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49. Tuyển tập đề Chuyên & HSG Vĩnh Phúc - Otto Channel

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411 views80 pages

49. Tuyển tập đề Chuyên & HSG Vĩnh Phúc - Otto Channel

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We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
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SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI TUYỂN SINH LỚP 10 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2016 – 2017
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Dành cho tất cả các thí sinh
Thời gian làm bài: 90 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề.

Họ và tên thí sinh:…………………………………………………..……………… Số báo danh:………..…………


PART A. PHONETICS
I. Write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose underlined part
is pronounced differently from the other three in each of the following questions.
Câu 1. A. kites B. laughs C. behaves D. outskirts
Câu 2. A. many B. sandy C. candy D. badly
Câu 3. A. though B. throw C. through D. thought
II. Write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the word whose primary stress
is different from the other three in each of the following questions.
Câu 4. A. environment B. understanding C. population D. conservation
Câu 5. A. tomorrow B. deliver C. difficult D. remember
PART B. LEXICO - GRAMMAR
I. Write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate the correct answer to each of the
following questions.
Câu 1. After each period, we have a___________ break.
A. five minutes B. five- minute C. fifth- minute D. fifth- minutes
Câu 2. The man___________ to your sister is my uncle.
A. is talking B. was talking C. who is talking D. talked
Câu 3. Although he coughed badly, he___________ no effort to stop smoking.
A. make B. do C. made D. has
Câu 4. She asked me if I___________ a laptop computer the following day.
A. buy B. will buy C. bought D. would buy
Câu 5. If Mr. John___________ rich, he would travel around the world.
A. is B. will be C. was D. were
Câu 6. My sister is very___________ of spiders.
A. terror B. terrify C. terrified D. terrifying
Câu 7. They explained___________ him how they should operate the machine.
A. to B. with C. for D. about
Câu 8. The government should do something to help___________.
A. the poors B. the poor ones C. poor D. the poor
Câu 9. They have learnt English___________ 2005.
A. to B. from C. for D. since
Câu 10. The teacher told his students___________ the mistakes again.
A. not make B. not to make C. don’t make D. won’t make
Câu 11. There’s nothing good on TV. Why don’t you turn it___________?
A. on B. down C. off D. up
Câu 12. ___________ the teacher reminded her not to talk so much in class, she kept on doing that.
A. Although B. But C. And D. So
Câu 13. Tom: “Why don’t we go for a picnic this weekend?” Mary: “_______________________”
A. What do you suggest? B. Yes, please.
C. How’s that? D. That’s a good idea.
Câu 14. Tim: “Would you mind lending me your dictionary?” Paul: “_______________________.”
A. Yes, let’s B. Great C. No, of course not D. Yes. Here you are
Câu 15. It’s no use___________ a language if you don’t try to use it.
A. to learn B. learned C. learning D. Learn
Câu 16. He asked me___________.
A. what my phone number B. what my phone number were
C. what my phone number was D. what was my phone number
Câu 17. She drove so___________ that she had an accident.
A. careful B. carefully C. careless D. carelessly
Câu 18. ___________ his mental illness, the boy can’t keep pace with his classmates.
A. Although B. Despite C. Because D. Because of
Câu 19. Ann: “How well you are playing!” Peter: “___________________”
A. Say it again. I like to hear your words. B. I think so. I’m proud of myself.
C. Really? I’ve got it. D. Many thanks. That’s a nice compliment.
Câu 20. Vietnamese people are very___________.
A. friend B. friendliness C. friendly D. friendship
II. Write the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to indicate the underlined part that needs
correcting.
Câu 21. A cure for the common cold, causing by a virus, has not been found.
A. causing B. for C. a virus D. has not
Câu 22. They are planning on attending the convention next month, and so I am.
A. planning on B. attending C. next D. so I am
Câu 23. Today was such beautiful day that I couldn’t bring myself to complete all my chores.
A. myself B. such beautiful C. my chores D. to complete
Câu 24. My sister enjoys read about wild animals and natural mysteries.
A. read B. enjoys C. natural D. wild animals
Câu 25. I saw the men, the women, and the cattle which went to the field.
A. which B. saw C. the women D. went to
III. Put the words in brackets into the correct forms.
Câu 26. She looks (ATTRACT)____________ in her new coat
Câu 27. Thousands of people have been made (HOME)____________ by the war.
Câu 28. Your shirt is rather white in (COMPARE)____________ with his.
Câu 29. Teenagers are now (FASHION)____________ dressed.
Câu 30. Like beverage cans and bottles, this (PRODUCE)____________ can be recycled.
PART C. READING
I. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct answer to each of the following questions.
My village was never a big village, nor was it particularly successful or well-known. It was a
place where simple people worked on their land, tending citrus groves and running poultry farms.
The most exotic plantation grew avocados, and a palm tree nursery was something of an attraction.
The village was established by a group of Greek immigrants in 1937 in what was then known
as British-controlled Palestine. When we first moved here, one could still hear some Greek in the
street, the local store sold original Greek delicacies and from time to time we were invited to sit on
a neighbor’s porch and share some ouzo at the end of a working day.
In the last few years, my village has changed dramatically. Very few people work in agriculture
now; they can no longer support their families growing oranges and chicken. As a result, they must
find their income outside the village and rent out their land or sell their little family farms
altogether. Some of the land is still used for agriculture, but no longer for the family farms. Now it
is the agriculture of luxuries.
Câu 1. What was true about the writer’s village?
A. It was a big village. B. It was successful.
C. It was famous. D. It was established by the Greek.
Câu 2. According to the passage, what did the people in the village NOT do?
A. Worked on their land. B. Tended citrus groves.
C. Raised animals on the farms. D. Grew avocados.
Câu 3. The founders of the village were immigrants from____________.
A. Palestine B. Greece C. Britain D. family farms
Câu 4. What can best describe the change of the village recently?
A. The change is very fast. B. The change is very slow.
C. The change is normal. D. There is not much change.
Câu 5. How do the villagers earn their living now?
A. They grow oranges and chicken. B. They run family farms.
C. They work in the inside villages. D. They hire out their land or sell their farms.
II. Complete the passage by filling in each blank with ONE suitable word.
Jeans are very popular with young people all (06)__________ the world. Some people say that
jeans are the “uniform” of youth, but they haven’t always been popular. The story of jeans started
almost two hundred years ago. People in Genoa, Italy made pants. The cloth made in Genoa was
(07)__________ “jeanos”. The pants were called “jeans”. In 1850, a salesman in California began selling
pants (08)__________ of canvas. His name was Levi Strauss. Because they were so strong, “Levi’s
pants” (09)__________ popular with gold miners, farmers and cowboys. Six years (10)__________, Levis
began making his pants with blue cotton cloth called denim. Soon after, factory workers in the US
and Europe began wearing jeans. Young people usually didn’t wear them.
III. Read the following passage and write the letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet to indicate
the correct word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
Most paper is made from wood. When trees are cut down, they are transported (11)__________
land or water to paper (12)__________. Here they are cut down (13)__________ pieces and crushed up.
This wood (14)__________ is then dried on a machine and made into paper. Paper-making is an
important British (15)__________ , and paper from Britain is exported to South Africa, Australia and
many other (16)__________. Some of the wood (17)__________ in British paper-making industry comes
from trees grown in Britain, Norway, etc. One tree is needed for (18)__________ 400 copies of a typical
40-page newspaper. If half the adults in Britain each buys one daily paper, this (19)__________ up
over 40,000 trees a day. Trees are being cut down (20)__________ than they are being replaced.
Câu 11. A. by B. with C. on D. into
Câu 12. A. bins B. mills C. baskets D. dumps
Câu 13. A. from B. to C. into D. by
Câu 14. A. pieces B. paper C. flour D. pulp
Câu 15. A. industry B. factory C. company D. household
Câu 16. A. things B. countries C. parts D. regions
Câu 17. A. worked B. began C. used D. ended
Câu 18. A. all B. some C. many D. every
Câu 19. A. makes B. uses C. does D. cuts
Câu 20. A. fewer B. less C. faster D. more slowly

PART D. WRITING
I. Complete each of the following sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the
one printed before it.
Câu 1. As I get older, I want to travel less.
→ The older ____________________________________________________.
Câu 2. He has never met a more kind-hearted person than Mary.
→ Mary _________________________________________________________.
Câu 3. “If I were you, I would buy a new car, Harry.”, he said.
→ He advised __________________________________________________.
Câu 4. It’s two years since I last spoke to her.
→ I ______________________________________________________________.
Câu 5. I don’t have enough time to finish this work.
→ I wish ________________________________________________________.

II. Paragraph writing: Write a paragraph of 100-120 words about what can be done to make your
school a clean and green place.
———— HẾT————

Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm


SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI LỚP 9 NĂM HỌC 2018 - 2019
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
Thời gian làm bài: 150 phút (không kể thời gian giao đề)
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC
(Đề thi có 07 trang )

PART A. LISTENING (Each recording will be played TWICE)

Section 1: Questions 1 – 10:


You will hear a man phoning a woman about an advertisement here seen in a newspaper for some
furniture. Listen and complete the notes below. Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND/OR A
NUMBER for each answer.
ENQUIRY ABOUT BOOKCASES

Both bookcases
Width: 1. __________ (cm)
Made of: 2. __________
First bookcase
Cost: 3. __________
Colour: 4. __________
Number of shelves: six (four are 5. _______________)
Second bookcase
Colour: dark brown
Other features: - almost 80 years old
- has a 6. __________at the bottom
- has 7. __________
Cost: 8. __________pounds
Details of seller
Name: 9. Mrs.__________
Address: 10. __________Oak Rise, Stanton.

Section 2:
Questions 11-15: Choose the correct answer, A, B or C.
Camber’s Theme Park
11. According to the speaker, in what way is Camber’s different from other theme parks?
A. It’s suitable for different age groups.
B. It offers lots to do in wet weather.
C. It has a focus on education.
12. The Park first opened in____
A. 1980. B. 1997. C. 2004.
13. What’s included in the entrance fee?
A. most rides and parking B. all rides and some exhibits C. parking and all rides
14. Becoming a member of the Adventurers Club means____
A. you can avoid queuing so much.
B. you can enter the Park free for a year.
C. you can visit certain zones closed to other people.
15. The Future Farm zone encourages visitors to_____
A. buy animals as pets. B. learn about the care of animals. C. get close to the animals.
1
Section 3:
You will hear people talking in five different situations. For questions 1 -5, choose the best answer
(A, B or C)
1. You hear a man talking about long-distance swimming.
What does he like about it?
A. It contrasts with his normal lifestyle.
B. It provides him with challenges.
C. It suits his solitary nature.
2. You hear a woman talking about a film she saw.
How did she feel while she was watching it?
A. bored B. scared C. amused
3. You overhear a conversation in a restaurant.
How does the man think of the dish he’s just eaten?
A. It was better than in other restaurants.
B. It was a bit spicier than he was used to.
C. It was served in a rather unusual way.
4. You hear a man talking about a holiday.
What does he say about it?
A. It wasn’t worth the money he’d paid.
B. The place wasn’t as interesting as he’d expected.
C. The accommodation wasn’t as good as he’d been told.
5. You hear a woman talking about an old camera.
What does she regret?
A. the fact that she didn’t look after it properly.
B. not getting more money when she sold it.
C. her decision to replace it.

PART B. LEXICO-GRAMMAR

Section 1: Choose the correct option marked A, B, C, or D to complete the following sentences.
1. _________ that he felt he didn’t need to revise anymore.
A. So confident in passing was that arrogant student
B. Such was the confidence of that arrogant student on passing
C. So confident was that arrogant student of passing
D. Such confidence in passing was that arrogant student
2. _________ is someone who can reduce spending without hurting morale.
A. Being needed B. That which needs C. What is needed D. What needs
3. It was a fantastic film. I enjoyed it _________.
A. endlessly B. unendingly C. without end D. no end
4. He never_________ his word.
A. goes back on B. puts up with C. makes up for D. goes down with
5. I would be very rich now_________ working long ago.
A. if I gave up B. if I couldn’t give up C. were I not to give up D. had I not given up
6. David: “It is raining outside.” ~ Kathy: “________”
A. So is it B. So it is C. So it does D. Is it so?
7. My friend always dreams of having_________.
A. a small red sleeping bag B. a red sleeping small bag
C. a red small sleeping bag D. a sleeping small red bag
8. When Helen agreed to run the school play, she got more than she_________.
A. bargained for B. came down to C. faced up to D. got round to

2
9. Getting a new computer system _______ at the school has become a high priority.
A. installed B. to install C. to be installed D. install
10. Mr. Jack supposes, ________, that he will be retiring at 60.
A. like most people did B. as most of people
C. like most of people do D. as do most people
11. I don’t want to burden my daughter with my problems; she’s got too much_________.
A. up her sleeve B. on her plate C. in effect D. in her mind
12. The cyclist _________ he crossed the main street.
A. looks cautious when B. looked with caution after
C. had looked cautiously before D. was looked cautions when
13. Abraham Lincoln insisted that _________ not just on mere opinion but on moral purpose.
A. to base democracy B. for democracy to be based
C. democracy should be based D. whenever democracy is based
14. _________ as a masterpiece, a work of art must transcend the ideas of the period in which it was
created.
A. Ranking B. To be ranked C. In order to be ranking D. Being ranked
15. She _________ fainted when she heard that her child died.
A. rather than B. nothing but C. all but D. near
16. My parents are not interrupted in modern music. They are _________ the times.
A. beyond B. behind C. beneath D. below
17. Few people can do creative work unless they are in the right _________ of mind.
A. frame B. trend C. attitude D. tendency
18. David looks so terrified and upset. He _________ something terrible.
A. should have experienced B. must experience
C. need have experienced D. must have experienced
19. _________, we tried our best to complete it.
A. Difficult as the homework was B. As though the homework was difficult
C. Thanks to the difficult homework D. Despite the homework was difficult
20. In the business world the big companies seem to be_________ war against the small ones.
A. fighting B. winning C. waging D. staging
Section 2: Each line in the following passage contains one mistake. Find out the mistake and correct
it as the example below.
Line 0: their → your
Although people’s reactions to their dress will vary, they will draw 0.....your.....
conclusions about you based on the way you dress. You used to determine what 1…...…….
you are trying to say and then dress appropriately. There are time when it is in 2………….
your best interested to meet the expectations of others. Business managers are 3………….
likely to do a clear idea of the images they want their businesses to portray. If 4………….
you want to prosper with that businesses, you will want to dress in a way that is 5………….
in line on those images. Likewise, audiences expect public speakers to dress 6………….
appropriate for the audience and occasion. People have the right to their 7………….
individual differences, and we believe that society was moving in the right 8………….
direction in allowing persons to express themselves like individuals. 9………….
Nevertheless, your clothes are still perceived by other as clues to your attitudes 10………...
and behaviours. Clothes do communicate, however accurate or inaccurate you
may believe that communication to be.
Section 3: Supply the correct form of the word provided to the right of each blank.
Native Americans probably arrived from Asia in (1) ________ waves over several 1. SUCCESS
millennia, crossing a plain hundreds of miles wide that now lies (2) ________ by 160 2. DATE

3
feet of water released by melting glaciers. For several periods of time, the first
beginning around 60,000 BC and the last ending around 7,000BC, this land bridge
was open. The first people travelled in the dusty trails of the animals they hunted.
They brought with them not only their families, weapons, and tools but also a broad
metaphysical (3) ________, sprung from dreams and visions and articulated in myth 3. STAND
and song, which complemented their (4) ________ and historical knowledge of the 4. SCIENCE
lives of animals and people. All this they shaped in a variety of languages, bringing
into being oral literatures of power and beauty.
Contemporary readers, forgetting the origins of western epic, lyric, and dramatic
forms, are easily disposed to think of “literature” only as something (5) _______. But 5. WRITE
on reflection it becomes clear that the more (6) ________ useful as well as the more 6. CRITIC
frequently employed sense of the term concerns the (7) ________ of the verbal 7. ART
creation, not its mode of presentation. Ultimately, literature is aesthetically valued,
(8) ________ of language, culture, or mode of presentation, because some significant 8. REGARD
verbal (9) ________ results from the struggle in words between tradition and talent. 9. ACHIEVE
Verbal art has the ability to shape out a compelling (10) _____ vision in some 10. IN
skillfully crafted public verbal forms.

PART C. READING
Section 1: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet to
indicate the word or phrase that best fits each of the numbered blanks.
English spelling
Why does English spelling have a reputation for being difficult? English was first written down
when Christian monks came to England in Anglo-Saxon (1) _______. They used the 23 letters of Latin to
write down the sounds of Anglo-Saxon speech as they heard. However, English has a (2) _______range
of basic sounds (over 40) than Latin. The alphabet was too small, and so combinations of letters were
needed to express the different sounds. Inevitably, there were (3) _______ in the way that letters were
combined. With the Norman invasion of England, the English language was put (4) _______ risk.
English survived, but the spelling of many English words changed to follow French patterns, and many
French words were (5) _______ into the language. The result was more irregularity.
When the printing press was (6) _______ in the fifteenth century, many early printers of English
texts spoke other first languages. They (7) _______ little effort to respect English spelling. Although one
of the short-term effects of printing was to produce a number of variant spellings, in the long term it
created fixed spellings. People became used to seeing words spelt in the same way. Rules were (8) _______
and dictionaries were put together which printers and writers could refer to. However, spoken English
was not fixed and continued to change slowly - just as it still does now. Letters that were sounded in the
Anglo-Saxon period, like the “k” in “knife”, now become (9) _______. Also, the pronunciation of vowels
then had (10) _______ in common with how they sound now, but the way they are spelt hasn't changed.
1. A. ages B. centuries C. years D. times
2. A. deeper B. longer C. thicker D. wider
3. A. inconsistencies B. similarities C. contretemps D. contraventions
4. A. on B. in C. at D. under
5. A. introduced B. found C. announced D. started
6. A. discovered B. invented C. conceived D. taken up
7. A. brought B. did C. made D. put
8. A. handed out B. come up with C. got across D. drawn up
9. A. quiet B. silent C. dump D. speechless
10. A. much B. little C. few D. many

4
Section 2: Read the following passage and think of a word which best fits each space. Use only ONE
word for each space.
After more than fifty (1) ______ of television, it might seem only obvious to conclude that it is here
to stay. There have been many objections to it during this time, of course, and on a variety of grounds.
Did it (2) ______ eye-strain? Was the (3) ______ bombarding us with radio activity? Did the
advertisements contain subliminal messages, persuading us to buy more? Did children turn to violence
through watching it, either because so (4) ______ programs taught them how to shoot, rob, and kill, or
because they had to do something to counteract the hours they had spent glued to the tiny screen? Or did
it simply create a vast passive audience drugged (5) ______ glamorous serials and inane situation
programs? On the other hand, did it increase anxiety by sensationalizing the news [or the news (6) ______
was accompanied by suitable pictures] and filling our living rooms with war, famine and political unrest?
(7) ______ in all, television proved to be the all-purpose scapegoat for the second half of the century,
blamed for everything, but above all, eagerly watched. For no (8) ______ how much we despised it, feared
it, were bored by it, or felt that it took us (9) ______ from the old paradise of family conversation and
hobbies such as collecting stamps, we never turned it off. We kept staring at the screen, aware that our
own tiny (10) ______ was in if we looked carefully.

Section 3: Read the following passage and choose the best option marked A, B, C or D to indicate the correct
answer to each of the questions.
Drunken driving-sometimes called America’s socially accepted form of murder-has become a
national epidemic. Every hour of every day about three Americans on average are killed by drunken
drivers, adding up to an incredible 250,000 over the past decade.
A drunken driver is usually defined as one with a 0.10 blood alcohol content or roughly three beers,
glasses of wine or shots of whisky drunk within two hours. Heavy drinking used to be an acceptable part
of the American macho image and judges were lenient in most courts, but the drunken slaughter has
recently caused so many well-publicised tragedies, especially involving young children, that public
opinion is no longer so tolerant.
Twenty states have raised the legal drinking age to 21, reversing a trend in the 1960s to reduce it to
18, the number of people killed by 18-20-year-old drivers more than doubled, so the state recently upped
it back to 21. Reformers, however, fear raising the drinking age will have little effect unless accompanied
by educational programmes to help young people to develop “responsible attitudes” about drinking and
teach them to resist peer pressure to drink.
Tough new laws have led to increased arrests and tests and, in many areas already, to a marked decline
in fatalities. Some states are also penalizing bars for serving customers too many drinks. A tavern in
Massachusetts was fined for serving six or more double brandies to a customer who was “obviously
intoxicated” and later drove off the road, killing a nine-year-old boy.
As the fatalities continue to occur daily in every state, some Americans are even beginning to speak
well of the 13 years old of national prohibition of alcohol that began in 1919, what President Hoover
called the “noble experiment”. They forget that legal prohibition didn’t stop drinking, but encouraged
political corruption and organized crime. As with the booming drug trade generally, there is no easy
solution.

1. Drunken driving has become a major problem in America because____


A. most Americans are heavy drinkers. B. drinking is a socially accepted habit in America.
C. accidents attract so much publicity. D. Americans are now less shocked by road accidents.
5
2. Why has public opinion regarding drunken driving changed?
A. Detailed statistics are now available. B. Drivers are more conscious of their image.
C. Judges are giving more severe sentences. D. The news media have highlighted the problem.
3. Statistics issued in New Jersey suggested that ___
A. many drivers were not of legal age. B. young drivers were often bad drivers.
C. the legal drinking age should be raised. D. the level of drinking increased in the 1960s.
4. Laws recently introduced in some states have ____
A. reduced the number of convictions. B. resulted in fewer serious accidents.
C. specified the amount drivers can drink. D. prevented bars from serving drunken customers.
5. Why is the problem of drinking and driving difficult to solve?
A. Legislation alone is not sufficient. B. Drinking is linked to organized crime.
C. Legal prohibition has already failed. D. Alcohol is easily obtained.
Section 4: You are going to read an article about Taekwondo. Five sentences have been removed from
the article. Choose the sentences from A – F the one which best fits gaps 1 – 5. There is one extra
sentence which you do not need to use. There is an example at the beginning (0)
SENTENCES:
A. You should be careful when you are deciding where to learn it.
B. All students promise never to misuse what they learn.
C. It is a safe activity if you take plenty of care.
D. Some people are changing to Taekwondo from another martial art.
E. The colour for each grade has its own particular meaning.
F. People take up Taekwondo for a variety of reasons.
G. It is a unique and increasingly popular activity.

TAEKWONDO
0 – G: Taekwondo is the Korean name for the “art of foot and hand fighting”. There is no other martial
art style like it and none is so enjoyable in its freedom of expression. Jumping and spinning in the air and
striking out with hands and feet are its special characteristics. There can be wonderful to perform and
great to watch. Today there are more than twenty million practitioners of Taekwondo and the numbers
are growing quickly.
We are not certain where the art of self-defence began: The history of the martial arts is the subject
of much discussion and there are many theories concerning its origins. China, Japan, Korea and India all
have strong claims to the beginnings of unarmed combat, while fighting skills were a natural development
throughout the world for self-protection. Taekwondo itself began in Korea, a country which has a tradition
of martial arts that goes back more than two thousand years.
1. __________
If you have visited a traditional Karate class and found it too formal or even military in its approach,
you will recognize that Taekwondo is more modern in the way things are done. None of the politeness or
discipline you would expect in a martial arts club is missing, but there is an air of enjoyment. Many people
who previously did Karate are now training in Taekwondo as it is in many ways more progressive, more
dynamic, more exciting and more entertaining.
2. __________
Beginners are often attracted by what is an enjoyable, physical form of recreation with the added
benefit of self-defence and increased self-confidence. For some the fascination of learning techniques and
performing them to exacting standards, combined with a high level of fitness, speed and strength, may be
what appeals. Others enjoy being a part of a disciplined group of people of both sexes, of all ages and
from many different backgrounds who can work together and help achieve their aims. It is not unusual to
find a 12-year-old girl or a 70-year-old man wearing a Black Belt.

6
3. __________
To reach that level takes years of hard work. Your first belt is white, which shows the innocence of
the student who has no previous knowledge of Taekwondo. If you pass your first grading exam, you
receive a yellow belt. This represents the Earth, where a plant takes root as the Taekwondo foundation is
being laid. The next grade is green, symbolizing the plant’s growth as skills begin to develop. This is
followed by blue: the plant is now maturing arid growing towards heaven as training progresses. Then
comes red, meaning danger, cautioning self-control to the student and warning the opponent to stay away.
Finally there is black, meaning maturity and proficiency in Taekwondo. It also indicates the wearer’s
conquest of darkness and fear.
4. __________
The first thing to learn, though, is that Taekwondo is a martial art to be practised with control. Careless
practice or fooling around can lead to injury. Strict rules of conduct and close attention to them will help
keep injuries to a minimum, particularly when you are training one-to-one with another student. In all
combat situations like this you will have to wear thick gloves and padded boots to avoid damaging either
yourself or your opponent, and – depending on the club you join – you may also need to wear a helmet
and a chest protector.
5. __________
In a good club there should be a feeling of friendliness. The pace may be fast and the training might
be tough at times, but nobody should be getting hurt. Sit in on a class, see if people are enjoying themselves
and have a look at who is there. If the club has been going for a few years there should be, apart from the
instructor, some other high grades – Blue, Red and Black Belts – practising, because there is always more
to learn. From Black Belt 1st Dan you can go further still, possibly reaching 5 th, 6th or even higher Dans
after many years’ training.

PART D. WRITING
Section 1: Write the sentence beginning with the word(s) given so that it has the closest meaning to the
original one. Write the answers on your answer sheet.
1. People think that the prisoner was recaptured while drinking in the pub.
The prisoner_________________________________________________.
2. He delayed writing the book until he had a lot of research.
Only after___________________________________________________.
3. Do phone me when you arrive at the airport, even if it’s very late.
However____________________________________________________.
4. Just thinking about her face at that moment makes me laugh.
The very ____________________________________________________.
5. Nobody expected her to lose the game, but she did.
Against _____________________________________________________.
Section 2: Write an essay within 250 words on the following topic:
Young people in the modern world seem to have more power and influence than any previous
young generation.
- Why is this the case?
- What impact does this have on the relationship between old and young people?
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or
experience.

_____THE END_____
Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu. Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.
Họ và tên thí sinh:................................................................. ; Số báo danh:.........................

7
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KÌ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10, 11 THPT NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 – THPT
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

(Đề thi gồm 06 trang)

SECTION A. LISTENING (Each recording will be played TWICE)


Part 1: Questions 1-7. There are seven questions in this part. For each question, there are three
pictures and a short recording. Choose the correct picture A, B or C.

1. What is the girl doing?

A B C
2. What will the weather be like tomorrow?

A B C
3. Which musical instrument is the girl learning to play?

A B C
4. Where will they meet?

A B C
5. What time does the museum shut on Saturdays?

1
A B C

6. Where is the flat?

A B C
7. What did the woman receive in the post?

A B C
Part 2. Questions 8-13. You will hear a man called Toby Merchant talking on the radio about his job
as an engineer with a company called Atkins Engineering. Choose the best answer A, B or C for each
of the following questions.
8. When did Toby get a job with Atkins Engineering?
A. when he was a university student
B. as soon as he finished university
C. six months after he finished university
9. What is Toby working on at the moment?
A. new motorway B. houses and flats C. a new airport
10. When Toby began working, he was surprised to spend so much time_____.
A. talking to other people B. sitting in an office C. designing buildings
11. Young people often don’t choose engineering because they think _______.
A. it’s hard to get a job B. it’s probably boring C. it’s very well paid
12. What is a disadvantage of the job for Toby?
A. He finds it difficult to take holidays.
B. He can’t organize his spare time.
C. He works too many hours.
13. When Toby was at school, what job did he want to have?
A. a doctor B. an architect C. an engineer
Part 3. Questions 14-20. Complete the notes bellow.
Write NO MORE THAN THREE WORDS AND / OR A NUMBER for each answer.

2
GOODWOOD CAR SHOW
Type of car: Duesenberg J-type
Number made: (14) ___________
Type of body: two-seater
Engines contained capsules of mercury to ensure a (15) _________ trip.
Top speed: (16) ___________ per hour
Sold as a frame and engine
Main attraction: instrument panel Shared by angels of Otto
Type of car: Leyat Helica
Number built: (17) ___________ Channel
Car looks like a (18) ___________ without (19) _______.
Steering used the (20) ___________.
SECTION B. PHONETICS

Pick out the word whose stress pattern is different from that of the other words. Identify your answer
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. A. alarming B. criticize C. excellent D. arrogant
2. A. presentation B. confidential C. controversial D. communicate
3. A. ambitious B. appearance C. development D. introduce
4. A. economical B. alternative C. miraculous D. ability
5. A. ingratiate B. politics C. courageous D. conspicuous

SECTION C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR
Part 1. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer A, B, C or D.
1. ________ daily promotes physical as well as emotional well-being in people of all ages.
A. Having exercised B. Those who exercise
C. Exercising D. For exercising
2. The new production of Othello is very ambitious and extremely interesting, but somehow it doesn't quite
________ .
A. come off B. come through C. come out D. come round
3. These tablets are really ________. My headache’s much better now.
A. affective B. effective C. efficient D. affected
4. Doctors advise people who are deficient ________ vitamin C to eat more fruit and vegetables.
A. from B. of C. in D. for
5. “But son, you are my own ________. ”
A. flesh and blood B. body and soul C. heart to heart D. skin and bone
6. The TV documentary was so informative that we were all ________ to the set until it ended.
A. glued B. secured C. hooked D. united
7. By the time the bridge is complete, over $20 million ________ on the project.
A. will have been spent B. is to be spent
C. will be spending D. is going to spend
8. Linda: “It’s really the end of the holiday already.” ~ Alice: “________!”
A. How time flies B. Let’s call it a day
C. It’s a small world D. There’s nothing to it
9. Harold would sooner we ________ the meeting on Sunday.
A. shouldn’t hold B. wouldn’t hold C. didn’t hold D. won’t hold
10. Susan will graduate in June, ________ she submits her dissertation on time.
A. unless B. provided C. otherwise D. supposing

Part 2. Supply the correct form of the word provided in each blank.
Many (1. RESEARCH) ________ believe that apes can communicate with human beings. Investigations
made at several laboratories in the United States and elsewhere indicate that chimpanzees and gorillas are

3
capable of understanding language and line using (2. LANGUAGE) ________ responses at the level of a
four – year – old child. Washoe, an adult chimpanzee who was raised as if she were a deaf child, can
translate words she hears into American Sign Language. Loko, a 400-pound lowland gorilla, is claimed to
have understood a poem (3. WRITE) ________ about her. Tests of Koko’s auditory comprehension show
that she is able to make discriminations between such words as “funny”, “money”, and “bunny”.

The (4. SCIENCE) ________ at the forefront of this research admit that their work has been severely
criticized. The skeptics in general claim that apes’ language (5. BEHAVE) ________ is merely imitative.
For this behavior to be called “language”, it must also be (6. COMMUNICATE) ________. The proponents
of ape language counter that those who deny the (7. VALID) ________ of this research have never worked
with apes. They point out that new fields of investigation always create (8. CONTROVERSIAL)
________. They add that (9. HUMAN) ________ primates have not been taught to speak, however, because
the outer layer of their brain hemispheres is not (10. SUFFICIENT) ________refined.

Part 3. The passage below contains five mistakes. Write down the line numbers, the corresponding
mistakes and correct them.

It is a sad fact that adults laugh farly less than children, sometimes by as much as a couple of hundred
times a day. Just take a look at people's faces on the way to work or in the office: you'll be lucky to see a
smile, let alone hear a laugh. This is a shame - especially in view of the fact that scientists have proved that
laughing is good at you. "When you laugh" says psychologist David Cohen, "it produces the feel-good
hormones, endorphin. It counters the effects of stress and enhances the immune system."
They are many reasons why we might laugh less in adult life: perhaps we are too work-obsessed, or too
embarrassed to let our emotions shown. Some psychologists simply believe that children have more native
responses and like adults we naturally grow out of spontaneous reactions. Luckily, however, it is possible to
relearn the art of laughter.

No Line Mistake Correction


1
2

SECTION D. READING
Part 1. Read the following passage and choose the correct answer by writing the corresponding letter
A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
The history of clinical nutrition, or the study of the relationship between health and how the body
takes in and utilizes food substances, can be divided into four distinct eras: the first began in the
nineteenth century and extended into the early twentieth century when it was recognized for the first time
that food contained constituents that were essential for human function and that different foods provided
different amounts of these essential agents. Near the end of this era, research studies demonstrated that rapid
weight loss was associated with nitrogen imbalance and could only be rectified by providing adequate
dietary protein associated with certain foods.
The second era was initiated in the early decades of the twentieth century and might be called "the
vitamin period." Vitamins came to be recognized in foods, and deficiency syndromes were described. As
vitamins became recognized as essential food constituents necessary for health, it became tempting to
suggest that every disease and condition for which there had been no previous effective treatment might be
responsive to vitamin therapy. At that point in time, medical schools started to become more interested in
having their curricula integrate nutritional concepts into the basic sciences. Much of the focus of this

4
education was on the recognition of vitamin deficiency symptoms. Herein lay the beginning of what
ultimately turned from ignorance to denial of the value of nutritional therapies in medicine. Reckless claims
were made for effects of vitamins that went far beyond what could actually be achieved from the use of
them.
In the third era of nutritional history in the early 1950's to mid-1960's, vitamin therapy began to fall into
disrepute. Concomitant with this, nutrition education in medical schools also became less popular. It was
just a decade before this that many drug companies had found their vitamin sales skyrocketing and were
quick to supply practicing physicians with generous samples of vitamins and literature praising the virtue of
supplementation for a variety of health-related conditions. Expectations as to the success of vitamins in
disease control were exaggerated. As is known in retrospect, vitamin and mineral therapies are much less
effective when applied to health-crisis conditions than when applied to long-term problems of under
nutrition that lead to chronic health problems.

1. What does the passage mainly discuss?


A. The effects of vitamins on the human body
B. The history of food preferences from the nineteenth century to the present
C. The stages of development of clinical nutrition as a field of study
D. Nutritional practices of the nineteenth century
2. It can be inferred from the passage that during the first era in the history of nutrition________.
A. protein was recognized as an essential component of diet
B. vitamins were synthesized from foods
C. effective techniques of weight loss were determined
D. certain foods were found to be harmful to good health
3. It can be inferred from the passage that medical schools began to teach concepts of nutrition in order
to________.
A. convince medical doctors to participate in research studies on nutrition
B. encourage medical doctors to apply concepts of nutrition in the treatment of disease
C. convince doctors to conduct experimental vitamin therapies on their patients
D. support the creation of artificial vitamins
4. The word “them” in paragraph 2 refers to________.
A. therapies B. claims C. effects D. vitamins
5. Why did vitamin therapy begin losing favor in the 1950's?
A. Because the public lost interest in vitamins.
B. Because medical schools stopped teaching nutritional concepts.
C. Because nutritional research was of poor quality.
D. Because claims for the effectiveness of vitamin therapy were seen to be exaggerated.
6. The phrase "concomitant with" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. in conjunction with B. prior to C. in dispute with D. in regard to
7. The word "skyrocketing" in paragraph 3 is closest in meaning to________.
A. internationally popular B. increasing rapidly
C. acceptable D. surprising
8. The paragraph following the passage most probably discusses________.
A. the fourth era of nutrition history B. problems associated with under nutrition
C. how drug companies became successful D. why nutrition education lost its appeal
(Source: TOEFL READING collection 2, 1995)
Part 2. Read the passage and fill in each numbered gap with ONE suitable word.
Fog is a cloud in (1) ________ with or just above the surface of land or sea. It can be a major
environmental hazard. Fog on highways can cause chain-reaction accidents involving dozens of cars. Delays

5
and shutdowns at airports can (2) ________ economic losses to airlines and inconveniences to thousands of
travelers carrying vast quantities of oil, increases the possibility of catastrophic oil spills.

The (3) ________ common type of fog, radiation fog, forms at night, when moist air near the ground
loses warmth through radiation on a clear night. This type of fog often occurs in valleys, (4) ________ as
California's San Joaquin Valley. (5) ________ common type, advection fog, results from the movement of
warm, wet air over cold ground. The air loses temperature to the ground and condensation sets in. This type
of fog often occurs along the California coast and the shores of the Great Lake. Advection fog also forms
when air (6) ________ with a warm ocean current blows across the surface of a cold current. The thick fogs
of the Grand Banks of Newfoundland, Canada, are largely of this origin, (7) ________ here the Labrador
Current comes in contact with the warm Gulf Stream.

Two other types of fog are somewhat (8) ________ unusual. Frontal fog occurs when two fronts of
different temperatures meet, and rain from the warm front falls (9) ________ the colder one, saturating the
air. Steam fog appears when cold air picks (10) ________ moisture by moving other warmer water.

Part 3. Choose the correct answer to complete the following passage by writing the corresponding
letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

Of the myriad of Japanese ceremonies introduced to the West, the Japanese tea ceremony would have to
be the least accessible. (1) __________ many other aspects of Japanese culture, the practice of drinking tea
was (2) __________ from China well over a thousand years ago. In Japan, green tea developed its own
character, and the Japanese tea ceremony has evolved (3) __________ a peculiarly Japanese phenomenon.
The modern tea ceremony can be (4) __________back to the 17th century when it developed alongside
another singular Japanese adaption of Chinese culture: the philosophy of Zen. The tea ceremony eventually
became established as a recognized form of high art, where it was practiced in (5) __________ locations,
from a Zen temple to an ordinary home. Even today, the simplest and most secular tea ceremony still
embraces the Zen aesthetics of (6) __________, austerity and devotion. During the ceremony strictly
prescribed words of invitation and gratitude are murmured quietly; tea maker and guests (7) __________
their roles with humility and respect. A brief moment of (8) __________ tranquility has been communally
created and shared. It is simultaneously an aesthetic, social and spiritual moment. Significantly it is a
Japanese moment, fleeting and poignant with its own peacefulness (9) __________ the noise and confusion
of the everyday world is temporarily suspended as a vague, indefinable (10) __________ of the eternal
pervades.
1. A. Like B. As C. Similar D. Alike
2. A. brought up B. brought in C. brought about D. brought down
3. A. off B. into C. about D. for
4. A. detected B. tracked C. ignored D. traced
5. A. disparate B. diverse C. equal D. unlike
6. A. simply B. simplify C. simplicity D. simplification
7. A. play B. take C. set D. have
8. A. heavy B. serious C. profound D. difficult
9. A. where B. when C. which D. who
10. A. sense B. thought C. capacity D. atmosphere

SECTION E. WRITING
Part 1. Rewrite each of the following sentences in such a way that it has a similar meaning to the
original one.
1. Although I love you, I cannot let you have any more money.
→ Much _________________________________________________.
2. She was unaware that they were watching her every move.
→ Little did ______________________________________________.
3. It was a bad idea to invite them to the party.

6
→ You should ____________________________________________.
4. It is not a habit of mine to sleep in the afternoon.
→ I am __________________________________________________.
5. The letter arrived completely unexpectedly this morning.
→ The letter arrived completely out ____________________________.

Part 2. Essay writing:


“Teenagers should be required to do unpaid work in their free time to help their local community.”
To what extent do you agree with this proposal?
Write an essay within 250 words to express your own idea.

-----THE END-----

Thí sinh không được sử dụng tài liệu; Cán bộ coi thi không giải thích gì thêm.

Họ và tên thí sinh: …………………………………………………SBD:………………………

ĐÁP ÁN

SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KÌ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10, 11 THPT NĂM HỌC 2017 – 2018

HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH 10 – THPT

(Đáp án gồm 02 trang)


SECTION A. LISTENING (4 points)

Part 1: (1.4 points. 0.2 points/ item)

1. B 2. C 3. A 4. B 5. C 6. B 7. A

Part 2. (1.2 points. 0.2 points/ item)

8. C 9. C 10. A 11. B 12. B 13. A

Part 3. (1.4 points. 0.2 points/ item)

14. 473 15. smooth 16. 180 kilometers 17. 30


18. light aircraft/ plane 19. wings 20. rear wheels

SECTION B. PHONETICS (1 point. 0.2 points/ item)

1. A 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. B

SECTION C. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (5 points)


Part 1. (2 points. 0.2 points/ item)

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. C 5. A

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6. A 7. A 8. A 9. C 10. B

Part 2. (2 points. 0.2 points/ item)

1. researchers 2. linguistic 3. written 4. scientists 5. behavior


6. communicative 7. validity 8. controversy 9. subhuman 10. sufficiently

Part 3. (1 points. 0.2 points/ item)

No Line Mistake Correction


1 1 farly far
2 4 at for
3 6 They There
4 7 shown show
5 8 like as

SECTION D. READING (6 points)

Part 1. (2 points. 0.25 points/ item)

1. C 2. A 3. B 4. D
5. D 6. A 7. B 8. A

Part 2. (2 points. 0.2 points/ item)

1. contact 2. cause 3. most 4. such 5. Another


6. associated 7. because 8. more 9. into 10. up
Part 3. (2 points. 0.2 points/ item)

1. A 2. B 3. B 4. D 5. B
6. C 7. A 8. C 9. B 10. A

SECTION E. (4 points)

Part 1. (1 point. 0.2 points/ item)


1. Much as I love you, I cannot let you have any more money.
2. Little did she know that they were watching her every move.
3. You should not have invited them to the party.
4. I am not used to/ not in the habit of sleeping in the afternoon.
5. The letter arrived completely out of the blue this morning.

Part 2. (3 points)

8
The mark is based on the following criteria:
1. Content (1,2 pts) 1,2 pts
a. Providing all main ideas and details as required.
b. Communicating intentions sufficiently and effectively.
0,7 pt
2. Organization and presentation (0,7 pt)
a. Ideas are well-organized and presented with coherence, cohesion, and clarity. 0,7 pt
b. The essay is well-structured.
3. Language (0,7 pt)
a. Demonstration of a variety of vocabulary and structure appropriate to level of English 0,4 pt
language of gifted students.
b. Good use and control of grammatical structures.
4. Punctuation, spelling and handwriting (0,4 pt)
a. Good punctuation and no spelling mistakes.
b. Legible handwriting.
TOTAL: 20 points

_______The end_______

9
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 11 THPT NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT (Dành cho học sinh THPT Chuyên)
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian phát đề
(Đề thi có 06 trang)

PART 1: LISTENING
Section 1: You will hear someone giving a talk about global warming. For question 1-10,
complete the sentences with no more than THREE words or numbers. You will hear the recording
TWICE.

THE TRUTH ABOUT GLOBAL WARMING

Scientists say that with each (1) __________ that goes by, the planet is getting warmer.

Scientists don't just take record low temperatures into account, they measure (2) _________
temperature changes.

Research has proved that over the last (3) _________ years, the Earth's average temperature
has risen by about two degrees.

Solar flares are (4) _________ that happen on the surface of the Sun.

Scientists say that the Sun's activity has decreased during the period (5) _________.

Some people think that there's no way carbon dioxide can be (6) __________ to the planet.

Too much carbon dioxide (7) _________ within the atmosphere.

Some people think global warming can create a longer (8) _________ for plants.

While northern regions get warmer, the rest of the planet will suffer from (9) _________,
wildfires and expanding deserts.

For some people, climate change will make food expensive or even (10) __________ to them.

Section 2: You will hear five people talking about their families. For questions 1-5, choose from
the list A-H what each speaker says. Use the letters only ONCE. There are three extra letters
which you do not need to use. You will hear the recording TWICE.

A. Living with our extended family would not work.


Speaker 1: __________
B. I wish we lived closer to our relatives.
Speaker 2: __________
C. Having just one child worked out fine
D. Being the oldest brings a special kind of problem
Speaker 3: __________
E. We don't get on very well with our cousins.
Speaker 4: __________
F. Having older brothers and sisters was often a problem.
G. I agree with my parents about bringing up children Speaker 5: __________
H. Living with my extended family has been a success.

Section 3: Listen to an interview with a businesswoman. Cross out any mistakes in the notes and
write the correct information on the line. You will hear the recording TWICE.

Jane Howard - businesswoman Correction


1. Stays in touch mainly by using her laptop 1.
2. Uses her laptop for writing short messages 2.
3. Secretary finds cheaper ways to travel 3.
4. Writes serious business letters 4.
5. Life is a series of bleeps and ringtones between 5.
planes

PART 2: LEXICO - GRAMMAR


Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C or D) to complete each of the following sentences.
1. Much of what he said had little _______ to the issue we were discussing.
A. accordance B. involvement C. concern D. relevance
2. The restless lion kept pacing _________ along the front of its cage.
A. back and fort B. up and down C. on and off D. back and out
3. You can have _______ for the meals during your package vacation.
A. vouchers B. tags C. checks D. records
4. A new motorcycle model has just been _______ on the Internet.
A. delivered B. designed C. launched D. exploited
5. Why don’t you _______ a go? - It’s not difficult!
A. do B. have C. set D. make
6. The Prime Minister has _______ from the dogmatic position he adopted a few days ago.
A. backed out B. backed down C. backed up D. backed on
7. At the South Pole _______, the coldest and most desolate region on Earth.
A. Antarctica lies where B. Antarctica lies and
C. where Antarctica lies D. lies Antarctica
8. _______ in the diet is especially important for vegetarians.
A. Enough protein is obtained B. Obtaining enough protein
C. They obtain enough protein D. By obtaining enough protein
9. _______ over long distances is a fact.
A. That electricity can be transmitted B. That electricity transmitting
C. That electricity D. That can be transmitted
10. Don’t leave paraffin heaters in a draught or where they’re _______
A. dangerously knocked over B. in danger knocked over
C. in danger of being knocked over D. in danger of knocking over
11. My father took _______ of the fine weather to a day’s work in his garden.
A. chance B. advantage C. interest D. charge
12. By 2050, medical technology _______ many diseases.
A. has conquered B. will conquer C. will have conquered D. is conquering
13. I realized _______ that he was a thief.
A. sooner or later B. all along C. at the beginning D. eventually
14. _______ his assistance in those days, I would not be so successful now.
A. If it had not for B. Had it not been for
C. If there were not D. Unless I had
15. They thought they could deceive me but they were wrong. I could ________.
A. see them off B. see off them C. see through them D. see them through
16. Janet will see you if you use the computer without permission. She has eyes like a _______.
A. hawk B. bird C. goose D. fox
17. My sister remained very calm. She _______.
A. kept her temper B. kept her soul C. kept her head D. lost her head
18. A network of railroads to unite the continent and encourage Western settlement _______ before
the Civil War by Asa Whitney.
A. when proposed B. to propose C. was proposed D. a proposal
19. Farmers are at the _______ of the bad weather that can destroy their crop.
A. change B. influence C. force D. mercy
20. He showed his _______ for the TV programme by switching it off.
A. distaste B. discontent C. annoyance D. boredom

Section 2: Use the word given in capitals at the end of each line to form a word that fits in the space
at the same line.

OBSESSED WITH YOUR INBOX?

It was not so long ago that we dealt with colleagues through


face-to-face interaction and with counterparts and customers by
phone or letter. But the world of communication has 1. GO
(1) ________ a dramatic transformation, not all for the good. 2. DOUBT
Email, while (2) _______ a swift means of communication 3. FUNCTION
providing your server is fully (3) ________ and that the address 4. ACCURATE
you have contains no (4) _________ has had a (5) _______ effect 5. SIGNIFY
on certain people's, both at home and in business. For these 6. RESIST
people, the use of email has become (6) _______ addictive to the 7. THREAD
extent that it is (7) ________ their mental and physical health. 8. COMPULSION
Addicts spend their day (8) ________ checking for email and have 9. TEND
a (9) ________ to panic if their server goes down. It is estimated
that one in six people spend four hours a day sending and receiving
messages the equivalent to more than two working days a 10. PRODUCE
week. The negative effect on (10) ________ is something
employers are well aware of.
Section 3: There are 10 errors in the following passage. Identify and correct them

Children who tell pop music does not interfere with their homework receive support today,
with the discovery that pay attention to visual stimuli and sounds requires completely different
brain pathways which can operate at the same time with your appreciation of either being
damaged. Researchers have founded that listening to car stereos does not create much interference
when you are driving. Similarly, pop music should not interfere to children’s homework.
The affect of pop music on their performance at it is far outweigh by other factors, such as how
happy they are to be doing it. These findings could be applied for the design of
places which people have to take in large amounts of information very quickly. They could, for
example, be relevantly to the layout of pilot cockpits on aircraft.

LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION

Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition.

1. I have already told Tim that I won’t go to Spain with him, but he still trying to talk me
_______.
2. _______ receipt of your instructions, I immediately sent a telex message to Algeria.
3. Grandfather must be tired. He’s nodding _______ in his chair.
4. The applause died _______ after 5 minutes.
5. He accepted my advice _______ reservation.
6. Our students are orientated _______ the science subjects.
7. Cheques should be made _______ to Wellington.
8. I’m in no hurry. I’ll hang _______ here until you’re ready.
9. She is Polish _______ birth, but she has French nationality.
10. Your plan doesn’t allow _______ changes in the weather.

PART 3. READING
Section 1: Fill each of the following numbered blanks with ONE suitable word and write
your answers in the corresponding boxes provided below the passage.
How to win friends and influence colleagues
The worst sins that office workers can commit in the eyes of colleagues are interrupting
people on the phone, talking loudly in front of someone’s desk and arriving late (1) _______ a
meeting. It is almost (2) _______ bad to eat at your desk, make personal phone calls or leave coffee
cups (3) _______ around, according to Bodytalk, a guide published by the Industrial
Society, (4) _______ lists the 30 traits most likely to annoy colleagues.
High on the list are signing on at someone else’s computer terminal (5) _______ signing off
afterwards, messing up the photocopier by jamming the paper or leaving it set to produce multiple
copies. Reading newspaper, doodling, chewing gum, keeping cuddly toys or ornaments on your desk,
and putting up postcards or supposedly witty slogan (6) _______ invite disapproval. Also unpopular
are (7) _______ who never fetch a colleague a drink from the machine, or who (8) _______ to hold
the lift door open when others are approaching. (9) _______ conduct, according to the guide’s author,
Judi James, not only gives you an unprofessional image but is downright anti-social and could
result (10) _______ dismissal.

Section 2: Fill the gaps in the passage by choosing the best phrases from A-M.

A few years ago one enlightened city decided to ease traffic congestion by (1) _______. People
would just take a bike, ride it to where they were going and leave it (2) _______. The trouble was the
citizens naturally found it (3) _______ to have their own free bicycle and (4) _______.
That slight detail of human nature apart, it was a good idea and (5) _______. The electric cars
buzzing round the streets of La Rochelle in France are seen (6) _______ and, it is clamed, will make it
easier (7) _______ within the city centre.
The idea is based on the belief that people like their own space, the freedom to drive a vehicle
themselves (8) _______. It’s also based on the fact that cars in towns usually carry just one person. In
effect, it’s (9) _______. At the moment, it’s a slightly utonpian view but the concept has grown (10)
_______.

A. to end the use of private cars H. supplying sufficient communal bicycles


B. rather than crowd on to a bus or train I. taking the place of bicycles
C. to encourage their use J. a sort of do-it-yourself taxi
D. stock swiftly dwindled K. as a supplement to conventional cars
E. out of a practical study L. instead of car
F. for someone else to use M. it’s now the basic of a new scheme
G. even more convenient

Section 3: Read the following passage and mark the letter A, B, C, or D on your answer sheet
to indicate the correct answer to each of the questions.

One of the seven wonders of the ancient world, the Great Pyramid of Giza was a monument
of wisdom and prophecy built as a tomb for Pharaoh Cheops in 2720 B.C. Despite its antiquity,
certain aspects of its construction makes it one of the truly wonders of the world. The thirteen-
acre structure near the Nile river is a solid mass of stone blocks covered with limestone. Inside are
the number of hidden passageways and the burial chamber of the Pharaoh. It is the largest single
structure in the world. The four sides of the pyramid are aligned almost exactly on true north,
south, east and west-an incredible engineering feat. The ancient Egyptians were sun worshippers
and great astronomers, so computations for the Great Pyramid were based on astronomical
observations.
Explorations and detailed examinations of the base of the structure reveal many intersecting
lines. Further scientific study indicates that these represent a type of timeline of events – past,
present and future. Many of the events have been interpreted and found to coincide with known
facts of the past. Others are prophesied for future generations and are currently under
investigation. Many believe that pyramids have supernatural powers and this one is no exception.
Some researchers even associate it with extraterrestrial beings of ancient past.

Was this superstructure made by ordinary beings, or one built by a race far superior to any known
today?

1. What has research of the base revealed?


A. there are cracks in the foundation B. Tomb robbers have stolen the Pharaoh’s body
C. The lines represent important events D. A superior race of people built in
2. Extraterrestrial beings are _______.
A. very strong workers B. astronomers in the ancient times
C. researchers in Egyptology D. living beings from other planets
3. What was the most probable reason for providing so many hidden passages?
A. To allow the weight of the pyramid to settle evenly
B. To permit the high priests to pray at night
C. To enable the Pharaoh’s family to bring food for his journey to the afterlife
D. To keep grave robbers from finding the tomb and the treasure buried with the pharaoh
4. The word “feat”in the first paragraph is closet in meaning to _______.
A. accomplishment B. Appendage C. festivity D. structure
5. What do the intersecting lines in the base symbolize?
A. Architects’plan for the hidden passages
B. Pathways of the great solar bodies
C. Astrological computations
D. Dates of important events taking place throughout time
6. In the second passage, the word ‘prophesied’ is closest in meaning to _______.
A. affiliated B. precipitated C. terminated D. foretold
7. What is the best title for the passage?
A. Symbolism of the Great Pyramid
B. Problems with the Construction of the Great Pyramid
C. Wonders of the Great Pyramid of Giza
D. Exploration of the Burial Chamber of Cheops
8. On what did the ancient Egyptians base their calculations?
A. Observation of the celestial bodies B. Advanced technology
C. Advanced tools of measurement D. knowledge of the earth’s surface
9. Why was the Great Pyramid constructed?
A. As a solar observatory B. As a religious temple
C. As a tomb for the Pharaoh D. as an engineering feat
10. Why is the Great Pyramid of Giza considered one of the seven wonders of the world?
A. it is perfectly aligned with the four cardinal points of the compass and contains many
prophecies
B. It was selected of the tomb of Pharaoh Cheops
C. It was built by a super race
D. It is very old
Section 4: Choose the best answer (A, B, C or D) to complete each numbered gap in the passage
below. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet.

CARNIVOROUS PLANTS

All plants rely on nutrients taken from the soil in order to survive. However, in areas where the soil
does not contain enough (1) _______ nutrients, some plants have adapted to (2) _______ their diets
from another source: living organisms. Though they are few in number, carnivorous plants are (3)
_______ fascinating beings that “eat” anything from one-celled organisms to insects in order to
survive. They are commonly found in marshlands. Carnivorous plants feature one of several types of
“traps” to ensnare prey, which they consume to make up for nutrients that may be missing from the
soil. While there are over 400 species of carnivorous plants in the world today, some are more (4)
_______ than others.
The most well-known of these plants are the snap traps, which include the Venus flytrap. Snap traps
are easily identified by their leaves, which are separated into two lobes that have the ability to fold
together. Inside the lobes, the surface is covered with tiny hairs that are (5) _______ to movement.
When the plant’s prey brushes against the hairs, it triggers a closing mechanism that rapidly brings the
two lobes together, trapping the prey (6) _______ inside. The response of the traps is phenomenal (7)
_______ speed: the time between triggering the hairs and snapping shut is less than a second. As the
prey struggles inside the trap, it only triggers more hairs, causing the leaves to tighten their (8) _______.
The plant then secrets liquid chemicals from special glands into the trap to dissolve the prey and absorb
all of its nutrients. Besides the Venus flytrap, only one other type of snap trap exists today, (9) _______
to as the waterwheel plant. The two share a common ancestor and differ only in a few ways. For
instance, the waterwheel is an aquatic plant, while the flytrap is exclusively terrestrial. In addition, the
flytrap feeds primarily on arthropods like spiders, while the waterwheel lives (10) _______ simple
invertebrates, like certain types of plankton.

1. A. critical B. vital C. crucial D. indispensable


2. A. modify B. enlarge C. augment D. supplement
3. A. nonetheless B. though C. contradictorily D. yet
4. A. prevalent B. current C. domineering D. prevailing
5. A. vulnerable B. liable C. prone D. sensitive
6. A. closely B. securely C. irreplaceably D. steadily
7. A. in accordance with B. in preference to C. in regard to D. on merits of
8. A. fist B. hold C. seizure D. grip
9. A. denoted B. referred C. indicated D. implicated
10. A. off B. onto C. though D. with

PART E. WRITING
Section 1: Write a new sentence as similar as possible in meaning to the original sentence, but
using the word given. The word must not be altered in any way.
1. The new lecturer was unpopular with his students. TAKE
 ___________________________________________________.
2. John decided that an actor's life was not of him. CUT
 ___________________________________________________.
3. The number of people out of work has been going down little by little. GRADUAL
 ___________________________________________________.
4. I really want to see her again. DYING
 ___________________________________________________.
5. What did his silence mean? SIGNIFICANCE
 ___________________________________________________.

Section 2: Write an essay of around 250 words on the following topic.

The idea of going overseas for university study is an exciting prospect for many people. But while it
may offer some advantages, it is probably better to stay home because of the difficulties a student
inevitably encounters living and studying in a different culture.
To what extent do you agree or disagree this statement?
Give reasons for your answer.

_________The end_________
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KÌ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 11 THPT NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
(Dành cho học sinh THPT Chuyên)
Hướng dẫn này gồm 2 trang

PART 1: LISTENING - 20 pts Shared by angels of Otto


Section 1 - 10pts, 1pt/item
Channel
1. decade 2. long- 3. 100/ hundred/ 4. minor explosions 5. 2005 to
term one hundred 2010/ 2005-
2010
6. 7. traps 8. growing season 9. water shortages 10. (completely) unavailable
harmful heat

Section 2 - 5pts, 0.5 point/item

1. C 2. F 3. H 4. B 5. A

Section 3 - 5pts, 1pt/ item

Jane Howard - businesswoman Correction


1. Stays in touch mainly by using her laptop 1. mobile phone
2. Uses her laptop for writing short messages 2. longer
3. Secretary finds cheaper ways to 3. deals for phone calls
travel
4. Writes serious business letters 4. long chatty
5. Life is a series of bleeps and ringtones 5. meetings
between planes

PART 2: LEXICO-GRAMMAR - 25 pts

Section 1: Choose the best option (A, B, C, or D) to complete the sentences (10 pts; 1pt/item)

1. D 5. B 9. A 13. B 17. C
2. A 6. A 10. C 14. B 18. C
3. A 7. D 11. B 15. C 19. D
4. C 8. B 12. C 16. A 20. A

Section 2: Word formation (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)

1. undergone 2. undoubtedly 3. functional 4. inaccuracies 5. significant


6. irresistibly 7. threatening 8. compulsively 9. tendency 10. production
Section 3: Identify the 10 mistakes in the following sentences and correct them (5 pt; 0.5pt/item)

LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION LINE MISTAKE CORRECTION


1 tell say 5 affect effect
2 pay paying 6 outweigh outweighed
3 with without 7 for to
4 founded found 7 which where
5 to with 8 relevantly relevant
(Lưu ý: Tìm đúng từ nhưng sửa sai được 0,25pt)

Section 4: Complete each of the following sentences with a suitable preposition - 5 pts,
0,5pt/item

1. round 2. on 3. off 4. away 5. without


6. towards/ to 7. out 8. around 9. by 10. for

PART 3: READING - 30 pts


Section 1: (10 pt; 1pt/item)
1. for 2. as 3. lying 4. which 5. without
6. all 7. those/people 8. fail/forget 9. Such 10. in

Section 2: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)

1. H 2. F 3. G 4. D 5. M
6. K 7. A 8. B 9. J 10. E

Section 3: (5 pt; 0,5pt/item)

1. C 2. D 3. D 4. A 5. D
6. D 7. C 8. A 9. C 10. A

Section 4: (10 pt; 1pt/item)

1. B 2. D 3. A 4. A 5. D
6. B 7. C 8. D 9. B 10. A
PART 4: WRITING - 25 pts
Section 1: (5 pt; 1/item)
1. The students didn't take to their new lecturer.
2. John (decided that he) was not cut out to be an actor.
3. There has been a gradual decline (reduction/ fall/ decrease) in the number of people out of work.
4. Iam (I'm) dying to see her again.
5. What's (What was) the significance of his silence?

Section 2: Essay writing (20 pts)

Total score: 2 points; assessed against the language level appropriate to that of a secondary student
with four years of learning English in a gifted school in Vietnam.
• Task achievement (5pts)

• Grammar range and Accuracy (5 pts)

• Coherence and cohesion (5 pts)

• Lexical resource ( 0.5 pts)


SỞ GD & ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KÌ THI CHỌN HỌC SINH GIỎI CẤP TỈNH
LỚP 11 THPT CHUYÊN NĂM HỌC 2013-2014
ĐỀ ĐỀ XUẤT
Đề thi gồm 06 trang Môn thi: TIẾNG ANH - CHUYÊN
Thời gian làm bài: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề
Ngày thi: …./4/2015

PART I: LISTENING Shared by angels of Otto


Section 1: Question 1-10 Channel
Question 1- 4: Choose the best answer to each question.
1. Where does the conversation take place?
A. in an office B. in a bookstore C. at a bus stop D. in front of a ticket booth
2. Which office helps overseas students with their particular problems?
A. Sport Club B. Union Societies
C. Accommodation Office D. Welfare Office
3. What kind of sport doesn’t the student mention?
A. basketball B. badminton C. wrestling D. motor racing
4. Where can the Filipino student find his compatriots at the school?
A. Training sessions B. Filipino Society C. Badminton court D. Basketball team
Question 5-10: Fill in the gaps numbered 5-10

Name Caesar
Surname 5 ______________________
City 6 ______________________
Subject 7______________________
Length of the course 8 ______________________
Job in the future 9 _____________________
Reason for choosing this university 10_____________________

Section 2: Question 11-20


Question 11-16: Answer the question by writing a word or a phrase.
11. When does the student have to move out of his present accommodation?
_________________________________________________________________________
12. For how long did the college offer him a temporary room?
_________________________________________________________________________
13. Circle the problem that the student has now.
A. No friends B. No money and no place to live in
C. Homesick D. No luggage
14. Circle the help that the Welfare Office can give.
A. To provide long-term accommodation for him.
B. To contact the accommodation service.
C. To subsidize his rent payments.
D. To offer him a grant.
15. Where could the student get money?
A. From a bank B. From a landlord
C. From the British Council D. From the Student Union
16. How much could the student get as an emergency loan?
A. Up to ₤200 B. About ₤ 250 C. ₤220 D. ₤2,000
Question 17-20: Write a word or a number in spaces provided.
17. Would the Union be able to provide a long-term emergency accommodation?
___________________
18. How much money does the student have left? ___________________

1
19. Will the student apply for an emergency loan? ___________________
20. How does the student feel after taking with the welfare officer? ___________________
PART II - LEXICO-GRAMMAR
I. Complete each of the following sentences with the correct answer (A, B, C or D). Identify your answer
by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
1. Nathalie seems very tough at work. She’s a different person at home, _________.
A. though B. although C. as though D. even though
2. I kept out of the conversation because it _________ me.
A. wasn’t concerned B. wasn’t concerning C. didn’t concern D. didn’t concern to
3. The entire city was _________ electricity last night- it was chaotic.
A. no B. almost no C. hardly any D. without
4. Henry was overweight, so he went on s strict diet and _________ twenty kilos.
A. missed B. lost C. failed D. fell
5. He was arrested because he answered to the description of the _________ man.
A. searched B. pursued C. wanted D. hunted
6. Humanity has done great damage to the environment in its search for _________ materials.
A. live B. raw C. crude D. rude
7. _________, the balcony chairs will be ruined in this weather.
A. Leaving uncovered B. Having left uncovered
C. Left uncovered D. Been left uncovered
8. One way to let off _________ after a stressful day is to take some vigorous exercise.
A. cloud B. tension C. steam D. sweat
9. Their research into the causes of cancer promises to break the new _________ in the field and
possibly lead to a cure.
A. earth B. ground C. soil D. land
10. After three days in the desert, his mind began to play _________ on him.
A. games B. jokes C. tricks D. fun
11. The match will be screened on ITV with _________ commentary by Any Gray.
A. lively B. live C. alive D. living
12. I know you didn’t want to upset me but I’ sooner you _________ me the whole truth yesterday.
A. could have told B. told C. have told D. had told
13. As the drug took _________, the patient became quieter.
A. effect B. force C. influence D. action
14. The dawn redwood appears ____ some 100 million years ago in northern forests around the world.
A. was flourished B. having to flourish
C. to have flourished D. have flourished
15. His comments _________ little or no relation to the facts and the figures of the case.
A. reflect B. bear C. give D. possess
16. All _____ is a continuous supply of the basic necessities of life.
A. what is needed B. for our needs C. the thing needed D. that is needed
17. It is urgent that this letter _____ immediately.
A. was posted B. posted C. be posted D. be post
18. John: This grammar test is the hardest one we’ve ever had this semester!
Mary: _____ but I think it’s quite easy.
A. I couldn’t agree more B. I understand what you’re saying
C. You’re wrong D. I don’t see in that way
19. It is only recently that ballets have been based on the themes _____ American life.
A. reflecting B. reflects C. is reflecting D. reflected
20. I wish you’d do the accounts. I don’t have ________ for numbers.
A. a head B. a mind C. the heart D. the nerve
II. Supply the correct form of the word in capital letter. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SKIING HOLIDAYS IN COLORADO
To ski or snowboard in Colorado is to experience the pinnacle of winter sports. The state of
Colorado is known for its spectacular scenery and (1. BREATH) ____ views, which inspire today's
travelers as much as they spurred on the (2. SETTLE) ____ who first arrived in this part of the US over

2
a century ago. And whether you're seeking the outdoor adventure of a (3. LIFE) ____ exciting nightlife
or a great family getaway, Colorado has everything you need.
November through April, snow conditions are (4. CONSIST) ____ and reliable, featuring
Colorado's (5. LEGEND) ____ “champagne powder” snow. Extensive snow making and grooming
operations always keep trails in top shape.
The mountain destinations in the Colorado Rockies can turn your wildest ski dreams into
thrilling (6. REAL) ______.There, you'll find the best skiing and snowboarding on (7. PICTURE) ____
slopes, as well as the finest ski schools in the US. Together, they present an (8. PARALLEL) ____ winter
paradise. And the best part is that you'll enjoy friendly, (9. CARE) ____ service in resorts that are (10.
COMMIT) ____ to delivering the highest quality amenities.
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank.
1. The government’s plans to reduce crime came ________for a lot of criticism from freedom groups.
2. I was ________the impression that you like Indian food.
3. This is one of the exceptions ________the rule.
4. The factory paid ________nearly a million pounds to their employees who were injured in the
explosion.
5. Before they open the new factory, a lot of the young people round here were ________the dole.
6. Mr. Horrid was a terrible teacher and obviously not cut ________for teaching.
7. I can’t cancel my arrangements ________such short notice.
8. All the police’s efforts to find him were ________vain.
9. The farmhouse we stayed in was completely ________the beaten track.
10. She’s gone and this time it’s ________good.

PART III: READING COMPREHENSION


I. Read the passage then choose the best answer to each question that follows. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.

THE ATMOSPHERE OF VENUS

Venus, also called the Morning Star and Evening Star, is the second-closest planet to the sun and
the brightest object in the night sky. The planet orbits the sun every two hundred and twenty four Earth-
days and is sometimes referred to as Earth’s sister planet because the two share both a similar size and
bulk. What is not similar, however, is Venus’s atmosphere in comparison to Earth’s atmosphere.
The atmosphere on Venus is much heavier and has a higher density than that of Earth. Venus’s
atmosphere also expands significantly higher than Earth’s atmosphere although a thick cloud cover makes
the surface of Venus nearly impossible to see unless observed through radar mapping.
While the pressure and temperature of Venus’s upper atmosphere are comparable to those of Earth,
the heat and pressure of the lower atmosphere are not unlike a furnace. Venus’s atmosphere is very thick
due to a composition consisting mainly of carbon dioxide, and a small amount of nitrogen. If man could
survive the extreme heat of Venus’s surface (400 degrees Celsius), then he would have to contend
with a surface pressure that is more than 90 times that of Earth. Venus’s extremely high temperature
is thanks to the greenhouse effect caused by such a large amount of carbon dioxide. The greenhouse
effect is a process by which the sun’s infrared radiation is more readily absorbed by the atmosphere. Just
like in a real greenhouse used to grow plants years round, the proliferation of carbon dioxide traps
radiation and warms Venus’s atmosphere. Due to this phenomenon, Venus boasts a higher atmospheric
temperature than Mercury, even though Venus is twice the distance from the sun.
However, scientists postulate that Venus’s atmosphere was not always so hot. [A] Studies show
that large bodies of water were once on Venus’s surface but that eventually evaporation of all the water
caused the runaway greenhouse effect which regulates the planet today. [B] Thus Venus has become a
critical study for today’s scientists, as human being are only beginning to struggle with the early stages of
the greenhouse effect. [C] Our problems do not stem from evaporated water supplies but from a
3
propagation of carbon dioxide and other greenhouse gases due to industrial and automobile emissions.
[D]
Another interesting characteristic to note regarding Venus’s atmosphere is that its daytime
temperatures and nighttime temperatures are not that far removed from each other. This is due to the
thermal inertia, the ability of a substance to store heat despite changing temperatures and the transfer of
heat by Venus’s strong winds. Although winds on the surface of Venus move slowly in comparison with
Earth’s winds, Venus’s air is so dense that a slow-moving there can move large obstructions and even
skip stones along the planet’s surface.
In 1966, humankind made its first attempt at sending a recording instrument into Venus’s
atmosphere. The Venera 3 probe did collide with Venus surface; however, the abrupt impact caused its
communication system to fail, and it was unable to send and feedback. In 1967, Venera 4 successfully
enter Venus’s atmosphere and was able to take many readings, one of which recorded that Venus’s
atmosphere was between ninety and ninety-five percent carbon dioxide. Subsequent Venera probes were
sent into Venus’s atmosphere, but most of them succumbed to the crushing air pressure.

Questions 1-7: Choose the answer (A, B, C or D) which you think fits best according to the passage.
1. According to paragraph 1, Venus is named the Morning Star and Evening Star because_________.
A. it is very bright B. it is close to the sun
C. it can be seen from evening till morning D. it is used to find the direction by sailors
2. The word that in paragraph 2 refers to _________.
A. size B. bulk C. atmosphere D. density
3. Which of the following best expresses the essential information in the bold sentence in paragraph
3? Incorrect answer choices change the meaning in important ways or leave out essential
information.
A. Earth experiences greater surface pressure than Venus.
B. If a man could survive its surface pressure.
C. The surface pressure and heat of Venus are much greater than those on Earth.
D. Venus’s surface temperature and pressure make it uninhabitable by humans.
4. According to paragraph 3, the greenhouse effect on Venus is owed to _________.
A. the small amounts of nitrogen
B. the rapid increasing amounts of carbon dioxide
C. growing plants
D. the high atmospheric temperatures
5. In paragraph 4, the author of the passage implies that Earth _________.
A. might suffer the same greenhouse effect as Venus
B. once had an atmosphere similar to Venus’s
C. has bodies of water similar to those on Venus today
D. is experiencing a reduction of carbon dioxide emissions
6. Look at the four blanks […] in paragraph 4 that indicate where the following sentence could be
added to the passage.
Although the causes are different, the ramifications are the same.
Where would the sentence best fit?
7. The word propagation in paragraph 4 is closest in meaning to _________.
A. generation B. elimination C. evaporation D. desecration
Questions 8 to 10: Complete the brief summary of the passage by selecting the THREE answer choices
that express important ideas in the passage. The introductory sentence for the summary is provided
bellowed.

Scientists look at Venus to predict Earth’s future.


8. …………………………………………………
9. …………………………………………………
10. …………………………………………………

4
Answer Choices

A. Venus once had large bodies of water that elaborated and cause a rapid increase in carbon dioxide.
B. Earth’s wind has a greater velocity than Venus’s because the air movement on Venus is denser
and can even more large obstructions.
C. Spaceships landing on Venus, though often crushed by Venus’s atmosphere, have revealed much
about its carbon dioxide filled atmosphere.
D. If man could survive the hot temperature of Venus, then he would have to contend with the great
surface pressure.
E. The first space probe of Venus was made in 1966.
F. Scientists are concerned that conditions on Earth that propagate significant quantities of carbon
dioxide will produce greenhouse effects similar to Venus’s.

II. Read the text below and think of the word which best fits each space. Use only ONE word in
each space. Write your answers on your answer sheet.
SPLENDID SPAS OF ASIA
Lying on a bed almost on the (1) ________ of a cliff, with a stupendous ocean view and the (2)
________ of waves, aches and pains are soothed away (3) ________ expert hands. Only two steps are
needed to reach the private pool, which seems to merge (4) ________ the ocean.
Such a scenario is no longer a fantasy (5) ________ an increasingly popular reality in Asia for
many stressed out businessmen and visitors from all over the world in search of that peaceful time and
space for their body and mind.
In the last four years, at (6) ________ 17 hotel spas have opened in South East Asia to (7)
________ this need. The tropical climate of the region and its reliable sunshine make for an ideal spa
setting. Picturesque environments (8) ________ with a series of rejuvenating treatments bring the desired
result. The Asian spa resorts have acquired a formidable reputation for their professional services as (9)
________ as for the decor of their large treatment rooms. Visitors relax with Thai music and soak in the
warm tones of the room. As all these take (10) ________ in individual rooms, precious privacy is
guaranteed, a rare privilege often absent from other spas where guests share rooms or changing areas.

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer for each question. Identify your answer by
writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer sheet.
WIND - The untamable weather machine
On 15 October 1987, the southern counties of Britain were struck by the strongest winds they had
experienced in 200 years. Gusts of over 130 kilometers per hour slammed across the region and £1.5-
billion-worth of damage was (1)__________ in just a few hours.
Extreme weather events like this are dramatic (2)__________ of the power of the wind. It’s one
part of the weather we generally don't give a second thought to in Britain but it plays a vital role in
people’s lives across the world. Without the formation and circulation of winds there would quite
(3)__________ be no climate.
Some parts of the world seem to suffer more than others from the effects of ‘ill winds’, and links
between particular winds and psychological problems (4)__________ back centuries. The Föhn, the hot
dry wind that slides off the slopes of the Alps, is capable of boosting temperatures quite suddenly by
10°C or more. It affects as many as one in three people in its (5)__________, making them feel anxious,
irritable and generally ill. In California, many people (6)__________ the arrival of the Santa Ana, which
rushes down from the high Mojave desert. Lyall Watson, in his book Heaven’s Breath, claims that when
the Santa Ana blows, murder rates soar.
The wind may get into the headlines when it comes in the form of tornadoes and hurricanes, but
for the (7)__________ part it goes about its job of shifting huge masses of air around the planet. Plants
take (8)__________ of this free ride to send their pollen grains far and wide. Trees (99)__________ on it

5
to remove old leaves and make way for new growth. Spiders have been caught (10)__________ a lift at
altitudes of almost 4.5 kilometers.
1. A. made B. caused C. destroyed D. completed
2. A. reminders B. recollections C. mementos D. memorial
3. A. easily B. rightly C. surely D. simply
4. A. last B. originate C. pass D. date
5. A. line B. road C. path D. bypass
6. A. despair B. respect C. dread D. warn
7. A. most B. maximum C. majority D. general
8. A. benefit B. chance C. occasion D. advantage
9. A. need B. trust C. hope D. realize
10. A. traveling B. hitching C. borrowing D. making

PART IV: WRITING


I. Rewrite the following sentences without changing their meaning, using the words given. These
words must not be changed in any way.
1. I would like to be able to speak French. (HAD)
I wish ________________________________________________________ speak French.
2. It was raining cats and dogs. (TORRENTS)
The rain was ______________________________________________________________
3. It was wrong of you to borrow my book without asking. (HAVE)
You ____________________________________________before you borrowed my book.
4. When I was younger, this record was one of my favourites. (FAVOURITE)
This record used ______________________________________ mine when I was younger.
5. My sister finds commuting every day annoying. (PUT)
It’s difficult for my sister ___________________________________________ every day.
6. The Mediterranean is warm, whereas the North Sea is much colder. (NOTHING)
The North Sea is ____________________________________________ the Mediterranean.
7. Christ would only eat a pizza if he could have a mushroom topping. ON
Christ ______________________________________________ when he ate a pizza.
8. My father persuaded me to learn another foreign language. TALKED
My father _______________________________________________ another foreign language.
9. Sam tried extremely hard to convince her, but it was no use. BRING
Hard _________________________________________________________________________
10. When he arrived at the airport, his family welcomed him warmly. GIVEN
On___________________________________________________________________________
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic.
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have
knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.
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------------------THE END -----------------
6
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 11 THPT NĂM HỌC 2014-2015
----------------- (Dành cho học sinh THPT chuyên)
(Đáp án gồm 02 trang) HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM MÔN: TIẾNG ANH

Total: 100pts
PART I. LISTENING (20 POINTS)
Section 1. (10pts)
1. A 2. D 3. D 4. B 5. Bautisto
6. Manila 7. Development Economics 8. one year 9. UN project adviser 10. a good reputation
in economics

Section 2. (10pts)

11. In 2 weeks 12. one month 13. B 14. B 15. D


16. A 17. No 18. ₤90 19. Yes 20. Optimistic

PART III. LEXICO-GRAMMAR (25 POINTS)


I. Read the sentences carefully and choose the best answers to make complete ones. (10pts)
1.A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. C
6. B 7. B 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. B 12. D 13. A 14. C 15. B
16. D 17. C 18. B 19. A 20. A

II. Write the correct FORM of each bracketed word. (10 pts)
1. breathtaking 2. settlers 3. lifetime 4. consistent 5. legendary
6. reality 7. picturesque 8. unparalleled 9. caring 10. committed
III. Complete the following sentences with one appropriate preposition for each blank. (5pts)
1. in 2. under 3. to 4. out 5. on
6. out 7. at 8. in 9. off 10. for

PART IV. READING (30POINTS)


I. Read the text & decide which word best fits each space by choosing A, B, C or D. (10pts)
1. A 2. C 3. D 4. B 5. A
6. B 7. A 8. A 9. C. 10. F
In any order from question 8 to 10
II. Fill in each blank space with an appropriate word. (10pts)

1. edge 2. sound 3. by 4. with 5. but


6. least 7. satisfy/meet 8. together/along 9. well 10. place

III. Read the following passage and choose the best answer. (10pts)
1. B 2. A 3. D 4. D 5. C
6.C 7. A 8. D 9. D 10. B

PART V. WRITING (25 POINTS)


I. Finish each of the sentences in such a way that it means exactly the same as the sentence printed
before it. (5 pts)
1. I wish I had ability to speak French.
2. The rain was coming down in torrents.
3. You should have asked me/ for permission….
4. This record used to be a favourite of mine when I was younger.
5. It’s difficult for my sister to put up with commuting every day.

7
6. The North Sea is nothing like as warm as the Mediterranean.
7. Christ insisted on having a mushroom topping when he ate a pizza.
8. My father talked me into learning another language.
9. Hard as/ though Sam tried, he couldn’t bring her round (to his way of thinking.
10. On his arrival at the airport, he was given a warm welcome by his family
II. Write an essay to give your opinion on the following topic. (20 points)
Some people believe that history has little to tell us. Other people believe that people must have
knowledge of history in order to understand the present.
Give reasons for your answer and include any relevant examples from your own knowledge or experience.
Write at least 250 words.

The impression mark given is based on the following scheme:


1. Content: 50% of total mark: a provision of all main ideas and details as appropriate
2. Language: 30% of total mark: a variety of vocabulary and structures appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students
3. Presentation: 20% of total mark: coherence, cohesion, and style appropriate to the level of
English language gifted upper-secondary school students.

TAPSCRIPT FOR LISTENING


Section 1:
Look at question 1-4. For each of the questions, decide the best answer.
Now you will hear the recording. Listen carefully and circle the appropriate letter for each question.
A: Hello. I am a new student here.
B: Hello. What can I do for you?
A: Can you tell me what the Student Union does?
B: Well, we are part of the National Union of students, who represents students’ interests across the
country. We provide services for all students at this college.
A: What kind of services?
B: There are advisors and welfare officers who are used to sort of problems overseas students my have.
They know where to get advice on a particular situation, or basically, give whatever help is asked for.
A: I am from the Philippines and I hope I can meet other Filipino students who are here. I play chess, and
many sports, especially badminton, basketball and wrestling. Please can you tell me how to find out about
these things?
B: There is a Filipino society at the college. Regular meetings take place and lots of social activities are
organized, such as meals, plays and dances. The Society is made up of Filipino students and other student
who have an interest in the Philippines.
A: And what about the sports? Does the Union offer the ones I’m interested in?
B: Yes, we do. There are basketball and wrestling teams. If you want to play in one of the college teams,
you have to go along to training sessions and compete for a place. For badminton you can either go to the
badminton club or book a court to play with friends.
A: Is there a chess club or team?
B: No, I’m afraid not. It may be best for you to put a notice on our notice board to find other players.
A; Will that cost me anything?
B: no. It’s a free service available to all students, but you have to give your notice to a Union officer first,
so that it’s fair for everyone who wants to use the notice board.
A: I only have a room for one month at the moment. I need to find a house or a flat to live in near the
college. Are you able to help me with any accommodation problems?
B; There are always rooms available in shared flats or houses on our notice-board. The college has some
of its own accommodation and you can also apply for these. If you have any problems at all you should
talk to one of the Student Union’s welfare officers, who can give specialist advice on accommodation.
A: Thank you for your help.
B: You are welcome. Now would you mind helping us? We’re conducting a survey to learn more about
the students who visit out Union office, so that we can improve our services. Would you mind if I asked
you a few questions?

8
A: Not at all.

Now you look at questions 5-10. As you listen to the student’s conversation with the Union officer,
fill in spaces 5-10 on the form. First you have some time to look at the form.
Now listen carefully and fill in gaps 5-10.

Officer: Now would you mind helping us? We’re conducting a survey to learn more about the students
who visit out Union office, so that we can improve our services. Would you mind if I asked you a few
questions?
Caesar: Not at all.
O: First of all, what’s your name?
C: My name is Caesar Bautisto.
O: how do you spell you last name?
C: B-A-U-T-I-S-T-O
O: Thank you. And what you are studying?
C: Development Economics
O: I see. And how long is the course for?
C: One year. It’s a post-graduate diploma.
O: What would you like to do at the end of it? Have you made your mind up yet?
C: yes. I’d like to be a United Nations project adviser.
O: Oh, would you? That sounds interesting. Tell me, though, why have you chosen this university?
C: It’s got a good reputation in the field of economics.
O: And you day you come form the Philippines?
C: yes, that’s right.
O: And which city do you come from?
C: Manila
O: Oh, that’s the city I’ve always wanted to go to. What do you do in your spare time?
C: I go to play games. I love sports.
O: Ah, yes. You mentioned that. Basketball, badminton and wrestling, wasn’t it?
C: Yes, that’s right.
O: OK, that’s it. I’ll add your name to our mailing list. We appreciate your help with this survey. If you
have any suggestions, be sure to give us a call or drop by at any time.
C: All right, I will. Thank you. Bye.
O: Bye.
That’s the end of section 1
Section 2
The next day Caesar goes to the Welfare Office. You will hear a conversation between Caesar and a
welfare officer. As you listen, answer question 11-20. First you have some time to look at questions
11-20.
Now listen carefully to the conversation between Caesar and a welfare officer and answer questions
11-20.
Caesar: Good afternoon. My name’s Caesar Bautisto.
Wendy: Hello. I’m Wendy-one of the welfare officers. Can I help you?
C: Yes. I have to move out of my accommodation in two weeks and I can’t find anywhere else to live.
W: Okay. I’ll need to know some details about current situation.
C: I’m an overseas student for the Philippines. The college gave me a temporary room for one month. I
can’t find anywhere else and I have no money.
W: Have you told me the college about your position and asked them to let you stay longer in your
accommodation?
C: No, not yet. I didn’t think that would be possible.
W: Well, we can contact the accommodation service on your behalf to see if they’ll let you stay a little
longer, until you find an alternative.
C: Thank you. But I’m not sure that I can find another place, as they all ask for money before moving in
and I don’t have any.

9
W: Yes, it is usual in this country for landlords to ask for up to a month’s rent in advance. Don’t you have
any money at all?
C: Hardly any. I’m waiting for my grant cheque ro be sent from the Philippines at the moment. It should
have been here fro me to collect when I arrived in Britain, but it seems to have been lost.
W: You can apply for an emergency loan from the Union if you want. The loan can be up to ₤ 200,
and we ask for a post-dated cheque for the same amount to be given so that we can recover the money
once you receive your grant cheque.
C: That would be very good. I’ll apply, but I’m still worried about how to find new accommodation.
W: As I said earlier, we can ask the college to extend the time you are allowed to stay in your present
accommodation. They may refuse, of course.
C: Then what will happen?
W: If the worst comes to the worst, the Union may be able to provide some very short-term
emergency accommodation, if you want me to, I’ll contact one or two of the addresses on the notice-
board and arrange for you to visit them.
C: But what if they ask me for the rent in advance? I only have ₤90 left and I need that for food and
books.
W: It’ll be all right. By the time they actually need the money, we’ll have your emergency loan ready.
Just fill in this application form and write me a cheque for ₤ 200 please, payable to the Student Union.
C: Right. I’ll do that. Thank you very much for your help. I’m feeling more optimistic now.

10
SỞ GD&ĐT VĨNH PHÚC KỲ THI CHỌN HSG LỚP 10 THPT NĂM HỌC 2011-2012
----------------- ĐỀ THI MÔN: TIẾNG ANH
ĐỀ CHÍNH THỨC (Dành cho học sinh THP không chuyên)
(Đề thi gồm 5 trang) Thời gian thi: 180 phút, không kể thời gian giao đề

PART I. LISTENING
You are going to hear a talk about security in the UK. Listen to the talk and complete the statements below
by writing no more than THREE words in the spaces provide.
You will hear the talk TWICE.
• Don’t carry more (1)________ than you need for daily expenses.
• When you stay at a hotel, ask the (2)_______ to keep your valuables in hotel (3)________.
• Don’t keep a note of the serial (4)________ together with your traveler’s cheques.
• You should carry wallets and purses in an (5)________ pocket or a handbag.
• Your passport, (6) ____________ and other important documents should be taken special care of.
• You can leave your (7) _________ luggage in a luggage office at most large stations and pick it up later.
• It’s necessary to keep the receipt and check the (8) _________ hours when you leave your luggage at the
station.
• The (9) _________ Property Office can be found at both (10) __________ and the station.
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY
I. Complete the following sentences by choosing the correct answer among four options (A, B, C or D).
1. He's really shy _______ girl.
A. by B. at C. for D. with
2. The teacher _______ her to improve her drawing.
A. insisted B. encouraged C. made D. persisted
3. I couldn't quite ______ what they were doing because they were so far away.
A. bear out B. make out C. think out D. try out
4. The meal Mary cooked tastes_______.
A. well B. nice C. good D. worse
5. ______ at the party, we saw Ruth standing alone.
A. Arriving B. We arrived C. Arrived D. We were arriving
6. The people who______ the survey said that they had examined over 1,000 accidents.
A. gave B. proceed C. set D. conducted
7. The judge found him ______ of stealing and sent him to prison.
A. evil B. innocent C. guilty D. wicked
8. The house we have rented is______. So we will have to buy some beds, chairs, tables, etc.
A. unrestored B. unrepaired C. unfurnished D. undecorated
9. He was turned down for the job because he is ________.
A. qualified B. qualifying C. unqualified D. qualification
10. The trouble started only______ the other man came into the room.
A. when B. until C. and then D. too soon
11. _______, the disaster would not have happened.
A. Had you have obeyed the orders B. You had obeyed the orders
C. You obeyed the orders D. Had you obeyed the orders
12. _______ had booked in advance were allowed in.
A. Only who B. Only those who
C. Only who were those D. Only were those who
13. Traveling alone to a jungle is adventurous, ________.
A. if not impossible B. if it not impossible
C. when not impossible D. when it not impossible

1
14. I ______ the hot weather in the south.
A. use to B. used to C. am use to D. am used to
15. The meat looked very _______ to the dog.
A. invited B. invite C. inviting D. invitingly

II. Use the correct form of each word on the right to complete the numbered spaces provided in the
passage. Write your answers on your answer sheet.

The mysteries of the skies


Three hundred and fifty years before the first men looked down on
the amazingly beautiful surface of the moon from close quarters,
Galileo’s newly built telescope (1) _____________ him to look at the 1. ABLE
edge of the hitherto mysterious sphere. He saw that the apparently
(2) _____________ surface was not divinely smooth and round, but 2. LIVE
bumpy and imperfect. He realized that although the moon might appear
(3) _____________, resembling a still life painted by the hand of a 3. ACT
cosmic (4) ____________, it was a real world, perhaps not very different 4. ART
from our own. This amounted to a great (5) _____________ hardly to be 5. ACHIEVE
expected in his day and age, although nowadays his (6) _____________ 6. CONCLUDE
may appear to some to be trivial and (7) _____________. 7. SIGNIFY
Not long after Galileo lunar’s observations, the skies which had
previously been so (8) _____________ revealed more of their 8. ELUDE
extraordinary mysteries. Casting around for further wonders, Galileo
focused his lens on the (9) _____________ planet of Jupiter. Nestling 9. STRIKE
next to it, he saw four little points of light circling the distant planet. Our
moon it appeared, perhaps (10) ____________ in the eyes of those fearful 10. FORTUNE
of what the discovery might mean, was not alone!

III. In the following passage, some numbered lines contain a word that shouldn’t be there. Tick (√)
the sentences that are correct and write the words that shouldn’t be there in the numbered space.

KEEPING YOUR DISTANCE


Personal space is a term that refers to the distance we like to 0 ___√___
keep between ourselves and other people. When someone we do not 00 someone
know well gets too close that we usually begin to feel uncomfortable. 1________
If such a business colleague comes closer than 1.2 meters, the most 2 ________
common response is to move away. Some interesting studies have 3 ________
been done in libraries. If strangers will come too close, many people 4 ________
get up and leave the building, others use to different methods such as 5 ________
turning their back on the intruder. Living in cities has made people to 6 ________
develop new skills for dealing with situations where they are very 7 ________
close to strangers. Most people on so crowded trains try not to look at 8 ________
strangers; they avoid skin contract, and apologize if hands touch by a 9 ________
mistake. People use newspapers as a barrier between themselves and 10 _______
other people, and if they do not have one, they stare into the distance,
making sure they are not looking into anyone’s eyes.

2
PART III. READING
I. Complete the following passage by choosing A, B, C or D to fill in each blank.
In recent years, there has been a remarkable increase into happiness. The researchers have come up a
number of factors which contribute to a definition of happiness.
First of all, there is, in some people, a moderate genetic predisposition to be happy, in other words,
happiness (1)_______ in families. And happiness seems to correlate quite strongly with the main dimensions of
personalities: extroverts are generally happier, neurotics are less so.
Second, people often report good social relations as a reason for their happiness. In particular, friends are a
great (2) ______ of joy, partly because of the agreeable things they do together, partly because of the way friends
use positive non-verbal (3) ______ such as caressing and touching, to affirm their friendship. Marriage and
similar (4) ______ relationships can also form the basis of lasting happiness.
Third, job satisfaction undoubtedly (5) ______ overall satisfaction, and vice versa - perhaps this is why
some people are happy in boring jobs: it (6) ______ both ways. Job satisfaction is caused not only by the essential
nature of the work, but (7)_____ by social interactions with co-workers. Unemployment, on the contrary, can be a
serious cause of unhappiness.
Fourth, leisure is important because it is more under individual (8) ______ than most other causes of
happiness. Activities (9) _____ sport and music, and participation in voluntary work and social clubs of various
kinds, can give great joy. This is partly because of the (10) ______themselves, but also because of the social
support of other group members – it is very strong in the case of religious groups.
1. A. runs B. arrives C. goes D. descends
2. A. source B. origin C. base D. meaning
3. A. movements B. signals C. slogans D. motions
4. A. near B. tight C. close D. heavy
5. A. consists of B. applies to C. counts on D. contributes to
6. A. works B. effects C. makes D. turns
7. A. too B. as well C. also D. plus
8. A. check B. power C. choice D. control
9. A. so B. such C. like D. thus
10. A. facilities B. activities C. exercises D. amenities

II. Read the passage carefully, then choose the correct option (marked A, B, C or D) to answer the questions.
Scientists have established that influenza viruses taken from man can cause disease in animals. In addition,
man can catch the disease from animals. In fact, a greater numbers of wild birds seem to carry the virus without
showing any evidences of illness. Some scientists conclude that a large family of influenza virus may have
evolved in the bird kingdom, a group that has been on earth 100 million years and is able to carry the virus
without contracting the disease. There is even convincing evidence to show that virus strain are transmitted from
place to place and from continent to continent by migrating birds.
It is known that two influenza viruses can recombine when both are present in an animal at the same time.
The result of such recombination is a great variety of strains containing different H and N spikes. This raises the
possibility that a human influenza virus can recombine with an influenza virus from a lower animal to produce an
entirely new spike. Research is underway to determine if that is the way major new strains come into being.
Another possibility is that two animal influenza strains may recombine in a pig, for example, to produce a new
strain which is transmitted to man.
1. According to the passage, scientists have discovered that influenza viruses ______.
A. cause ill health in wild animals B. do not always cause symptoms in birds
C. are rarely present in wild birds D. change when transmitted from animals to man
2. What is known about the influenza virus?
A. It was first found in a group of very old birds. B. All the different strains can be found in wild birds.
C. It existed over 100 million years ago. D. It can survive in many different places.

3
3. According to the passage, a great variety of influenza strains can appear when______.
A. H and N spikes are produced B. animal and bird viruses are combined
C. dissimilar types of viruses recombine D. two viruses of the same type are contracted
4. New strains of viruses are transmitted to man by_______.
A. a type of wild pig B. diseased lower animals
C. a group of migrating birds D. a variety of means
5. It can be inferred from the passage that all of the following are ways of producing new strains of influenza
EXCEPT_______.
A. two influenza viruses in the same animal recombining
B. animal viruses recombining with human viruses
C. two animal viruses recombining
D. two animal viruses recombining in a human
III. Read the passage and choose the best answer from the four options marked A, B, C or D in the
following questions. Identify your answer by writing the corresponding letter A, B, C or D on your answer
sheet.
Several hundred million years ago, plants similar to modern ferns covered vast stretches of the land. Some
were as large as trees, with giant fronds bunched at the top of trunks as straight as pillars. Others were the size of
bushes and formed thickets of undergrowth. Still others lived in the shade of giant club mosses and horsetails
along the edges of swampy lagoons where giant amphibians swam.
A great number of these plants were true ferns, reproducing themselves without fruits or seeds. Others had
only the appearance of ferns. Their leaves had organs of sexual reproduction and produced seeds. Although their
“flowers” did not have corollas, these false ferns (today completely extinct) ushered in the era of flowering plants.
Traces of these floras of the earliest times have been preserved in the form of fossils. Such traces are most
commonly found in shale and sandstone rocks wedged between coal beds.
Today only tropical forests bear living proof of the ancient greatness of ferns. The species that grow there
are no longer those of the Carboniferous period, but their variety and vast numbers, and the great size of some,
remind us of the time when ferns ruled the plant kingdom.
1. What does the passage mainly discuss?
A. Plant reproduction B. How to locate fossils
C. An ancient form of plant life D. Tropical plant life
2. The word “Others” refers to _________.
A. plants B. pillars C. trees D. fronds
3. Which of the following is NOT mentioned as a characteristic of the plants described in the passage?
A. They once spread over large areas of land.
B. They varied greatly in size.
C. They coexisted with amphibians, mosses, and horsetails.
D. They clung to tree trunks and bushes for support.
4. The word “true” is closest in meaning to which of the following?
A. accurate B. genuine C. straight D. dependable
5. The author states that fossils of early plant life are usually found in rocks located between deposits of _______.
A. coal B. shale C. sandstone D. corollas

IV. Read the passage carefully then fill in the blank a suitable word.
As swimming became a popular recreation in England during the 1860s and 1870s, several (1) ______
sports developed, roughly patterned after land sports. (2) ______ them were water football (or soccer), water
rugby, water handball, and water polo, in which players rode on floating barrels, painted to look (3) ______
horses, and struck the ball with a stick.
Water rugby became most popular of these sports, but somehow the water polo name became attached to
it, and it's been attached (4) ______ since.

4
As played in England, the object of the sport was for a player to touch the ball, with both (5) ______, at
the goal end of the pool. The goaltender stood on the pool deck, ready to dive on any opponent who was about to
score.
Water polo quickly became a very rough sport, filled (6) ______ underwater fights away from the ball,
and it wasn't unusual for players to pass out for lack of air.
In 1877, the sport was tamed in Scotland by the addiction of goalposts. The Scots also replaced (7) ______
original small, hard rubber ball with a soccer ball and adopted (8) ______ that prohibited taking the ball under the
surface or, "tackling" a player unless he had the ball.
The Scottish game, which emphasized swimming speed, passing, and (9) ______ work, spread to England
during the early 1880s, to Hungary in 1889, to Austria and Germany in 1894, to France in 1895, and (10) ______
Belgium in 1900.
Water polo was the first team sport added to the Olympic program, in 1900.
PART IV: WRITING
I. Write the new sentences using the given word. Do not change the word given in any way.
1. They have discovered some interesting new information. (LIGHT)
2. They suspended Jack for the next two matches. (BANNED)
3. I really want to see her again. (DYING)
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't stop looking at her. (EYES)
5. We are looking forward to watching the program. (WAIT)

II. Rewrite each of the following sentences so that it has a similar meaning to the original one.
1. If you changed your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
→ Were you______________________________________________________
2. I'd rather not go out this afternoon.
→ I do not feel____________________________________________________
3. Adeles tries hard, but she doesn't get anywhere.
→ However______________________________________________________
4. It is thought that the boss is considering raising wages.
→ The boss______________________________________________________
5. His disabilities did not prevent him from sailing around the world.
→ Despite the fact_________________________________________________
6. I didn't arrive in time to see her.
→ I wasn't_______________________________________________________
7. I'd prefer you not to smoke.
→ I'd rather______________________________________________________
8. The mother smiled happily. She took the baby in her arms.
→ Smiling________________________________________________________
9. The noise next door did not stop until after midnight.
→ It was not ______________________________________________________
10. You can ring this number whenever there is any difficulty.
→ Should _________________________________________________________

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5
HƯỚNG DẪN CHẤM THI HSG TIẾNG ANH LỚP 10 THPT – NĂM HỌC 2011 - 2012
PART I. LISTENING (15 pts: 1,5pts/item)
1. cash 4. numbers 7. heavy 10. the airport
2. manager 5. inside 8. opening
3. safe 6. travel tickets 9. Lost
PART II. GRAMMAR AND VOCABULARY (35pts)
I. (15pts: 1pt/item)
1. D 2. B 3. B 4. C 5. A
6. D 7. C 8. C 9. C 10. A
11. D 12. B 13. A 14. D 15. C
II. (10pts: 0.1pt/item)
1. enabled 4. artist 7. insignificant 10. unfortunately
2. lifeless 5. achievement 8. elusive
3. inactive 6. conclusion 9. striking
III.(10pts: 1pt/item)
1. that 3. √ 5. to 7. √ 9. a
2. such 4. will 6. to 8. so 10. √
PART III . READING (30pts)
I. (10pts: 1pt/item)
1. A 3. B 5. D 7. C 9. C
2. A 4. C 6. A 8. D 10. B
II. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. B 2. D 3. C 4. D 5. D
III. (5pts: 1pt/item)
1. C 2. A 3. D 4. B 5. A
IV. ( 10pts: 1pt/item)
1. water 2. Among 3. like 4. ever 5. hands
6. with 7. the 8. rules 9. team 10. to
PART IV. WRITING (20pts)
I. (10pt: 2 pts/item)
1. Some interesting new information has come to light. Shared by angels of
2. Jack was banned from playing in the next two matches.
3. I'm dying to see her again. Otto Channel
4. She was so beautiful that I couldn't take my eyes off her.
5. We can't wait to watch the program.
II. (10 pts: 1pt/item)
1. Were you to change your mind, you would be welcomed to join our class.
2. I do not feel like going out this afternoon.
3. However hard Adeles tries, she doesn't get anywhere/gets nowhere.
4. The boss is thought to be considering raising wages.
5. Despite the fact that he was disabled, he sailed/managed to sail around the world.
6. I wasn't early enough to see her.
7. I'd rather you didn't smoke.
8. Smiling happily, the mother took the baby in her arms.
9. It was not until after midnight that the noise next door stopped
10. Should there is any difficulty, you can ring this number.

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