocol
(A) Nitrogen oxides (C) Clean Air Act
(B) Carbon monoxide (D) The Rio Earth Summit of 1972
(C) Asbestos (E) Comprehensive Environmental Response,
(D) Radon Compensation and Liability Act
(E) Formaldehyde
71. DDT is an insecticide sprayed to control insects.
65. Which of the following atoms is the primary catalyst in Years after it was introduced, DDT was found in large
the destruction of ozone? predatory birds, such as the osprey. Which of the
following processes caused the DDT to be found in the
(A) Fluorine
osprey?
(B) Oxygen
(C) Mercury I. Biomagnification
(D) Platinum II. Bioremediation
(E) Chlorine III. Bioaccumulation
(A) I only
66. Transpiration is best defined as the
(B) II only
(A) movement of water through aquifers (C) III only
(B) evaporation of water from an ocean (D) I and III only
(C) movement of water into the air from the leaves of (E) I, II, and III
plants
(D) condensation of water into rain 72. Doing which of the following could most effectively
(E) heating of the atmosphere by the warmth of the reduce acid rain and acid deposition?
earth (A) Reducing the use and waste of electricity
(B) Making taller smoke stacks
67. Nuclear reactors use which of the following to absorb
(C) Burning coal twice
neutrons in the reactor core?
(D) Adding lime to acidified lakes
(A) Steam condenser (E) Moving power plants to desert areas
(B) Control rods
(C) Heat exchanger 73. Which of the following forms of radiation is most
(D) Fuel rods harmful to humans?
(E) Turbines (A) Alpha
(B) Gamma
68. Riparian areas are vital to the preservation of high-
(C) Beta
quality
(D) Infrared
(A) mountain slopes (E) Radon
(B) grazing land
(C) feedlots
(D) rivers and streams
(E) ocean beaches

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Practice Test 2 | 355

 Section I

74. Which of the following ecosystems does NOT use solar 78. Salinization is a process that makes soil less productive
energy as its ultimate energy source? because it
(A) Pond (A) removes essential soil nutrients
(B) Deep-sea hydrothermal vent (B) lowers the pH
(C) Rain forest (C) increases the salt content
(D) Tundra (D) makes the soil waterlogged
(E) Coniferous forest (E) produces larger soil particles

75. All of the following are true about CO2 sequestering 79. Which of the following is true about early-loss
EXCEPT populations, such as fish?
(A) it can be accomplished by pumping CO2 into (A) The chances of an adult dying are about the same as
carbonated beverages a child dying.
(B) it can be accomplished by pumping CO2 into crop (B) The maturation process is slow.
lands (C) The populations are close to the carrying capacity.
(C) it can be accomplished by pumping CO2 deep under (D) They are specialists.
the ocean floor (E) Many individuals die at an early age.
(D) it can be accomplished by pumping CO2 deep
underground into dried up oil wells
(E) it can be accomplished by pumping CO2 into
immature forests

76. Which of the following is NOT true concerning invasive

species?
(A) They can out-compete native species in a habitat.
(B) They can reproduce more rapidly than native
species.
(C) They are highly specialized and have narrow
niches.
(D) They alter the biodiversity of the area they are
invading.
(E) They are introduced into a habitat and are not
native.

77. The Second Law of Thermodynamics is best described

by which of the following?
(A) The amount of solar radiation going into an
ecosystem is equal to the total amount of energy
going out of that system.
(B) The amount of carbon in the atmosphere has
increased due to the combustion of fossil fuels.
(C) As electricity is transmitted through wires, some of
the power is lost to the environment as heat.
(D) Wind-generated electricity has more power than
electricity generated at a hydropower plant.
(E) The amount of electricity used to light a lightbulb
is less than the amount of light that the bulb
produces.

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356 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam

 Section I

Questions 80 and 81 refer to the illustration of succession below.

Lichen Grasses Low bushes Pine Trees Deciduous Trees

and mosses
Time

80. A farmer stops farming a certain tract of land, and small 81. According to the diagram, low species diversity and
bushes soon grow there. The land then progresses to the small sized plants are characteristic of which stage of
deciduous tree stage. This process is known as succession?
(A) pioneer succession I. Late stage succession
(B) wetland succession II. Midstage succession
(C) secondary succession III. Early stage succession
(D) primary succession (A) I only
(E) regressive succession (B) II only
(C) III only
(D) I and III only
(E) I, II, and III

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Practice Test 2 | 357

 Section I

82. In this method of land preservation, countries promise 86. Which of the following best illustrates the process of
they will preserve important habitats in return for the evolution?
forgiveness of loans to other countries.
(A) A parasite population becomes resistant to a drug
(A) Ecotourism (B) Rabbits can have brown fur in summer and white
(B) Establishment of biological reserves fur in winter
(C) Small-scale sustainable farming (C) Frogs borrow deep into the mud during winter
(D) Debt for nature swaps (D) A baby is born and has a different color hair than its
(E) Phase-out economic practices such as farm parents
subsidies (E) A squid changes color to hide from predators

83. Ozone depletion is occurring most rapidly in the earth’s 87. Compounds such as water, can exist as a liquid, solid, or
polar regions because a gas. Changes between states of a substance are known
as
(A) there are more researchers studying the problem at
the poles than at the equator (A) phase changes
(B) the atmosphere is thicker at the poles, so ozone (B) chemical changes
destruction is easier to observe (C) compound changes
(C) large amounts of chlorofluorocarbons (CFCs) can (D) nuclear reactions
accumulate on ice crystals formed in the cold (E) aerobic respiration
atmosphere
(D) the upper atmosphere winds form a pattern of high 88. The energy necessary to produce stratospheric ozone
and low pressure systems that can cause the comes from which of the following?
destruction of ozone (A) Oxygen
(E) the solar UV radiation is stronger at the poles, (B) Sunlight
promoting the breakdown of ozone (C) Radioactive decay
(D) Magma
84. Smaller forest fires are beneficial to forests for all of the
(E) Wind
following reasons EXCEPT
(A) removal of competing plants 89. Which of the following chemicals can cause lung
(B) combustion of dried leaves or needles, which irritation in the troposphere but is very helpful to
reduces the threat of large fires humans in the stratosphere?
(C) burning the crowns of trees (A) O2
(D) germinating seeds of certain plant species (B) O3
(E) making burned matter available as a nutrient (C) Chlorofluorocarbons
(D) H2SO4
85. What are the negative impacts of dams on ecosystems?
(E) DDT
I. Loss of silt in the river downstream from the dam
II. Generation of low pollution electricity 90. Which of the following best describes the differences
III. Loss of terrestrial biodiversity in areas surrounding between a primary pollutant and a secondary pollutant?
the dam (A) Primary pollutants rise up the smoke stack before
(A) I only secondary pollutants are formed.
(B) II only (B) Primary pollutants are formed from secondary
(C) III only pollutants interacting in the water.
(D) I and III only (C) Secondary pollutants are formed from primary
(E) I, II, and III pollutants interacting in the atmosphere.
(D) Secondary pollutants are made by cars, while
secondary pollutants are made by the burning of
wood.
(E) Secondary pollutants are directly created by the
burning of coal and primary pollutants from the
burning of oil.

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 Section I

91. An appliance operates at 120 volts and 10.0 amps for 1 97. Students studying a river found high levels of fecal
hour. How many watt-hours does it use in that hour? coliform bacteria. They concluded that
(A) 1.2 watt-hours (A) this water is fit to swim in
(B) 12 watt-hours (B) a nearby treatment plant added chlorine to the
(C) 100 watt-hours waste water
(D) 110 watt-hours (C) they can safely drink the water
(E) 1200 watt-hours (D) untreated animal waste was put in the water
(E) a factory was polluting the river
92. Coal, oil, and natural gas were all formed as a result of
98. During an El Niño-Southern Oscillation, weather
(A) the decay of organic matter
events change in which of the following areas?
(B) the movement of magma in volcanoes
(C) sedimentary rock turning into metamorphic rock (A) The Pacific and Indian Oceans
(D) the radioactive decay occurring inside Earth (B) The Atlantic and Indian Oceans
(E) the motion of the earth’s core (C) The Arctic Sea
(D) The Indian and Antarctic Oceans
93. All of the following are negative impacts of food (E) The Atlantic and Pacific Oceans
production EXCEPT
99. Which of the following pairs correctly matches the
(A) increased erosion
source of gray water with its most frequent use in the
(B) air pollution from fossil fuels
home?
(C) bioaccumulation of pesticides
(D) lower death rates (A) Dishwasher and sink water used to flush toilets
(E) loss of biodiversity (B) Flushed toilet water used to irrigate garden plants
(C) Dishwasher and sink water used to irrigate garden
94. Soils found in mid-latitude grasslands would be most plants
accurately described as having (D) Water collected from rainfall used to flush toilets
(A) a high acid content with little organic matter (E) Water from showers used for dish washing
(B) a deep layer of humus and decayed plant material
100. The Clean Water Act established all of the following
(C) a layer of permafrost right below the O-horizon
guidelines EXCEPT
(D) a high content of iron oxides and very little
moisture (A) implemented pollution control programs
(E) a small amount of nutrients but an abundant (B) set water quality standards for all contaminants in
decomposer food web surface waters
(C) made it unlawful for any person to discharge any
95. All of the following are useful methods for reducing pollutant from a point source into navigable
domestic water use EXCEPT waters
(A) using low-flow shower heads (D) demanded that an environmental impact statement
(B) using low-flush volume toilets be prepared for any major development
(C) turning off water while brushing your teeth (E) funded the construction of sewage treatment
(D) fixing leaks as soon as they start plants
(E) lowering the temperature of the water heater

96. Biodiversity is a direct result of which of the following?

(A) Deforestation
(B) Sanitization
(C) Respiration
(D) Erosion
(E) Evolution

END OF SECTION I

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Practice Test 2 | 359

 Section II

ENVIRONMENTAL SCIENCE
Section II
Time—90 minutes
4 Questions

Directions: Answer all four questions, which are weighted equally; the suggested time is about 22 minutes for answering each
question. Where calculations are required, clearly show how you arrived at your answer. Where explanation or discussion is
required, support your answers with relevant information and/or specific examples.

1. A class wished to determine the LD50 of a particular

herbicide, Chemical X. Using standard laboratory ap-
paratus and glassware, they accurately made the fol-
lowing dilutions: 1.0M, 10–1M, 10–2M, 10–3M, 10–4M,
and 10–5M. They grew the seedlings under standard
conditions, varying only the concentrations of Chemi-
cal X. Finally they determined the percentage of seed-
lings that germinated at each concentration.
(a) Name a reasonable hypothesis that this
experiment could test. Describe the experi-
mental control group and give one method
for performing repeated trials.
(b) Using the axes below, graph a set of hypo-
thetical results. Indicate the LD50 concen-
tration. Properly label the axes and provide
a title for the graph.
y

(c) Describe one positive outcome and one

negative outcome of using herbicides in
the environment.

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 Section II

[Link] diagram below illustrates the demographic transition [Link] certain conditions, an internal combustion car engine
model of the relationship between economic status and produces approximately 3 grams of NOx per kilometer
population. driven. In Country C there are 300 million cars and
each car is driven only 20,000 km per year.
Pre-Industrial Transitional Industrial Post-Industrial
(a) Calculate the number of metric tons of
State State State State
NOx produced by the cars in Country C in
Phase 1 Phase 2 Phase 3 Phase 4
one year. 1 metric ton = 1,000,000 g.
Total Population
(b) Describe a secondary pollutant that is
derived from the NOx produced by country
C, and how that pollutant travels to adja-
Rates per 1,000

cent countries.
Birth Rate (c) Describe one abiotic and one biotic impact
that the NOx pollution will have on any
countries adjacent to Country C.
Death Rate
(d) Describe one method that Country C could
employ to reduce the amount of emitted
NOx.

Time

= Total Population
= Birth Rate
= Death Rate

(a) In phases 2 and 3, there is a large differ-

ence between the birth rate and the death
rate. Describe the effects on the overall
population as a result of this difference.
Explain why the population doubling time
during these phases is short.
(b) Choose one of the four phases and de-
scribe an economic factor that would
account for the differences between birth
rate and death rate.
(c) Describe one biological method of birth
control.
(d) Population experts have reported that in
some developing countries, the population
is experiencing a reverse transition from
phase 2 to phase 1. Describe what would
happen to a country’s population and
describe one event that would cause this
reverse transition.

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Practice Test 2 | 361

 Section II

4. The diagram below is of a hypothetical food web found

in an estuary.

Osprey

Geese Rat Minnow

Mole

Grasshopper
Snail
Mosquito

Marsh Grasses, Sedges, and Algae

(a) Describe two abiotic factors of the aquatic

component of this estuary that change
twice daily.
(b) Draw an energy pyramid based on the
food web. For each trophic level, give two
examples of the organisms that would
occupy that level.
(c) Cultural eutrophication can cause break-
downs in this type of food web. Give one
example of how cultural eutrophication
might occur and give one detrimental
effect of this process.

STOP
END OF EXAM
––––––––––––––––––

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362 | Cracking the AP Environmental Science Exam

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6. DATE OF BIRTH 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 1 M M M M M M

MONTH DAY YEAR 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 2 N N N N N N

JAN 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 3 O O O O O O

FEB 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 4 P P P P P P

MAR 0 0 0 0 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 5 Q Q Q Q Q Q

APR 1 1 1 1 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 6 R R R R R R

MAY 2 2 2 2 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 7 S S S S S S

JUN 3 3 3 3 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 8 T T T T T T

JUL 4 4 4 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 9 U U U U U U

AUG 5 5 5 V V V V V V

SEP 6 6 6 8. OTHER W W W W W W

OCT 7 7 7 7. SEX 1 A B C D E X X X X X X

NOV 8 8 8 MALE 2 A B C D E Y Y Y Y Y Y

DEC 9 9 9 FEMALE 3 A B C D E Z Z Z Z Z Z

Begin with number 1 for each new section of the test. Leave blank any extra answer spaces.

SECTION 1

1 A B C D E 26 A B C D E 51 A B C D E 76 A B C D E

2 A B C D E 27 A B C D E 52 A B C D E 77 A B C D E

3 A B C D E 28 A B C D E 53 A B C D E 78 A B C D E

4 A B C D E 29 A B C D E 54 A B C D E 79 A B C D E

5 A B C D E 30 A B C D E 55 A B C D E 80 A B C D E

6 A B C D E 31 A B C D E 56 A B C D E 81 A B C D E

7 A B C D E 32 A B C D E 57 A B C D E 82 A B C D E

8 A B C D E 33 A B C D E 58 A B C D E 83 A B C D E

9 A B C D E 34 A B C D E 59 A B C D E 84 A B C D E

10 A B C D E 35 A B C D E 60 A B C D E 85 A B C D E

11 A B C D E 36 A B C D E 61 A B C D E 86 A B C D E

12 A B C D E 37 A B C D E 62 A B C D E 87 A B C D E

13 A B C D E 38 A B C D E 63 A B C D E 88 A B C D E

14 A B C D E 39 A B C D E 64 A B C D E 89 A B C D E

15 A B C D E 40 A B C D E 65 A B C D E 90 A B C D E

16 A B C D E 41 A B C D E 66 A B C D E 91 A B C D E

17 A B C D E 42 A B C D E 67 A B C D E 92 A B C D E

18 A B C D E 43 A B C D E 68 A B C D E 93 A B C D E

19 A B C D E 44 A B C D E 69 A B C D E 94 A B C D E

20 A B C D E 45 A B C D E 70 A B C D E 95 A B C D E

21 A B C D E 46 A B C D E 71 A B C D E 96 A B C D E

22 A B C D E 47 A B C D E 72 A B C D E 97 A B C D E

23 A B C D E 48 A B C D E 73 A B C D E 98 A B C D E

24 A B C D E 49 A B C D E 74 A B C D E 99 A B C D E

25 A B C D E 50 A B C D E 75 A B C D E 100 A B C D E