Do your Best in everything, work hard for it and do it not just A. Hair C.

Dress
for your sake but for the people who depend on you.. Make B. Speech D. personal paraphernalia
them your inspiration & Put God on Top of it. 5. What is considered to be one of the most infallible means of
Identification?
ACES Technique A. DNA fingerprinting C. Dactyloscopy
1. Analysis of the question B. Fingerprint Identification D. Photography
2. Comparison between the question and the choices DNA fingerprinting = the most indispensable science.
3. Eliminate or Exclude the detractors . 6. Identification of person can be done either by Comparison
4. Select the Best Answer or by____.
Don’t leave your commonsense AT HOME!!! A. exclusion C. examination
B. experimentation D. inclusion
FORENSIC Science = any field of study applied to the General methods of Identification: Comparison and
administration of law. (Synonymously used with the word Elimination or Exclusion.
LEGAL) 7. Which of the following system of Identification is best used
Criminalistics = branch of Forensic Science which dealt with in case of burned body?
Physical Evidence. (Application of Fingerprint Identification, A. Fingerprint C. Forensic Odontology
Bullet comparison, Examination of Dead body is a kind of ___) B. Skeletal Identification D. Photography
Physical Evidence = any tangible objects or materials which DNA Fingerprinting
has certain value to an issue/case Forensic Odontology= Examination of Dentures.
1. Corpus Delicti “Body of the Crime” = existence of facts or Forensic Anthropology = skeletal identification
circumstances to show that a crime was committed. e.g. the ***In dactylography, the production on some smooth surfaces
fact that there was a killing, the evidence that there was a of the design formed by the ridge on the inside of the joint of
stolen property. the finger or thumb is called? – Fingerprint.
2. Associative Evidence= evidence that would link or connect 8. What is the first conviction in the Philippine Case which
the subject to the crime e.g. latent prints. gives recognition to the science of fingerprint?
3. Tracing Evidence = tells about the location or whereabouts A. People Vs. Medina C. Miranda [Link]
of the criminal e.g. the stolen property. B. People Vs. Jennings D West Case
Per-son-al Identification minimum points of similarity: at least 9 points
 a system of recognizing and identifying a particular People vs. Jennings (U.S. case) (14 points)
person based on his/her characteristics as West case = defeats the Anthropometry System
differentiate from others. 9. Who is the “Father of Dactyloscopy” or “Father of
1. What is a system of identification which was used earlier Fingerprint Examination”? (He introduced the 1st system of
than the fingerprint system, made by measuring various bony classification of fingerprint)
structure of human body? A. Marcelo Malpighe C. Johannes Eangelista Purkenjie
A. Portrait Parle C. Tattoo B. Henry Faulds. D. Mr. Generoso Reyes
B. Anthropometry D. Photography Dr. Henry Faulds (1905) = a (Dr. in Tokyo, Japan) surgeon
Anthropometry – 1st scientific method of personal identification who first gives value to latent prints. He accomplished the
developed by Alphonse Bertillion. “stratton brothers case” who was charged of murdering
Alphonse Bertillion= Father of personal identification & Mug- Farrow couple.
shot Photography. 10. Who is the person known for being the U.S. public enemy
2. Is the distance of recognition in broad daylight of a person number one (a notorious gangster) who attempt to destroy his
who is almost a stranger. friction by applying a corrosive acid (burning with acids) but
A. 100 yards C. 25 yards due to the passage of time the ridges were redeveloped in
B. 16-17 yards D. 10-13 yards their natural feature?
100 yards = never seen even once A. Robert James Pitts C. John Dillenger
16 – 17 yards = moonlight 10 -13 yards = starlight. B. Roscoe Pitts D. John Augustus
3. What basic principle Identification states that the greater the Robert James Pitts = used surgery to destroy his friction
number of similarity or difference the greater the probability for ridges. Known as the Man without fingerprint. Also known by
the identity or non identity to be conclusive? the name Roscoe Pitts or “Philips”.
A. Law of Individuality 11. What is the scientific study of the prints of the soles of the
B. Law of multiplicity of evidence feet?
C. Law of Infallibility A. Poroscopy C. Chiroscopy
D. Law of Constancy B. Podoscopy D. Dactyloscopy
a, c, and d are principles of fingerprint identification. Chiroscopy – ( Greek word “ Cheir” – a hand, “Skopien” –to
4. Which of the following personal identification is not easy to examine) study of the prints of the palms of the hand.
be changed?
Podoscopy – ( Greek word “Podo” – the foot, and Skopien – to Friction Skin/Papillary skin/ Epidermal skin
the study of the footprints. = corrugated or strips of (hairless) skin.
Poroscopy – (Greek word “poros” – a pare, and “Skopien” – to 1. Epidermis =outer layer
examine) study of the arrangement of the sweat pores. 2. Dermis =inner layer
Ridgeoscopy = study of ridges. Epidermis is divided into: stratum corneum and stratum
12. What is that principles of identification which states that in mucosum.
every crime scene there leaves traces, traces that would lead Five (5) thin layers of the epidermis: Corneous,
to the identity of its author? Transparent, Malphigian, granucar& generating
A. Tool marks identification C. Locard’s Exchange 19. It is located along the undersides of the fingers, palms,
B. Individuality D. Res Ipsa loquitor toes and soles appears as corrugated skin structure known to
13. What is the study of fingerprint for purposes of the fingerprint examiner as ________.
identification? A. friction skin [Link] skin
A. Dactyloscopy C. Dactylography B. handprints D. palmar
B. Dactylomancy D. Dactylo-analysis Volar skin =term known to the biologist when referring
Dactyloscopy – (derived from the Latin words Dactyl = finger to the friction skin.
and Skopien – to study or examine) is the practical application 20. What layer of the friction skin if damage may cause
of the science of fingerprints. (Classification & Identification) permanent scar?
Dactylomancy – is the scientific study of fingerprint for A. Dermis C. Epidermis
purposes of personality interpretation. (also known as Dactylo- B. Dermal papillae D. Generating layer
analysis) 21. How deep is the cut in order to produced permanent scar?
14. The word finger was derived from the Latin word_______ A. more than 1 cm C. more than 1mm
which means finger. B. 1 m D. 1dm
nd
A. dermis B. dactyl C. digitus D. skopien 2 degree burn = might cause damage.
15. What is that condition of the hand having more than the 3rd degree burn = the most painful.
regular number of finger? 22. What appears as tiny black lines with white dots (called
A. Ectodactyl C. Polydactyl pores) in an inked finger impression?
B. Macrodactyl D. Syndactyl A. Sweat pores C. Ridges
Polydactyl = born with more than the regular number of fingers B. Furrows D. Sweat duct
(with extra finger). Note: Friction ridges or papillary ridges or epidermal ridges.
Macrodactyl = enlarged finger. 23. What are the depressed portion or canal like structure of
Microdactyl = reduced/small finger. the friction skin which may be compared with the low area in a
Ectodactyl = missing finger at birth. tire tread (found between ridges)?
Syndactyl = side fussion of the finger. A. Pores C. Furrows
16. What principle in fingerprint study states that fingerprint B. Indentions D. Duct
cannot be forged or that fingerprint is a reliable and positive 24. How many standard types of fingerprint patterns are there?
means of identification? A. Three B. Two C. Eight D. Nine
A. Infallibility C. Individuality Galton and Henry System = 9 types of fingerprint pattern.
B. Permanency D. Constancy 25. What pattern type has the ridges that enter on one side of
17. What principle of fingerprint identification states that the pattern and flow to the other side with a rise at the center?
fingerprint is from the mother womb up to the tomb? A. Loop C. Plain arch
A. Infallibility C. Individuality B. Tented arch D. Exceptional arch
B. Permanency D. Multiplicity 26. What type of a pattern possesses an angle and uptrust, or
Dogmatic Principles of F.P. Identification two fo the three basic characteristics of the loop?
1. Individuality = based on Statistical probability that A. Plain arch C. Tented arch
NO two persons have the same or identical fingerprint. B. Central pocket loop D. Accidental whorl
(UNIQUE) (1:64,000,000,000 – Francis Galton). 27. In order for a pattern to be considered as loop it should
2. Infallibility = reliable, positive, and cannot be have _______ridge count.
forged. A. 1 B. at least 1 C. 2 D. 3
3. Permanency/Constancy = F.P. is unchangeable 28. What type of a pattern has two deltas in which at least one
(from the mother’s womb until one is placed on the tomb). ridges makes a turn through one complete circuit. It is
Ridges once fully develop their general arrangement will symbolized by letter W?
remain the same throughout life. (Herman Welcker) A. Arch C. Accidental whorl
18. What is the main layer of the epidermis, which covers the B. Loop D. Whorl
surface on which ridges are visible? 29. What type of pattern in which the looping (slope) or
A. dermis C. stratum mucusom slanting ridges flow (travel) towards the little finger?
B. stratum corneoum D. sanguinal stratum A. Loop C. Radial loop
 B. Ulnar loop D. Tented arch Enclosure= a single ridge that splits into two ridges and meets
Radial loop (radius bone) = travel towards the thumb. to form the original ridge. This is a close resemblance of the
LH = \ RH = / bifurcation.
Ulnar loop (ulna bone) = towards the little finger. 36. When a ridge bifurcates, sending two ridges across the
LH = / RH = \ imaginary line, how is it counted?
30. The diagonal sign / in the right hand is ________. A. One C. Two
A. radial B. ulnar C. tented D. plain loop B. Three D. Six
31. What type of a pattern consisting of two or more deltas, 37. What is that spreading of two ridges that previously
one or more ridge forming a complete circuitry and when an running side by side?
imaginary line is drawn from left delta to right delta it touches A. Bifurcation C. Divergence
or cross the circuiting ridge/s considered as the most common B. Convergence D. Enclosure
type of whorl? 38. What kind of a ridge resembles a dot, fragment or a
A. Plain whorl C. Double loop whorl period?
B. Central pocket loop whorl D. Accidental whorl A. Lake C. Island ridge
32. In an accidental whorl type of pattern, what pattern is NOT B. Ending ridge D. Incipient ridge
included in the combination? Other term for dot is -- Island
A. Ulnar loop C. Plain whorl 39. What ridge/ line divides itself into two or more ridges that
B. Tented arch D. Plain arch meets (converge at a certain point) to form the original figure?
33. The core and delta are also termed as __? A. Bifurcation C. Lake ridge
A. inner terminus C. focal point B. Island ridge D. Convergence
B. outer terminus D. pattern area Lake/Enclosure/Eyelet (it is misinterpreted as bifurcation
Fingerprint Terminus/Focal Points because of its close resemblance)
Core – inner terminus (The proximate center of the 40. What type of a ridge is that which curves back to the
fingerprint pattern usually found on the innermost sufficient direction from which it started?
recurve). A. Diverging C. Converging
Delta – outer terminus (diverging typelines). B. Recurving D. Bifurcation
wide space = between the delta & 1st ridge count 41. What is a point along the recurving ridge in which the ridge
34. What is a point along a ridge formation, which is found in curves inward?
front or near the center of the diverging typelines. A. Sufficient recurve C. Obstruction ridge
A. Core C. Island ridge B. Appendage D. Shoulder of loop
B. Delta D. Convergence What is considered in locating the core is ---- next loop outside
35. What is the rule where there are two or more possible with no appendage at right angle.
bifurcation deltas which conforms to the definition of deltas? 42. What is a short horizontal ridge found inside the recurve
A. The one nearest the core should be chosen which has spoiled (blocks) the inner line of flow from the inner
B. The one away from the core should be counted delta to the center of the pattern. This is also found in the
C. The one which does not open towards the core is counted second type of central pocket loop?
D. The one towards the core should be counted. A. Bar B. Appendage C Uptrust D. Obstruction
Rules on selecting Delta Appendage – is a short ridge found at the top or summit
1. Delta must be located midway between the two of a recurve.
diverging typelines at or just in front or where they diverge. Rod or Bar – is a short of long ridge found inside the recurve
2. In order for a bifurcation to be selected as delta it and directed towards the core or parallel to the recurve.
should open towards the core &not towards the delta; Uptrust = a horizontal ridge that makes a sufficient rise at
3. When there is a bifurcation and other type of the center.
possible delta- the bifurcation is selected. 43. What is that part of a loop or whorl where the delta, core
4. If there are two or more possible deltas none is and other ridges appear?
bifurcation, the one nearest the core should be chosen. A. Pattern area C. Bifurcation
Basic types of ridges: (REB/S) B. Type line D. Furrows
(1) Ridge dot, (2) Ending ridge (Terminal end or abrupt end), Type lines = the innermost ridges (2 ridges) run parallel and
(3) Bifurcation, and (4) Short ridge. surround the pattern area.
Convergence = two separate ridges that meets at certain Pattern Area= Is that portion of the fingerprint bounded by the
point. (meeting of two separate ridges). type lines where ridge characteristics needed for
Divergence = two ridges that spreads apart. (Spreading interpretation/classification are found.
of two separate ridges) 44. What type of pattern in which when the course is traced
Bifurcation = single ridge (line) that splits into two or more the line flow below the right delta and there are three
forming a Y-shape. intervening ridge?
 A. Meeting whorl C. Inner whorl Ink slab = metal/glass plate where ink is spread. If not properly
B. Outer whorl D. Central pocket loop whorl cleaned after its use, it will produced --- blurred fingerprint.
Meeting whorl = there are two or less intervening ridge/s. (the Taking ten prints
number of intervening ridge is below three) (1) Subject --- Relax (2) Hands ---- Dry
Inner whorl = with three (3) intervening ridge and the tracing Both Thumb – prints that goes (rolled) towards the
flows above/inside the right delta. body
45. What type of rigde is so thin or fine compare to other All fingers EXCEPT both thumb – rolled away from
regular ridge which is NOT included as a ridge count even if it the body
has been cross by the imaginary line? Purpose of rolling – NOT to missed the delta.
A. Ending ridge C. Intervening ridge Extra finger – rolled on the other side of the card.
B. Incipient ridge D. Enclosure Spilt thumb or webbed thumb – rolled together (classify the
46. What is that ridge (single) that (forks) divides into two bigger one, If same size– get the inner one.)
ridges and which resembles a fork structure? 51. What is the process of placing the letter symbols under
A. Divergence C. Bifurcation each pattern as the results of the interpretation of all ten
B. Convergence D. Enclosure fingers?
47. Ridge forms in the person’s fingers and feet during its A. Classification formula C. Blocking out
infants stage which usually starts_________. B. Reference classification D. Fingerprint identification
A. 3rd to 4th months of the fetus life Note: the very first thing to do is to check that the rolled
B. 4th to 5th months of the fetus life impressions are properly place on their respective box.
C. 5th to 6th months of the fetus life (CHECKING)
D. 5th to 6th months before birth 52. What symbol is used to represent a plain arch.
3rd to 4th months of the fetus life or 5th to 6th months before A. T B. A C. P D. W
birth. Plain Arch = A Tented Arch = T
Cut of more than 1mm = permanent scar. Radial Loop (LH = \ and RH = / ) Ulnar Loop (LH = / and
48. What is the process of counting the intervening ridges RH = \ )
touch or cross by the imaginary line between the delta and Plain Whorl = W
core of a loop? Central Pocket Loop Whorl = C (no recurving ridge is cut)
A. Ridge tracing C. ridge tracking Double Loop Whorl = D(two distinct loops)
B. Ridge counting D. ridge summing Accidental Whorl = X (X = is a universal symbol.)
Ridge count = ridges between delta and core.
Ridge dot and fragment to be counted – must be as thick FPC = Key Major Primary Secondary Sub Sec. Final
and heavy as other ridges. 1. Primary Division = represented by numerical value
Ridge tracing = between tracing ridge and right delta. assigned to whorl.
(reference : lower side or point of the extreme left delta) 2. Secondary Division = represented by Capital
Intervening ridge = ridges between tracing ridge and right Letters (Index finger) and small letters ( r, a, t)
delta. 3. Sub-Secondary = Index, Middle and Ring Fingers.
49. What fingers (Fingerprints) are rolled towards the body in (Loop = Index (9), Middle (10), Ring (13)
taking a rolled impression? 4. Major Division = Both Thumb (placed on the right
A. Both little finger C. All finger except thumb side of the primary)
B. Both thumb finger D. Both index finger 5. Final Division = derived from both little finger
Types of fingerprint impression on the FP Card (ten prints of 6. Key = ridge count of the 1st Loop Except little
----suspect) finger.
Rolled impression = taken individually by rolling the finger from Key, Major, Primary, Secondary, Sub-Secondary,
the tip to the end of the first joint. Used for classification Final
purposes. (the order in classification line)
Plain Impression = taken simultaneously by simply pressing 52. What division in the classification formula is always
the ten fingers. It serves as guide or reference in checking the represented by numeral value depending upon a whorl pattern
rolled impression. appearing in each finger?
50. What instrument is used for the spreading of the A. Primary B. Key C. Final D. Major
fingerprint ink to the slab? Primary div. = derived from the sum of the numerator and
A. Fingerprint brush C. Fingerprint roller denominator plus the pre-established fraction of 1/1.
B. Fingerprint lifting tapes D. fingerprint card 54. In assigning a number value to whorl pattern, what finger
Fingerprint card =where F.P. is recorded (8”X8”) should be given a value of 4 when a whorl pattern appears
Strip card = used for recording post-mortem fingerprint. therein:
Latent Print Transfer card = used for recording and A. left little finger and right thumb
preserving latent print. B. right little finger and left thumb
C. right thumb and left little finger Major division = place just to the left of the primary division in
D. left thumb and right the classification formula. Loops are ridge counted, whorls
55. If all the fingers in the right hand are whorls and all the appearing on the thumb following the whorl tracing of sub-
fingers of the left hand are loops, what will be the primary secondary classification.
division? 61. In ridge counting a plain whorl or central pocket loop whorl
A. 25/29 C. 29/25 in the little finger it is derived by __________.
B. 24/28 D. 28/24 A. getting the ridge count of the top loop
P = 1/1 + the sum of N/D = 25/29 B. treating it as ulnar loop
C. getting the least ridge count
Whorl 16 8 4 2 1 D. getting the delta opposite each hand
62. What division in the classification formula is derived from
2 4 6 8 10 (fingers) both little finger and is place at the extreme right of the
16 8 0 0 0 = 24 classification formula?
16 8 4 0 0= 28 A. Key B. Final C. Major D. Secondary
1 3 5 7 9 (fingers) 63. The key division is the division in the classification which is
Pair 1= right thumb and right index (1 and 2) = 16 located at the extreme left of the classification formula and it is
Pair 2 =right middle and right ring finger (3 & 4) =8 taken by getting the ridge count of _______?
Pair 3 = right little and left thumb (5 and 6) =4 a. loop pattern b. first radial loop
Pair 4 = left index and left middle (7 and 8) =2 c. first loop d. first whorl
Pair 5 = left ring and left little (9 and 10) = 1. Key div = derived from the ridge count of the First
If all fingers are whorl what would be the primary? = 32/32 Loop, EXCEPT the little finger.
56. What patterns are included in the secondary division in = If there were no loops, get the ridge count of
deriving the small letter category? the First Whorl.
A. Ulnar loop, plain arch and tented arch = Only numerator.
B. Radial loop, ulnar and arch 64. In case of a missing digits or an amputated finger, what will
C. Radial loop, plain arch and tented arch be the classification of said missing finger?
D. Radial loop, ulnar, plain arch A. The same as the corresponding digit of the other hand
Secondary div. = combination of Capital Letters (index B. Mutilated finger
fingers) and small letters (from T, M, R, and L fingers = r,a,t). C. Plain whorl with meeting tracing
57. What would be the secondary divisions if all the right hand D. None
fingers are radial loops while all the left hand fingers are tented One finger is missing/amputated = interpreted as the
arches. same as the corresponding digit of the other hand.
A. 3Rr B. rR3r C. R3r D. R4r Same digits of both hands are missing = plain whorl
3Tt tT3t T3t T4t with meeting tracing.
58. What is the interpretation for a ridge count on the left index If all fingers are missing/amputated the formula:
that reaches 8? FPC = M 32 W MMM
A. Eexceptional C. Inner loop M 32 W MMM
B. Radial loop D. Outer loop 65. All fingerprints left at the scene of the crime or at the crime
Sub-secondary = derived by ridge counting loop and ridge scene refers to a________.(it includes those left
tracing whorl appearing in the Index, Middle and Ring fingers. unconsciously.)
Loops = Inner (I) or Outer (0) A. suspected prints
Index (9), Middle (10), and Ring (13) B. molded prints
Whorls = Meeting (M), Inner (I), and Outer (O) C. latent prints
Arches = Dash (-) D. prints made by contamination with colored substance.
59. In interpreting a loop pattern, what is the numerical value 66. What kind of prints is that which were left in the place
of S in the left hand? accidentally or unconsciously?
A. 1 to 11 C. 18 to 22 A. Chance prints C. Smudge prints
B. 1 to 17 D. 12 to 16 B. Fragmentary prints D. Latent prints
Major Div. = derived from both thumb fingers by ridge tracing a Presence of fingerprint at the crime scene means ---
whorl and counting of loop just like is sub secondary.. you came from the scene of the crime.
Loops = R. C. = S, M, L Latent prints
Whorls = R.T. = M,O,I Arches = Dash (-) 1. visible (molded prints or made by contamination with
60. In a loop pattern, when the number of the ridges on the left colored substance).
thumb is 17 or more, it constitutes as ________. 2. Invisible = made from sweat.
A. exceptional C. alteration 3. Semi visible print = a kind of fingerprint which is found on
B. isolation D. Conditional soft and sticky objects such as wax and tape.
67. What method of developing latent prints in paper is best to A. Mutilated finger C. Fragmentary finger
be used being easy to apply and less destructive to the paper? B. Amputated finger D. Deformities
A. Iodine fuming C. Silver nitrate method 78. Reagents commonly used in liquid method are the
B. Ninhydrin method D. Dusting method following, except __________.
Dusting = traditional/simplest method of developing prints A. silver nitrate C. victoria blue
in the crime scene. B. ninhydrin D. tetra methyl benzidine
Laser Method - modern method of developing prints that may E. none
be utilized in case other methods are ineffective. 79. Which is not a process of developing using the ninhydrin
68. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve method?
the contrast of a latent fingerprint impression dusted with black A. Immersion C. Spraying
powder on a green background? B. Dusting D. Brushing
A. Yellow B. Green C. Red D. Blue 80. Once the latent print has been visualized, it must be
69. What kind of a filter should a photographer use to improve preserved by_______.
the contrast of a latent fingerprint impression dusted with gray A. developing the latent print C. photography
powder on a yellow background? B. lifting the impression D. brushing it
A. Yellow b. Green C. Red D. Violet For Item 81 – 84 Illustration:
Opposite Colors: M I R = 11 U = 13 U = 12
Blue – Orange Green – Red Yellow – Violet
70. The identification of two impressions can be established Plain Central Radial Ulnar Ulnar
primarily through ___________. Whorl Pocket Loop Loop Loop
Loop
A. formation of different types of pattern
Whorl
B. formation of the two terminus
C. unexplained similarity of ridges R = 17 U=9 M O 5
D. similarity of ridge characteristics in their relative
positions Radial Ulnar Double Plain Plain
Note: a and b are for fingerprint classification. Loop Loop Loop Whorl Whorl
71. What card is used in recording and preserving developed Whorl
latent print?
A. Fingerprint lifting tapes 81. What would be the Primary Division of the above
B. Evidence Identification tags illustration?
C. Fingerprint transfer card A. 19/ 17 C. 20/18
D. Post-mortem fingerprint equipment B. 17/19 D. 18/20
72. In case of split thumb, which should be classified? 82. What would be the Sub- Secondary Division?
A. Get the smaller one C. Get the outer one A. I I I C. I O I
B. Get the bigger one D. Get the inner one I MO IMO
73. In case of wounded finger, how should fingerprint be B. I O O D. I I O
taken? IMO OMO
A. Just take the subject fingerprint. 83. What is the right Major Division?
B. don’t print said finger and left the rolled impression A. M C. M
box empty. S M
C. don’t print the finger and write in the box wounded B. M D. M
74. What kind of prints are made by blood, dust or dirt or other L O
coloring substances? 84. What would be the Classification formula?
A. Visible prints C. Chance prints A. 11 M 19 Cr I I I 12
B. Invisible prints D. Fragmentary prints S 17 rU I M O 5
75. In filing classified fingerprint card what should be the first B. 11 M 20 Cr I O I 12
attempt to be made through _______. L 18 rU I M O 5
A. primary numerator C. secondary numerator C. 11 M 19 Cr I I I 12
B. primary denominator D. secondary denominator L 17 U I M O 5
D. 11 M 20 Cr I O I 12
76. What division of the classification formula is left blank if all S 18 rU I M O 5
fingers are amputated. II. FORENSIC PHOTOGRAPHY
A. Mayor and key C. Key and primary = it is the application of the principles of photography to law or
B. Key and final D. Final and major (preparation of photographic evidence) administration of
77. What term is used when referring to cut finger? justice.
Police photography = the application of photography to police Radiation = is the process by which heat is transferred through
work. Also known in its old usage as black and white electromagnetic wave.
photography. 5. What theory of light which states that it is produced as
Photography = art and science of reproducing image by energy made by action of some small particles such as
means of light (electro magnetic rays). electron and protons?
Photography was derived from two (2) Greek words: A. Wave C. Modified wave
Phos or photos = light B. Corpuscular D. Quantum
Graphia = to draw or Graph = writing 6. Light travels in a form of a wave according to wave theory of
Photograph = the positive result of photography. It shows the Huygens. What is that unit of light wavelength which is express
appearance of the original as seen by the naked eye. in ten (10) millionth part of a millimeter?
Negative = exposed film which produces Latent image. A. Millimicron C. Angstrom
1839= considered as the birth of true photography. B. Nanometer D. Micron
United States(US) = the first country to use photograph of Millimicron / Nanometer = one millionth part of mm.
crime scene for court presentation. Micron = equivalent to one thousand part of millimicron.
Odelbert = advocate the used of photographic evidence of the 7. What light action is characterized by passing a transparent
crime scene in court presentation. object?
1. The word Photography was coined by _________. A. Absorbed C. Transmitted
A. John F. W. Herschel B. Reflected D. Refracted
B. Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre (Daguerreo type RAT Law
C. Henry Fox Talbot (Talo or Calo type) (Mouse Trap) Reflected = bouncing of light.(Glossy object)
D. Leonardo Da Venci Absorbed = light that is block by the surface where it falls such
Joseph Nicephore Niepce = he invented the first photographic as black cloth (opaque)
process called Heliography. Transmitted = light that passed through usually in a
Louis Jacques Mande Daguerre = Father of Photography transparent object such as plain glass.
William Henry Fox Talbot = Father of Modern Photography 8. What light action is characterized as the bending of light?
(having used a negative in his process) A. Reflection B. Dispersion
2. What is considered as the utmost used of photography in B. Refraction D. Diffraction
police work? Diffraction = bending of lights (falls) around the object.
A. Identification C. Preservation Dispersion = the spread of light as it bends forming the light
B. Record purpose D. Court presentation spectrum.
Personal Identification = first used of photography in police Light Spectrum = the spreading of light beam (white
work. light) into light of varying wavelength.
Mugging = the process of taking photograph of suspect. 9. What condition of the sunlight is where object in an open
3. In Photographing the scene of the crime, what view should space cast a transparent or bluish shadow?
be used in order to show the best feature of the nature of the A. Bright light C. Hazy sunlight
crime scene? B. Dull sunlight D. Bright cloudy sunlight
A. Medium C. General Dull sunlight = thick clouds covers the sun, no shadow will
B. Close-up D. Extreme close-up be produced.
General View – location of the crime scene (four angles). Hazy sunlight = thin clouds covers the sun.
Mid –(view) (range)– 8 or 10 feet from the victim. Show Bright sunlight = clear sky, cast well defined, deep and uniform
the nature of the crime. (possible entrance & exit shadow, glossy object.
point) 10. What artificial light source contains in its tube certain
Close–up view – five (5) feet or less from the subject/object, powders capable of illuminating with some support from small
show the details of the crime. amount of electricity. It is commonly used in the house or
Crime scene photographs are admissible as evidence in court; commercial establishment?
it should be taken from _______(GENERAL TO SPECIFIC A. Incandescent lamp C. Photo flood lamp
It should be the faithful reproduction of the [Link] of B. Fluorescence lamp D. Flash bulb
crime scene photography: Factual replica of the crime. Sources of light
Photographs are valuable in crime investigation for it provides 1. Natural light source such as sunlight, starlight,
enforcers an easier work in court -- Testimony. lightning etc.
4. What is an electromagnetic energy which travels with the 2. Artificial /Man-made light (short duration and long
speed of 186, 000 miles per second? continuous) Flash bulb, Incandescent lamp,
A. Energy B. Rays C. Radiation D. Light Fluorescent lamp, spotlight or reflectorized light.
Rays = characterized the direction of light travel. Usually 11. What kind of light in which their wavelengths are either too
used interchangeably with light. short or too long to excite the retina of the human eye?
A. Visible C. Invisible
 B. Natural D. Artificial or man-made Direct light = support photographing.
Visible light = (from 400 to 700 millimicron) Oblique light = from one side at a very low angle.
Invisible light = (X-ray, ultra-violet light, and Infra-red light Side light = from one side.
etc.) Transmitted light =from the back/bottom. Used for
Medium wave U.V. = used in chemical analysis and in curing water markings examination.
and hardening of different items for Industrial purposes. 20. Specifically, the camera is needed in photography
Fluorescence = it is the ability of the object to convert one to_________.
wavelength to another as long as the active energy source is A. record the image
irradiating the object. B. exclude all unwanted and unnecessary lights
12. What color will be produced by the combination of a red C. makes the image visible
and blue color? D. makes the image permanent
A. Magenta B. Cyan C. Yellow D. Green 21. How many parts does a camera generally has, with all
Primary colors == Blue, Green and Red other parts treated as accessories?
Blue + Green = cyan Green + Red = yellow A. Five B. Four C. Six D. Three
Blue + Red = magenta Essential parts of a camera
Secondary = cyan, yellow and magenta 1. Light tight box = the main frame or housing of the camera.
Yellow = complementary color of blue. 2. Lens= the image forming device. It is used to focus the light
White light - the presence of all colors. coming from the object.
13. How many photographic rays are there? 3. Shutter = controls the light reaching the sensitized material.
A. Three B. Five C. Four D. Nine It is used to allow the light at a predetermined time interval.
14. What photographic rays have the longest wavelength? 4. Film Holder =
A. Infra-red C. Visible rays 5. View Finder = it provides means for the photographer to
B. Ultra-violet D. X-rays view the area coverage or perspective of the camera.
Four (4) Photographic Rays 22. What lens system of the camera reflects the light passing
X-ray (roentgen rays) = .01 to 30 millimicron. the lens and mirror making the image possible to be viewed
Ultra-violet light (black light) =30 to 400 mill. from the viewfinder?
Visible light = 400 to 700 millimicron. A. Pentaprism b. Shutter c. Condenser d. Filter
Infra-red (heat rays) = 700 to 1000 millimicron Condenser = is that part of the enlarger that ensures
15. What type of an artificial light which makes sympathetic even illumination of the light to the negative.
inks visible? Filter = is a piece of plastic or glass used to subtract
A. Ultra-violet C. Infra-red or control light passing through it.
B. Transparent light D. Oblique light 23. What is that part of the camera which controls the
16. What determine the amount of light a flash unit will yield at passage of light reaching the sensitized material? It compared
a given distance? to the eyelid of the human eye.
A. Luminescence C. Wattage A. Lens C. Shutter
B. Guide number D. Light meter B. Lens opening D. Film plane
Light meter = an accessory of a camera which measures 24. What is that part of the camera which provides a means of
the amount of reflected light. determining the extent of the area coverage of a given lens?
Exposure = it is the range of illumination (or the light allowed) A. Lens C. Shutter
to affect the sensitized material at a given time. B. View finder D. Pentaprism
17. Laser light is also referred to as ______ light. Cavity = is that part of the film holder of the camera that
A. ultra-violet C. coherent usually houses the film cartridge.
B. visible D. Heat 25. What camera accessory is designed to fix the camera
Concurrent = light that is scattered. focus and avoid its unusual movement during the process of
Light Amplified by stimulating emission of radiation. (LASER) photographing?
Hologram (3D) = the image formed by laser light. A. Cable release C. Tripod
18. Hologram refers to a : B. Stand D. Camera strap
A. 1 dimensional image in a film. Cable release = attached to the shutter release to prevent
B. 2- dimensional image in a film accidental movement of the camera during exposure.
C. 3 – dimensional image in a film Tripod = a three-leg stand designed to fix the camera focus.
d. 4 – dimensional image in a film (not an essential part of the camera)
3D –image (length, height and width) B-shutter = manually controlled shutter to allow more light to
19. Sidelight photography is usually done to show ________in pass through.
a questioned document. 26. What problem is usually encountered by a photographer in
A. contact writing C. faded writing using a flash unit?
B. watermarks D. erasures A. Neutral density C Prospective
 B Synchronization D. Parallax 31. What emulsion speed indicator is express in an arithmetic
Synchronization = timing between the shutter and the flash. form?
Parallax = omission of an object. Image viewed in the view A. ISO C. DIN
finder is not exactly produce in the photograph. B. ASA D. GNP
27. To readily determine the degree of magnification of a ASA – American Standard Association
subject in a photograph ________ should be place beside the 10, 20, 30 , 40 , 50, 100, 200, 400, 800,
subject. 2x faster
A gray-scale C. scale bed DIN - DeutcheIndustreNormen (Logarithmic)
B. rangefinder D. ruler 3, 6, 9, 12, 15, 18, 21, 24, 27, 30, 33, 36
28. Why must the taking of photographs from an unusual (3 DEGREES DIFFERENCE)
camera position in crime photography be avoided? ISO = International Standard Organization.
A. It distorts the focus C. it distorts the perspective 32. Assuming all conditions will be the same, which film gives
B. it distorts the magnification D. it distorts the texture the finest of grains?
Focus is the estimating or calculating distance to form A. ASA 1000 C. ASA 100
sharp images. B. ASA 200 D. ASA 400
29. What type of a camera is now most ideal to police Film speed/emulsion speed = the higher the number
photography? the more sensitive or faster the film.
A. View finder type C. Single lens reflex (SLR) Finest grains = the lower the number the finer the
B. Twin lens reflex D. Digital Single Lens Reflex grains.
SLR = is an interchangeable lens type of camera. This 33. In Police Photography, what is the ideal weight for
eliminates parallax error. enlarging paper?
View finder = simplest /cheapest. A. double weight C. single weight
TLR = one lens for focusing/ one for forming. B. medium weight D. light weight
View or Press = biggest and expensive. For ordinary photographing = single weight, #2, silver
DSLR = Digital Single Lens Reflex Camera bromide, white and glossy.
Pinhole camera = the simplest camera made from a box 34. What photo paper is ideal to be used in a normal exposed
with a small hole in one of its sides. film?
Polaroid camera= camera with instant photograph. A. # 1 B. # 3 C. # 2 D. # 4
Fish Eye lens= special type of camera having 180 degrees # 0 for extremely overexposed and # 1 for
angle of view. overexposed
Folding camera = a type of camera in which the lens and the # 3, #4 and #5 are for underexposed
shutter mounted to body by means of an accordion-pleated 35. What photo paper according to its chemical content is best
bellows, which can be folded into camera foe ease of carrying. suited for police photography?
Charged-coupled device (CCD) = is that part of the Digital SLR A. Chloride paper C. Bromide paper
camera that converts light into electrical signal as the start of B. Chloro-bromide D. Iodide paper
forming digital images. Chloride paper = for contact printing.
30. What type of a film has the longest range of sensitivity in Note: in the absence of bromide paper, chlorobromide will do.
the electromagnetic spectrum called? 36. A convex lens is capable of _____________.
A. orthochromatic film C. blue-sensitive film A. reducing the object
B. panchromatic film D. infra-red film B. making the object appear hairy
Film = is a sheet of celluloid or glass coated with an emulsion C. enlarging the object
of silver halides suspended in gelatine which retains on D. reducing the size of the picture
invisible image when exposed to light. Convex = thicker at the center and thinner sides.
1. Black & White Film =“ortho” or “pan” Concave = thinner at the center.
Ex. Ortholith, Pan X plus, Tri X Pan, Neo Pan (positive/converging lens)– enlarge the object
2. Colored Film (negative/diverging lens) – reduce the object.
a. Negative Type (COLOR) = Ultra Violet 37. Zoom lens is composed of _______ (variable focal length)
Film, Blue Sensitive Film, Infra-Red Film A. positive lens C. A and B
b. Reversal type (CHROME) B. negative lens D. none
Ex. Orthochromatic film (Sensitive up to 38. What lens defect makes it unable for the lens to focus both
Green except RED) horizontal and vertical lines in a plane at the same time?
Panchromatic film (Sensitive to all A. Coma C. Astigmatism
the colors of the Visible Light (VBGYOR) B. Distortion D. Chromatic aberration
Color harmony = systematic arrangement of color to Coma / lateral aberration = straight line becomes blurred.
give a pleasant effect.
Positive Coma = results in a star images near the outer edges A. Wide angle lens C. Normal focus lens
of the viewing field seeming to have comet-style tails B. Telephoto lens D. Zoom lens
scattering radially towards its optical axis. 43. Patrolman Cardo needs to conduct surveillance. What
Negative Coma (scattering radially away from its optical camera lens would best suit this kind of work?
axis) A. Wide angle lens C. Normal focus lens
Distortion = a defect not in blurredness but in shape. B. Zoom lens D. Telephoto lens
(barrel/pinchusion) 44. What is the range of distance from the nearest object to
Chromatic aberration = (defects in color) = it is a lens defect in the farthest object that is sharp when the lens is set or focused
which light of varying (different wavelength is focused at at a particular distance?
different distances behind the lens. A. Focal length C. Hyperfocal distance
Curvature of field = circular “dome-like” image. B. Depth of field D. Focusing
Spherical aberration = a lens defect that can affect resolution 45. What characteristics of a lens would determining factor of
and clarity. (it is blurredness due to lens passing the side (off- the size of an image as well as the area of coverage of a given
center) of the lens.) camera lens is the?
39. What type of a lens is used in a simplest and cheapest A. Focal length C. Hyper-focal distance
type of a camera? B. Diaphragm opening D. Depth of field
A. Rapid rectillinear lens C. Anastigmat lens Focal length = is the distance from the optic center of the lens
B. Meniscus lens D. Achromatic lens to film plane once the lens is focus in an infinite position.
Lens According to Correction Focal distance = distance from the camera lens to the
Meniscus = no correction (Simplest lens) nearest object.
Rapid rectillinear = corrected from distortion. Hyperfocal distance = the nearest distance between the optic
Anastigmat = corrected from astigmatism center of the lens to the nearest object that would give the
Achromatic = corrected from chromatic aberration. maximum depth of field.
Apochromatic lens = corrected from both astigmatism and Focal length (Film plane to the optic center of lens)
chromatic aberration Depth of Field- nearest object to the farthestobject (sharp
Focusing – controls the degree of sharpness. coverage)
Range Finder (Coincidence/ Split Image) 46. When one uses a Photographic filter in taking a
Ground Glass photograph, he is actually __________light rays or color from
=(Using microprism, the image on focus will usually the light to reach the film.
shatter of an out of focus image & when it is exactly in focus A. adding C. multiplying
the prism seems to disappear, This microprism is primarily B. subtracting D. dividing
found on Ground glass) 47. A filter used in photographing fingerprints on a shiny or
Scale Bed - highly polished surfaced because it reduces or eliminates glare
40. What kind of diaphragm opening should a photographer is known as ________.
used in order to get a wider depth of field? A. neutral density C. polarizing
A. Wider C. Smaller B. color D. contrast filter
B. Shorter D. Longer 48. If the basic exposure for a given film in bright sunlight is
F-Number = focal length/diameter of the whole lens. l/125, f11, the exposure setting at dull sunlight would be?
Lens opening (diaphragm) controls definition. a. 1/125 f4 C. 1/125 f5.6
f 2.8, f -4, f-5.6, f-8, f-11, f-16 c. 1/125 f8 D. 1/125 f16
The lower the F- number the bigger the lens opening. BS = 1/125 , f-11 HS=1/125 , f-8 DS = 1/125 , f-5.6
41. What lens has a variable focal length? 49. What shutter speed will freeze a moving object?
A. Wide angle lens C. Normal focus lens A. B-shutter C. Slow shutter
B. Telephotolens D. Zoom lens B. Fast shutter D. moderate shutter
Lens According to Focal Length Shutter speed = it refers to the effective length of time a
1. Wide angle/short focus = lens with focal length less camera’s shutter is open.
than the diagonal half of the negative (35mm). B-shutter = used when taking photograph at night or when the
Increase the area coverage but reduce the size of the source of light is low. Used together with cable release and
object. tripod.
2. Normal/medium focus = based on human vision. 50. How much light will the combination of 1/125, f-4 has
(more than 35mm but not more than two times the compare to 1/250, f-5.6.?
diagonal half of the negative) (>35 not >70mm) A. Equal C. Four times
3. Telephoto/long focus = reduced the area coverage but B. Two times D. Six times
enlarged the size of the object. Shutter speed
42. What type of a lens that would make an object to be 2, 1, ½, ¼, 1/8, 1/15, 1/30, 1/60, 1/125, 1/250, 1/500
exaggeratedly closes to the photographer? 2x
 Lens Opening 60. What is the usual time of fixing of a negative or a
f-2.8 , f-4, f-5.6, f-8, f-11, f-16 photograph?
2x A. Five to six minutes C. Ten to fifteen twelve
1/125 , f-4 = 1/250, f-5.6 B. One to one and half minutes D. Twenty to thirty minutes
2x + 2x = 4x 5- 6 minutes = Developing time for D-76
51. What part of the camera is responsible for transmitting the 1 – 1 ½ minutes = developing time for dektol
light to form the image (Image forming device)? 61. What chemicals serevs as the reducers or the developing
A. Light tight box C. Shutter agents?
B. Lens D. View finder A. Elon, Hydroquinone C. Sodium carbonate
[Link] is that process of taking a magnified (enlarged) B. Sodium sulfate D. Potassium bromide
photograph of small object obtained by attaching an extended Sodium Carbonate - Accelerator
tube lens to a camera? 62. The need for long and continuous washing in water of a
A. Photomicrography C. Photomacrography negative or finished print is to remove the presence
B. Microphotography D. Photomacrograph of___________ because its presence will result to the early
53. What is that magnified photograph of small object obtained fading.
by attaching a camera to the ocular of a compound A. sodium sulfite B. potassium alum
microscope? C. acetic acid D. hypo
A. Photomicrograph C. Microphotograph Sodium sulfate = preservative
B. Photomicrography D. Photomacrograph Potasium alum/ Potassium bromide =hardener.
Photomicrography and photo macrography are process. Sodium thiosulfate (Hypo) = the fixing or dissolving
Photomacrograph = is an enlarged photograph. agent. Acetic acid = neutralizer
Microphotograph = is a reduced photograph. It makes big 63. Error in the processing step like overdevelopment could be
object small. remedied by the use of a __________.
54. What part of the sensitized is sensitive to light? A. reducer C. intensifier
A. Emulsion C. Anti-halation B. bleacher D. stain remover
B. Base D. Coating Underdeveloped = intensifier. Stained = stain
Parts of the Film/Photopaper remover
1. Emulsion = (coated with gelatin or rosin) 64. What is that process of eliminating unwanted portions of a
2. Anti halation = designed to prevent further reflexes negative during enlarging process?
by absorbing excess light. A. Dodging C. Vignetting
3. Base = plastic material support the emulsion layer. B. Burning-in D. Cropping
[Link] substance is present in the emulsion surface of the Cropping = omitting an object.
film or photo paper which is sensitive to light? Burning –in = additional exposure on the desired portion of a
A. Silver nitrate C. Silver halides negative.
B. Silver chloride D. Silver bromide Vignetting = gradual fading of the image towards the side.
56. Taking photograph in back lighting will produce what 65. What is the functions of the boric acid and acetic acids in
image? the fixer?
A. Good image b. Bad image A. Preservative C. Neutralizer
B. Fare image d. Better image B. Hardener D. Dissolving agent
** what is required in front lighting** Preservative = sodium sulfate
57. What is meant by total take? Neutralizer = acetic acid/boric acid
A. Photograph the crime scene in all angles. B. Hardener = potassium alum/potassium bromide.
Photograph the crime scene 66. The chemical that will dissolve all the unexposed and
C. Photograph only important evidence. undeveloped silver halides after development is the ____.
D. Photograph the body of the crime. A. acetic acid C. sodium sulfate
58. The part of enlarger that will assure the even illumination of B. hypo D. potassium alum
the negative when enlarging is the __________. 67. What is the chemical used in order to accelerate the
A. lamp house B. bellows developer solution?
C. condenser D. focusing speed A. Sodium carbonate C. Sodium oxide
Baseboard = it is the part of the enlarger which supports the B. Sodium nitrate D. Sodium sulfate
entire unit of the enlarger. (it provides means to hold the easel 68. Digital Photography differs from the traditional photography
& photo paper). mainly because it uses _____ instead of a film.
59. What is the recommended size of photographic evidence? A. micro chip C. CCD
A. 5 x 7 inches C. Passport size B. pixels D. electronic
B. 2 x 2 inches D. 4 x 8 inches 69. In storing data of digital images, image compression is
used in order to reduce the cost of their storage or data
transmission. Which of the following is the most efficient form 4. What branch of ballistics treats of the motion of the projectile
of image compression in digital photography? while it is in its flight?
A. CCD C. CMOS A. Interior C. Terminal
B. DCT D. JPEG B. Exterior D. Forensic
70. Using DSLR, what mode is best used when the Interior = while still inside the firearm./before leaving
photographer desired to control the lens opening of the the gun muzzle/ Breech-muzzle.
camera? Exterior = upon leaving the gun muzzle/ before
A. Shutter –priority mode C. Tv reaching the target.
B. Aperture –priority Mode D. S Terminal = upon reaching/hitting the target.
71. What control mode of the digital camera is best to be used 5. What Greek word from which the word “ballistics” was
when photographing fast moving object? derived which means “to throw”
A. Shutter –priority mode C. A A. Ballistics C. Catapult
B. Aperture –priority Mode D. Av B. Ballein or ballo D. Ballista
Ballista = is a gigantic catapult (Roman war machine) designed
III. FORENSIC BALLISTICS to throw stone to the enemy.
Ballistics = science of the motion or mobility of projectile. 6. What kind of motion of the projectile is produce once it
= Science of firearms and projectile. enters a rifled barrel of a gun?
Derived from Greek word “Ballo” & “Ballein”, meaning to throw. A. Direct C. Rotatory
Forensic Ballistics B. Translational D. Twist
= it is the science of firearms identification by means Direct = forward movement.
of an ammunition fired from them. Rotatory = twist of the bullet either to the R or L.
Ballistic engineer = people in police laboratory whose concern Translational motion = motion responsible for the bouncing of
is weapons and projectile. Usually referred to as Ballistician. the bullet in different direction after hitting a much harder
1. The word forensic means _______? object known as ricochet (change in the motion of the bullet).
A. forum 7. What initiates the combustion of the gunpowder in a shell?
B. market place A. Hammer C. Primer
C. public discussion B. Trigger D. Flash hole
D. In connection with administration of justice Trigger = release the hammer.
The word forensic was derived from the Latin word Hammer = metal rode or plate that strikes the cartridge primer
“forum” meaning a “market place”, a place where people to detonate the powder. (firing pin)
gathered for public discussion. Firing pin = hits the primer.
2. Who is the person accredited as successful inventor of gun Primer = imparts ignition to the gun powder
powder? Flash hole = where the primer imparts ignition to the gun
A. Horace smith C. Berthhold Schwartz powder.
B. Alexander John Forsyth D. Dr. Calvin [Link] 8. What is the rearward reaction of the firearm in relation to the
Roger Bacon (1242 AD) wrote a literary article which forward movement of the bullet upon firing?
turns out to be the original formula of black powder. A. Percussion action C. Recoil of the firearm
[Link] H. Goddard = father of modern ballistics. B. Back fire D. Ricochet
Horace Smith= founder of Smith and Wesson Percussion action = is the ignition of the priming mixture.
company. Jump = upward reaction of the gun.
Henry Derringer = he gave his name to a whole class of 9. What is characterized as the stillness or the steadiness
firearms& manufacture the pocket pistol. (stability or parabola) of the bullet in flight? (Straight travel in
2.1. Who invented a submachine gun (1950) used in Israel flight)
during the Sinai campaign in 1956? A. Key hole shot C. Ricochet
A. Alexander John Forsyth C. Uziel Gal B. Yaw D. Gyroscopic action
B. Hiram Maxim D. Le Faucheux Ricochet =bouncing of bullet as a result of not penetrating or
Alexander John Forsyth = Father of Percussion hitting a hard object. It refers to the deflection of the bullet from
ignition (Priming mixture). its normal path after striking hard object.
Hiram Maxim = the one who put into used the Yaw = unstable rotation motion of bullet.
concept of recoil to create a fully automatic Key hole shot = tumbling of bullet in flight hitting the target
mechanism of the firearm. sideways.
Le Faucheux= invented the first self- exploding Drift = the manner of curving of the bullet.
cartridge in 1836 (Pin-fire cartridge). 10. What is the pattern or curve path of the bullet in flight?
3. What is the science of mobility of the projectile? (Parabola like flight).
A. Forensic ballistics C. Ballistics A. Curve C. Trajectory
B. Applied physics D. Applied science B. Gyroscopic action D. Drop of bullet
11. What is the rate of speed of the bullet per unit of time, 18. What type of a firearm is commonly used by cavalry?
expressed in ft/sec? A. Carbine C. Revolver
A. Muzzle velocity C. Velocity B. Pistol D. Rifle
B. Muzzle blast D. Trajectory Revolver = ideal for horse riding.
Muzzle blast = noise or sound generated at the muzzle point. Rifling = spiral groove (helix) in the bore designed to give a
Muzzle velocity = the speed at which the bullet leaves the spin to the projectile for greater accuracy and carrying power.
muzzle. Pistols = handguns that can be fired several times by means of
Silencer – device attached at the muzzle of the barrel to muffle cartride stored in the handle.
the sound of a gunshot. 19. What type of a hand firearm has a rotating cylinder that
12. What is the distance at which the gunner has the control of serves as the magazine and which successively places
shot. Where the bullet travel straight? cartridge into position for firing?
A. Maximum range C. Maximum effective range A. Pistol C. Revolver
B. Accurate range D. Effective range B. Rifle D. Carbine
Range = imaginary straight distance between muzzle and the 20. Firearm in which pressure upon the trigger will both cock
target. and release the hammer is a _______.
Effective range = distance where bullet is lethal. A. single action C. double action B.
Maximum effective range = farther distance where bullet is single shot D. repeating arms
still lethal. Single action =requires manual cocking.
Maximum range= farthest possible distance of travel. 21. What type of a firearm contains rifling (land and grooves)
13. What do you call the size of the bullet grouping on the only a few inches from the muzzle point?
target? A. Cylinder type C. Choke
A. Terminal penetration C. Terminal accuracy B. Rifled bore D. Paradox
B. Terminal trajectory D. Muzzle velocity Cylinder type = equal diameter Choke type = reducing
Muzzle energy = energy coming from the muzzle point diameter
(generated at the muzzle point). 22. What type of a firearm is fed by chamber?
14. What type of a firearm propels a projectile with more than A. Single shot F/A C. Slide action
one inch diameter? B. Bolt action D. Repeating arms
A. Small arms C. Machine gun 23. What term generally applied to all home made gun, just as
B. Artillery D. Cannon the one used by juvenile delinquent in United States?
Artillery =more than one inch A. Zip gun C. Grease gun
Small Arms = less than one inch B. Freakish gun D. Paltik
Machine gun = automatic/continuous firing. 24. A copper jacketed type of a bullet is usually fired from a:
Shoulder arm = carry/fired with the aid of the A. rifle C. pistol
shoulder. (Rifle/carbine/shotgun/musket) B. revolver D. pistol and revolver
Hand gun = can be fired in one hand. Freakish gun = a tool in which F/A mechanism is attached.
15. What type of a firearm in which the mechanism is so Paltik = the counter part of zip gun in the Phils.
arranged that makes it capable of continuous firing in a single Cane guns = devices that are not really designed to become
press of a trigger and while the trigger is press? weapon but because of its mechanism that is the same as
A. Machine gun C. Grease gun those in the firearm. (miscellaneous guns).
B. Sub-machine gun D. Shoulder arm [Link] is known as the smallest pistol in the world?
Sub-Machine gun (SMG) and grease gun are the A. Colibre C. Cal 22
same= uses ammunition for handgun such as pistols. B. Senorita D. Kolibre
16. What type of a firearm is designed to propel a projectile by Pistols was also taken from Italian word Pistolia meaning “city”.
means of compressed air or strong string? Smooth bore matchlock Arguebus = is an early muzzle loading
A. Air rifle C. Carbine firearms used in the 15th to 17thcentiries. It is the forerunner of
B. Springfield armory D. Musket the rifle and other long-arm firearms.
17. What type of a firearm which propels a number of lead 26. What part of a firearm houses all the other parts?.
pellets in one charge to a smooth bore barrel? A. Housing C. Casing
A. Rifle C. Shotgun B. Frame D. Chamber
B. Machine gun D. Musket 27. What mechanism of a firearm withdraws the empty shells
Smooth bore = without rifling from the chamber?
a. musket =muzzle loading/ancient weapon A. Ejector C. Firing pin
b. shotgun = breech loading/a number of lead pellets. B. Extractor D. Extractor pin
Rifled bore = with rifling Ejector = causes the empty shell to be thrown out of the
a. rifle firearm.
b. carbine = short barrel rifle (less than 22”)
28. In case that cartridge case are found at the scene of firing 3. Drill = without gun powder. Used for training purpose such
it only means that_____firearm was used. as practice loading and unloading.
A. single shot C. automatic 4. Live = the complete cartridge.
B. bold action D. double action There are four (4) classes of cartridge according to type of
29. What is that condition in firing at which the cartridge took firearms used and these are (a) revolver, (b) pistol cartridge,
several seconds before it discharged upon firing? (delayed (c) rifle cartridges and what? –shotgun
in the discharged of the cartridge). 36. What type of cartridge has a rim diameter which is smaller
A. Mis-fire C. Backfire than the diameter of the body of the cartridge?
B. Hang fire D. Backshot A. Belted type C. Rebated
Misfire = failure to discharged. B. Rimless D. Rimmed type
Hangfire= fails to explode on time or delayed (in Rimmed type = Rim diameter is greater (larger) than the shell’s
firing) in the discharged of firearm. body.
30. What is the steel block that closes the rear of the bore Rimless = Rim diameter is equal to the body diameter.
against the force of the charge? Belted = with protruding metal around its body. Used in high
A. Breechface C. Hammer power gun such as machine gun.
B. Breechblock D. Chamber 37. Is the type of cartridge in which is the priming mixture is
Breechface = the flat surface where the base of the found at the cavity rim of the cartridgase?
shell comes in contact when fired. A. Pin fire C. Rimmed type
Chamber = part of the f/a where cartridge is placed C. Center fire D. Rim fire
when ready to be fired. Pin-fire = with built in pin. (obsolete)
31. What type of primer consisting of two flash hole or vent? Rim-fire = priming mixture is located at the cavity rim.
A. Berdan C. Boxer Louis Nicolas Flobert = a Frenchman who invented the first
B. Battery D. none rim-fire metallic cartridge.
Boxer=one flash hole Battery= shotgun primer. Center –fire = there is a primer cup located at the center.
32. Who is the “Father of percussion ignition”? Morse cartridge in 1858 marked the beginning of the
A. Alexander John Forsyth C. Roger Bacon B. rapid development of center-fire cartridge.
Bethold Schwartz D. Veillie 38. A 12 gauge shotgun has an equivalent diameter of _____.
Paul M. Veillie = developed smokeless powder for rifle in A. .730” C. .729”
France. B. .726” D. .724”
33. Primers are used for igniting the propellant charge by Gauge 10 = .775
means of a blow from the firing pin on the primer cup Gauge = measure of the caliber of smooth bore firearm.
producing flames that passes through the _______. Smallest shotgun caliber = .410 cal./gauge.
A. anvil C. paper disc
B. vent/ flash holeD. primer cup
Anvil = solid metallic support. 39. European made firearm are usually referred in millimeter in
Paper disc= thin foil/animal skin which protect the priming determining calibers, when you talk of 9mm you are referring
mixture from moist. to ________.
Primer cup = gilding metal cup which holds the priming A. .40 cal C. .357 cal
mixture. B. .45 cal D. .30 cal
34. What is a complete unfired unit consisting of a bullet, 40. What is a metallic or non-metallic cylindrical ball propel
gunpowder, cartridge case and primer or loaded shell for use from a firearm?
in any firearm? A. Bullet C. Slug
A. Ammunition C. Cartridge B. Projectile D. Missile
B. Shotgun cartridge D. Missile Projectile = metallic and non-metallic ball propel from a
Cartridge derived from “Latin word Charta” – meaning paper firearm.
French word Cartouche – rolled paper. Bullet = projectile usually fired from small arms.
Shotgun cartridge = consists of pellet, gunpowder, primer, Slug =other term/police term for bullet.
shell and wads. Shot = also referred to as slug/commonly used in shotgun.
[Link] type of ammunition which does not have bullet used Missile = used for artillery.
in film-making? 41. What type of a bullet is designed to be fired at night which
A. Dummy C. Blank B. Drill emits a bright flame at its base and usually colored red-tip?
D. Live A. Armor piercing C. Incendiary
Kinds of ammunition B. Tracer D. Explosive
1. Dummy = fake used as model. Ball type = used for personnel.
2. Blank = without bullet. Used in film making. Armor piercing = used in light metallic target/harden metal
core.
Incendiary = design to set fire upon impact (blue tip) A. cut C. consume
Explosive = design to fragment. B. contaminate D. conserve
42. What type of a bullet is made in order to inflict greater 52. What part of the cartridge case holds the primer securely in
damage used by India? a central position and providing a solid support for the primer
A. Dum-Dum B. Baton round anvil?
C. Expanding bullet D. Explosive E. Mushroom bullet A. Flash hole C. Primer pocket
Expanding bullet = hallow point & soft point also B. Extractor groove D. Rim
called mushroom bullet. Rim = limits the forward movement of the cartridge to the
43. A bullet covered with thick coating of a copper alloy to cylinder.
prevent leading is known as: 53. The caliber of a bullet is measured through_____.
A. plated bullet C. jacketed bullet B. metal A. two opposite lands
cased bullet D. metal point bullet B. the base diameter
In firearms identification, the outer covering of the bullet is? --- C. using the caliper
(a) silver (b) jacket (c) ogive (d) copper. D. using a micrometer
44. Shots consisting of a small lead ball or pellets which are F/A caliber = measurement of the bore diameter from land to
made by dropping with the exception of the very largest sizes land. (two opposite lands)
which are made by molding are known as ________. Bullet caliber = base diameter.
A. soft shots C. coated shots Shell caliber = neck/body diameter.
B. buck shots D. chilled shots 54. What is the helical groove mark found inside the bore of
45. What type of a bullet is design as anti-riot, basically made the barrel designed to impart rotation motion of the bullet?
from rubber at a larger caliber? A. Lands C. Grooves
A. Discarding sabot C. Flechette B. Rifling D. Pitch of rifling
B. Baton Round D. Frangible 55. A fired bullet with six lands and grooves twisted to the right
Discarding Sabot = design for greater velocity. is fired from the barrel of a firearm with identical class
Flechette = a number of nail type or neddle-like characteristics as that of ________.
projectile. A. Browning (6RG2X) C. Colt (6LG2X)
[Link] is metallic or non-metallic cylindrical container which B. Smith & Wesson(5RG=L) D. Steyer (4RG=L)
serves as the projector for the propellant against moisture? 56. The pitch of rifling (rate of twist) in the barrel of a firearm is
A. Bullet C. Primer called as____?
B. Cartridge case D. Paper disc A. land C. one complete revolution of bullet
47. What part of the cartridge case which characterized by a B. groove D. range
cylindrical grooves that prevents the bullet from being push (one complete turn = 360 degrees)
down to the cartridge? 57. What instrument is used in measuring the pitch of rifling of
A. Crimp C. Neck a firearm?
B. Shoulder D. Cannelure A. Calipher C. Helixometer
Crimp = prevent loss/pull out. B. Tortion balance D. Chronograph
48. What is that cylindrical groove around the body of a bullet Caliper = measure caliber of a firearms, bullet or shell
which may contains lubricating substances and which can be Chronograph = measure velocity.
the basis in determining its manufacturer? 58. Fired Cartridge case/shell are usually mark at the ______.
A. Body C. Bullet crimp A. base C. side or body of the shell
B. Ogive D. Bullet cannelure. B. rim D. any of the above
49. Black powder basically composed of: Shell/Casing – Body or side, Near outside mouth or
A. 75% potassium chlorate, 15% charcoal and 10% near inside open mouth.
sulfur. (Priming Mixture) 59. Fired bullet found at the scene of the crime are usually
B. 75% potassium nitrate, 15% charcoal and 10% marked at the ______.
sulfur. A. ogive B. nose C. base D. tip
C. 75% potassium chlorate, 10 % charcoal and 15 % Bullet – Base, Nose or Ogive.
sulfur. 60. Fired bullet/fired shell are usually mark with:
D. 75% potassium nitrate, 10% charcoal and 15% A. initial of the investigator
sulfur. B. initials of investigator and date of recovery.
50. What form of smokeless powder is made from sticks or C. letter “t” plus the last two digit of the firearm.
cords? D. letter “t-1, t-2…., plus the last two digit of the firearm
A. Balistite C. Powder B used. (Test Bullet marking)
B. Cordite D. Nitroglycerine 61. What is the list of the people who have handled the
51. The don’t MAC rule in collection of physical evidence physical evidence from the time of its discovery until their final
stands for: mutilate, alter and ____? disposition in court?
 A. Evidence list C. Chain of events A. Land marks C. Striation
B. Chain link D. Chain of custody B. Groove marks D. Accidental marks
62. The basis in shell identification is________. 72. What instrument is used in determining the caliber of the
A. firing pin marks bullet by getting its equivalent weight?
B. breech face marks A. Caliper C. Torsion Balance
C. firing pin and/or breech face marks B. Micrometer D. Flat-form balance
D. extractor and ejector marks 73. What type of a powder used in modern cartridges being
(1) Firing pin mark, (2) Breech face mark, and (3) Extractor powerful?
combined with ejector mark. A. Corrosive C. Black
63. What is that individual marks found at the anterior portion B. Non-corrosive D. Smoke less
of the bullet due to poor alignment of the cylinder with bore of Corrosion = the chemical tearing away of the bore of a firearm
the firearm? due to rusting.
A. Skid marks C. Shaving marks Erosion = the mechanical tearing of the barrel due to
B. Stripping marks D. Slippage marks excessive use.
64. The importance of individual marks left on a bullet by a gun 0 to 2 inches (contact firing) = singeing (burning of skin),
barrel is that it is useful in directly identifying the ________. smudging (blackening of the bullet hole), tattooing (peppering),
A. bullet which caused the fatal wound presence of nitrates.
B. person who fired the particular firearm 2 to 6 inches = there is singeing, smudging, tattooing,
C. gun from which a bullet was fired presence of nitrates.
D. possible direction of shot 6 to 12 inches = smudging, tattooing and presence of nitrates.
65. What is the best way of picking a suspected firearm at the 12 to 36 inches = there is tattooing and presence of nitrates.
crime scene? 74. What is an optical instrument used or designed to make
A. Picking it through the handle simultaneous comparison of two specimens?
B. Picking it through the barrel A. Comparison microscope C. Micrometer
C. Inserting a handkerchief or string straw at the B. Chronograph D. Shadowgraph
trigger guard 75. What is an istrument used in obtaining test bullet. It consist
D. Inserting a rod at the barrel usually of wooden box 12”x12”X96” with a hinged to cover and
66. What characteristics of a firearm which are determinable with one end open usually filled with cotton and seperated into
even before the manufacture of the firearm? sections by cardboard partitions:
A. Class Characteristics C. Repetitive mark A. Caliper C. Bullet comparison microscope
B. Individual Characteristics D. Accidental mark B. Bullet recovery box D. Water tank
Individual characteristics = determinable only after the 76. What is a pointed instrument use in marking fired
manufacture of the firearm. bullet/fired shell?
Rifling operation = the most important single process in a A. Pointer C. Marker
barrel manufacture from the standpoint of the identification B. Stylus D. Driller
expert . [Link] includes muskets, carbine shotgun etc. as
67. What Is a condition in which two bullets or shells are mentioned in _______of the Revised Administrative Code.
examined and compared under the comparison microscope at A. sec.788 C. sec.787
the same time, level and direction and magnification and same B. sec.878 [Link].877
image? 78. Low power gun are those firearms that uses projectile not
A. Pseudo match C. False match more than 9mm or .38 cal. Except ______.
B. Juxtaposition D. Sodo match A. magnum .22 C. magnum 40
68. When the “draws” of the revolver is completed, the index B. magnum 357 D. a and c only
finger should? 79. It is otherwise known as the Comprehensive Firearms and
A. Touch the outside of the trigger guard Ammunition Regulation Act __________.
B. Grasp the stock A. R.A. 10591 C. R.A. 10158
C. Be straighten along the barrel (Pistol) B. P.D. 1866 D. R.A. 8294
D. Be inside the trigger guard 80. Under the New law on firearms the following shall be
69. What is the secret of good shooting form? considered firearm, EXCEPT.
A. Relaxed and natural position A. Barrel C. Receiver
B. Keeping the thumb along the hammer B. Frame D. Magazine
C. Proper sighting of the target 81. What is any handheld or portable weapon, whether a small
D. Firing slowly and carefully arms or light weapon, that expels or is designed to expel a
70. What are small grooves, channels or ridges on the surface bullet, shot, slug, missile or any projectile, which is discharged
of the bullet due to the tool marks or other irregularities in the by means of expansive force of gases from burning gun
interior surface of the bore?
powder or other form of combustion or any similar instrument 5. What are standards given or made at the request of an
or implement. investigator for the sole purpose of making a comparative
A. Firearm C. Antique firearm examination with the questioned writing?
B. Forfeited firearm D. Confiscated firearm A. Procured standard C. Requested Standard
Antique Firearms: B. Collected Standard D. All of these
a. Firearm which was manufactured at least seventy-five 6. What specimen of a person’s handwriting or handprinting
(75) years prior to the current date but not including executed from day to day or in the normal course of business,
replicas; personal or social activity?
b. Firearm which is certified by the National Museum of A. Physical Evidence C. Collected standard
the Philippines to be curio or relic of museum interest. B. Requested Standard D. Information
c. Any other firearm which derives a substantial part of 7. What kind of an evidence is an autopsy report?
its monetary value from the fact that it is novel, rare, A. Documentary C. Testimonial
bizarre or because of its association with some B. Experimental D. Object/Real
historical figure, period or event. 8. When document examiner as well as police are dealing with
documents, the most common problem they encountered are
IV. Questioned Document those concerning ________.
1. A document completely written and signed by one person is A. origin C. counterfeit
known as____________. B. (Proving) authorship D. content (alteration)
a. holograpic document b. all of the above Majority of questioned document cases are concerned with
c. questioned document d. disputed document -------. Proving authorship.
Document = any written instrument in which right or obligation 9. What is the study of one’s handwriting in attempting to
is established or extinguished. determine one’s (characters) personality?
Holograph = Latin word “holo” and “graph” meaning A. Agraphia C. Chromatography
“handwriting”. B. Graphology D. Handwriting identification
2. What is a document in which some issue have been raised Graphology = Art of determining the character or disposition of
or which is under scrutiny. Being questioned because of its a person by analyzing his handwriting. (also known as grapho-
origin, its contents etc. analysis)
A. Questioned document C. Standard document Grapho-analysis = art or study of handwriting based on two
B. Disputed document D. Evidential document fundamental strokes, the curve and the straight strokes as
referred to by experts.
Questioned Document Agraphia = a kind of disease in the brain which makes the
It serves as the focal points of all document examination and person unable to write.
it is where the document examiner relies as to the 10. What is the art of beautiful writing?
determination of the appropriate examination and the extent of A. Cacography C. Calligraphy
the problem involved. B. Ambidextrous D. Bicephalous
3. An instrument that can be legally used in comparison with a Cacography = bad writing.
questioned document, its origin is known and can be proven. Ambidextrous = refers to person who can write either with his
A. Standard document C. forged document left or right hand. (can effectively use both left and right)
B. simulated document D. Compared document 11. Questioned document examination is known by many
Standard Document is also referred to as Exemplars. names Except ___________.
Standard Document = A condensed and compact set of A. Forensic document Examination
authentic specimen which is adequate and proper should B. Handwriting analysis
contain a cross section of the material from known sources. C. Handwriting Examination
Questioned Document Examination / forensic D. Document Classification
document examination/ handwriting examination 12. Who is known as the Father of Questioned Document?
/Document analysis. A. Albert S. Osborn C. Dr. Hans Gross
4. What is the modern term of a handwriting specimen B. Dr. Wilson Harrison D. Ordway Hilton
obtained personally from a known source that can be used by Dr. Wilson Harrison = British document examiner who said
the examiner as the basis for his identity (ID) or non-ID of the that an intelligent police investigator can detect almost 75% of
writings found in a Questioned Document? all forgeries by careful inspection of a document with simple
A. Handwriting standard C. Collected standard magnifiers and measuring tools.
B. Samples D. Exemplars 13. What is the combination of the basic designs of letter and
Requested Standard = given or made upon request of the the writing movement involved in the writing?
investigator (examiner) to serve as basis for comparison. A. Copy book form C. System of writing
B. Writing movement D. Line quality
 Copy book form = the illustration of the basic designs Slant = refers to the degree of writing inclination. The slope of
of letter/fundamental to the writing system. writing.
Angular &roundhand = basic system of writing. Baseline = it is an imaginary or straight line in which writing
Writing movement = refers to the mobility/motion of the pen. rest.
14. What is the visible record of the written strokes resulting 22. What is a specimen of writing prepared with deliberate
from a combination of various factors associated to the motion intent of altering the usual writing habits in the hope of hiding
of the pen. Is the overall quality of the strokes? his identity?
A. Movement C. Writing habits A. Disguised writing C. Cursive
B. Line quality D. Significant writing habits B. Hand lettering D. Block capital
Line quality is best shown using photomicrography. 23. What is that properties or marks, elements or qualities
Handwriting = visible effect. Writing = visible result. which serve to distinguish? Known as the basis of
Writing habits = any repeated elements of writing. identification. (also known as Identifying Details)
Significant writing habits = sufficiently unique and well-fixed. A. Characteristics C. Class characteristics
15. What is the usual or normal deviations found in a repeated B. Individual characteristics D. Sample
specimen of individual’s handwriting? 24. All handwriting contains or exhibits certain identifying
A. Natural variation C. Permanent damage properties of elements that are being use by the examiners to
B. Transitory change D. Temporary defect identify the author. These elements are also labeled as _____.
Transitory change = changes which are only temporary. E.g. A. individual characteristics C. class Characteristics
deterioration due to drunkenness or illness. B. characteristics D. none of these
16. In document examination when referring to contemporary 25. Pedro’s handwriting is admired for some characteristics
documents this refers to__? that serves as his trademark of penmanship. What is the right
A. document which is more than 5 years before and after. term for Pedro’s trademark of penmanship?
B. document which are not more than 5 years before and after A. Individual characteristics C. Class Characteristics
C. document which are more than 30 years B. Characteristics D. None of these
D. document which are not more than 20 years Class/common/general characteristics or Gross = can
17. A specimen of document which is more than 30 years be found in a group of writing.
found in a place where it is normally to be found if genuine and Identification involves comparison of their :Characteristics,
not embellish by any alteration. Elements & Qualities which are either Class and individual
A. authentic Document C. Standard Document Characteristics
B. Ancient Document D. Antique Doc. Individual Characteristics = (one’s trade mark in writing)
Ancient Document = more than 30 years found in a place characteristics which are highly peculiar or unusual or that
where it is normally to be found if genuine and not embellish which unlikely to occur in other’s writing.
by any alteration. 26. What specimen of writing which was executed without
18. What type of a document which bears the seals of the intention of changing the usual writing habits. It is executed
office issuing and the authorized signature to such document? normally by the writer.
A. Public document C. Official document A. Natural writing C. Guided writing B.
B. Private document D. Commercial document Disguised writing D. Assisted writing
19. What kind of document is executed by a person in Natural writing = consisting of usual writing habits.
authority and by private parties but notarized by competent Disguised = inferior than natural writing.
officials? Guided or Assisted = executed with the writer’s hand at
A. Private document C. Commercial Document steadied.
B. Public Document D. Official Document 27. Writing forms can either be a disconnected or joined letter
20. What kind of a document which is executed by a private writings. What specimen of writing is characterized by
person without the intervention of a notary public, or of disconnected style?
competent public official by which some disposition of A. Hand lettering C. Manuscript form
agreement is proved? B. Cursive writing D. Rounded
A. Commercial Document C. Public Document Handprinting or handlettering (ductus broken)
B. Official document D. Private Document Block Capital = All capital disconnected style (All Majuscule).
Handwriting standards = should be three or more. Manuscript = combination of capital and small letters in
21. What is the first step in the procurement of handwriting disconnected style (combined majuscule and minuscule).
exemplars? Cursive = letters are joined.
A. Request for standard specimen Connection = (ductus link) strokes joining two
B. Study of the questioned specimen successive letters in a word.
C. Determine the writing instrument and paper used 28. What is a genuine signature which was used in the
D. Arrange for normal writing condition preparation of a simulated or traced forgery?
A. Authentic signature C. Model signature
 B. Standard signature D. Evidential signature 36. A modern pen nib which contains a reservoir of ink in a
[Link] group of muscles is responsible for the formation of specially designed back or chamber is described as ______
the upward strokes? (used to prevent forgery).
A. Flexor C. Cortex A. ball point pen (difficult to examine) C. fountain pen
B. Lumbrical D. Extensor B. pencil D. fiber pen
Flexor = used to make downward strokes. 37. What is that which widens the ink strokes due to the added
Lumbrical = used to combine with either extensor or pressure on a flexible pen point.
flexor to make lateral strokes A. Pen pressure C. Pen lifting
30. If John Loud is known for ball-point pen, who patented the B. Shading D. Retouching
first practical fountain pen? 38. What is the periodic increase in pressure, characterized by
a. Lewis Waterman b. John Parker widening of ink strokes?
c. Laszlo Biro d. Lewis Parker A. Pen pressure C. Pen Emphasis
Ball-point Pen (Ball bearing point)= difficult to examine; easy to B. Shading D. Pen Lift
forged. Pen scope = reach of the pen with the wrist at rest
Fountain Pen (Pen nib point)= easy to examine; difficult to Pen pressure = average/usual force applied in writing.
forged. Pen emphasis = periodic increased in pressure/intermittently
Fiber Pen (Fibrous tip)= used originally as coloring pen. forcing the pen against paper surface.
31. What type of writing movement gives a great freedom of Retouching = goes back over a defective stroke.
movement. Also considered as the most skillful type of Retracing = goes back over another writing stroke.
movement? 39. What are those grace lines, superfluous strokes and are
A. Finger movement C. Forearm movement useful only for ornamentation and are not essential to the
B. Hand movement D. Whole arm movement legibility of the signatures and usually occurs among writers
32. What writing movement is usually indicated by regularity of who attempt to express some phase of their personalities?
lines and considerable speed? A. Diacritical marks C. Embellishments
A. Finger movement C. Forearm movement B. Idiosyncrasies D. Flourishing strokes
B. Wrist movement D. Whole arm movement Diacritics= strokes added to complete certain letters. Such as
Finger movement = push & Pull ; used by beginners. i-dots and t-bars. There are practically three letters in the
(clear cut strokes & lack of freedom) alphabet that have this characteristics. Small letters i, t, j.
Hand (wrist) movement = wrist is the point of pivotal 40. What was done, when one retouches or goes back over a
with limited freedom of movement. defective portion of a writing stroke?
Forearms movement = most skilful type of movement. A. Retracing C. Pressuring
It gives the writer the greatest freedom of movement. B. Patching D. Shading
Whole arm = used for large or ornamental writing. 41. What is that interruption in a stroke, caused by removing
33. What is an irregularity in strokes characterized by shaky or the writing instrument from the paper surface?
wavering stroke which is perfectly apparent even without A. Tremor C. Pen lifting
magnification? B. Retouching D. Hiatus
A. Tremor C. Tremor of old age Hiatus = obvious gap.
B. Tremor of illiteracy D. Tremor of fraud 42. Mr. Pedro in attempts to forge or imitate the signature of
Genuine Tremor (old age, sickness & illiteracy) his boss committed interruption in a stroke caused by
Tremor of illiteracy = due to lack of skills. removing the writing instrument from the paper. This is also
Tremor of fraud = due to copying/imitation due to lack of preparation. This observation is described as
** The existence of tremor in a signature or ________.
handwriting which were due to old age, sickness or A. pen lift C. pen pressure
illiteracy are considered what kind of signature or B. pen emphasis D. pen scope.
document. (a) Genuine (b) spurious (c)forged (d) 43. Stroke where the motion of the pen precedes the
fraudulent. beginning and continues beyond the end of a vanishing point
34. Which is a sign of forgery in guided hand signature? and are found on free natural writing and as a rule are
A. Good pen control C. Disconnected stroked important indication of genuineness.
B. Uneven alignment D. Slanting strokes A. Ending stroke C. Flying start and finish
Sign of genuine guided writing = abrupt change in direction. B. Terminal stroke D. Pen movement
35. The following are characteristics of forgery EXCEPT one: 44. Strokes which goes back over another writing strokes and
A. Presence of Natural Variation which is slightly to occur due to lack of movement control is
B. Patchwork appearance called __________.
C. Show bad quality of ink lines A. retouching C. shading
D. Multiple pen lifts B. retracing D. patching
45. Pedro was preparing a new script for the show. He noticed C. writing position of the writer
that he made a certain defect in one of the paragraphs. He D. distinguishing individual features of his handwriting.
decided to goes back over the defective portion of the stroke 54. Which of the following is true about the individual
of his writing and corrected it. This act is referring to as _____. characteristics?
A. retracing [Link] A. It could be seen in the terminal shadings.
B. retouching D. deciphering B. on the ratio of all letters.
46. What is the outer portion of a curve bend or crook? C. always on the usual habitual and systematic forms of slants.
A. Humps C. Staff/stem/shank D. all of these.
B. Whirl D. Central part 55. In the recognition of handwriting characteristics, it offers
Arc = the inner portion of upper curve. ability of distinguishing characteristics which are normal and
Hook = lower curve. disguised. What was being emphasized in the statement?
Whirl = long upward strokes. A. Examination C. Analysis
Staff/stem/shank = long downward strokes. B. Familiarization D. Distinguishing
Central part = the body of the letter. 56. Pedro was writing a holograph document for his last will.
47. What is that introductory up and down stroke found in All the letters are in majuscule making it to be more clear and
almost all capital letters? concise. What form was described in the statement?
A. Hitch C. Humps A. Handwriting C. Cursive writing
B. Beard D. Buckle knot B. Block style D. Script writing
Hitch– introductory backward stroke. 57. One of the points that should be considered in Q.D.
48. What kind of Forged signature is made by free hand examination is the familiarization of the shape and design of
(imitation) movement and constant practice is called: (Most individual letters of the source which was referred to as the
skillful class of forgery)? _________.
A. Traced forgery C. Simple forgery A. characteristics C. form
B. Simulated forgery D. Spurious signature B. rhythm D. line quality
49. A traced forgery of signature is not really a writing but a, 58. What is that main portion of the letter that remains when
__________. the upper and lower projection, upstrokes and terminal
A. retouching C. patching strokes and diacritics are removed?
B. drawing D. tremor of fraud A. Body C. Eyelet
Signature = a name of a person signed by himself on a B. Diacritics D. Stem
document as a sign of acknowledgment. 59. These are flourish strokes which are added usually to the
50. What type of forgery is made when the writer’s exerts no capital letters to give more attractive form to the eyes of the
effort to effect resemblance or facsimile between the forged reader which is became one of the individual characteristics?
and the genuine signatures? A. Beard C. Spur
A. Simple C. Traced B. Buckle knot D. Garland
B. Simulated D. Spurious 60. Which of the following refers to the irregular thickening of
51. What type of forgery which involves fraudulent signature ink which is found when writing slows down or stop while the
executed by actually following the outline (tracing) of a genuine pen take a stock of the position?
signature with a writing instrument? A. Shading C. Pressure
A. Carbon outline process C. Indention process B. Hesitation D. Knob
B. Lasered D. Traced 61. When examining a document and you found deviations are
Methods of Tracing signature: (1) Carbon outline, (2) Indention very usual between the repeated strokes of the handwriting
or canal like process, and (3) Projection or Transmitted light specimen. What will be your conclusion on the specimen?
process. Laser method. A. Forged, because such deviation is a sign of fraud.
52. As a rule, it is easier to determine whether or not a B. Genuine, because those deviations are considered
signature is forgery, but it is very difficult on the other hand to natural variations.
established who committed the forgery because _______. C. Forged because there are no two persons with the same
A. the forger might be left-handed handwriting.
B. imitation is one of the most effective means to D. Genuine, because perhaps two persons may have the
disguise one’s handwriting same handwriting.
C. it might be a traced forgery 62. A bank client does not remember categorically whether he
D. there should be no sufficient standard available for had signed the check. The signature was compared with the
examination. genuine signature but both were in the same size and shape,
53. To be able to make a positive identification of a person, What will be your conclusion about the signature?
document examiner must be able to observe the _______. A. Genuine, the signatory only forgot the issuance of the
A. characteristics of his handwriting check.
B. manner on how the writer moves the pen.
B. Genuine, both signatures are exactly the same in size and 71. What form of an illegible form of a writing which is
shape. characterized by partially visible depression appearing
C. Forgery, the signatory just want to deny the issuance of the underneath the original writing?
check. A. Invisible writing C. Obliterated writing
D. Forgery, no signature is the same in all aspects when B. Indented writing D. Contact writing
compared. 72. What is a document which contains some changes either
63. In genuine Philippine banknote the image based on the as an addition or deletion?
same artwork as the bill’s portrait ingrained in the note in the A. Inserted document C. Disputed document
white space to the left of the portrait is _________. B. Altered document D. Obliterated document
A. guilloche C. watermark 73. A PNP applicant gets tired of manipulating his credentials
B. security thread D. ultraviolet ink decided to change the contents of his birth certificate for him to
64. Paper, which has been treated in such a way as to fit to the age requirement. The officer assigned to the
minimize the chances of a successful forgery by erasure, recruitment discovers the discrepancies. It seems that there
whether mechanical or chemical, being carried out on any was an addition and deletion of letter and figure. Which type of
document of which it forms the basis called______. document would this fall?
A. chemical paper C. safety paper A. Inserted document C. Obliterated document
B. tested paper D. polyethylene coated paper B. Altered document D. Disputed document
65. What is that indelible ink whose marking substance is 74. What is a form of erasure done by using a rubber eraser,
composed of mixture of aniline ink and graphite? razor blade, knife, or picking instrument?
A. Stencil C. Printers ink A. Magnetic erasure C. Mechanical erasure
B. Nut gall ink D. Copy pencil B. Chemical erasure D. Electronic erasure
66. What is a fluid or viscous marking material used for writing 75. These are usually the result from contact with the A
or printing? A. Folds and creases C. Blots
A. Pen C. Coal B. Smears D. Perforation
B Chalk D. Ink 76. These are devised for obscuring forger’s intention to hide
Ink = a fluid or viscous marking material used for rather than a manifestation of the careless use of a pen.
writing or printing. A. folds and creases C. blots
Carbon ink = oldest ink Indian rubber = oldest eraser B. smears D. perforation
Papyrus = Egyptian plant from which the word paper Erasure = the process of removing or effacing.
was derived. (considered as an earliest material that Mechanical Erasure = kind of erasure done by
serve the purpose of a paper during the ancient time). rubbing, scrapping or abrasive method using rubber
Paper - came from Latin word “Charta”. eraser, sharp knife or razor blades.
68. What is that most expensive instruments used for Chemical Erasure = kinds of erasure using
examination of documents that would show three dimensional chlorinated solution (Ink eradicator) capable of bleaching inks.
enlargements? 77. This movement may be categorized into hesitating and
A. Polarizing light C. Infra-red gadget painful due to weakness an illness?
B. Stereoscopic microscope D. Ultra-violet light A. Tremors C. Quality of movement
Handwriting slope measuring test plates = used to examine B. Wrist movement D. Whole arm
handwriting slant. 78. What kind of an ink that is made by grinding carbon in the
Typewriting measuring test plates = for typewriting form of vegetable char with varnish made of natural gums and
examination. drying oils.
Magnifying lens = basic tool which can solved almost 75% A. Record ink C. Stam-pad ink
of document cases. B. Liquid-lead pencil ink D. Printing ink
69. What is that type of signature which has been made in a [Link] is the process of making out what is illegible or what
particular date, time, place and at a particular purpose of has been effaced?
recording it. A. Comparison C. Collation
A. Model signature C. Standard signature B. Decipherment D. Examination
B. Evidential signature D. Guided signature Restoration - is actual bringing back of what has been erase or
Microscopic Examination = an examination used to removed from the surface of the paper.
see the minute details of the writings (physical evidence). 80. What is the process of identifying of similarities and
70. What light examination in which the source of illumination dissimilarities, determining their likelihood of occurrence, and
strikes the surface of the paper from the back or at the bottom, weighing down of the significance of each factors?
usually designed in identification of water markings? A. Analysis C. Evaluation
A. Direct light C. Oblique light B. Comparison D. All of these
B. Side light D. Transmitted light 81. What examination should be made by the examiner to
discover or see minute physical details of the writings in a
document which would not be possible by merely using the B. Vertical mal-alignment D. Tilted or twisted letters
naked eye? 89. Legally speaking, what is the description of the act of
A. Transmitted light C. Infra-red light passing, delivering, or giving a counterfeit coin to another
B. Microscopic D. Ultra-violet light person?
Interlineation = addition sentence or paragraph A. Counterfeiting C. Falsification
Insertion = addition of whole page on a document. B. Uttering D. Reproduction
Examination = is the act of discovering or studying a given 90. The three equal areas of examination in questioned
material/phenomenon. typewriting except, one..
Comparison = side by side examination of two or more A. size and spacing C. type style
specimen. B. style of spacing D. unique identifying
Collation = critical comparison. characteristics
Evaluation = identifying the similarities or differences & 91. Two handwriting cannot be deemed to be the writing of
weighing their significance. the same person unless:
[Link] type of conventional typewriter in which the A. they were written by one person
characters are normally space 12 in one horizontal? B. involves combination of agreements
A. Pica C. Proportional spacing machine C. embody no basic differences
B. Elite D. Computer D. all of these
83. What is a typeface defect in which the letters are printed to 92. In typewriting examination, what defect is encountered by
the right or left of its proper position? the examiner, which is found in particular with enclosed letters,
A. Vertical mal alignment C. Twisted letter when the typefaces become filled with ink, dirt?
B. Horizontal mal alignment D. Off-its feet A. typeface defects C. vertical mal alignment
Horizontal Mal. = Left or Right. B. clogged typeface D. off-its feet
Vertical Mal. = Above or Below. 93. Obliteration may be detected by using this method?
Off-its-feet = printing heavier in one side. A. using infra-red photography so that the original writing
Twisted = leans to the left or right. lying beneath is revealed.
Rebound = double impression B. remove the obliterating materials chemically or by
Clogged/ dirty type face. some other means leaving the original writing untouched.
Actual Breakage = damage to the outline of the type face C. Studying the impression from the original writing or
design. typewriting that has not been destroyed by the
84. What is that substance which is capable of bleaching an obliterating action.
ink? D. all of these.
A. Sympathetic Ink C. Ink Eradicator 94. An investigator conducting investigation encountered a
B. Superimposing Ink D. Invisible ink material document to a particular case, however there was an
Sympathetic Ink or Invisible ink = inks with no readily visible alleged erasures done mechanically resulting to translucency
strokes. of the that surface. Under the situation what is the best method
Superimposing ink = used for blotting or smearing over an to be employed?
original writing. (Used in Obliteration) A. Oblique light C. ordinary light
85. What is the type of light examination best used in B. transmitted light D. infra-red light
deciphering an obliterated writing and charred document? 95. The author of a typewritten document can be identified
A. Ultra violet light C. Transmitted light through:
B. Infra-red light D. X-ray A. his peculiar style of indention, grammar
86. What type of an abnormality/defects in typewriter that can composition, and paragraphing.
easily be corrected by simply cleaning the machine or B. individual characteristics of the typewriting
replacing the ribbon? machine.
A. Temporary defect C. Clogged type face C. design and style of the typewriter’s character
B. Permanent defect D Actual breakage D. brand and model of the typewriter.
87. If a document is changed to spear language different in 96. Which of the following are not included in the negative
legal effect from that which is originally spears. It is called direction in preserving the evidentiary value of the document?
______. A. It should not be folded in any manner
A. deception C. alteration B. It should not be wet even with special permission
B. fraudulation D. intercalation C. It should not be touched by any sharp instrument
Existence of several movement impulse --- indicator D. It should not be underscored with a pencil.
of Forgery. 97. What is the lacework designs that serves as backdraft of
88. What type of typewriter defect is brought about by clogged the Identification card or that decorative technique in which a
typeface, poor conditions or worn out or torn ribbon? very precise, intricate and repetitive pattern is engraved into
A. Permanent defect. C. Transitory typeface defect the material?
 A. Guilloche C. Hologram Pulselogium was invented by Galileo Galilee as 1st instrument
B. Micro print D. Optically Variable ink used for measuring pulse beat.
98. It is the light examination best used in deciphering 1895 – first scientific lie detection (CesareLomrboso)
erasures, invisible ink and contact writing? 1921 –Bread Board lie detector is the first portable polygraph
A. Ultra-violet light C. Infra- red machine invented by John Larson in 1921. (BP, Pulse Beat
B. Transmitted light D. Laser light and Respiration)
99. What is a modern equipment used in document 1926 – Keeler’s Polygraph (Leonarde Keeler) (Bread
examination that provides a variety of examination with Board + Skin resistance &keymograph)
selection of variety of light examination such as Ultra-violet 1942 – Reid Polygraph (John E. Reid) (muscular
and infra-red which is very useful in detecting various forms of Resistance) (later became Stoelting Polygraph
alteration in document? machine)
A. Video Spectral Comparator Lafayette Polygraph
B. Electro Static Detection Apparatus Limestone Polygraph
C. Stereoscopic Microscope William Marston = utilized sphygmomanometer for detecting
D. Digital Microscope systolic blood pressure and developed the discontinuous
100. What are the three basic technique in determining technique in questioning.
genuine currency bill? Sir James Mackenzie = is a heart specialist who described in
I. Look II. Stop III. Listen two (2) British Journal a machine which he called “Ink
IV. Feel V. Tilt Polygraph”.
A. I, II and III only C. I, III, and IV 5. He devised a quantitative analysis on a polygraph chart and
B. III, IV, and V D. I, IV, and V the test called Backster Zone Comparison Technique.
(numerical scoring). In the year 1960, he was the American
V. Polygraphy interrogation specialist for the CIA.
= scientific method of detecting deception done with the aid of A. Grover Cleve Backster C. Richard D. Arthur
polygraph machine. B. C.D. Lee D. Galilleo
= also known as instrumental interrogation/ lie detector test. Richard D. Arthur = developed two (2) galvanic skin
It is not by itself accepted by the court but It is a tool or resistance.
Investigative lead. C.D. Lee = developed “psychograph machine”
Polygraph Examiner = one who administer the test. 6. What is an ancient method of detecting deception practice in
Subject = the one being subjected to polygraph test. Bengal, India where accused to prove his innocent would
1. The word Polygraph was derived from the Greek word Poly touch his tongue to an extremely hot metal?
meaning many or several and “graph” meaning _______. A. Boiling water ordeal C. Ordeal of balance
A. drawing C. writing chart B. Red hot iron ordeal D. Ordeal of heat and fire
B. writing D. tracing 7. Ordeal is a term of varying meaning closely related in the
Poly = many or several Graph = writing chart Medieval Latin “Dei Indicum” meaning ---___________.
2. In “Polygraph examination” the term “examination simply A. Devine Intervention C. God’s hand
means detection of : _______ B. Miraculous decision D. God’s grace
A. forgery C. deception Scientific Methods:
B. emotion D. the mind 1. Word Association test = used of time pressure (subject is
3. Who was the first man noted for the used of the word ask of series of stimulus or non stimulus words and instructed
“Polygraph”? to answer as quickly as possible).
A. Thomas Jefferson C. Cesare Lombroso 2. Used of Alcoholic Beverages = works on the principle of “in
B. Galileo Galilee D. Sir James Mackenzie vino veritas” –In wine, there is truth.
Polygraph = is a scientific instrument capable of recording 3. Narco- Analysis= The use of “truth serum”. It violates one’s
changes of blood pressure, pulse beat and respiration as constitutional privacy &Free will.
indicative of emotional disturbances. 4. Hypnotism = Subject is under control of the hypnotizer.
4. Who is the (1st inventor of American Polygraph Machine) 5. Polygraphy = instrumental interrogation. An
person who devise an instrument that can record (capable of invaluable aid in investigation.
continuously recording all thee phenomena) changes of blood 8. The Raid polygraph differs from the keeler’s in the following
pressure, pulse beat and respiration simultaneously which he respect except :
called the “Bread board Lie Detector”. The first person to A. an adjustable and portable chair is employed wherein metal
develop a polygraph apparatus that was used in detecting bellows are inserted in the chair arm rests.
deception? B. the chair seat is directly attached to recording bellows in the
A Cesare Lombroso C. John A. Larson machine to form closed pneumatic systems.
B. Sir James Mackenzie D. Leonarde Keeler C. three additional recordings are made by this method
D. there is no need of using corrugated rubber tubing.
9. In polygraph examination, who determine the guilt or Psychological leg basic premise = polygraph instrument
innocence of the subject that has undergone polygraph test? detects changes in physiological response as influence by
A. Polygraph examiner C. Trial judge emotional disturbances.
B. Investigator on case D. Fiscal 18. What type of deceit is used for the purpose of humor, when
10. What is the scientific diagnotstic instrument used in the falsehood is generally understood, is often regarded as not
recording the physiological reactions of the examinee during immoral and is widely practiced by humorists and comedians?
the test? A. White lie C. Emergency lie
A. Lie Detector Instrument C. Truth verifier Instrument B. Jocose lie D. Malicious lie
B. Polygraph instrument D. All of these White lie (officious) =where the lie is harmless, and there are
11. What is the act of deceiving usually accompanied by circumstances where there is an expectation to be less than
uttering falsehood? totally honest through necessity or pragmatism.
A. Lying C. Misleading Emergency lie =is a strategic lie told when the truth may not be
B. Deception D. Lie told because, for example, harm to a third party would result.
12. Which of the following is true about Polygraph machine? 19. What is the Hindu book of science and health which is
A. It is a machine that can diagnose subject. considered one of the earliest references on detecting
B. It is capable of interpreting and drawing conclusion. deception?
C. It is a lie detector machine. A. Ayur Vida C. Dharmasatra of Gautama
D. It is a machine that detects physiological responses. B. Vasistra of Dharmasastra D. Omerta
13. The polygraph machine should be _________ in relation to Dharmasastra of Gautama = explains the nature of lying.
the credibility and competence of the examiner? Vasistra of Dharmasastra = justifies lying.
A. indirectly proportion C. substitute to investigation Omerta = Code of Silence (MAFIA)
B. supplementary to investigation D. directly proportion 20. What was considered to be the ancient method of crime
14. In Polygraph testing, aside from the condition, credibility of detection.
the machine & necessary preparations, the other important A. Methods of Ordeal C. Trial by Combat
face to consider is the examiner’s _________. B. Boiling Water ordeal D. The Ordeal of rice chewing
A. Professionalism C. idealism Ordeal = derived from medieval Latin word “Dei Indicum”
B. competence D. integrity meaning miraculous decision.
15. Before conducting the polygraph test the machine to be 21. Which of the following is a major component of the
used must be in __________ Condition. polygraph machine?
A. bad C. A1 A. Blood pressure cuff C. Pen and inking system
B. not so good D. excellent B. Keymograph D. Cardiosphygmograph
Polygraphy is an aid and never a substitute for 22. What is the act of conveying or uttering falsehood or
investigation. misleading impression, with the intention of affecting
A-1 condition of the subject: wrongfully the acts, opinion, or afffection of another?
1. At least 5 hrs. sleep. A. Guilt C. Fear
2. Refrain from smoking and drinking alcoholic B. Shy D. Lying
beverages for 12 hours. 23. Intoxication of alcohol use the latin maxim “invinoveritas”
3. Not highly nervous as underlying principle. This latin maxim is literally translated
4. Not hungry, not pregnant or not having as:____.
menstruation. A. there is wine in truth C. there is truth in wine
16. The following notions about polygraph machine are wrong, B. in truth, there is wine D. in wine, there is truth
EXCEPT. 24. One method of detecting deception currently being used or
A. it rings a bell C. it has a dial indicator applied by law enforcement agencies is the use of drugs that
B. it flash a light D. it is like an X-ray try to “inhibit the inhibitor”. Which of the following does not
17. What is the scientific basis of the polygraph test which belong to the classification?
states that the polygraph machine is an instrument capable of A. Intoxication C. Administration of truth serum
making records of various human functioning simultaneously in B. Hypnotism D. Narcoanalysis or narcosynthesis
a chart paper? 25. Which one of this is a principal use of polygraph
A. Mechanical leg basic premise instrument?
B. Physiological leg basic premise A. Invaluable aid in investigation
C. Psychological leg basic premise B. to determine the facts of the case.
D. Psycho motor leg basic premise C. To determine the guilt or innocence of the subject
Mechanical leg basic premise = Polygraph instrument is used D. A very good substitute for investigation.
to record physiological responses of the subject. 26. The following are the commonly used method of detecting
Physiological leg basic premise = polygraph machine detects deception, EXCEPT:
various physiological responses which are voluntary.
 A. Administration of truth serum 35. The size of the galvanograph recording pen is ______?
B. Use of Hypnotism A. 5 inches C. 6 inches
C. Use of polygraph or lie detection apparatus B. 7 inches D. 10 inches
D. Use of Electro-encephalogram machine. 5 inches = for pneumograph and cardiosphygmograph
27. Many polygraph tests are inconclusive for the following recording.
reasons, EXCEPT: 36. The polygraph chart rolled paper has an average length of
A. Subject may be nervous because of mental condition. ____.
B. Subject may suffer discomfort or pain A. 100 yards C. 100 meters
C. Subject may be so angry so as to affect test results. B. 100 ft D. 100 km
D. Subject may be physically conditioned to take the test. 37. The use of “Truth Serums” such as sodium pentothal or
phenobarbital in the questioning of suspects is called:
Major Components A. narcoanalysis C. the detector test
1. Cardiosphygmograph= detects Blood pressure and Pulse B. sugar and vinegar D. word association method
beat. 38. A person who is capable of detecting deception or verifying
2. Galvanograph = detects skin resistance. the truth statements is called ________.
3. Pneumograph= detects breathing or respiration. A. Polygrapher C. Polygraph expert
Major Section B. Polygraph examiner D. Examiner
1. Cardiosphygmograph 39. What is the sum total of the dissimulation which the child
2. Galvanograph acquires from his surrounding once he learn to go out and
3. Pneumograph socialized with his neighborhood?
4. Keymograph = driving mechanism/ drives the chart paper (6 A. Personality C. Environment
– 12 inches) B. Heredity D. Education
Carl Ludwig = a German physiologist who invented 40. What should be the attitude of a polygraph examiner in
the kymograph in the year 1840s and it was first device to confronting subject in a polygraph test?
monitor blood pressure. A. Arrogant C. Cordial but firm
5. Pen and Inking System = designed to make a permanent B. Authoritative D. Antagonistic
record of the polygraph test. PER-SON-AL-ITY = the sum total of H2E
28. What is that part of the pneumograph component which Heredity = transmission of physical and mental traits of the
was attached to the body of the subject with the usual length of parents to the offspring upon conception.
10 inches? Education = formal process of learning in an accredited/
A. Beaded chain C. Finger electrode plate recognized institution.
B. Rubber convulated tube D. Blood pressure cuff 41. Generally speaking, all persons subjected to lie detector
29. What section of the polygraph machine (motor that drives examination are all ______ and this creates a set of distortion.
or pulls the chart paper) is designed to run the paper at a A. terrified C. nervous
regular speed of 6 inches per minutes? B. convenient D. confident
A. Kymograph C. Pnuemograph 42. When the subject is highly nervous, what should the
B. Pen and inking system D. Galvanograph examiner do?
30. What is that attachment of the cardiosphygmograph which A. Reschedule the examination
is placed above the brachial artery? B. Prolong the period of the pre-test interview.
A. Arm cuff C. Infant cuff C. Call for a doctor or request for an ambulance.
B. Wrist cuff D. Hand cuff D. Do not continue with the pre test and ask the
Wrist cuff = attached above the radial artery. subject for his available date for reschedule.
31. This is a galvanograph attachment section EXCEPT: 43. What is a short horizontal line in a cardio tracing located at
A. sets of electrodes C. stretched band the middle of the diastolic stem.
B. electrodes jelly D. rubber tube A. Dicrotic C. Diastolic
32. These changes are capable of being recorded and B. Diastotic D. Systolic
accurately diagnosed by skillful polygraph examiners, Except: Systolic B.P = the upward blood pressure.
A. Respiration C. Blood pressure Diastolic B.P. = the downward blood pressure.
B. Digestion D. Pulse beat 44. What is the normal rate of pulse beat of an adult subject in
33. What component of the polygraph machine records a polygraph test?
changes of breathing or respiration of the subject? A. 60 –65 C. 70 – 75
A. Cardiospygmograph C. Kymograph B. 6- 12 D. 13- 15
B. Pneumograph D. Galvanograph 13- 15 – cyclic rate of respiration.
34. What is the longest and the third pen of the instrument? 45. The following are disqualified to be subject of polygraph
A. Cardiospygmograph C. Kymograph test, EXCEPT.
B. Pneumograph D. Galvanograph
 A. minor C. imbecile C. to determine truth and deception in a police
B. nervous D. insane investigation.
46. In polygraph test Questions are usually answerable by D. To determine truth and deception for legal matters.
_______. 54. The following should be taken into consideration during the
A. yes C. no pre-test, EXCEPT.
B. neither yes nor no D. A or B A. Appraisal of the subject’s constitutional rights
Questions must be: B. Taking history record of the subject.
= short, simple, clear and understandable to the subject; C. Obtain subject’s consent to undergo examination
= answerable by either yes or no; D. evaluating the psychological preparation of the subject.
= not in a form of accusation. 55. Which of the following statement, suits to the technical
47. The best way to conduct a thorough interview is for the qualifications of a polygraph examiner?
investigator to __________. A. He must have a good knowledge of the instrument
A. allow himself sufficient time for adjustment and its capabilities and limitations.
B. permit the interviewee to give narrative statement B. He must be free of prejudice and must be
C. be guided by a pre-arranged checklist objective.
D. Devote adequate time for an interviewee’s C. He must have an intense interest with work itself.
evaluation. D. The examiner must be dressed decently.
48. What usually set the tone or condition and creates the 56. What is the most important thing to consider in a polygraph
atmosphere during the interrogation? result?
A. Interrogator’s behavior A. The competence of the examiner B. The
B. Questioning style of the interrogator training of the Examiner
C. The subject’s personal history C. the knowledge of the Examiner
D. The type of crime involved D. The experience of the examiner
49. The primary purpose of the pre-test interview is ____. 57. What should be the mark placed on a chart paper at the
A. obtain confession start of the test?
B. make subject calm A. X/60/1.5 A C. X/50/2.5 A
C. prepare the subject for the polygraph test D. B. XX/60/1.5 A D. XXX/60/2.5 A
explain the polygraph test procedures X – start XX- end of the test
50. The following are specific rules to be followed in the 58. The investigator should avoid asking witnesses long
formulation of the questions in a polygraph test, Except one. complicated questions because this will:
A. Questions must be answerable by yes or no. A. give the witness a chance to formulate desired answer.
B. Questions must be as short as possible. B. enable him to ascertain the purpose of the interviewer.
C. Questions must all be in a form of accusation. C. renders difficulty in obtaining the facts for conviction
D. Questions must be clear and phrased in language D. embarrass him and cause him to answer he does not know
the subject can understand. 59. What stage in the conduct of the polygraph test is
51. The polygraph instrument is also known as a lie detector, designed to prepare or condition the subject for the actual
but research clearly shows that it cannot determine or detect a test?
lying person. What then is the use of polygraph instrument? A. Initial Interview C. Pre-test Interview
A. To record physiological reactions of the subject. B. Instrumentation D. Post test
B. To record psychological reactions of the subject. Interview/Interrogation
C. To record and determine the facts of the case Stages in the Conduct of Polygraph Examination
based on the chart taken. 1. Initial interview =between subject & Investigator.
D. To record psycho galvanic reflex of the subject. = designed to obtain information.
52. What is the first step to be done in an interview? 2. Pre-test Interview includes: appraisal of
A. Ask the subject regarding all information and the constitutional rights, taking subject consent, Filing-up
circumstances surrounding the commission of the crime. of the PDS and determine the Physical, mental,
B. Examiner tells the nature and characteristics of the psychological condition of the subject.
polygraph examination to the subject. (not included: taking history record of the subject)
C. You are informed of your rights against self- 3. Actual test/Instrumentation = begin with the
incrimination and your right to a counsel. attachment of the various component parts.
D. Facts of the case must be prepared prior to the (test execution = the actual questioning phase of the polygraph
questioning of the subject to monitor responses. examination)
53. All EXCEPT one is the purpose of polygraph examination? 4. Post-test Interview/Interrogation = after test.
A. To determine truth and deception = designed to obtain confession or
B. to determine truth and deception based on the admission.
presence of emotional disturbances. Chart probing = conducted every after each test.
Lying = the act of conveying or uttering falsehood or =questions regarding wrongdoing, unrelated but of
misleading impression. similar and less serious nature.
Stimulus = refers to any force or motion coming from the Symptomatic Questions = questions designed to evaluate the
environment and which reach an organism has the tendency to presence of outside issues which may presuppose responses
arouse. to relevant questions.
Fear = it refers to an emotional response to specific danger Knowledge Question = designed to determine whether the
that appears to be beyond a persons defensive power. subject possesses information regarding the identity of the
Response =the reaction to a stimulus, in response to, in offender, location of evidence etc.
answer to. 67. What are these questions unrelated to the matter under
Reaction = an action in mental attitude evoke by external investigation but are similar nature?
influence. A. Irrelevant questions C. Control questions
60. What is conducted for the purpose of obtaining confession B. Relevant Question D. Conclusive question
or an admission from the subject once deception is observed. 68. What kind of response is a deviation from the normal
A. Initial interview tracing of the subject in the relevant question?
B. Instrumentation A. Positive response C. Normal response
C. Pre-test interview B. Specific response D. Reaction
D. Post-test interview or interrogation 69. A well phrased question designed to cause a response
61. What is that any outside force coming from the from a subject is technically called—
environment, which could excite a receptor or any of his A. accusatory statement C. symptomatic
organs? B. specific stimulus D. irrelevant question
A. Stimulus C. Response Specific stimulus = technically refers to a well phrased
B. Reaction D. Emotion question designed to cause a response from a subject.
62. What type of question do not have any bearing to the case RESPONSES
designed to Established normal response from the subject? 1. Normal response = response for irrelevant questions
A. Relevant C. Control 2. Specific response = deviation from the normal tracing of the
B. Irrelevant D. Knowledge subject in response to relevant question.
63. What is that stage consist of the initial interview with the 3. Deceptive response = specific response to which the
investigator handling the case or the person requesting it? subject denies.
A. Initial interview C. Preliminary Interview 70. What type of questions is given to determine information
B. Preliminary Preparations D. Initial Preparation known or the subject possess regarding the crime or the
64. What type of question designed to established normal criminal or his whereabouts?
response from the subject? A. Evidence connecting question C. Knowledge question
A. Relevant C. Control B. Sacrifice questions D. Control questions
B. Irrelevant D. Knowledge 71. What type of test is designed to overly responsive subject,
65. “ Did you shot Rose last night?” is an example of what consisting of questions that are purely fictitious incident of a
question? similar nature to the one that is under investigation?
A. Irrelevant question C. Relevant question A. General question test C. Guilt complex test
B. Control question D. None of the above B. Peak of tension test D. Silent answer test
66. “Were you in the place of the Mr. Generoso on the night of General Question test = series of relevant and irrelevant
October 29, 2015 is an example of what question? answerable by either yes or no.
A. Relevant questions C. Weak relevant question Peak of tension test = there is only one relevant (that has
B. Irrelevant questions D. Strong relevant bearing upon the case) questions usually at the center and a
Irrelevant = deals with known facts where the subject cannot series of irrelevant question (padding question).
lie and does not relate to the facts in issue. Always answerable SAT= (silent answer test) no verbal response is
by “yes” and design to established the normal response. required.
= those pertaining to basic data and information Guilt Complex test = used fictitious incident to overly
regarding the background of the subject not related to the responsive subject.
case. Yes test, No test, Card test, mixed test.
= Questions which have no bearing to the case 72. What is force questioning of a person who is reluctant to
under investigation. give an information?
Relevant = to establish specific response. A. Interview C. Interrogation
= questions pertaining to the issue under B. Confession D. Admission
investigation. 73. What is a self incriminating statement falling short of an
Control = questions unrelated to the matter under investigation acknowledgement of guilt?
but are similar nature. A. Admission C. Confession
B. Interview D. Interrogation
Interview = simple or formal questioning of victim or witnesses Green – Control (Probable lie) Black – Symptomatic
who are willing to give information. Question.
Interrogation = forceful/rigid/vigorous/systematic questioning of 84. There are so many kinds of test technique used in
person who is reluctant to divulge information. polygraph examination. What test technique is being used
74. If the tracing of the subject indicates that he is truthful, the when the co-called (Subject- Knowledge- You) S-K-Y
examiners findings should be ________. questions were asked during the test?)
A. positive C. negative A. Backster Zone Comparison test C. Silent Answer test
B. conclusive D. inconclusive B. Guilt complex test D. General Question test
75. What is that actual questioning phase of the polygraph 85. What is the keynote to accurate chart interpretation?
examination? A. Good question formulation C. Good chart marking
A. Pre-test C. Test ExecutionB. B. Good chart-probing D. Good pre-test interview
Preliminary Interview D. Post-test [Link] kind of response is the reaction of the human body
76. Of the following which is a kind of polygraph machine? such as nervous system and cardiovascular system caused by
a. Stoelting polygraph b. Laffayette polygraph certain stimuli like fear, anxiety and other strong emotion.
c. keeler's polygraph d. all of these A. Internal response C. Postural
77. What part of the galvanograph component converts B. External response D. Specific
electrical to mechanical current? 87. The following should be done by the examiner when
A. Amplifier unit C. Resonance control B. polygraph results to indication of innocence:
Finger electrode assembly D. Sensitivity knob A. Thank the subject for his cooperation
78. In any interrogation the belief that man is fallible human B. Ask the subject if he has any questions
being should not be overlooked and therefore polygraph C. release the subject cordially
examiners are always subject to _________? D. all of these
A. precision of diagnosis C. certainty of interpretations 88. What test is given is a subject of interrogation is not yet
B. errors D. none of these informed of the details of the offense for which he is being
79. What is the brief confrontation between the subject and the interrogated by the investigation, or by other persons or from
polygraph examiner done every after taking each chart? other sources like the print media?
A. Initial interview C. Chart probing A. Peak of tension test C. IQ test
B. Pre-test interview D. Post-test interview or B. Control test D. Guilt Complex test
interrogation 89. The consistency across examiners/scorers means
= performed at the end of each specific polygraph test or every _______.
after taking each chart. A. validity C. competency
80. In polygraph test, the respiratory tracing is found in the B. reliability D. infallability
_____. 90. What is the measure of the extent to which an observed
A. bottom of the chart (Cardio tracing) situation reflects the “true” situation?
B. top of the chart A. Validity C. Competency
C. middle of the chart (Skin resistance) B. Reliability D. Infallability
D. subjects breathing 91. A type of test where list of stimulus and non-stimulus
81. The reason why the result of polygraph examination is not words are read to the subject who is instructed to answer as
admissible evidence in court of law in the Philippines is quickly as possible?
because the said technique in eliciting information or deception A. Word Association test C. Psychological stress evaluator
is still in the____. B. Card test D. Hyposis
A. experimental stage C. law enforcement 92. What is the symbol used to indicate the start of the
B. analysis aspect D. limb polygraph text marked in the chart?
82. Changes in the height of both respiratory pressure tracing A. X B. W C. S
are considered symptomatic attempt at deception and is called D.. Y E. XX
_____.
A. changes in Amplitude C. change in wavelength VI. Forensic Chemistry/Toxicology
B. change in frequency D. increase in speed 1. What is a poisonous gas which smells like a rotten egg?
Change in frequency or rate ---Changes in the speed of rise A. H2S C. CO
and fall of the tracing. B. CO2 D. H2O
83. In Backster Zone test, if the color zone for irrelevant is CO is a poisonous gas that liberates from the unburned part of
yellow, what is the color zone for strong relevant questions? the ordinary combustibles.
A. Green C. Red CO2 = does not support life (human)
B. Black D. Orange 2. In the schematic outline on the isolation and identification of
Red – relevant Yellow – Irrelevant some common poisons, the specimen should first be
_______.
 A. alkaline solution (Na(OH)) A. Benzidine test C. Blood grouping/typing
B. distilled with or without stem B. Takayama test D. Precipitin test
C. ether-extracted Bezidine = preliminary test for blood (deep blue)
D. mixed with chemical antidotes. Takayama = confirmatory test (micro-chemical)
(This is the proper order of toxicological testing) 11. What type of blood is characterized as bright scarlet in
3. What study deals with poison, their origin, physical and color, leaves the blood vessel with pressure and high oxygen
chemical properties, effects, treatment and methods of content?
detection usually on sudden and unexplained deaths? A. Arterial blood C. Venous blood
A. Chemistry C. Forensic Chemistry B. Menstrual blood D. Child’s blood
B. Poisonous investigation D.. Toxicology 12. A preliminary test in blood in a solution of 1 to 300,000
4. What substances is capable of producing noxious effect or dilution is ________.
destroy life once introduce into the body, absorbed through the A. benzidine C. phenolphthalein
blood stream and acts chemically? B. guiacum D. leucomalachine Green
A. Protein C. Poison Phenolphthalein = reddish pink result (1:80,000)
B. Enzymes D. None of these DNA
5. What is the normal amount of semen per ejaculation of a Blood sample required : 5 cc or 5 ml.
normal built person? Cotton buds = 4 for blood and saliva.
A. 1.5 to 3.5 cc C. 2.5 to 3.5 cc Semen (3 cotton buds).
B. 3.5 to 5.5 cc D. 3.5 to 4.5 cc Hair – 10 strands with root
400 to 500 millions = number of average spermatozoa per Plaster of Paris = common casting material. (7 Paris
ejaculation. Plus & parts of water.)
Aspermia = semen without spermatozoa 13. A Forensic Chemist is tasked to examine the chemical
Oligospermia =lack of sperm counts nature and composition of the following Except one:
6. What is known as the reproduction of an impression made A. fingerprint C. blood
on soft surface by utilizing casting materials? The process of B. explosives D. body fluids
reproducing physical evidence by means of plaster moulds. 14. Who is the Geneticist from Great Britain who pioneered
A. Dry fussion C. Metallic aides DNA testing and fingerprinting?
B. Moulage D. Plaster of paris A. Alec Jeffreys C. Henry Van Dyke
7. What will be the possible child of a man with Group A and B. William Reynolds D. Lowell C. Van Berkom
Type M blood with woman of Group B, type N blood? 15. What is the chemical substance found in all cells whose
A. AB, N C. B,N composition have been passed on from parents to their
B. O, M D. AB, MN children?
Anti -A (blue) and anti –B (yellow) used for blood grouping A. RNA C. DNA
6 quarts = the amount of blood in normal built person. B. Genotype D. Phenotype
O = universal donor
AB = universal acceptor and one which is rare or of lowest 16. How much blood sample is required for purposes of DNA
percentage of occurrence. testing?
8. In the ABO System divides the human race into four (4) A. 5 cc C. 10 cc
blood types. Which of the following types has the lowest B. 7 cc D. 15 cc
percentage? 17. DNA is found in all nucleats cells of the body, it is regarded
A. O type C. A type as the fingerprint of life. What does it stands for.
B. B type D. AB type A. deonaturalacide C. dynamic natural antibody
Chronological Steps in Blood Testing: B. deoxyribonucleic acid D. deocxyribonuclic acid
1. Preliminary test (Maybe blood) = Benzidine, 18. Gun powder residue maybe determined by?
Phenolphthalein, etc. A. Takayama test C. Diphenylamine
2. Confirmatory test (surely blood) = microscopic, micro- B. Paraffin test D. Florence test
chemical, spectroscopic. Nitrate = produced deep blue speaks
3. Biological or precipitin test (Human or Animal) Nitrite = produced green speaks
4. Blood Grouping and Blood typing. 19. What is the other name for cells clump?
[Link] confirm the presence of blood we look for _______. A. overlapping C. agglutinate
A. white crystalline B. clumping D. constipation
B. Salmon pink crystal 20. What kinds of skin is dry, and dead, peeled away from the
C. white cloudy precipitate surface skin?
D. Dark brown rhomboid crystals A. slight skin C. burned skin
10. What is the biological test for blood? B. incipient ridge D. scarf skin
21. What kind of a solution is used in the restoration of serial D. DNA analysis to determine if the saliva is of the
numbers? (Stainless steel, lead, cast iron are examples). suspect.
A. saturated solution of sodium bicarbonate 31. What is the principal active component of opium which
B. etching solution comes in white crystalline powder and light tablets?
C. colloidal magnesium A. Heroin C. Morphine
D. borax solution B. Cocaine D. Shabu
Metallurgy =study of the micro-metallic composition of metals. Opium poppy (Papaversomniferum)
22. A mercury fulminate is as example of what kind of OPIUM (mother drugs)-–morphine -- heroin-- codeine
explosive? 32. Types of drugs that relieves pain and often induce sleep.
A. Low C. Primary high A. Narcotics C. Stimulants
B. High D. Secondary High B. Sedatives D. Neurotics
Kinds of Explosives: 33. __________are drugs which affects sensation, thinking,
1. Low Explosives (Propellants) =gun powders self awareness and emotion. It may be mild or overwhelming
2. High Explosives depending on dose and quality of drugs.
a. Primary High = (Primers) designed to ignite. A. Narcotics C. Hallucinogens B.
b. Secondary High = designed to explode. Sedatives D. Stimulants
23. What causes the pink color of blood and tissue of a 34. Which one is not included in street name of MARIJUANA?
gunshot wound of entry? A. Mary Jane C. Snow
A. Carbon monoxide C. Cellulose nitrite B. Brownies D. Flower
B. Carbon dioxide D. Hydrogen disulfide THC- Tetrahydrocannabinol = the active component of
Smokeless powder = nitrocellulose plus marijuana responsible for its hallucinogenic effect.
nitroglycerine. 35. Methampethamine hydrochloride is commonly known as:
24. What is the center core of a strand of the hair, which form A. Cocaine C. Heroin
the bulk of the fiber? B. LSD D. Shabu
A. Cuticle C. Cortex 36. Which of the following refers to the body of the crime?
B. Medulla D. Shalf A. Evidence C. Criminology
Parts of Hair: Root, Shaft & Tip (cut or not). B. Body of the victim D. Corpus delicti
25. In Forensic examination, a tip of the hair is examined to 37. The number restoration is necessary in determining
determine if it was ____. whether here is tampering of serial number in ______.
A. bend C. cut A. typewriter C. prisoners
D. folded D. stretched B. firearm D. bank notes
26. The cuticle of the animal hair is: 38. The volatile poisons may be isolated by means of this
A. rounded C. serrated process:
B. oblong D. circular A. dialysis C. distillation
Human = rounded cuticle B. dilution D. extraction
27. What is the ratio between the width of the medulla and the 39. The test used in determine the presence of semen
width of the whole hair? particularly in stained clothing?
A. Medulary index C. Medulary ratio A. Florence test C. Microscopic test
B. Medula D. Medula radius B. barberio’s test D. Ultra-violet test
28. There are two kinds of fiber natural and _____. 40. The study and identification of body fluids?
A. artificial B. plant A. Pharmacology C. Posology
C. animal D. organic B. Serology D. Immunology
29. Which of the following test would distinguished an animal 41. The circulating tissue of the body?
fiber from plant fiber? A. Blood C. Muscles B. Cells
A. Bursting test C. Solubility test D. Liver
B. Ignition test D. Dissolving test 42. The approximate time for the completion of one case for
Animal hair burns fast than plant fiber and it produces DNA Testing.
pungent odor. A. Minimum of eight weeksC. Minimum of six weeks
30. A police investigator found in a crime scene dried liquid B. Minimum of four weeks D. Minimum of two weeks
purporting to be saliva. They have a suspect by the Name Ted, 43. The most serious burn involving skin, nerves and bones,
an American boyfriend of the victim. What the police should do causing death due to loss of fluids and electrolytes in the body
so that the saliva can be used in the process of investigation. and massive infection?
A. Microscopic test A. First Degree Burn C. Third Degree burn
B. Test saliva if it is really of the suspect B. Second Degree Burn D. Sunburn
C. Secretor test 44. What is the primary fractures that develop on a glass
when pressure or force is applied?
 A. radial C. crater-like fractures 54. What poisons act chiefly on the nervous system producing
B. concentric D. Wave-shaped delirium convulsion, and respiration as the outstanding
45. Which of the following tests applied on paper can be done symptoms?
only upon the approval of the court since the paper will be A. Neurotics C. Depressants
B. Irritants D. Narcotics
destroyed?
55. What poisons produce stupor, complete insensibility, loss
I. physical test causing no perceptible change of feeling?
II. physical test causing a perceptible change A. Neurotics C. Tetanics
III. preliminary test B. Narcotics D. Sedatives
IV. chemical test 56. The largest amount that will cause no harm and at the
A. II & IV C. III & IV same time produce the desired therapeutic effect.
B. I & II D. II & III A. Maximum dose C. Lethal dose
46. The most conclusive and reliable method of identifying B. Minimum dose D. Toxic dose
ballpoint pen ink. 57. What is the most detrimental among the methods of
A. Chemical test administration of drugs or poison?
B. Paper Chromatography A. Intravenous injection C. Hypodermic injection
C. Physical test B. Poisons taken orally D. Poison inhaled
D. Spectrographic test 58. Poisons are more detrimental when they are diluted,
47. If a poison come from a bite or injection, what is the best EXCEPT __________.
method of elimination to be used? A. Irritants C. Solids
A. washing the affected part with water B. Corrosives D. Saturated
B. neutralizing the effect using citrus fruits. 59. Poison is more toxic when it is in ______.
C. applying torniquet or a restricting band tied just A. Soluble C. Slightly soluble
above the wound. B. Insoluble D. Either soluble or insoluble
D. using ligatures and bleeding 60. What term is applied to individuals who exhibit unusual
48. If poison is due to alkali burns, what special treatment behavior to certain substances?
should be done? A. Allergy C. Addiction
A. Wash with lemon or other citrus fruits B. Idiosyncrasy D. Tolerance
B. Wash with milk of magnesia 61. One in which the history is hazy as to how the poison was
C. Wash with water and soap obtained and why it was
D. Wait for the doctor administered.
49. What is defined as the determination of drug use, A. Accidental C. Homicidal
poisoning, or exposure to toxic substances as part of a legal B. Undetermined D. Suicidal
investigation? [Link] are those poisons that act directly upon the spinal
A. Forensic Toxicology C. Pharmacology producing such spasmodic and continuous contraction of
B. Toxicology D. Posology muscles because of stiffness?
50. What poisons produce irritation and inflammation of the A. Neurotics [Link]
mucus membrane and characterized by vomiting, pain in the B. Narcotic D. Corrosive
abdomen, and purging? 63. A physical antidote that produces intestinal evacuation.
A. Corrosives C. Tetanics A. Emetics C. Precipitants
B. Irritants D. Sedatives B. Cathartics D. Demulcents
51. What poisons can cause local destruction of tissues and 64. What is the best specimen to be submitted for toxicological
characterized by nausea, vomiting, and great local distress? examination for cyanide and solvent poisoning?
A. Corrosives C. Depressants A. Brain C. Liver
B. Irritants D. Exhaustives B. Lungs D. Blood
52. What poisons are unstable and easily affected by heat 65. Which of the following statements is CORRECT?
and examples are alcohol and phenol? A. It is not always possible to restore the original
[Link]-volatile C. Metallic numbers of tampered serial numbers.
B. Volatile D. Mineral B. It is always possible to restore the original
53. What poisons are chemically produced in the laboratory numbers of tampered serial numbers.
that have useful importance to its purpose but become C. It is not possible to restore the original numbers of
poisonous when taken into the body? tampered serial numbers.
A. Mineral C. Synthetic D. It is possible to restore the original numbers of
B. Organic D. Non-volatile tampered serial numbers.
66. Which among the following is the method applied in blood
alcohol concentration determination?
 A. Gas chromatography C. DNA analysis D. Yes, by applying physical and chemical means.
B. thermal analysis D. Spectrographic analysis 76. What is that condition wherein males have no
67. The ideal amount of soil sample to be submitted for soil spermatozoa at all in their seminal fluid?
analysis. A. Aspermia C. Oligospermia
A. 10 mg C. 20 mg B. Anemia D. Anorexia
B. 25 mg D. 30 mg 77. The Medullary index of a hair specimen submitted for
68. Once a DNA sample is submitted for analysis, after how analysis is 0.423, this means that it came from ______.
many days or hours will the A. Cow C. Horse
forensic examiners must release the result? B. Human D. Carabao
A. 24 hours to 36 hours C. 24 hours only 78. Which of the following is the most conclusive test for
B. 48 to 72 hours D. 48 hours only
fibers?
69. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
A. DNA is stable since it can be isolated from material A. Burning test C. Chemical test
that is months or even years old. B. Fluorescence test D. Microscopic test
B. DNA can be obtained from a wide variety of
biological sources like blood, semen,hair, saliva, and bone.
C. DNA can be replicated in the laboratory from a
very small amount of initial material through the process called
PCR
D. DNA does not show greater variability from one THANK YOU!!!
individual to another. IT’S A PLEASURE TO BE WITH YOU.
70. The following are some biological specimens used for TO GOD BE THE GLORY
DNA analysis, EXCEPT. GOD BLESS YOU ALL
A. Semen and seminal stains SEE YOU IN YOUR OATH-TAKING
B. Blood and blood stains
C. Hair without follicles or roots
D. Bones
71. When the glass chippings are evenly distributed around
the gunshot hole in a glass pane, what is the possible position
of the shooter?
A. The shooter is at an angle from the left to the right of
the glass.
B. The shooter is at an angle from the right to the left side
of the glass.
C. The shooter is perpendicular to the glass.
D. The shooter is at the rear side of the glass.
72. What examination is employed to determine the
type of pattern of the glass that determines its
composition?
A. Spectrographic analysis C. Fluorescence Test
B. X-ray Diffraction Analysis D. Polish Marks Analysis
73. What method is used in a grouping of dry blood or
bloodstain?
A. Indirect/Absorption C. Grouping
B. Direct D. Regrouping
74. The following statements are correct EXCEPT, ______.
A. Old blood stains can be identified by the precipitin test.
B. Heat affects the precipitin test.
C. Precipitin test is not specific for human blood.
D. Acids and alcohols may inhibit or even destroy
precipitin reaction.
75. Is it always possible to restore tampered serial numbers?
A. Yes, by using Etching fluids.
B. No, it is not always possible especially if the filing is too
deep.
C. No, it is not possible even if the tampering is shallow.