Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan

Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Physics-Section-A 5. A physical quantity of the dimensions of

length that can be formed out of
1. A particle moving along a straight line e
2

undergoes a displacement (x), which is shown c, G, and is [c is the velocity of light, G is

4πε0
in the adjacent figure, as a function of time (t). the universal constant of gravitation and e is
The distance travelled by the particle from charge]:
t = 0 to t = 6 s is: 1
2
e 2
1. c 2
[G ]
4πε0

1
2
1 e 2
2. [ ]
2
c 4Gπε0
2
1 e
3. G
c 4πε0

1. 2 m 1

2. 3 m 1 e
2
2
3. 4 m 4. [G ]
2 4πε0
c
4. 0 m

2. The displacement x (in m) of a particle of 6. A Vernier callipers has 1 mm divisions on the

mass m (in kg) moving in one dimension under main scale. It has 20 equal divisions on the
Vernier scale which match with 18 main scale
the action of a force, is related to time t (in s)
divisions. The least count for these Vernier
by; t = (√x + 3). The displacement of the
callipers is:
particle when its velocity is zero will be: 1. 0.2 mm
1. 4 m 2. 0.1 mm
2. zero 3. 0.02 mm
3. 6 m 4. 0.01 mm
4. 2 m
7. From the velocity-time (v-t) plot shown in
3. The x and y coordinates of the particle at any the figure, what is the distance travelled by the
time are x = 5t − 2t
2
and y = 10t particle during the first 40 s?
respectively, where x and y are in meters and t
in seconds. The acceleration of the particle at
t = 2 s is:
2 2
1. 5^
i m/s 2. −4^
i m/s

2
3. −8^
j m/s 4. 0

4. If the unit of length is the distance between

the earth and the sun, and the unit of time is
1 year, then the speed of the earth around the

sun is numerically equal to:

1. 1 2. 2 1. zero
1 2. 100 m
3. 2π 4. 2π
3. 150 m
4. 200 m

Page: 1
 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

8. A particle is moving such that its position 12. The speed of a swimmer in still water is
coordinates (x, y) are (2 m, 3 m) at time t = 0, ( 20 m/s. The speed of river water is 10 m/s and

6 m,7 m) at time t = 2 s, and (13 m, 14 m) at is flowing due east. If he is standing on the

time t = 5 s. The average velocity vector v →avg south bank and wishes to cross the river along
from t = 0 to t = 5 s is: the shortest path, the angle at which he should
1.
1 ^ ^
(13 i + 14 j)
make his strokes with respect to the north is
5
7
given by:
2. 3
^ ^
( i + j) ∘ ∘
1. 45 west of north 2. 30 west of north
∘ ∘
3. 2(^ ^
i + j) 3. 0 west of north 4. 60 west of north
11
4. 5
^ ^
( i + j)

13. Two particles are projected in the air at the

9. A particle moves along a straight line with its
same speed u at an angle θ1 and θ2 (θ1 and θ2
velocity (v) varying as the square root of its
are acute angles) to the horizontal,
displacement (x): v ∝ √x respectively. If the maximum height reached by
Then its acceleration varies as: the first particle is greater than that of the
1 second, then which of the following is correct? (
1. 2. x3/2 T1 and T2 are the times of flight of the two
√x
particles respectively)
3. x−3/2 4. x0 1. θ1 > θ2
2. θ1 = θ2
3. T1 < T2
10. Given below are two statements: 4. T1 = T2
We can get displacement from
Statement I:
the acceleration-time graph. 14. Which, of the following, is dimensionless?
We can get acceleration from the
Statement II: emissive power
velocity-time graph. 1. impedance × conductance 2.
emissivity

electric field inductance

Both Statement I and Statement II are 3. 4.
1.
correct. magnetic field capacitance

Both Statement I and Statement II are

2.
incorrect.
Statement I is correct and Statement II is 15. A ball is thrown upward at an angle with
3. the horizontal. The total change in momentum
incorrect.
Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is by the instant it returns to the ground is:
4. acceleration due to gravity × total time to
correct. 1.
flight
2. weight of the ball × half the time of light
11. The area of a rectangular field (in m ) of 3. weight of the ball × total time of flight
2

length 55.3 m and breadth 25 m after rounding 4. weight of the ball × horizontal range
off the value, for correct significant digits is:
1. 14 × 10
2

2. 138 × 10
1

3. 1382
4. 1382.5

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

16. Rain is falling vertically downward with a 19. The velocity of a projectile at the initial
speed of 35 m/s. The wind starts blowing after point A is 2^ i + 3 j m/s. Its velocity (in m/s) at
^

some time with a speed of 12 m/s in the east to the point B is:
the west direction. The direction in which a boy
standing at the place should hold his umbrella
is:

1. −2^ ^ 2. ^
i + 3j
^
2 i − 3j

3. 2^ ^
i + 3j 4. −2^ ^
i − 3j

20. A student measured the diameter of a small

steel ball using a screw gauge of least count
12 0.001 cm. The main scale reading is 5 mm and
1. tan
−1
( ) with respect to rain
37 zero of circular scale division coincides with 25
12 divisions above the reference level. If the screw
2. tan
−1
(
37
) with respect to wind gauge has a zero error of −0.004 cm, the
12
correct diameter of the ball is:
3. tan
−1
( ) with respect to rain
35 1. 0.521 cm 2. 0.525 cm
12 3. 0.053 cm 4. 0.529 cm
4. tan
−1
(
35
) with respect to wind

21. A thin rod AB is moving in a vertical plane.

17. A body is dropped from a height of 100 m. At a certain instant when the rod is inclined at
∘
At what height the velocity of the body will be 30 to the horizontal, point A is moving
equal to one-half of the velocity when it hits the horizontally with 3 m/s while B is moving in
ground? the vertical direction. The velocity of B is:
1. 25 m
2. 55 m
3. 65 m
4. 75 m

18. In a vernier callipers, 20 vernier scale

divisions are equal to 16 main scale divisions. If
one main scale division is equal to 2 mm, then 1
what is the least count of the instrument? 1. √3
m/s 2. √3 m/s

1. 0.2 mm √3
2. 0.1 mm 3. 3√3 m/s 4. m/s
2
3. 0.4 mm
4. 0.5 mm

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

22. Given below are two statements: 25. A swimmer swims perpendicular to river
The relative velocity between flow and reaches point B. If the velocity of the
any two bodies may be equal to swimmer in still water is 4 km/hr, the velocity
Assertion (A): of the river flow is:
the sum of the speeds of the two
bodies.
Sometimes, the relative velocity
between two bodies may be
Reason (R):
equal to the difference in the
speeds of the two.

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the

1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. 1. 3 km/hr 2. 5 km/hr
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. 3. 2 km/hr 4. 6 km/hr

23. Match the following: 26. A block of mass m is placed over a rotating
Physical platform at a distance of R from the centre. The
Dimension Unit platform is rotating with constant angular
Quantity
velocity ω about its main axis. If the coefficient
Gravitational
(A) (P) [M 1 L1 T −1 ] (i) N.m of friction between block and the platform is μ,
constant G
then maximum value of R so that block will not
(B) Torque (Q) [M −1 L3 T −2 ] (ii) N.s slip over the platform will be:
(C) Momentum (R) [M 1 L−1 T −2 ] (iii) Nm2/kg2 μg μg
2

1. 2.
(D) Pressure (S) [M
1 2
L T
−2
] (iv) Pascal ω
2
ω
Codes: μg
2 μg
A B C D 3. √ 4. √
2
ω ω
1. (Q), (iii) (S), (i) (P), (ii) (R), (iv)
2. (Q), (i) (S), (iii) (P), (ii) (R), (iv)
3. (Q), (iii) (S), (i) (P), (iv) (R), (ii) 27. A man of mass m climbs a rope of length L
4. (Q), (iii) (S), (ii) (P), (i) (R), (iv) suspended below a balloon of mass M . The
balloon is stationary with respect to the ground.
If the man begins to climb up the rope at
24. Two particles A and B are moving in a →
velocity v rel (relative to rope), in what
uniform circular motion in concentric circles of direction and with what speed (relative to
radii rA and rB with speeds vA and vB ground) will the balloon move?
respectively. Their time periods of rotation are →
m →
the same. The ratio of the angular speed of A to 1. V =
M
v rel

that of B will be: →

m →
2. V = − v rel
1. 1 : 1 2. rA : rB M
→ →
3. vA : vB 4. rB : rA 3. V = −
m
v rel
(m+M )

→ →
m
4. V = + v rel
(m+M )

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

28. A screw gauge gives the following readings 32. Buses ply between two towns, (A, B)
when used to measure the diameter of a wire: separated by 6 km: those going from A
Main scale reading: 0 mm towards B go at 20 km/h while those going
Circular scale reading: 52 divisions from B to A go at 30 km/h. If a passenger
Given that 1 mm on the main scale corresponds were to make a round trip from A to B and
to 100 divisions on the circular scale, the back, without stopping, his average speed will
diameter of the wire that can be inferred from be:
the given data is:
1. 0.26 cm 2. 0.052 cm
3. 0.52 cm 4. 0.026 cm
1. 25 km/h 2. 24 km/h

3. 27 km/h 4. 28 km/h

29. A clock has a continuously moving second's

hand of 0.1 m length. The average acceleration
of the tip of the second hand (in units of ms-2) is 33. Given below are two statements:
of the order of: If the displacement of a particle
1. 10 −3 varies quadratically as the time
Statement I:
2. 10 −4 elapsed, the particle moves with
−1 a constant acceleration.
3. 10
The distance travelled by a
4. 10−2
particle is always greater than or
Statement II:
equal to the magnitude of the
30. If the acceleration due to gravity is 10 ms −2

displacement.
and the units of length and time are changed in
kilometer and hour respectively, the numerical
value of the acceleration due to gravity is: Statement I is incorrect and Statement II is
1.
correct.
1. 360000 2. 72000
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3. 36000 4. 129600 2.
correct.
Both Statement I and Statement II are
3.
incorrect.
31. The position-time (x-t) graph for positive
acceleration is: Statement I is correct and Statement II is
4.
incorrect.

1. 2.
34. Using a screw gauge with pitch 0.1 cm and
50 divisions on its circular scale, the thickness

of an object is measured. It should be

accurately recorded as:
3. 4. 1. 2.124 cm
2. 2.121 cm
3. 2.125 cm
4. 2.123 cm

Page: 5
 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

35. A person sitting on the ground floor of a 40. A cricket ball is thrown at a speed of 28
∘
building notices through the window, of height m/s in a direction 30 above the horizontal. The
1.5 m, a ball dropped from the roof of the time taken by the ball to return to the same
building crosses the window in 0.1 s. What is level is:
the velocity of the ball when it is at the topmost 1. 2.5 s
point of the window? (g
2
= 10 m/s )
2. 2.9 s
3. 3.5 s
1. 15.5 m/s 2. 14.5 m/s 4. 3 s
3. 4.5 m/s 4. 20 m/s
41. Which, of the following quantities, is a
fundamental quantity?
1. Electric charge 2. Magnetic field
Physics-Section-B 3. Temperature 4. Thermal energy
36. The motion of a particle is given by
S = 1 + 4t − 2t . The distance travelled by the
2

particle during t = 0 to t = 2 seconds will be: 42. Time intervals measured by a clock give the
1. 0 unit 2. 2 unit following readings:
1.25 s, 1.24 s, 1.27 s, 1.21 s and 1.28 s.
3. 4 unit 4. 3 unit
What is the percentage relative error of the
observations?
1. 2%
37. A man walks in the rain, where the 2. 4%
raindrops are falling vertically down at a 3. 16%
constant speed of 4 m/s relative to ground. Let 4. 1.6%
the relative velocity of a droplet with respect to
man be vr and let it make an angle θr with the 43. Starting from the origin at a time t = 0,
vertical. Then:
with an initial velocity 5^ j ms
−1
, a particle
1. vr = 4 cos θr m/s
moves in the (x-y) plane with a constant
2. vr = 4 sin θr m/s
3. vr = 4 sec θr m/s acceleration of (10^ ^
i + 4 j) ms
−2
. At time t, its

4. vr = 4 cosecθr m/s coordinates are (20 m, y0 m). The value of t is:

1. 2 s
38. Which, of the following quantities, is 2. 4 s
dimensionally independent of mass? 3. 6 s
Energy Energy
4. 8 s
1. 2.
Time Momentum 44. A particle moves along a straight line so that
3. Force × Time 4. Pressure × Time its velocity (v) is directed towards a fixed point
on its path and is proportional to its distance
(x) from that point. Its acceleration is
39. A particle is moving along a straight line proportional to:
such that its position depends on time as 1. x
x = 1 − at + bt , where a = 2 m/s,
2
1
2. x
2
b = 1 m/s . The distance covered by the 3. √x
particle during the first 3 seconds from start of 1
4.
the motion will be: √x

1. 2 m 2. 5 m
3. 7 m 4. 4 m

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

45. Given that the displacement of a particle is 48. A boat, when rowed perpendicular to the
given by, flow of a 500 m wide river, reaches its opposite
2 2
x = A sin kt bank in 10 min. If the boat is rowed
∘
where t denotes the time. The unit of k is: downstream at an angle of 30 with the flow, it
1. hertz will cross in:
2. metre 1. 10 min 2. 5√3 min
3. radian 10
4. second 3. 20 min 4. min
√3

46. Two cars A and B, each 5 m long, are

travelling along parallel lanes with speeds of
36 km/hr and 72 km/hr. The car B is just 49. Match the units of some physical quantities
behind the car A, but is beginning to overtake. in List-I with their corresponding dimensions
What will be the distance covered by the car B in List-II.
by the time it is just ahead of the car A? List-I List-II
(a) Ohm (i) [M L2 T −2 A−1 ]
(b) Farad (ii) [M L T
2 −2
A
−2
]

(c) Henry (iii) [M −1

L
−2
T
4 2
A ]

(d) Weber (iv) [M L2 T −3 A−2 ]

1. (a)-(i), (b)-(ii), (c)-(iv), (d)-(iii)

1. 10 m 2. 15 m
2. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(ii)
3. 20 m 4. 25 m
3. (a)-(ii), (b)-(iii), (c)-(i), (d)-(iv)
4. (a)-(iv), (b)-(iii), (c)-(ii), (d)-(i)
∘
47. The line AB makes a 45 angle with the x-
axis, but it moves along the negative y-axis with
a speed of 1 m/s. The velocity, of the 50. A boat is rowed across a 400 m wide river
intersection (C) of AB with x-axis, is: so that it can reach the opposite bank in a
minimum of 10 minutes. No matter which
direction the boat is rowed in, it cannot reach a
point exactly opposite on the other bank, unless
it is rowed at a slightly higher speed. The speed
of flow of the river is:
1. 2.4 km/h 2. 4.8 km/h
2.4
3. 2.4√2 km/h 4. km/h
√2
1. 1 m/s along the positive x-axis
2. 1 m/s along the negative x-axis
1
3. m/s along the positive x-axis
√2

1
4. m/s along the negative x-axis
√2

Page: 7
 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

Chemistry-Section-A 55. An element A (at. wt. = 75) and B (at. wt. =

25) combine to form a compound that contains
51. Read the following statements and choose 75% A by weight. The formula of the compound
the correct option. will be:
If the ionisation potential of the 1. A2B
Statement hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV, the first 2. A3B
I: +
excited state energy of He ion will 3. AB3
be 13.6 eV. 4. AB
According to the prediction of
Statement simple molecular orbital theory, 56. The elements A (atomic weight = 75) and B
II:
+
the bond orders of the He2 ion (atomic weight = 32) combine to form a
+ compound X. If 3 moles of B combine with 2
and the H2 ion are the same.
moles of A to produce 1 mole of X, the weight of
5 moles of X will be:
1. Both statements are correct. 1. 246 gm
2. Both statements are incorrect. 2. 1230 amu
3. Statement I is correct and Statement II is 3. 1.23 kg
incorrect. 4. None of the above
4. Statement II is correct and Statement I is
incorrect. 57. The appropriate arrangement indicating the
increasing size of atoms from the options
52. The wave number for the shortest provided is:
wavelength transition in Balmer series of He+ 1. Cs < Na < Mg < Ba
ion is: 2. Mg < Na < Ba < Cs
RH 3. Mg < Ba < Na < Cs
1. 4RH 2. 4. Ba < Mg < Na < Cs
2

3. RH 4. 2RH
58. The molarity of a H2SO4 solution that has a
density 1.84 g/cc at 35°C and contains 98%
53. Which of the following has the maximum H2SO4 by weight is:
mass? 1. 1.84 M
1. 0.1 gram molecule of oxygen. 2. 81.4 M
2. 10 ml H2 O at STP 3. 18.4 M
4. 184 M
3. 3.01 × 10 molecules of H2 SO4
22

4. 1 gram atom of hydrogen.

59. The correct sequence of increasing the basic
nature of the following oxides is:
54. For a multi-electron atom, the highest
1. Al2 O3 < MgO < Na2 O < K2 O
energy level among the following is:
1. n=5, l=0, m=0, s=+1/2 2. MgO < K2 O < Al2 O3 < Na2 O
2. n=4, l=2, m=0, s=+1/2 3. Na2 O < K2 O < MgO < Al2 O3
3. n=4, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2 4. K2 O < Na2 O < Al2 O3 < MgO
4. n=5, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2

Page: 8
 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

60. Identify the incorrect statement among the 65. The average molar mass of chlorine is
following options: 35.5 g mol
−1
. The ratio of
35
Cl to
37
Cl in

naturally occurring chlorine is close to:

+
1. O2 ion is diamagnetic. 1. 4 : 1
2. 3 : 1
The bond orders of O2 , O2 , O2 and O2 are
+ − 2−

2. 3. 2 : 1
2.5, 2, 1.5, and 1, respectively. 4. 1 : 1
C2 molecule has four electrons in its two
3.
degenerate π molecular orbitals. 66. Which statement accurately describes an
4. H2 ion has one electron.
+
element with an atomic weight of 39 and the
electronic configuration 1s² 2s² 2p⁶ 3s² 3p⁶ 4s¹?
1. High value of Ionisation Energy
61. Incorrect set of quantum numbers from the
following is : 2. Transition element
1. n=4,l=3, m1 =-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, ms=-1/2 3. Isotone with 38
18
Ar

2. n=5, l=2, m1 =-2, -1, +1, +2, ms=+1/2 4. None of the above
3. n=4, l=2, m1 = -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, ms=-1/2
67. The correct order of ionic character
4. n=5,l=3, m1 =-3, -2, -1, 0, +1, +2, +3, ms=+1/2
among CaH2, BeH2 and BaH2 is:
1. BeH2 < CaH2 < BaH2
62. Ejection of the photoelectron from a metal
2. CaH2 < BeH2 < BaH2
in the photoelectric effect experiment can be
3. BeH2 < BaH2 < CaH2
stopped by applying 0.5 V when the radiation of
4. BaH2 < BeH2 < CaH2
250 nm is used. The work function of the metal
is:
1. 4.0 eV 68. Which of the following exhibits a pπ-dπ
2. 5.5 eV bond?
− 3−
3. 4.5 eV 1. NO3 2. BO3
4. 5.0 eV 3. CO
2−
4. SO
2−

3 3

63. The species Ar, K+ and Ca2+ contain the

same number of electrons. In which order do
69. 16 g of oxygen has the same number of
their radii increase?
molecules as in:
1. Ar < K+ < Ca2+
(a) 16 g of CO
2. Ca2+ < Ar < K+ (b) 28 g of N2
3. Ca2+ < K+ < Ar (c) 14 g of N2
4. K+ < Ar < Ca2+ (d) 1.0 g of H2
1. (a), (b)
64. An element with mass number 81 contains 2. (b), (c)
31.7 % more neutrons as compared to protons. 3. (c), (d)
The atomic symbol of the element is: 4. (b), (d)
1. 81
40
X

2. 81
35
X 70. The lattice energies of NaCl, NaF, KCl, and
3. 81
31.7
X
RbCl follow the order:
1. KCl < RbCl < NaCl < NaF
4. 41 X
81

2. NaF < NaCl < KCl < RbCl

3. RbCl < KCl < NaCl < NaF
4. NaCl < RbCl < NaF < KCl

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

71. The frequency of microwaves with 74. Which one of the following statements is
wavelength 4 x 107 nm is 7.5 x 109 s-1. The incorrect related to Molecular Orbital Theory?
wavenumber of the microwave is: The π ∗ antibonding molecular orbital has a
1.
1. 30 m-1 node between the nuclei.
2. 25 m -1 In the formation of a bonding molecular
3. 40 m -1 2. orbital, the two electron waves of the
bonding atoms reinforce each other.
4. 35 m-1
Molecular orbitals obtained from 2Px and
3. 2Py orbitals are symmetrical around the
72. Hybridization of C1 and C2 in the structure
given below are: bond axis.
A π−bonding molecular orbital has larger
4. electron density above and below the
internuclear axis.

75.
In the Balmer series of the
hydrogen spectrum, the
transitions occur from an initial
Assertion (A):
energy level ( n1 = 2 ) to
successive higher energy levels
1. C1 = sp
2
, C2 = sp
3

n2 = 3, 4, 5,... .
2. C1 = sp
3
, C2 = sp
2

In the Balmer series of the

3. C1 = sp
3
, C2 = sp
3

hydrogen spectrum, the

4. C1 = sp
2
, C2 = sp
2
transitions with the highest
Reason (R):
wavelength correspond to
73. Match Column-I with Column-II and mark energy level values of n equal to
the appropriate choice: 4 and 6.
Column-I Column-II
(Atomic number) (Block) Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
(A) 62 (i) d-block 1.
correct explanation of (A).
(B) 47 (ii) p-Block Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
(C) 56 (iii) f-block correct explanation of (A).
(D) 53 (iv) s-block 3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
Codes:
1. (A) →(iii), (B)→(i), (C) →(iv), (D)→ (ii)
2. (A) →(i), (B)→(ii), (C) →(iii), (D)→ (iv) 76. Amongst the following, which one will have
3. (A) →(ii), (B)→(iv), (C) →(i), (D)→ (iii) maximum 'lone pair - lone pair' electron
4. (A) →(iv), (B)→(i), (C) →(ii), (D)→ (iii) repulsions?
1. XeF2
2. CIF3
3. IF5
4. SF4

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
Contact Number: 9667591930 / 8527521718

77. 25.4 of I2 and 14.2 g of Cl2 are made to 82. Incorrect statement among the following is:
react completely to yield a mixture of ICI and h

ICI3. Calculate mole of ICI and ICI3 formed: 1. The uncertainty principle isΔx ⋅ Δp ≥
4π
(Given, Molecular mass of I2 -254, Cl2 - 71) Half-filled and fully filled orbitals have
1. 0.5, 0.2 greater stability due to greater exchange
2.
2. 0.1, 0.1 energy, greater symmetry, and a more
3. 0.1, 0.3 balanced arrangement.
4. 0.3, 0.4 The energy of the 2s orbital is less than the
3. energy of the 2p orbital in the case of
78. Elements in the same group have similar hydrogen-like atoms.
physical and chemical properties due to the h
same: De-Broglie's wavelength is given byλ =
1. Electronic configuration 4. mv

2. Valence electrons , where m= mass of the particle, v = group

3. Atomic size velocity of the particle.
4. Atomic mass

79. According to Molecular Orbital Theory, 83. The term(s), that does not have a unit
which of the following statement is incorrect?among the following, is/are:
1. C2​ has no unpaired electrons. (a) Electronegativity
(b) Electron gain enthalpy
2. In C2 molecule, both the bonds π are bonds.
2− (c) Ionization enthalpy
3. C2 is paramagnetic but C2 is diamagnetic. (d) Metallic character

2−
Choose the correct option:
4. In C2 ion, there is one σ and two π bonds. 1. (a), (d)
2. (b), (c)
80. The incorrect electronic configuration 3. (c), (d)
among the following is/are : 4. (b), (d)
A. K = [Ar]4s1
B. Pd = [Kr]4d 8 , 5s2 84. Match list-I with list-II:
C. Cr = [Ar]3d , 4s
4 1 List-I (Atomic number) List-II (Group)
D. Cu = [Ar]3d 10 , 4s1 i. 52 P. s
1. C and D only ii. 37 Q. p
2. B and C only iii. 65 R. f
3. A and D only iv. 74 S. d
4. B, C, and D only Choose the correct answer from the options
given below:
81. The amount of CO2 that can be produced 1. (i)-Q, (ii)-P, (iii)-R, (iv)-S
when 2 moles of carbon are burnt in 16 g of 2. (i)-Q, (ii)-P, (iii)-S, (iv)-R
dioxygen is: 3. (i)-S, (ii)-R, (iii)-P, (iv)-Q
1. 22 g 4. (i)-R, (ii)-P, (iii)-Q, (iv)-S
2. 44 g
3. 0.5 g
4. 11 g

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85. 89. The correct arrangement of the filling of

The metallic character is sub-shells in a ground state atom according to
Assertion (A): highest on the extreme left of the Aufbau principle is:
the periodic table. 1. 3s 3p 3d
Ionisation enthalpy decreases 2. 3p 4s 3d
Reason (R): 3. 3d 4s 4p
across a period.
In light of the above statements choose answer 4. 4p 4d 4f
from the options given below:
90. Which one of the following ions has highest
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1. hydration energy?
correct explanation of (A).
1. M g 2+ 2. Li+
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. 3. Be2+ 4. N a+
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. Both (A) and (R) are False.
91. Match the periodic properties given in List I
with the corresponding elements given in List
II:
Chemistry-Section-B List I
List II (High value
observed for)
86. Which value is closest to the wavelength (in
nanometers) of a quantum of light with a A. Ionisation I. Chlorine
frequency of 8 × 1015 s−1 ? potential
1. 2 × 10
−25 B. Electropositivity II. Caesium
2. 5 × 10−18 C. Electron affinity III. Helium
3. 4 × 101 D. Oxidation state IV. Fluorine
4. 3 × 10
7 V. Osmium
Choose the correct answer from the options
87. The diamagnetic species that has the given below:
shortest bond length among the following is- 1. A‐IV, B‐III, C‐II, D‐I
1. N22− 2. A‐III, B‐II, C‐I, D‐V
3. A‐I, B‐II, C‐III, D‐IV
2. O2
4. A‐II, B‐I, C‐IV, D‐V
3. C22−
4. O2
2−
92. The molecules, amongst O2, N2, F2, and B2,
that will be attracted to an external magnetic
88. How many of the given metals will show field are:
photoelectric effect when a light of 400 nm falls 1. O2 and B2 2. F2 , N2 , and B2
on them? 3. O2 , B2 , and N2 4. O2 , and F2
Metal Li Na K Mg Cu Ag
W(eV) 2.42 2.3 2.25 3.7 4.8 4.3
1. 4 93. Which species has a central atom with one
2. 3 or more lone pairs of valence electrons?
3. 6 1. AlCl4
−
2. CO2
4. 2 +
3. PCl4 4. SO2

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94. 98. To neutralize 20 mL of 0.1 M aqueous

Elements like He, Ne, and nitrogen solution of phosphorus acid (H3 P O3 )
Statement
show positive electron gain completely, the volume of 0.1 M aqueous KOH
I:
enthalpies. solution required is:
The formation of Cl- from Cl and 1. 10 mL 2. 20 mL
Statement 2-
O from O- are exothermic 3. 40 mL 4. 60 mL
II:
processes.
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
incorrect. 99. A smuggler travelling from Dubai on a not-
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is so-reputed airline was found in possession of
correct. 19.7 kg of gold. How many atoms of gold were
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is recovered? (Atomic mass of gold (Au) is 197 u)
incorrect. 1. 6.02 × 1022
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. 6.02 × 1023
correct. 3. 6.02 × 1024
4. 6.02 × 1025
95. In Heisenberg's uncertainty principle, if
uncertainty in the position (Δx) is equal to the 100. The extent of lattice energy in an ionic
uncertainty in the momentum (Δp) then compound depends on:
uncertainty in the velocity (Δv) will be: 1. Packing of ions only
1 h 1 h 2. Size of the ions only
1. √ 2. √ 3. Charge and Size of the ions
m 2π 2m π
4. Charge on the ions only
1 h 1 h
3. √ 4. √
m π 2m 2π
Biology-I-Section-A
101. What is incorrect regarding the second
stage of prophase I?
96. At standard temperature and pressure
(STP), the volume of oxygen required to 1. It is called Zygotene.
completely combust 30 ml of acetylene under 2. Chromosomes start pairing together and this
similar conditions is: process of association is called synapsis.
1. 100 ml Such paired chromosomes are called
3.
2. 75 ml heterologous chromosomes.
3. 50 ml Chromosome synapsis is accompanied by the
4. 25 ml 4. formation of complex structure
called synaptonemal complex.
97. Correct set of quantum numbers for the last
electron of Ga is:
1 1
1. 3, 1, + 1, + 2. 4, 0, + 1, +
2 2

1 1
3. 4, 1, − 2, − 4. 4, 1, − 1, +
2 2

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102. Identify the correct statement regarding 104. Consider the given two statements:
the given figure? Statement Genera are aggregates of closely
I: related species.
Family has a group of related
Statement genera with still less number of
II: similarities as compared to genus
and species.

Statement I is correct, Statement II is

1.
correct
Statement I is correct, Statement II is
2.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is
3.
correct
‘A’ links a pair of sister chromatids together Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is
I: 4.
during cell division. incorrect
‘B’ is a disc-shaped protein structure
associated with duplicated chromatids in
II: eukaryotic cells where the spindle fibers 105. The number of species that are known and
attach during cell division to pull sister described range between:
chromatids apart. 1. 0.8 and 1.0 million
1. Only I 2. 1.0 and 1.2 million
2. Only II 3. 1.5 and 1.7 million
3. Both I and II 4. 7.0 and 8.0 million
4. Neither I nor II
106. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
103. Which of the following statement is correct 1. Golgi Formation of glycoproteins
for the given diagram? apparatus and glycolipids
Synthesis of steroidal
2. Rough ER
hormones in animal cells
3. Lysosomes Carry acid hydrolases
4. Nucelolus Site for active rRNA synthesis

107. A Prokaryotic cell lacks:

'C' possesses DNA molecule, RNA molecule I: a membrane bound nucleus
1.
and 80 S ribosomes II: membrane bound organelles
2. 'A' and 'B' have their own specific enzymes III: ribosomes
'E' made by inner membrane towards the 1. Only I and II 2. Only I
3. 3. Only II and III 4. Only III
intermembrane space
'B' forms the continuous limiting boundary
4.
of the organelle
108. Arrangement of axonemal microtubules in
a eukaryotic flagellum is referred to as the:
1. 9+2 array
2. 9+0 array
3. 9+9 array
4. 9+1 array

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109. As we go higher from species to kingdom 114. Microbodies in eukaryotic cells include all
in taxonomic hierarchy, the number of the following except:
common characteristics shared by member 1. Peroxisomes 2. Glycosomes
organism: 3. Lysosomes 4. Glyoxysomes
1. goes on decreasing
2. goes on increasing
3. remains the same 115. Which of the following is matched
4. no such correlation exists incorrectly:
a. Mangifera: indica
110. Taxonomy is the part of systematics that is b. Panthera: tuberosum
concerned with: c. Solanum: melongena
characterization and identification of living d. Solanum: nigrum
(a)
organisms
classification and nomenclature of living 116. Consider the given two statements:
(b)
organisms Assertion The interphase of the cell cycle is
establishing evolutionary relationships (A): also called the resting phase.
(c)
between living organisms No metabolic activity takes place
Reason (R): inside the cell during the
1. Only (a) and (b) 2. Only (a) and (c) interphase.
3. Only (b) and (c) 4. (a), (b) and (c)
1. (A) is True; (R) is False
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
111. The defining properties of living organisms 2.
explains (A)
include: Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1. Consciousness and growth 3.
correctly explain (A)
2. Growth and reproduction
4. (A) is False; (R) is True
3. Consciousness and cellular organisation
4. Cellular organisation and reproduction
117. Eukaryotic cells differ from prokaryotic
112. In plant classification, ‘families’ are
cells in all the following features except:
characterised on the basis of:
1. Extensive compartmentalisation of
I: vegetative features of plant species.
cytoplasm.
II: reproductive features of plant species. 2. The presence of membrane bound
organelles.
1. Only I 3. An organised nucleus with a nuclear
2. Only II envelope.
3. Both I and II 4. Genetic material organised into
4. Neither I nor II chromosomes.

113. As we go from species to kingdom in a 118. A contractile vacuole will especially be

taxonomic hierarchy, the number of common highly useful for osmoregulation in:
characteristics: 1. a unicellular marine water organism.
1. Will decrease 2. Will increase 2. a multicellular marine water organism.
Will remain May increase or 3. a unicellular fresh water organism.
3. 4. 4. a multicellular large fresh water organism.
same decrease

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119. A peroxisome is a membrane-bound 124. All the following are key features of
organelle found in the cytoplasm of virtually all meiosis except:
eukaryotic cells and contains several oxidases Meiosis involves two sequential cycles of
and catalases. Why type of structure is the nuclear and cell division called meiosis I and
peroxisome? 1.
meiosis II but only a single cycle of DNA
1. Inclusion body 2. FTS-Z elements replication.
3. Microbody 4. Lysosomes Meiosis I is initiated after the parental
2. chromosomes have replicated to produce
identical sister chromatids at the S phase.
120. In prokaryotes, just before the cell divides, Meiosis involves pairing of homologous
the two daughter genomes are attached side by chromosomes and recombination between
3.
side to the non-sister chromatids of homologous
1. kinetochore chromosomes.
2. centromere Four haploid cells are formed at the end of
3. cell membrane 4.
meiosis I.
4. ori

121. In meiosis, the splitting of the centromere 125. Match the following events that occur in
of each chromosome takes place during: their respective phases of cell cycle and select
1. Metaphase I 2. Metaphase II the correct option:
3. Anaphase I 4. Anaphase II Column I Column II
Cell grows and
(a) G1 phase (i)
organelle duplication
122. Consider the given two statements: DNA replication and
Classification of living organisms (b) S phase (ii) chromosome
Statement I: is important to make study of duplication
living organisms possible.
(c) G2 phase (iii) Cytoplasmic growth
Classification is the process by
which anything is grouped into Metaphase Alignment of
(d) (iv)
Statement II: convenient categories based on in M-phase chromosomes
some easily observable
characters. Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)
1. (ii) (iii) (iv) (i)
1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 2. (iii) (iv) (i) (ii)
incorrect 3. (iv) (i) (ii) (iii)
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 4. (iii) (ii) (i) (iv)
correct
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
incorrect
126. If you are writing the binomial name of an
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
organism you should not:
correct
1. write the name in italics
123. Duration of cell cycle can vary from: 2. separately underline them
I: organism to organism 3. start the genus name with a capital letter
from cell type to cell type in the same 4. start the specific epithet with a capital letter
II:
organism
1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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127. Select the correct statements. 130. Consider the two statements:
Mitosis helps in restoration of
A. Tetrad formation is seen during Leptotene. Statement I: nuclear cytoplasmic ratio for
During Anaphase, the centromeres split and effective working of a cell.
B.
chromatids separate. Mitosis leads to formation of
Terminalization takes place during Statement II: genetically diverse cells leading
C. to generation of variations.
Pachytene.
Nucleolus, Golgi complex and ER are
D. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
reformed during Telophase. 1.
Crossing over takes place between sister incorrect
E. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
chromatids of homologous chromosome. 2.
correct
Choose the correct answer from the options Statement II is incorrect; Statement I is
3.
given below: correct
1. B and E only 2. A and C only Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
3. B and D only 4. A, C and E only incorrect

128. Key events during telophase include all the 131. Nomenclature is governed by certain
following except: universal rules. Which one of the following is
Chromosomes cluster at opposite spindle contrary to the rules of nomenclature?
1. poles and their identity is lost as discrete The first word in a biological name
elements. 1. represents the genus name and the second is
Nuclear envelope develops around the a specific epithet.
2. chromosome clusters at each pole forming The names are derived from Latin and
2.
two daughter nuclei. written in italics.
3. Centromeres split and chromatids separate. When written by hand, the names are to be
3.
4. Nucleolus, Golgi complex, and ER reform. underlined.
Biological names can be written in any
4.
language.
129. Select the correct sequence of events
occurring during Prophase-I of Meiosis-I:
(a) Nuclear envelope breakdown 132. Select the correct sequence of substages of
Prophase - I of Meiotic division
(b) Synaptonemal complex formation
(A) Zygotene
(c) Compaction of chromosomes (B) Pachytene
(d) Terminalisation of chiasmata (C) Diakinesis
(e) Crossing over (D) Leptotene
(E) Diplotene
Choose the correct answer from the options
Choose the most appropriate answer from the given below:
options given below: 1. (D), (B), (A), (E), (C) 2. (A), (B), (D), (E), (C)
1. (c) → (b) → (e) → (d) → (a)
3. (D), (A), (B), (E), (C) 4. (A), (D), (B), (C), (E)
2. (c) → (a) → (b) → (d) → (e)
3. (b) → (c) → (a) → (d) → (e)
4. (c) → (a) → (b) → (e) → (d)

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133. Identify the incorrect statement:

Despite great morphological difference Biology-I-Section-B
1. between eucaryotic cells and prokaryotes, 136. Consider the given two statements:
they are remarkably similar metabolically. Higher the taxonomic category,
The 80S ribosomes of eukaryotes are made greater is the difficulty of
2. Assertion (A):
up of 50S and 30S subunits. determining the relationship to
The rough part of rough endoplasmic other taxa at the same level.
3. reticulum is caused by bound ribosomes The higher taxonomic
in the process of synthesizing ER proteins. categories are more exclusive
The nucleolus is where the structural RNA Reason (R): and the lower taxonomic
4. for the cells ribosomes is transcribed from categories are more inclusive in
DNA. nature.

Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
1.
134. Consider the given two statements: correctly explain (A)
The Golgi apparatus remains in 2. (A) is True but (R) is False
Assertion
close association with the Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly
(A): 3.
endoplasmic reticulum. explains (A)
The cis and the trans faces of the 4. (A) is False but (R) is True
Reason
organelle are entirely different, but
(R):
interconnected.
137. Identify the correct statements regarding
Both (A) and (R) are True but the (R) does G1 phase of the cell cycle:
1.
not explain (A). I: It is the post-mitotic gap phase
2. (A) is True but (R) is False. The cell is metabolically active and grows
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) correctly II:
3. continuously
explains (A). III: Cell replicates its DNA
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.
1. Only II 2. I and II only
3. Only I 4. I, II and III
135. Read carefully: Select the location with
respect to a eukaryotic cell where ribosomes
are not expected to be found?
138. After cytokinesis in a plant cell, which of
1. in the cytoplasm
the following is formed first?
2. within the chloroplasts (in plants)
1. The primary cell wall
3. within the mitochondria
2. The middle lamella
4. within the rough ER.
3. The secondary cell wall
4. There is no particular chronology

139. If you were to increase the area that you

make observations in, the range and variety of
organisms that you see would:
1. Increase
2. Decrease
3. Remain same
May increase in polar regions and decrease
4.
in tropical regions

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140. Onion root tip cell has 16 chromosomes. 145. Identify the incorrectly matched pair:
This cell will have 16 chromosomes: Structure Size range
I: at G1 phase 1. Perinuclear space 10 – 50 nm
II: after S phase 2. Length of chloroplasts 2 – 5 µm
III: after M phase
3. Typical eukaryotic cell 10 – 20 µm
1. I is correct; II & III are incorrect
2. I & II are correct; III is incorrect 4. Typical bacterium 1 – 2 µm
3. I, II & III are correct
4. I, II & III are not correct
146. Crossing over takes place between which
141. Like mitochondria, the chloroplasts: chromatids and in which stage of the cell cycle?
1. are found only in plant cells Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
2. do not have 70 S ribosomes 1. chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase
3. are also double membrane bound I.
4. are unable to carry out phosphorylation of Non-sister chromatids of homologous
ADP 2. chromosomes at Pachytene stage of
prophase I.
142. Identify the correctly matched taxonomic Non-sister chromatids of homologous
category for humans: 3. chromosomes at Zygotene stage of prophase
1. Family Hominidae I.
2. Order Mammalia Non-sister chromatids of non-homologous
3. Class Primata 4. chromosomes at Pachytene stage of
4. Phylum Vertebrata prophase I.

143. Flagella of prokaryotic and eukaryotic cells 147. Tonoplast is the membrane of:
differ in: 1. Ribosome 2. Lysosome
1. Location in cell and mode of functioning 3. Vacuole 4. Peroxisome
Microtubular organization and type of
2.
movement
3. Microtubular organization and function 148. Which of the following stages of Prophase I
of meiosis I can last for many months or years
4. Type of movement & placement in the cell
in certain vertebrate oocytes?
1. Zygotene 2. Pachytene
144. All living organisms: 3. Diplotene 4. Diakinesis
from the prokaryotes to the most complex
I: eukaryotes can sense and respond to
environmental cues. 149. The plasmid DNA in certain bacteria:
present, past and future, are linked to one is a small circular DNA and an integral part
I:
II: another by the sharing of the common of the genomic DNA.
genetic material, but to varying degrees. confers certain unique phenotypic
1. Only I is correct II: characters to such bacteria and one such
2. Only II is correct character is resistance to antibiotics.
3. Both I and II are correct 1. Only I is incorrect
4. Both I and II are incorrect 2. Only II is incorrect
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

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150. Consider the given two statements: 153. Identify the basic amino acid from the
Properties of tissues are present following.
in the constituent cells and 1. Glutamic Acid
similarly properties of cellular 2. Lysine
Statement I: 3. Valine
organelles are present in the
molecular constituents of the 4. Tyrosine
organelle.
All living organisms – present, 154. α-amino acids are:
past and future, are linked to 1. substituted methanes
Statement II: one another by the sharing of 2. only 20 in number
the common genetic material, 3. not required in diet by humans
but to varying degrees. 4. all acidic in nature

1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 155. Choose the correct statement about a

incorrect muscular tissue:
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is 1. Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and
correct found in parallel bundles.
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is 2. Intercalated discs allow the cardiac muscle
incorrect cells to contract as a unit.
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is The walls of blood vessels are made up of
3.
correct columnar epithelium.
Smooth muscles are multinucleated and
4.
Biology-II-Section-A involuntary

151. Match Column I with Column II and mark

the correct option: 156. Regarding ear in frog:
Column I Column II I: External ear is absent.
a. Starch 1. Cotton fibre II: Only tympanum can be seen externally.
b. Cellulose 2. Exoskeleton of cockroach The ear is an organ of hearing but not of
III:
c. Glycogen 3. Liver balancing (equilibrium).
d. Chitin 4. Peeled potato
1. Only I and II are correct
2. Only I and III are correct
1. a(3), b(4), c(1), d(2) 3. Only II and III are correct
2. a(4), b(1), c(3), d(2) 4. I, II and III are correct
3. a(4), b(2), c(1), d(2)
4. a(2), b(1), c(3), d(4)

152. The direction of a phosphodiester bond [in

a polynucleotide chain] is:
1. 5’ – 3’ 2. 3’ – 5’
3. 1’ – 3’ 4. 3’ – 1’

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157. The type of tissue shown in the figure is 160. Match List -I with List - II.
found in: List-I List-II
(a) Protein I. C-C double bonds
Unsaturated fatty Phosphodiester
(b) II.
acid bonds
(c) Nucleic acid III. Glycosidic bonds
(d) Polysaccharides IV. Peptide bonds

Choose the correct answer from the options

given below:

Options: (a) (b) (c) (d)

I: Tendon 1. II I IV III
II: Ligament 2. IV III I II
III: Skin 3. IV I II III
4. I IV III II
1. Only I and II
2. Only III
3. Only II 161. Given below are two statements: one is
4. I, II and III labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is
labelled as Reason (R):
158. Fallopian tubes are lined with: Frogs are at their most
1. Cuboidal ciliated epithelium vulnerable to predators when
2. Cuboidal brush bordered epithelium Assertion (A):
they are undergoing
3. Columnar ciliated epithelium metamorphosis.
4. Columnar brush bordered epithelium
At this time, the tail is being lost
and locomotion by means of
159. Which of the following are not secondary Reason (R):
limbs is only just becoming
metabolites in plants?
established.
1. Vinblastin, curcumin
2. Rubber, gums In the light of the above statements, choose the
3. Morphine, codeine correct answer from the options given below:
4. Amino acids, glucose Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2.
correct explanation of (A).
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False but (R) is True.

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162. In Rana tigrina: 166. Consider the given two statements:

The colour of dorsal side of body Assertion The alimentary canal in frog is
Statement I: is generally olive green with (A): short.
dark irregular spots. Reason (R): Frog is a herbivore.
On the ventral side, the skin is
Statement II:
uniformly pale yellow. Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains
1.
(A)
Statement I is correct, Statement II is Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) does not
1. 2.
correct explain (A)
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is 3. (A) is True but (R) is False
2.
correct 4. (A) is False but (R) is True
Statement I is correct, Statement II is
3.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is 167. Consider the given two statements:
4.
incorrect Lipids separate in the
Assertion (A): macromolecular fraction of a
cell.
163. Given below are two statements: one is Lipids are associated with
labelled as Assertion (A) and the other is Reason (R): membranes in a cell.
labelled as Reason (R):
Assertion (A): Lipids are macromolecules Both (A) and (R) are true but (R) does not
They have a molecular weight 1.
explain (A).
Reason (R): range of ten thousand Daltons 2. (A) is true but (R) is False.
and above.
Both (A) and (R) are true and (R) correctly
In the light of the above statements choose the 3.
explains the (A).
correct answer from the options given below:
4. (A) is false but (R) is true.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. 168. State whether the given statements are
correct explanation of (A).
true or false:
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. Statement Palmitic acid has 16 carbons
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. I: including carboxyl carbon.
Arachidonic acid has 20 carbon
Statement
atoms including the carboxyl
164. Which of the following is not a connective II:
carbon.
tissue?
Adenosine, guanosine, thymidine,
1. Neuroglia 2. Blood Statement
uridine and cytidine are
3. Adipose tissue 4. Cartilage III:
nucleosides.
Statement Nucleic acids like DNA and RNA
IV: consist of nucleotides only.
165. Many parts of frog brains correspond with
those of humans. Which structure of human
Statement Statement Statement Statement
brain has no corresponding structure in frogs?
I II III IV
1. Olfactory lobe 2. Optic lobe
1. T T T T
3. Pons 4. Cerebellum
2. T T F F
3. F F T T
4. F F F F

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169. Which of the following is true about 173. Blood vascular system of cockroach:
compounds present in acid insoluble pool? I: is closed type.
They have molecular weight ranging from II: is involved in the exchange of gases with
1. tissues.
10,000 Daltons and above (except in lipids)
2. They are called as Macromolecules 1. Only I is correct
2. Only II is correct
3. They are called as Biomacromolecules
3. Both I and II are correct
4. All of the above 4. Both I and II are incorrect

174. All enzymes are:

170. Consider the two statements: 1. Proteins
In male frogs, the testes are 2. Thermostable
found adhered to the upper part 3. Capable of speeding up a biochemical
Statement I: of the kidneys and have a reaction
functional connection with the 4. Capable of working in alkaline pH
kidneys.
In female frogs, the ovaries are 175. Consider the given two statements:
situated near the kidneys and In nearly all animal tissues,
Statement II:
there is no functional connection specialised junctions provide
with the kidneys. Statement I:
both structural and functional
links between its individual cells.
Statement I is correct, Statement II is Cell junctions are more common
1.
correct Statement II: in connective, muscle and neural
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is tissue than in epithelium.
2.
correct
Statement I is correct, Statement II is 1. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3. correct
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect, Statement II is 2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
4. incorrect
incorrect
3. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
correct
4. Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
171. A non-proteinaceous enzyme is:
incorrect
1. lysozyme
2. ribozyme
3. ligase
4. deoxyribonuclease

172. Identify the types of cell junctions that help

to stop the leakage of the substances across a
tissue and facilitation of communication with
neighbouring cells via rapid transfer of ions
and molecules.
1. Adhering junctions and Tight junctions,
respectively.
2. Adhering junctions and Gap junctions,
respectively.
3. Gap junctions and Adhering junctions,
respectively.
4. Tight junctions and Gap junctions,
respectively.

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176. Consider the given two statements: 181. Which of the following are not polymeric?
Many environmental scientists 1. Proteins 2. Polysaccharides
believe amphibians, including 3. Lipids 4. Nucleic acids
Assertion (A): frogs, are good biological
indicators of broader ecosystem
health. 182. The type of tissue shown in the figure is
These organisms have found in:
intermediate positions in food
chains, have permeable skins,
Reason (R):
and typically have biphasic
lives (aquatic larvae and
terrestrial adults).

1. (A) is True but (R) is False

Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) explains
2.
(A)
3. (A) is False but (R) is True
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) does not
4.
explain (A)
I: Tendon
II: Ligament
III: Skin
177. For its activity, carboxypeptidase requires: 1. Only I and II
1. Iron 2. Only III
2. Niacin 3. Only II
3. Copper 4. I, II and III
4. Zinc
183. Which biomolecule in living cells is neither
178. In peroxidase and catalase: a polymer nor a macromolecule?
1. haem is the prosthetic group and it is a part
1. Lipid 2. Carbohydrate
of the active site of the enzyme.
2. FAD is the prosthetic group and it is a part of 3. Protein 4. Nucleic acid
the active site of the enzyme.
3. haem is the prosthetic group and is not a part
of the active site of the enzyme. 184. In Rana tigrina:
4. NADP is the prosthetic group and it is a part a: The hind limbs end in four digits
of the active site of the enzyme. The hind limbs are larger and muscular than
b:
fore limbs.
179. Which of the following is not a lipid? c: The fore limbs end in five digits.
1. Lipase Feet have webbed digits that help in
2. Cholesterol d:
swimming.
3. Glycerol
4. Monoglycerides 1. Only a and b are correct
2. Only c and d are correct
180. On an average a female cockroach 3. Only a and c are correct
produces: 4. Only b and d are correct
1. 9-10 oothecae , each containing 14-16 eggs
2. 14-16 oothecae , each containing 9-10 eggs
3. 5-6 oothecae , each containing 9-10 eggs
4. 9-10 oothecae , each containing 5-6 eggs

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185. Which one of the following is the most 187. Consider the given two statements:
abundant protein in animals? Periplaneta americana is
1. Collagen Statement I:
dioecious.
2. Lectin The development of Periplaneta
3. Insulin Statement II:
americana is holometabolous.
4. Hemoglobin
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
Biology-II-Section-B 1.
correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
186. Consider the given statements regarding 2.
correct
competitive enzyme inhibition:
Competitive inhibitor closely Statement I is correct; Statement II is
3.
Statement I: resembles the substrate in its incorrect
molecular structure Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
4.
In spite of its close structural incorrect
similarity with the substrate,
the inhibitor does not compete
Statement II: 188. Metal ions required by some enzymes as
with the substrate for the
substrate-binding site of the co-factors:
enzyme. form covalent bonds with side chains at the
I:
Inhibition of succinic active site of the enzyme
dehydrogenase by succinate form one or more covalent bonds with the
II:
which closely resembles the substrate.
Statement III:
substrate malonate in structure 1. Only I is correct
is an example of competitive 2. Only II is correct
inhibition. 3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect
Statement I is correct; Statement II is
1. 189. Haem:
correct; Statement III is correct
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is is the prosthetic group in peroxidase and
2. I:
correct; Statement III is incorrect catalase
Statement I is correct; Statement II is is not a part of the active site of the
3. II:
incorrect; Statement III is incorrect peroxidase and catalase
Statement I is correct; Statement II is 1. Only I is correct
4. 2. Only II is correct
correct; Statement III is incorrect
3. Both I and II are correct
4. Both I and II are incorrect

190. Which biomolecule makes up maximum

percent of the total cellular mass in an average
cell?
1. Proteins
2. Carbohydrates
3. Lipids
4. Nucleic acids

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
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191. Given below are two statements: 193. Consider the two statements:
Tertiary structure of a protein is Whether it is an exothermic or
Assertion (A): absolutely necessary for its spontaneous reaction or an
biological activities. Statement endothermic or energy requiring
The structure brings distant I: reaction, the ‘S’ has to go through a
amino acid side chains closer, much higher energy state or
Reason (R): transition state.
thereby forming active sites of
enzymes. Enzymes eventually bring down
Statement this energy barrier of activation
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the II: energy making the transition of ‘S’
1. to ‘P’ more easy.
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the
2. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
correct explanation of (A). 1.
3. (A) is True but (R) is False. correct
4. Both (A) and (R) are False. Statement I is correct; Statement II is
2.
incorrect
Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
3.
192. correct
Simple squamous epithelium lines Statement I is incorrect; Statement II is
Assertion 4.
the diffusion membranes in incorrect
(A):
human body.
Simple squamous epithelium is
Reason 194. Regarding feeding in frog:
dorso-ventrally flattened and very
(R): I: Frog is a herbivore
thin.
II: Food is captured by the bilobed tongue.
Both (A) and (R) are True and (R) is the
1. 1. Only I is correct
correct explanation of (A).
Both (A) and (R) are True but (R) is not the 2. Only II is correct
2. 3. Both I and II are correct
correct explanation of (A).
4. Both I and II are incorrect
3. (A) is True but (R) is False.
4. (A) is False and (R) is True. 195. The epithelium shown will be found in the
lining of:

1. PCT
2. DCT
3. Trachea
4. Fallopian tube

196. Which element makes up the maximum %

weight of the human body?
1. carbon 2. hydrogen
3. nitrogen 4. oxygen

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 Custom Practice Test - 03-Jan
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197. Choose the correct statement about a

muscular tissue: Fill OMR Sheet*
Skeletal muscle fibres are uninucleated and
1.
found in parallel bundles. *If above link doesn't work, please go to test link
Intercalated discs allow the skeletal muscle from where you got the pdf and fill OMR from
2.
cells to contract as a unit. there
3. Skeletal muscles are striated and voluntary.
Smooth muscles are multinucleated and
4.
involuntary

198. The excretory product eliminated by a frog

CLICK HERE to get
is:
1. Ammonia 2. Urea
FREE ACCESS for 2
3. Uric acid 4. Creatine days of ANY
NEETprep course
199. The number of cranial nerves in frogs is:
1. 8 pairs 2. 10 pairs
3. 11 pairs 4. 12 pairs

200. In an enzyme catalysed biochemical

reaction, the formation of enzyme-substrate
complex is:
1. optional and transient
2. obligatory and transient
3. obligatory and permanent
4. needed only in anabolic reactions

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