ANNUAL EXAMINATION – MARCH 2023

STATISTICS (31) – II PUC

PRACTICE QUESTIONS
(WITH ANSWERS)

SECTION – A (OBJECTIVE TYPE)

SECTION – B (SHORT ANSWERS)

(Based on previous question papers)

DRAFT

HARISH AITHAL P
ST JOPSEPH’S P.U. COLLEGE
BAJPE – 574142, MANGALURU

ST JOSEPH’S PUC, BAJPE, MANGALURU. ANNUAL EXAMINATION -2023 STATISTICS – II PUC (Q&A - SECTION A & B)
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 UNIT – I VITAL STATISTICS

SECTION – A

QUESTION NUMBER: 1

I Choose the correct answer from the choices given. (1 mark)

1. The statistical study of human population is called –

a) Biology b) sociology c) Demography d) Psychology

2. The formula for estimating the population between two census years is –
a) Pt = P0+(B–D)+ (I–E) b) Pt = P0– (B+D) – (I+E) c) Pt = P0+ (D–B) + (E–I) d) Pt = P0– (D–B) + (E–I)

3. The capacity of a woman to bear children is called-

a) Fertility b) Mortality c) Growth d) Fecundity

4. Generally the child bearing age for women is-

a) 10–50 years b) 15–49 years c) 15–60 years d) 10–49 years

5. The average population of a town in a year was 1, 50,000 and the number of live births occurred was 6000.
The crude birth rate is-
a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60

6. The value of N.R.R. = 1 is indicative of:

a) increase in population b) declining population c) constancy in population d) None of these

7. The value of N.R.R. is below one is indicative of:

a) increase in population b) declining population c) constancy in population d) None of these

8. The value of N.R.R. is more than 1 is indicative of:

a) increase in population b) declining population c) constancy in population d) None of these

9. The average population of a town in a year was 10,000 and the number of deaths occurred was 500.
The crude death rate is-
a) 25 b) 40 c) 50 d) 60

10. In a year, in a locality, 10,000 live births occurred and the number of infant deaths was 270.
The infant mortality rate is –
a) 27 b) 42 c) 52 d) 72

11. In a year, in a locality out of 20,000 births 100 mothers died due to child birth complications.
The maternal mortality rate is –
a) 10 b) 5 c) 20 d) 15

12. In a year, in a locality, 4,000 live births occurred and the number of neo-natal deaths was 100.
The neo-natal mortality rate is –
a) 15 b) 20 c) 25 d) 30

13. In a life table, the size of the cohort is –

a) 100 b) 1,00,000 c) 1000 d) 10,000

14. The expected number of years that a new born baby would live is called –
a) Longevity b) Cohort c) Radix d) Mortality ratio

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15. In a life table, if l0 = 1,00,000 and T0 = 71,00,000 years , the Longevity is –
a) 64 years b) 65years c) 70 years d) 71 years

16. In a life table, if l1 = 95,400 and d1 = 1,908, the mortality ratio is –

a) 0.01 b) 0.02 c) 0.05 d) 0.98

QUESTION NUMBER: 6 (i)

II Match the following. (1 mark)

(Please note: Here answers are given directly for the sake of convenience)

Births, deaths, migration etc. Vital events

Fertility Births occurring to women of child bearing age
Fecundity The capacity of a woman to bear children
15 – 49 years Child bearing age for women
N.R.R. per woman = 1 Population remains constant
N.R.R. per woman = 0.95 Population is decreasing
N.R.R. per woman = 1.2 Population is increasing

QUESTION NUMBER: 12

IV Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each. ( 1 mark)

1. What do you mean by ‘demography’?

The statistical study of human population.
2. Mention a use of vital statistics.
Vital statistics are very much useful in medical research or
Vital statistics are used in actuarial science
3. Mention one method of obtaining vital statistics.
Registration method or census enumeration method.
4. Define fertility.
Fertility refers to the births occurring to women of child bearing age.
5. Define fecundity.
Fecundity refers to “ the capacity of a woman to bear children”.
6. What do you mean by a life table?
Life table is a tabular presentation of numerical data describing the mortality experience of a cohort.
7. Mention a use of life table.
Life tables are used by life insurance companies. or
Life table is used for the measurement of growth of population.
8. Define cohort.
Cohort is a group of individuals who are born at the same time and who experience the same mortality
conditions.
9. Define ‘Radix’ in a life table.
The size of the cohort is called radix. [Generally 1,00,000]
10. What is Longevity in a life table?
Longevity is the expected number of years that a new born baby would live.
11. Define expectation of life.
Expected number of years that a person aged ‘x’ would live thereafter.
12. Define ‘Survival ratio’.
The probability that a person aged ‘x’ years survives upto age (x+1) years.
13. Define ‘Mortality ratio’.
The probability that a person aged ‘x’ years will die before reaching the age (x+1) years.

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 UNIT – II INDEX NUMBERS

SECTION – A

QUESTION NUMBER: 2

I Choose the correct answer from the choices given. (1 mark)

1. The price in the current year expressed as percentage of the price in the base year is called-
a) price relative b) quantity relative c) value relative d) None of these

2. The price of the commodity in the base year and the current year are Rs 5 and Rs 8 respectively. The price
relative is –
a) 160 b) 62.5 c) 100 d) 0.625

3. The value of the index number for the base year is –

a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

4. If the general price level goes up by 80% between 2020 and 2022, the index number for 2022 with base 2020
is-
a) 20 b) 80 c) 100 d) 180

5. If price during the current year is double the price during the base year, the price index number for the current
year is -
a) 50 b) 100 c) 150 d) 200

5. The weights used in the construction of Laspeyre’s price index number are –
a) base year prices b) current year prices c) base year quantities d) current year quantities

6. The weights used in the construction of Paasche’s price index number are –
a) base year prices b) current year prices c) base year quantities d) current year quantities

7. Laspeyre’s index number is expected to have –

a) an upward bias b) downward bias c) no bias d) None of these

8. Paasche’s index number is expected to have –

a) an upward bias b) downward bias c) no bias d) None of these

9. If Laspeyre’s price index number is 142 and Paasche’s price index number is 144, the Dorbish-bowley’s price
index number is -
a) 141 b)142 c) 143 d) 144

10. If P01(L) = 142 and P01(P) = 144, the Fisher’s price index number is –
a) 140.99 b)142.99 c) 144.99 d) 146.99

11. The condition for the ‘time reversal test’ to be satisfied with usual notation is –
a) P01 x P10 = 1 b) P01 x P10 = 0 c) P01 x Q01 = V01 c) P01 x V01 = Q01

12. The condition for the ‘factor reversal test’ to be satisfied with usual notation is –
a) P01 x P10 = 1 b) P01 x P10 = 0 c) P01 x Q01 = V01 c) P01 x V01 = Q01

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 QUESTION NUMBER: 6 (ii)

II Match the following. (1 mark)

(Please note: Here answers are given directly for the sake of convenience)

Index numbers Economic barometers

Base period Economically stable
P01 = 80 20% of the price of the commodity decreases
P01 = 140 40% of the price of the commodity increases
Laspeyre’s index number Upward bias
Paasche’s index number Downward bias
Fisher’s index number Free of bias
Fisher’s index number Satisfies both TRT and FRT
P01 x P10 = 1 Time reversal test
P01 x Q01 = V01 Factor reversal test
Retail price of commodities Cost of living index number

QUESTION NUMBER: 7

III Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets. (1 mark)

( Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s, Fisher’s, Retail, economic barometers, 100, averages, base year,
current year, Simple aggregative price, cost of living, geometric mean)

1. Index numbers are known as economic barometers.

2. Index numbers are specialized type of averages.

3. The value of the index number for the base year is 100.

4. In the computation of index numbers, most preferred type of average is geometric mean.

5. Laspeyre’s price index number uses the base year quantities as weights.

6. Paasche’s price index number uses the current year quantities as weights.

7. Laspeyre’s index number shows an upward bias.

8. Paasche’s index number shows downward bias.

9. Fisher’s index number satisfies both TRT and FRT.

10. Simple aggregative price index number does not satisfy unit test.

11. Consumer price index number is also known as cost of living index number.

12. Retail price of the commodities used in the construction of cost of living index number.

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 QUESTION NUMBER: 13

IV Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each. ( 1 mark)

1. Define an ‘Index number’

An index number is a statistical measure designed to show an average change in a variable or group of
related variables with respect to time, income group etc.

2. What is the value of index number for the base year? 100

3. If the general price level goes up by 80% between 2000 and 2012. What is the index number for
2012 with base 2000? 180

4. The price index number for the current year is 132. Give your conclusion.
Level of prices increased by 32%
5. Theoretically which average is considered as the best average in the construction of index number?
Geometric mean

6. Which weights are used in the construction of Laspeyre’s index number?

Base year quantities (q0)

7. Which weights are used in the construction of Paasche’s price index number?
Current year quantities (q1)

8. State the relation between Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s and Dorbish-bowley’s price index numbers.
Dorbish-bowley’s price index number is the A.M. of the Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s price index numbers.
P01(DB) =
9. State the relation between Laspeyre’s, Paasche’s and Fisher’s price index numbers.
Fisher’s price index number is the G.M. of the Laspeyre’s and Paasche’s price index numbers.
P01(F) =

10. Write down the formula for Kelly’s fixed weight price index number.
P01 (K) = x 100

11. Write the formula for value index number.

V01 = x 100

12. Which index number shows upward bias?

Laspeyre’s index number.

13. Which index number shows downward bias? Paasche’s index number.

14. Name the index number which satisfies both Time Reversal Test and Factor Reversal Test.
Fisher’s index number.

15. Which index number does not satisfy unit test?

Simple aggregative price index number.

16. Name the index number which satisfies circular test.

Simple G.M. price index number and Kelly’s price index number.

17. Does Marshall- Edgeworth index number satisfy factor reversal test? No

18. Which price of the commodities is used in the construction of cost of living index number?
Retail price
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 QUESTION NUMBER: 17

SECTION – B

Short answer type questions (2 marks)

1. State two characteristics of index numbers.

Index numbers are specialised averages.
Index numbers facilitate comparison.

2. State two norms (considerations) for the section of base year.

Base period should be economically stable.
The base period should not be too distant from the given period.

3. State two limitations of index numbers.

The different formulae give different answers.
Index numbers can be misused to get desired conclusions.
While constructing index numbers, the quality of product is not taken into consideration. (any two)

4. State two uses of index numbers.

Index numbers are used to in studying trends and tendencies.
Index numbers facilitate comparative study.
Index numbers are used by the government to frame suitable policies (any two)

5. If P01L = 105 and P01P = 125, then find P01DB.

P01DB = = = 115

6. If Laspeyre’s price index number is 124 and Paasche’s price index number is 126, find Fisher’s
price index number.
P01(F) = = = 124.99

7. If ∑p0q = 1200 and ∑p1q = 1500, compute suitable index number.

P01(K) = x 100 = x 100 = 125

8. For the following data compute Value index number : ∑ p0q0 = 300 and ∑ p1q1 = 375.
V01 = x 100 = x 100 = 125

9. Why Fisher’s index number called as an ‘Ideal index number’?

(i) It is based on G.M. which is appropriate for averaging ratios.
(ii) It takes into account both current and base year quantities.
(iii) It satisfies TRT and FRT.
(iv) It is free of bias. (any two)
10. Calculate simple aggregative price index number for the data given below.
Items A B C D
Price Base year 25 13 15 17
(Rs.) Current year 30 15 17 28
P01 = x 100 = x 100 = 128.57
11. Mention the steps involved in the construction of consumer price index number.
1. Defining purpose and scope
2. Conducting family budget enquiry and selecting the weights
3. Obtaining price quotations
4. Computing the index number.
12. Mention two methods of computing consumer price index number.
Aggregative expenditure method and Family budget method
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 UNIT – III TIME SERIES ANALYSIS
SECTION – A

QUESTION NUMBER: 14

IV Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each. ( 1 mark)

1. Define time series.

Arrangement of statistical data in chronological order is known as time series.

2. What do you mean by Historigram?

A graphic representation of time series data is called historigram.

3. Name the graph of time series data. Historigram

4. Give an example for secular trend.

Increase in the price of gold in the past many years. Or Decrease in the death rates in the past many years.

5. Which index is used for the measurement of seasonal variation? Seasonal indices.

6. Give an example for seasonal variation.

In summer season, the sale of icecream, cool drinks will increase.

7. Which variation is unpredictable?

Irregular (Random) variation

8. Give an example for random variation.

Sudden increase in death rate of a locality due to earth quake , tsunami etc.

9. Mention a cause for irregular variation. War, strikes, floods etc.

SECTION – B

QUESTION NUMBER: 18

Short answer type questions (2 marks)

1. State any two uses of time series.

Time series helps in planning and forecasting the business activities.
Time series helps in understanding the past behaviour and help in estimating the future behaviour.
Comparison between data of one period with that of another period is possible. (any two)

2. Mention all the components of a time series.

(i) Secular trend (ii) Seasonal variation (iii) Cyclical variation (iv) Irregular variation

3. State the different phases of ‘business cycle’.

1. Prosperity 2. Decline (Recession) 3. Depression 4. Improvement (Recovery).

4. Diagrammatically represent ‘business cycle’ with stages.

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5. What do you mean by seasonal variation ? give an example.
The regular, periodic and short term variation in a time series is called seasonal variation.
Eg: In summer season, the sale of icecream, cool drinks will increase.

6. Write two causes for seasonal variation.

Climate and weather conditions
Customs, traditions and habits of people.

7. What do you mean by random variation? Give an example.

Sudden unexpected variation in the time series is called random variation. (Irregular variation)
Eg: Sudden increase in death rate of a locality due to earth quake, tsunami etc.

8. Calculate trend values by the method of Semi-Averages from the following Time Series data.
Years 2011 2012 2013 2014 2015 2016
Profit ( Rs. ‘000) 22 21 23 22 24 26
= 22 = 24

9. Mention a merit and demerit of least squares method.

Merit : The method is mathematical and so, it is high efficient.
Demerit : The procedure of calculation is difficult.

10. Write any two demerits of least squares method.

The procedure of calculation is difficult.
If fresh observations are available, the whole procedure has to be repeated.

11. Write down the normal equations for fitting linear trend.
na + bΣx = Σy
aΣx + bΣx2 = Σxy

12. State two conditions of least squares method of measuring trend.

(i) (y - ) = 0 (ii) (y - )2 is the least

UNIT – IV INTERPOLATION AND EXTRAPOLATION

SECTION – B

QUESTION NUMBER: 19

Short answer type questions (2 marks)

1. Define ‘interpolation and extrapolation’.

The technique of finding ‘Y’ which corresponds to an argument ‘X’ which lies within the range (x 0, xn)
is called interpolation.
The technique of finding ‘Y’ which corresponds to an argument ‘X’ which lies outside the range (x0, xn)
is called extrapolation.

2. Write down the two assumptions of interpolation and extrapolation.

1. There are no sudden jumps in the values of dependent variable from one period to another.
2. There will be no consecutive missing values in the series.

3. Write down the conditions for the application of binomial expansion method of interpolation and
extrapolation.
1. The values of the independent variable should have a common difference.
2. The value of ‘X’, for which the value of ‘Y’ is to be interpolated must be one of the values of ‘X’.
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 UNIT – V THEORETICAL DISTRIBUTIONS
SECTION – A

QUESTION NUMBER: 3
I Choose the correct answer from the choices given. (1 mark)

1. The mean of a Bernoulli distribution is –

a) p b) np c) pq d) npq

2. The variance of a Bernoulli distribution is –

a) p b) np c) pq d) npq

3. The standard deviation of a Bernoulli distribution is –

a) p b) pq c) d) npq

4. In a Bernoulli distribution, if p = 0.2, the variance is –

a) 0.16 b) 0.2 c) 0.4 d) 0.5

5. In a Bernoulli distribution, if p = 0.2, the standard deviation is –

a) 0.16 b) 0.2 c) 0.4 d) 0.5

6. The relationship between mean and variance of a Bernoulli distribution is –

a) mean = variance b) mean > variance c) mean < variance d) none of these

7. The mean of a Binomial distribution is –

a) p b) np c) pq d) npq

8. The variance of a Binomial distribution is –

a) p b) np c) npq d)

9. The standard deviation of a Binomial distribution is –

a) p b) np c) npq d)

10. In a Binomial distribution, if n = 5 and p = 0.2, the mean is –

a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 1 d) 2.5

11. In a Binomial distribution, if n = 6 and p = , the variance is –

a) 0.5 b) 1.33 c) 1.8 d) 2.33

12. The relationship between mean and variance of a Binomial distribution is –

a) mean = variance b) mean > variance c) mean < variance d) none of these

13. The mean of a Poisson distribution is –

a) p b) np c) λ d)

14. The variance of a Poisson distribution is –

a) p b) np c) λ d)

15. The standard deviation of a Poisson distribution is –

a) p b) np c) λ d)

16. The relationship between mean and variance of a Poisson distribution is –

a) mean = variance b) mean > variance c) mean < variance d) none of these
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17. In a Hyper-geometric distribution, if a = 4, b = 6 and n = 3, the mean is –
a) 0.5 b) 0.7 c) 1.2 d) 1.8

18. The area under the normal curve is –

a) 1 b) 0.5 c) 0 d) -1

19. The relationship between variance and standard deviation of a standard normal distribution is –
a) Variance = S.D. b) Variance > S.D c) Variance < S.D. d) None of these

20. In a Normal distribution, if S.D. is 30, the quartile deviation is –

a) 10 b) 20 c) 30 d) 40

21. In a Normal distribution, if S.D. is 30, the mean deviation is –

a) 20 b) 24 c) 28 d) 30

22. If ‘X’ is a normal variate with mean ‘μ’ and S.D. ‘σ’, the value of P( X < μ ) is –
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

23. If ‘X’ is a normal variate with mean ‘μ’ and S.D. ‘σ’, the value of P( X > μ ) is –
a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

22. If ‘Z’ is a standard normal variate , the value of P( Z < 0 ) is –

a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

24. If ‘Z’ is a standard normal variate , the value of P( Z > 0 ) is –

a) 0 b) 0.25 c) 0.5 d) 1

25. The parameter of a Chi- square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) q d) n, p

26. The mean of a Chi-square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) 2n d) np

27. The variance of a Chi-square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) 2n d)

28. The standard deviation of a Chi-square distribution is –

a) n b) p c) 2n d)

29. If Z1, Z2 and Z3 are three independent standard normal variates, the distribution of + + is –
a) (1) b) (2) c) (3) d) (4)

30. For a Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f., the mean is –

a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20

31. For a Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f., the variance is –

a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20

32. In a Chi-square distribution, if variance is 10, the mean is –

a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20

33. For a Chi-squre distribution with 10 d.f., the mode is –

a) 0 b) 5 c) 8 d) 20

34. The parameter of a t-distribution is-

a) n b) p c) q d) n, p
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35. The mean of a t- distribution is –
a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 2

36. The median of a t- distribution is –

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 2

37. The mode of a t- distribution is –

a) 0 b) 0.5 c) 1 d) 2

38. If parameter of a t-distribution is 10, the mean is –

a) 0 b) 5 c) 10 d) 20

39. The variance of a t- distribution is-

a) b) c) d)

40. If parameter of a t-distribution is 6, the variance is –

a) 0 b) 0.66 c) 1 d) 1.5

QUESTION NUMBER: 6 (iii)

II Match the following. (1 mark)

(please note: Here answers are given directly for the sake of convenience)

In a Bernoulli distribution, if p =0.2 Variance = 0.16

In a Bernoulli distribution, if p =0.2 Standard deviation = 0.4
Bernoulli distribution Mean > variance
In a Binomial distribution, if n = 10 and p = 0.2 Mean = 1
Binomial distribution Mean > variance
In a Poisson distribution, if λ = 4 Mean =4
In a Poisson distribution, if λ = 4 Variance =4
In a Poisson distribution, if λ = 4 S.D. = 2
Poisson distribution Mean = variance
The area under the normal curve 1
Standard normal distribution Variance = standard deviation
The parameter of a Chi-square distribution n
The mean of a Chi-square distribution n
The variance of a Chi-square distribution 2n
Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f. Mean = 10
Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f. Variance = 20
In a Chi-square distribution, if variance = 10 Mean =5
Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f. Mode = 8
The parameter of a t- distribution n
The mean of a t- distribution 0
The median of a t- distribution 0
The mode of a t - distribution 0
If parameter of a t- distribution is 6 Variance = 1.5

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 QUESTION NUMBER: 8

III Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets. (1 mark)

[ 0, 1, n, p, np, pq, npq, λ, 2n, Poisson, standard normal, t-distribution, normal, 1.5, 5, 8, 20 ]

1. The mean of a Bernoulli distribution is p

2. The variance of a Bernoulli distribution is pq

3. The mean of a Binomial distribution is np

4. The variance of a Binomial distribution is npq

5. The mean of a Poisson distribution is λ

6. In Poisson distribution, mean and variance are equal.

7. The area under the normal curve is 1.

8. In normal distribution, mean = median = mode.

9. In Standard Normal distribution, variance and standard deviation are equal.

10. The mean of a Chi-square distribution is n

11. The variance of a Chi-square distribution is 2n

12. For a Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f., the variance is 20

13. In a Chi-square distribution, if variance is 10, the mean is 5

14. For a Chi-square distribution with 10 d.f., the mode is 8

15. The mean of a t- distribution is 0.

16. If parameter of a t-distribution is 6, the variance is 1.5

17. In t-distribution, mean = median = mode = 0

QUESTION NUMBER: 15

IV Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each. ( 1 mark)

1. Define a Bernoulli variate.

If ‘X’ is a discrete random variable with probability mass function
then, ‘X’ is a Bernoulli variate.

2. If p = for a Bernoulli distribution, write down the p.m.f.

p(x) = , x : 0,1

3. Write down the relationship between mean and variance of a Bernoulli distribution.
Mean > Variance.

4. What are the values that a Bernoulli variate can take? 0,1
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5. If p =0.2 for a Bernoulli distribution, find variance.
V(x) = pq = 0.2 x 0.8 = 0.16.

6. Write the mean of a Bernoulli distribution.

Mean = p

7. Write the variance of a Bernoulli distribution.

V(X) = pq

8. Write the relation between mean and variance of Binomial distribution.

Mean > Variance

9. In which distribution mean and variance are equal?

Poisson distribution.

10. Under what condition Poisson distribution tends to Normal distribution?

When λ is large (λ → ∞)

11. What is the probability that a normal variate takes a value greater than its mean?
0.5

12. What is the probability that a normal variate takes a value less than its mean.
0.5

13. Write the value of β1 for a normal distribution.

β1 = 0

14. Write the probability function of normal distribution with mean = 5 and standard deviation = 3.
, -∞ < X < ∞

15. Name the distribution for which standard deviation and variance are equal.
Standard Normal distribution.

16. Write the range of Chi-square distribution.

0≤ ≤

17. Find the mean of a χ2- distribution with 6 degrees of freedom.

Mean = n = 6

18. If variance of Chi-square variate is 20, what is its mean?

Mean = 10

19. For a chi-square variate with 10 d.f., find the variance.

Variance = 20

20. Write the range of t- distribution.

- ≤ t≤

21. What is the mean of t-distribution?

0

22. If n=10 for t-distribution, find its variance.

Variance = = = 1.25

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 QUESTION NUMBER: 20

SECTION – B
Short answer type questions (2 marks)

1. Write down the p.m.f. of Bernoulli distribution with parameter p = 0.4.

p(x) = (0.4)x (0.6)1-x x: 0,1

2. Write down the Bernoulli distribution with parameter p=0.4.

X 0 1
p(x) 0.6 0.4

3. Write the range and parameter of a Bernoulli distribution.

Range : 0,1. Parameter = p.

4. If q = 0.4 for a Bernoulli distribution, find mean and variance of the distribution.
Mean = p = 0.6
Variance = pq = 0.6 x 0.4 = 0.24

5. A Bernoulli variate has parameter 0.7. Find its variance.

V(X) = pq = 0.7 x 0.3 = 0.21

6. Write down the range and mean of a Hyper geometric distribution whose parameters are
a = 4, b = 6 and n = 5.
Range : x = 0,1,2,3,4 [ Range : x = 0,1,.......min(a,n)]
Mean = = =2

7. For a hyper-geometric distribution the parameters are a=7, b=5 and n=8. Find the variance.
Variance, V(x) = = = = = 0.7070

8. Under what conditions does the Hyper-geometric distribution tends to Binomial distribution?
(a+b) → and =p

9. If X is a normal variate with mean 10 and variance 4, what are the distributions of

and ?
Standard Normal distribution and χ2 (1)

10. If Z1 and Z2 are two independent S.N.V.s , name the distribution of Z12 + Z22 and find its
mean.
χ 2 (2) [ Chi square distribution with 2 d.f.] Mean = n =2

11. Mention two features of a chi-square distribution.

Parameter is ‘ n’ range: 0 ≤ ≤ Mean = n Variance = 2n (any two)

12. For a chi-square variate χ2 with 12 degrees of freedom P[0 < χ2 < 11.34] = 0.5.
Find median and mode.
Median = 11.34 Mode = n – 2 = 12 – 2 = 10.

13. For a chi-square variate with 9 degrees of freedom, obtain mean and the mode of the distribution.
Mean = n = 9
Mode = n-2 = 9-2 = 7

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14. Mention two features of a student’s t-distribution.
Mean = Median = Mode = 0 Range: - ≤ t ≤ β1 = 0 and β2 > 3 (any two)

15. If n = 4 for a t-distribution, find its median and variance.

Median = 0 Variance = = =2

16. Write the values of β1 and β2 in a t-distribution.

β1 = 0 and β2 > 3

17. If the parameter of ‘ t’ distribution is 8, then find the standard deviation.

S.D. = = = 1.1547

UNIT – VI STATISTICAL INFERENCE

SECTION – A

QUESTION NUMBER: 4
I Choose the correct answer from the choices given. (1 mark)

1. A statistical constant of the population is called:

a) a parameter b) a statistic c) standard error d) none of these

2. A function of the sample values is called:

a) a parameter b) a statistic c) standard error d) none of these

3. Standard error is used to –

a) decide the efficiency and consistency of the statistic as an estimator
b) obtain the confidence intervals of an estimate
c) standardize the distribution of test statistic in testing the hypothesis
d) all the above

4. The standard error of the sample mean is –

a) b) c) d)

5. If σ = 3 and n = 36, the S.E.( ) is –

a) 0.5 b) 3 c) 6 d) 12

6. The standard error of sample proportion is-

a) b) c) d)

7. If P = 0.5 and n = 100, the S.E.(p) is –

a) 0.5 b) 0.05 c) 0.005 d) 0.0005

8. The best estimator of the population mean is-

a) μ b) c) σ d) s

9. The error that occurs by rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is called:
a) size of the test b) power of a test c) type – I error d) type – II error

10. The error that occurs by accepting the null hypothesis when it is actually not true is called:
a) size of the test b) power of a test c) type – I error d) type – II error

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11. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is true is called:
a) size of the test b) power of a test c) type – I error d) type – II error

12. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is not true is called:
a) size of a test b) power of a test c) type – I error d) type – II error

13. The degrees of freedom while testing independence of attributes in a 2x2 contingency table is –
a) 1 b) 2 c)3 d) 4

QUESTION NUMBER: 6 (iv)

II Match the following. (1 mark)

(Please note: Here answers are given directly for the sake of convenience)

The best estimator of the population mean

S. E.( )
If σ = 3 and n = 36 S. E.( ) = 0.5
If P = 0.5 and n = 100 S.E.(p) = 0.05
Estimation and testing of hypothesis Branches of statistical inference
The likely value of the unknown parameter Estimate
Single value proposed as an estimate Point estimation
H1: μ < 5 H0: μ = 5
H1: μ > 5 H0: μ = 5
H1: μ 5 H0: μ = 5
Power of a test 1–β
P(Reject H0 when it is true) Size of the test
P(Reject H0 when it is not true) Power of a test

QUESTION NUMBER: 9

III Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets. (1 mark)

[ estimation, interval estimation, statistic, test statistic, an estimator, an upper, point estimation,
less than 5, parameter space, parameter, , confidence limits, size of the test, type – I error,
power of a test, critical region, type – II error, acceptance region, null distribution ]

1. A statistical constant of the population is called a parameter.

2. A function of the sample values is called a statistic.

3. The set of all the admissible values of the parameters is called parameter space.

4. The standard deviation of the sampling distribution of a statistic is called its standard error .

5. Method of obtaining the most likely vale of the population parameter is called estimation.

6. Any statistic which is used to estimate an unknown parameter is called an estimator.

7. If a single value is proposed as an estimate of the unknown parameter, it is point estimation.

8. If an interval is proposed as an estimate of the unknown parameter, it is interval estimation.

9. The boundary values of confidence interval are confidence limits.

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10. The best estimator of the population mean is .

11. The error that occurs by rejecting the null hypothesis when it is actually true is called type – I error .

12. The error that occurs by accepting the null hypothesis when it is actually not true is called type – II error.

13. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is true is called size of the test.

14. The probability of rejecting the null hypothesis, when it is not true is called power of a test.

15. Critical region is the set of those values of test statistic, which leads to the rejection of the null hypothesis.

16. Acceptance region is the set of those values of test statistic, which leads to the acceptance of the null
hypothesis.

17. The statistical distribution of the test statistic under the null hypothesis is called null distribution.

18. A statistic based on whose distribution the testing of hypothesis is conducted is called test statistic.

19. Chi-square test for goodness of fit is always an upper tailed test.

20. In chi-square test for goodness of fit, if any Ei is less than 5, it should be pooled with the adjacent frequency.

SECTION – B

QUESTION NUMBER: 21, 22

Short answer type questions (2 marks)

1. Define sample space and parameter space.

The set of all sample of same size that can be drawn from population is called sample space.
The set of all admissible values of the parameters is called parameter space.

2. Write down two utilities (uses) of standard error.

To obtain the confidence interval of an estimate.
To decide the efficiency and consistency of the statistic as an estimator.

3. A random sample of size 36 is drawn from a population whose standard deviation is 4. Compute
standard error of the sample mean.
S.E.( ) = = = 0.67

4. Sizes of two samples are respectively 50 & 100. Population standard deviations are respectively
20 and 10. Compute S.E.( 1 - 2).
σ σ
S.E.( 1 - 2) = = = = =3

5. If p = 0.3 and n = 81, then find S.E. (p).

S.E.(p) = = 0.0509

6. If n1 = 40, n2 = 60, p1 = 0.02 and p2 = 0.01, find S.E. (p1 – p2).

S.E.(p1-p2) = = = = 0.02559

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7. What do you mean by estimator and estimate?
Any statistic which is used to estimate an unknown parameter is called an estimator.
An estimate is the likely value of the unknown parameter.

8. Define point estimation and interval estimation.

If a single value is proposed as an estimate of the unknown parameter, then it is point estimation.
If an interval is proposed as an estimate of the unknown parameter, then it is interval estimation.

9. Define statistical hypothesis. Give an example.

A statistical hypothesis is a statement regarding the parameters of the population. Eg: H0 : μ = 50.

10. Define ‘null hypothesis’ and ‘alternative hypothesis’.

Null hypothesis is the hypothesis which is being tested for possible rejection, under the assumption that
it is true.
Alternative hypothesis is the hypothesis which is accepted when null hypothesis is rejected.

11. Define ‘Type- I error’ and ‘ Type-II error’.

Rejecting null hypothesis when it is actually true is called type – I error.
Accepting null hypothesis when it is actually not true is called type – II error.

12. Define size of the test and power of a test.

The probability of rejecting H0, when it is true is called size of the test. [ P(type – I error)]
The probability of rejecting H0, when it is not true is called power of a test. [ 1– P(type –II error)]

13. What do you mean by a) Critical region b) Power of a test ?

Critical region is the set of those values of the test statistic, which leads to the rejection of the null
hypothesis.
The probability of rejecting H0, when it is not true is called power of a test.

14. Write two applications of t-test.

To test the significance of the mean of a population using small sample.
To test the difference between the means of the two populations using paired observations.

15. In a paired t-test if n = 5, = 2.4 and Sd = 1.2 ,what would be the value of test statistic?
tcal = = = 4

16. Write two applications of χ2 test.

To test whether population has a given variance.
To test independence of attributes in a 2x2 contingency table.

21. If n = 10, s2 = 20 and σ2 = 25, find chi-square test statistic.

χ2cal = = =8

17. Mention two conditions for applicability of Chi-square test of independence of attributes.
i) The total frequency ‘N’ should be large.
ii) The observations should be random (Independent).

18. Mention two conditions for applicability of chi-square test of goodness of fit.
The total frequency ‘N’ should be reasonably large.
The theoretical frequencies Ei should be 5 or more. If any Ei is less than 5, it should be pooled with the
adjacent frequency.

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 UNIT – VII STATISTICAL QUALITY CONTROL
SECTION – A

QUESTION NUMBER: 10

III Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets. (1 mark)

[ attribute, assignable cause, R- chart, chance cause, product control, defect, process control, defective,
variable, Control chart, np-chart, c-chart ]

1. Statistical quality control helps in detecting assignable cause type of variation.

2. The process of inspection of manufactured lot for acceptability is called product control.

3. A defect is a quality characteristic which does not conform to specifications.

4. An item having one or more defects is a defective item.

5. Controlling the quality of goods during the manufacturing process itself is called process control.

6. A measurable quality characteristic which varies from unit to unit is variable.

7. A qualitative characteristic which cannot be measured and can only be identified by its presence or absence is
an attribute.

8. A small amount of variation for which no specific cause can be attributed is termed as chance cause of
variation.

9. Control chart is a graphical device which is used to study and verify whether the production process is in
statistical control or not.

10. In statistical quality control, – chart and R- chart are used for the control of variables.

11. In statistical quality control, np-chart is used for number of defectives.

12. In statistical quality control, c-chart is used for number of defects.

SECTION – B

QUESTION NUMBER: 23

Short answer type questions (2 marks)

1. What do you mean by process control and product control in statistical quality control?
Controlling the quality of the goods during the manufacturing process is called process control.
The process of inspection of manufactured lot for acceptability is called product control (acceptance
sampling)
2. Name the control charts for variables.
- chart and R-chart

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3. Compute the lower and upper control limits for - chart when = 40, σ’ = 6 and A = 1.342.
LCL = - A σ’ = 40 - (1.342) 6 = 40 - 8.052 = 31.948
UCL = + A σ’ = 40 + (1.342) 6 = 40 + 8.052 = 48.052

4. If = 33, = 2 and n = 4 , find the upper control limit for - chart.

UCL = + A2 = 33 + (0.729) 2 = 33 + 1.458 = 34.458

5. If λ’ = 4, determine the upper control limit for the number of defects.

UCL = λ’ + 3 = 4 + 3 = 10

6. Write two methods of acceptance sampling.

Single sampling plan (SSP) and Double sampling plan (DSP).

7. Mention any two advantages of ‘Acceptance sampling plan’.

It is used when the items are destructive in nature.
It is less expensive.
8. Write two disadvantages of acceptance sampling.
There is a risk of accepting a bad lot and rejecting a good lot.
Timely identification of the production of defectives cannot be achieved.

UNIT – VIII OPERATIONS RESEARCH

SECTION – A

QUESTION NUMBER: 5

I Choose the correct answer from the choices given. (1 mark)

1. Graphical solution to the linear programming problem lies in the –

a) I quadrant b) II quadrant c) III quadrant d) IV quadrant

2. Graphical solution to L.P.P. lies in the first quadrant because, -

a) x ≥ 0, y ≥ 0 b) x ≤ 0, y ≤ 0 c) x ≥ 0, y ≤ 0 d) x ≤ 0, y ≥ 0

3. The general formulation of L.P.P. contains:

a) The objective function b) The set of constraints c) non-negativity restrictions d) all of these

4. Transportation problem (T.P.) said to be balanced if and only if –

a) ai = bj b) ai < bj c) ai > bj d) Σai = Σbj

5. In a T.P., the solution is said to be degenerate, when –

a) the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. > m+n–1
b) the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. < m+n–1
c) the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. = m+n–1
d) None of these

6. In a T.P., the solution is said to be non-degenerate, when –

a) the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. > m+n–1
b) the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. < m+n–1
c) the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. = m+n–1
d) None of these
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7. A game is said to be fair, if –
a) v = 0 b) v 0 c) v = 1 d) v = 2

8. The maximum of row minimums is known as –

a) minimax b) maximin c) saddle point d) none of these

9. The minimum of column maximums is known as –

a) minimax b) maximin c) saddle point d) none of these

10. The problem of deciding the age at which old equipments are replaced by new ones is called –
a) Linear programming problem b) Transportation problem c) Replacement problem d) none of these

11. In replacement theory, the depreciation cost of the item is-

a) P – Sn b) Sn – P c) P + Sn d) ΣCi

12. The cost associated with the maintenance of an inventory until they are sold or used is called:
a) capital coat b) setup cost c) shortage cost d) holding cost.

13. The time gap between the placing of order and arrival of goods at inventory is called:
a) demand b) time horizon c) lead time d) stock replenishment

14. The time period over which the inventory control is planned is called:
a) demand b) time horizon c) lead time d) stock replenishment

15. In model – I of inventory theory –

a) Shortages are allowed b) shortages are not allowed c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) none of these

16. In model – II of inventory theory –

a) Shortages are allowed b) shortages are not allowed c) both ‘a’ and ‘b’ d) none of these

QUESTION NUMBER: 6 (v)

II Match the following. (1 mark)

(Please note: Here answers are given directly for the sake of convenience)

Graphical solution to L.P.P. First quadrant

Σai = Σbj Balanced T.P.
Σai Σbj Unbalanced T.P.
Value of the game, v = 0 Fair game
Maximin Maximum of row minimums
Minimax Minimum of column maximums
Depreciation cost P – Sn
Physical stock of goods Inventory
Holding cost C1
Shortage cost C2
Setup cost C3
Profit due to increasing market price Advantage of inventory
Model – I Shortages are not allowed
Model – II Shortages are allowed

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 QUESTION NUMBER: 11

III Fill in the blanks by choosing the appropriate word from those given in the brackets. (1 mark)

[ Transportation, basic, Σai = Σbj, maximin, Game, strategy, first quadrant, zero, less than,
minimax, lead time, setup, Feasible region, equal to, Pay-off matrix, saddle point, holding cost,
time horizon, value ]

1. Graphical solution to L.P.P. lies in the first quadrant.

2. Feasible region is the area which satisfies all the constraints and also non-negativity restrictions.

3. Transportation problem helps in shipment of quantities from various sources to different destinations at a
minimum cost.

4. A Transportation problem is balanced if and only if Σai = Σbj.

5. In a T.P., (m+n–1) variables are known as basic variables.

6. When the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. is less than (m+n–1), the solution is said to be
degenerate.

7. When the number of positive allocations in any B.F.S. is equal to (m+n–1), the solution is said to be
non-degenerate.

8. Game theory helps in deciding the best strategy in conflicting situations.

9. The strategy of a player is the pre-determined rule by which a player determines his course of action.

10. A game is said to be fair if the value of the game is zero.

11. Pay-off matrix is the table showing how payments are to be made at the end of each game.

12. The maximum of the row minimums is known as maximin.

13. the minimum of the column maximums are known as minimax.

14. The position of the pay-off matrix where maximin and minimax coincide is the saddle point.

15. The pay off at the position of the saddle point is called value of a game.

16. The cost associated with the maintenance of an inventory until they are sold or used is called holding cost.

17. The time gap between the placing of order and arrival of goods at inventory is the lead time.

18. The time period over which the inventory control is planned is called the time horizon.

19. Inventory reduces the setup cost.

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 QUESTION NUMBER: 16

IV Answer the following questions in one word or one sentence each. ( 1 mark)

1. When is a Transportation Problem (TP) balanced?

A T.P. is said to be balanced if and only if Σai = Σbj

2. What is a two-person zero sum game?

A game with two players in which the gain of one player is the loss of the other player is called two-
person zero sum game.

3. What is a ‘maximin’ in a game theory?

The maximum of the row minimums is called maximin.

4. What is a ‘minimax’ in a game theory?

The minimum of column maximums is called minimax.

5. Mention a property of a competitive game.

Number of players is finite or
Each player has finite number of courses of action.

6. What is ‘carrying cost’ in an inventory?

The cost associated with the maintaining of an inventory until they are sold or used is called carrying
cost. (Holding cost / storage cost / maintenance cost)

7. What is meant by inventory?

An inventory is a physical stock of goods kept for future use.

8. Write down the formula for Re-order time in an inventory problem.

t0 =

9. Write one disadvantage of inventory?

Ware house rent or Interest on invested capital.

10. Mention one advantage of inventory.

Fast shipment of the goods to the customers or Profit due to increasing market price.

SECTION – B

QUESTION NUMBER: 24
Short answer type questions (2 marks)

1. From the following T.P. test whether the solution is non-degenerate?

Here No. of positive allocations = 4

m + n -1 = 3 +3 – 1 = 5
[Link] positive allocations is less than m+n-1.
Solution is degenerate.

2. Define pure and mixed strategy in a game.

Pure strategy : Decision of a player to use only one particular course of action irrespective of the opponent’s
course of action.
Mixed strategy : Decision of a player to use all or some courses of action in some fixed proportion.

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3. Mention two properties of a competitive game.
(i) Number of players is finite (ii) Each player has finite number of courses of action.

4. Using Maximin-Minimax principle, find the value of the following game.

B1 B2
A1 7 3
A2 2 2

B1 B2
A1 7 3

A2 2 2 Value of the game , v = 3

5. Does the game have saddle point?

B1 B2
A1 5 3
A2 -2 4
B1 B2
A1 5 3 Maximin = 3 Minimax = 4
A2 -2 4 The game does not have saddle point.

6. State the conditions under which EOQ without shortages is applied.

1. Uniform demand 2. Instantaneous production 3. Shortages are allowed 4. Lead time is zero.

7. Write any two advantages of inventory.

Fast shipment of goods to customers.
Profit due to increasing market price.

8. Give one example each for controlled variable and uncontrolled variable in inventory problem.
Controlled variable – The quantity of goods acquired , the frequency of replenishment.
Uncontrolled variable – Demand, Lead time.

9. Given R = 3600 units/ year, C3 = Rs.50 and C1 = Rs. 4/unit/year, find Q0.
Q0 = = = 300 units.

10. Given C3 = Rs 50 /cycle, C1 = Rs 3/ item/ year and R = 5000 units/year. Calculate minimum average
inventory cost.
C(Q0) = = = Rs 1224.74

11. Given Q0 = 363, C1 = 10 and C2 = 12, find maximum inventory level.

S0 = = = 198

***********************

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