ENGLISH

Time: 3 HOURS M.M: 80

General Instructions:

i) Attempt all the questions.

ii) All the answers must be correctly numbered as given in the question paper and
written in the answer sheet.

SECTION A (READING)

Q.1Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:

1. Held every year on 21 May, UNESCO leads the celebration of World Day for Cultural
Diversity for Dialogue and Development highlighting not only the richness of the world's
cultures, but also the essential role of intercultural dialogue for achieving peace and
sustainable development.
2. A recent international emergency has proved the intrinsic value of the cultural and creative
sector at generating social cohesion, educational resource or personal well-being in times
of crisis. It has also underscored the sector's potential to generate economic growth,
something which is too often underestimated. With the adoption in September 2015 of the
2030 Agenda for Sustainable Development by the United Nations, and the resolution on
Culture and Sustainable Development adopted by the UN General Assembly in December
2015, the message of the World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue and Development is
more important than ever. The 17 Sustainable Development Goals (SDGs) can best be
achieved by drawing upon the creative potential of the world's diverse cultures and engaging
in continuous dialogue to ensure that all members of society benefit from sustainable
development.
3. Bridging the gap between cultures is urgent and necessary for peace, stability and
development. Cultural diversity is a driving force of development, not only with respect to
economic growth, but also as a means of leading a more fulfilling intellectual, emotional,
moral and spiritual life. This is captured in the culture conventions, which provide a solid
basis for the promotion of cultural diversity. Cultural diversity is thus an asset that is
indispensable for poverty reduction and the achievement of sustainable development. At
the same time, acceptance and recognition of cultural diversity in particular through
innovative use of media and Information and Communications Technologies (ICTs) are
conducive to dialogue among civilizations and cultures, respect and mutual understanding.

i) Based on the reading and understanding of the above passage, list 2 points to describe the
purpose of UNESCO leading the celebration of World Day for Cultural Diversity for Dialogue
and Development.

ii) Examine in about 40 words how Sustainable Development Goals can be achieved.
 iii) Discuss "Cultural diversity is an asset."
iv) Complete the sentence appropriately:
a) The Second Committee of UN General Assembly in 2015 adopted
________________
b) is urgent and necessary for peace, stability and development.
v) Pick up a word from the passage that means “deep-rooted”.(from Para 2)

vi) The meaning of the word “important” given in the third paragraph is:
i) achievement ii) indispensable iii) captured
iv) intellectual

Q.2 Read the passage given below and answer the questions that follow:

1. If you’re like most kids, you may love snow. Not only can it get you out of school, but it’s
also fun to play with. Who doesn’t love to sled and build snowmen? Snow can also be
dangerous, too. You may have heard your parents talk about how difficult it can be to
drive in snow. Car accidents aren’t the only dangers created by snow. If you’re ever
skiing in the mountains, you’ll want to be aware of avalanches. An avalanche is a
sudden flow of snow down a slope, such as a mountain. The amount of snow in an
avalanche will vary based on many things, but it can be such a huge pile that it can bury
the bottom of a slope in dozens of feet of snow.
2. Avalanches can be caused by many things. Some of them are natural. For example,
new snow or rain can cause built up snow to loosen and fall down the side of a
mountain. Earthquakes and the movement of animals have also been known to cause
avalanches. Artificial triggers can also cause avalanches. For example, snowmobiles,
skiers, gunshots and explosives have all been known to cause avalanches. Avalanches
usually occur during the winter and spring, when snowfall is greatest. As they are
dangerous to any living beings in their path, avalanches have destroyed forests, roads,
railroads and even entire towns.
3. Warning signs exist that allow experts to predict - and often prevent - avalanches from
occurring. When over a foot of fresh snow falls, experts know to be on the lookout for
avalanches. Explosives can be used in places with massive snow build-ups to trigger
smaller avalanches that don’t pose a danger to persons or property. When deadly
avalanches do occur, the moving snow can quickly reach over 80 miles per hour. Skiers
caught in such avalanches can be buried under dozens of feet of snow. While it’s
possible to dig out of such avalanches, not all are able to escape.
4. If you get tossed about by an avalanche and find yourself buried under many feet of
snow, you might not have a true sense of which way is up and which way is down.
Some avalanche victims have tried to dig their way out, only to find that they were
upside down and digging themselves farther under the snow rather than to the `top!
Experts suggest that people caught in an avalanche try to “swim” to the top of the
moving snow to stay close to the surface. Once the avalanche stops, do your best to dig
around you to create a space for air, so you can breathe easier. Then, do your best to
 figure out which way is up and dig in that direction to reach the surface and signal
rescuers.
i) What is an avalanche?
ii) Comment on warning signs exist which allow experts to predict avalanches in two
sentences.
iii) Which are the natural causes of an avalanche?
iv) What should one do when caught in an avalanche?.
v) Complete the sentences :
a) ______________ and the movement of animals have also been known to cause
avalanches.
b) _________________ can be used in places with massive snow build-ups to trigger
smaller avalanches.

SECTION B (WRITING & GRAMMAR)

Q.3 You recently visited the Children’s Park, a favourite place for all children, in your city. Write a
descriptive paragraph about 100-120 words. 5
Q.4 Write a story in about 100-20 words based on the given clue. .
A poor lady at a traffic red light had a doctor’s prescription. She wanted ……………..

Q.5 Read the passage given below and fill in the blanks by choosing the most appropriate word
from the given options:
Democracy also means (a)_____ all citizens are free (b)______express their opinion (c) ____
public. The government on the other hand (d) ______expected to consider the views of the
people.
(a) i) that ii) of iii) to iv) from
(b) i) a ii) an iii) to iv) one
(c) i) were ii) was iii) are iv) in
(d) i) a lot of ii) any iii) less iv) is

Q.6 Rearrange the following words or phrases into meaningful sentences:

(a) very faithful/science/a/is/mankind/servant/of

(b) producing goods/helps in/large/at/scale/it/a

(c) the/ of/science/nature/study/is

Q.7 The following passage has not been edited. There is an error in each line. Write the incorrect
word and the correction in the space provided.
 Incorrect Correct

Tsunami is a series in waves generated in (a) …….. ……..

a body from water through an impulsive disturbance (b) …….. ……..

causing damage to property or loss of life. (c) …….. ……..

SECTION C (LITERATURE)

Q.8 Read the given extract and answer the questions that follow:

Kathmandu is vivid, mercenary, religious, with small shrines to flower-adorned deities along
the narrowest and busiest streets; with fruit sellers, hawkers of postcards; shops selling
western cosmetics, film rolls and chocolate; or copper utensils and Nepalese antiques. Film
songs blare out from the radios, car horns sound, bicycle bells ring, stray cows low
questioningly at motorcycles, vendors shout their wares.
a) Name the chapter and the author.
b) Describe Kathmandu.

c) Name the two temples the author visited in Kathmandu.

Q.9 Read the given stanza and answer the questions that follow:
A slumber did my spirit seal-
I had no human fears.
She seemed a thing that could not feel
The touch of earthly ears.
No motion has she now, no force-
She neither hears nor sees,
Rolled around in earth’s diurnal course
With rocks and stones and trees.

a) Name the poem and the poet. 2

b) The word ‘slumber’ means ______. 1
c) ‘Earth’s diurnal’ course means _______. 1
d) Why could ‘she’ not hear anything?

Q.10 Answer the following questions in 40-50 words. (Any 3) (3 x 3)

a) Why did Margie hate school?

b) Why was Einstein’s mother against his marriage with Mileva?

c) Why does the Intruder break into Gerrard’s house?

 d) What is the central idea of the poem ‘Rain on the Roof’?

Q.11 Answer the following questions in 40-50 words. (Any 3) (3 x 3)

a) Who helped the lost child and how?

b) Toto was a mischievous pet. Discuss.

c) Why did Mahendra decide to leave the haunted place?

d) What was the mystery the guru shared with the king?

Q.12 The best way to deal with a crisis is not to lose your calm. Discuss this statement with
reference to the behaviour of Gerrard in the play?

Q.13 How was Sergei and Olga were responsible to bring out positive change in the begger?

HINDI

कालाांश – 3 घांटे अधिकतम अांक – 80

सामान्य निर्दे श :-

क) सभी प्रश्न अधिवार्य हैं

ख) सभी प्रश्ननां के अांक उिके सामिे धिए गए हैं।

खंड 'अ'
(अपनित गद्ांश)

प्रश्न1. निम्ननिखखत गद्ांश को ध्यािपूर्वक पढ़कर इसके आधार पर सर्ावनधक उपयुक्त उत्तर
र्ािे नर्कल्प चुिकर निखखए। (7)

धविम्रता चरित्र का सि् गुण है। सुसांस्कृत हनिे का परिचर्-पत्र। र्ह चुांबक की तिह अपिे सांपकय में
आिे वाले कन बिबस अपिी ओि खीांच लेता है। धविम्र व्यक्ति की बनली मृिुल, आचिण धशष्ट तथा
भाविाएँ धिजता से ओत-प्रनत हनती हैं। िीिता धविम्रता िहीां हनती। िीि र्ाचक हनता है , जबधक धविम्र
िाता। वह प्याि बाँटता है, जुडाव पैिा किता है औि मेल-धमलाप की पृष्ठभूधम तैर्ाि किता है। उिके
मि में धवपिीत धवचाि वालनां के साथ भी सामांजस्य बैठािे की िािणा बिी िहती है।

आगांतुक का प्रसन्नतापूवयक स्वागत कििा, अपिे से बडनां द्वािा आसि ग्रहण कििे पि ही आसि
ग्रहण कििा ऐसी प्राथधमक आितें हैं जन धविीत व्यक्ति की पहचाि किाती हैं। धजसके प्रधत हम
धविम्र हैं , वह हमािी उपेक्षा कि िहा है अथवा हमािी धविम्रता कन हमािी कमजनिी समझ िहा है
तन अपिे स्वाधभमाि की िक्षा किते हुए उसे समझािा चाधहए। पि इस व्यवहाि में िां भ िहीां हनिा
चाधहए। र्धि हम िू सिे से धविम्र व्यवहाि की अपेक्षा किते हैं तन वे हम से भी वैसा ही अपेक्षा किें गे।
िधिर्नां के पािी से कभी समुद्र में बाढ़ िहीां आती। िधिर्ाँ अपिे पािी के साथ बहुत सािी चीजें
बहाकि ले आती हैं पि समुद्र अपिी सीमा में िह कि भी उि सबकन अपिे में समा लेता है। र्ह
सागि का अपिा धविम्र अिुशासि ही तन है।

(1) नर्िम्र व्यखक्त के मि में नर्परीत नर्चार र्ािों के निए कैसी धारणा बिी रहती है ? (1)

(क) असामांजस्य िा बैठािे की िािणा

(ख) सामांजस्य बैठािे की िािणा
(ग) सामांजस्य िा बैठािे की िािणा
(घ) असामांजस्य बैठािे की िािणा

(2) नर्िम्रता नकसका पररचय-पत्र है ? (1)

(क) सांस्कृत ि हनिे का

(ख) सांस्कृत हनिे का
(ग) सुसांस्कृत हनिे का
(घ) असांस्कृत हनिे का

(3) निम्ननिखखत अनिकथि (A) तथा कारण (R) को ध्यािपूर्वक पनढ़ए। उसके बार्द नर्दए
नर्कल्पों में से सही नर्कल्प चुिकर निखखए। (1)

अधभकथि (A) : धविम्रता चरित्र का सि् गुण है।

कािण (R): धविम्रता िीिता िहीां हनती।

(क) अधभकथि (A) सही है, पि कािण (R) सही िहीां है।

(ख) अधभकथि (A) सही है , तथा कािण (R) भी सही है।

(ग) अधभकथि (A) सही है, लेधकि कािण (R) अधभकथि (A) की सही व्याख्या िहीां किता है।

(घ) अधभकथि (A) सही है तथा कािण (R) सही व्याख्या किता है।

(4) नर्िम्र व्यखक्त का क्या कायव होता है ? (2)

(5) जब कोई हमारी नर्िम्रता को हमारी कमजोरी समझिे िगे तो हमें क्या करिा चानहए ?
(2)
प्रश्न 2. निम्ननिखखत गद्ांश को ध्यािपूर्वक पढ़कर इसके आधार पर सर्ावनधक उपयुक्त
उत्तर र्ािे नर्कल्प चुिकर निखखए। (7)

बडे -बडे कल-कािखािे बेशुमाि िुआँ उगलते हैं। उिके कािण वार्ु प्रिू षण बढ़ गर्ा है। कािखािनां
से लगाताि कचिे धिकल िहे हैं जन प्रार्ः जलाशर्नां में प्रवाधहत कि धिए जाते हैं। कहीां-कहीां खुली
भूधम में भी कचिे डाले जाते हैं। इि कचिनां में बहुत तिह के जहिीले िसार्ि हनते हैं जन हवा, पािी
औि भूधम कन िू धषत किते हैं। हमािे पूवयज वार्ुमांडल की शुद्धता कन बिाए िखिे के धलए हवि किते
थे औि पेडनां कन काटिे की अपेक्षा लगािे पि जनि िे ते थे। वेिनां में सूर्य, पवि औि वरुण आधि की
स्तुधत के धलए सुांिि मांत्र हैं औि प्रकृधत की सुांििता का मिनिम वणयि है धकन्तु आिुधिक मािव िे
प्रिू षण की मात्रा इतिी बढ़ा िी है धक लगता है धक एक धिि र्ह सुांिि सलनिी ििती, धजसके बािे में
वैज्ञाधिक मािते िहे हैं धक असांख्य तािा-मांडलनां में केवल हमािी पृथ्वी पि ही जीवि है , वह भी बढ़ते
हुए प्रिू षण के कािण, आगामी कुछ ही वषों में जीवि-िधहत हन सकती है।

(1) इस गद्ांश का उपयुक्त शीर्वक है - (1)

(क) कल-कािखािनां से हाधि (ख) सुांिि-सलनिी ििती

(ग) पर्ायविण प्रिू षण (घ) आिुधिक मािव

(2) र्ायु प्रर्दूर्ण क्यों बढ़ रहा है ? (1)

(क) कल-कािखािनां से धिकलिे वाले बेशुमाि िुएँ के कािण।

(ख) पेड-पौिनां के कािण।

(ग) जिसांख्या-धवस्फनट के कािण।

(घ) िधिर्नां के कािण।

(3) निम्ननिखखत कथिों पर नर्चार कीनजए- (1)

(1) बडे -बडे कािखािे बेशुमाि िुआँ उगलते हैं।

(II) कचिनां में बहुत सािे जहिीले िसार्ि हनते हैं।

(III) वेिनां में भी प्रिू षण के बािे में कुछ कहा गर्ा है।

(IV) हवि से वार्ुमांडल शुद्ध हनता है।

उपयुवक्त कथिों में से कौि-सा कौि-से कथि सही है /हैं ?

(क) केवल (1) (ख) केवल (II)

(ग) केवल (III) (घ) (1), (II) औि (IV)

(4) र्ेर्दों में प्रकृनत की सुंर्दरता का मिोरम र्णवि क्यों नकया गया है ? (2)

(5) कारखािों से निकििे र्ािे जहरीिे रसायिों को जिाशयों में प्रर्ानहत करिे का क्या
पररणाम हुआ ? (2)

खंड - ख
(व्यार्हाररक व्याकरण)

प्रश्न 3. निम्ननिखखत में से नकन्ी ं र्दो के उत्तर र्दीनजए। (1×2=2)

(1) शब्द धकिसे बिता है ?

(2) पि के धकतिे प्रकाि हनते हैं ?
(3) वाक्य में प्रर्ुि शब्द क्या कहलाता है ?

प्रश्न 4. निम्ननिखखत में से नकन्ी ं र्दो के उत्तर र्दीनजए। (1×2=2)

(1) धकस शब्द में अिुस्वाि सही लगा है ?

(क) सांसाि (ख) ससाि

(ग) ससािां (घ) सांसि

(2) धकस शब्द में अिुिाधसक का सही प्रर्नग है ?

(क) सांर्नग (ख) भाषाएँ

(ग) कगिाँ (घ) धतिां गा

(3) अिुस्वाि कन परिभाधषत किें ।

प्रश्न 5. निम्ननिखखत में से नकन्ी ं चार प्रश्नों के उत्तर र्दीनजए। (1×4=4)

(1) धकस शब्द में 'प्र' उपसगय का प्रर्नग िहीां है ?

(क) प्रकाि (ख) प्रमुख

(ग) प्रेम (घ) प्रचाि

(2) 'लुहारिि' में धकस प्रत्यर् का प्रर्नग है ?

(क) रिि (ख) इि

(ग) लु (घ) हा

(3) उपसगय कन उिाहिण सधहत परिभाधषत किें ।

(4) प्रत्यर् कन उिाहिण सधहत परिभाधषत किें ।

(5) 'अिुमाधित' में उपसगय का प्रर्नग हुआ है र्ा प्रत्यर् का ?

(क) उपसगय (ख) प्रत्यर्

(ग) िनिनां (घ) कनई िहीां

प्रश्न 6. निम्ननिखखत में से नकन्ी ं तीि शब्ों के संनध-नर्च्छे र्द कीनजए । (1×3=3)

(1) पिनपकाि (2) गांगनधमय

(3)िाधर्का (4) भावुक

प्रश्न 7. निम्ननिखखत में से नकन्ी ं र्दो के उत्तर र्दीनजए। (1×2=2)

(1) अिे ... र्हाँ कौि-सा धविाम धचह्न प्रर्ुि हनगा ?

(2) तुम कब आए... र्हाँ कौि-सा धविाम धचह्न प्रर्ुि हनगा।

(3) "-"... र्ह कौि-सा धचह्न है ?

प्रश्न 8. अथव के आधार पर निम्ननिखखत में से नकन्ी ं तीि के र्ाक्य-िेर्द बताइए। (1×3=3)

(1) मैं पुस्तक पढ़ िहा हँ।

(2) तुम कब आए ?

(3) तुम चले जाओ।

(4) गनपाल िे भनजि िहीां धकर्ा है ।

खंड- ग

(पाठ्यपुस्तक ‘स्पशव’ िाग-1)

प्रश्न 9. पनित पद्ांश पर आधाररत बहुनर्कल्पीय प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर चुिकर निखखए।
(1×5=5)

अधि पथ। अधि पथ! अधि पथ!

वृक्ष हनां भले खडे ,
हनां घिे, हनां बडे ,
एक पत्र—छाँह भी माँग मत, माँग मत, माँग मत !
अधि पथ! अधि पथ! अधि पथ!
तू ि थकेगा कभी!
तू ि थमेगा कभी!
तू ि मुडेगा कभी!—कि शपथ, कि शपथ, कि शपथ!
अधि पथ! अधि पथ! अधि पथ!

(1) इस कनर्ता के रचनयता कौि हैं ?

(क) हरिवांशिार् बच्चि

(ख) िामिािी धसांह धििकि

(ग) अधमताभ बच्चि

(घ) सुधमत्रािांिि पांत

(2) कनर् नकि-नकि बाधाओं की संिार्िा प्रकट कर रहा है ?

(क) वृक्षनां के खडे हनिे की (ख) घिे हनिे की

(ग) बडे हनिे की (घ) र्े सभी

(3) कनर् क्या ि मााँगिे के निए कह रहा है ?

(क) एक पत्ता छाँह भी (ख) िि

(ग) सम्माि (घ) आश्रर्

(4) कनर् यात्री से क्या शपथ िेिे को कहता है ?

(क) कभी ि थकिे की (ख) कभी िा रुकिे की

(ग) कभी पीछे ि मुडिे की (घ) उपर्ुयि सभी

(5) 'अनि पथ' क्या है ?

(क) कधठिाइर्नां से भिा मागय (ख) आग वाला िास्ता

(ग) पिीक्षा की घडी (घ) अधि की चमक

प्रश्न 10. पनित गद्ांश के आधार पर बहुनर्कल्पीय प्रश्नों के सही उत्तर चुिकर निखखए।
(1x5=5)

इसके अलावा महािे व, िे श-धविे श के अग्रगण्य समाचािपत्र, जन आँ खनां में तेल डालकि गाँिीजी
की प्रधतधिि की गधतधवधिर्नां कन िे खा किते थे औि उि पि बिाबि टीका धटप्पणी किते िहते थे,
उिकन आडे हाथनां लेिे वाले लेख भी समर्-समर् पि धलखा किते थे। बेजनड कॉलम, भिपूि
चौकसाई, ऊँचे-से-ऊँचे धिधटश समाचािपत्रनां की पिां पिाओां कन अपिाकि चलिे का गाँिीजी का
आग्रह औि क‌ट्टि से कट्टि धविनधिर्नां के साथ भी पूिी-पूिी सत्यधिष्ठा में से उत्पन्न हनिे वाली धविर्
धववेक-र्ुि धववाि कििे की गाँिीजी की तालीम इि सब गुणनां िे तीव्र मतभेिनां औि धविनिी प्रचाि
के बीच भी िे श-धविे श के सािे समाचािपत्रनां की िु धिर्ा में औि एां ग्लन-इधडर्ि समाचािपत्रनां के बीच
भी व्यक्तिगत रूप से एम.डी कन सबका लाडला बिा धिर्ा था।

(1) अग्रगण्य समाचारपत्र क्या काम करते थे ?

(क) गाँिीजी की गधतधवधिर्नां कन िे खिे का

(ख) उि पि टीका-धटप्पणी कििे का

(ग) (क) औि (ख) िनिनां

(घ) उपर्ुयि में से कनई िहीां

(2) महार्दे र् के िेखक की नर्शेर्ताएाँ क्या थी ं ?

(क) बेजनड कॉलम (ख) भिपूि चौकसी

(ग) (क) – (ख) िनिनां (घ) सामान्य

(3) सत्यनिष्ठा िे एम.डी को नकसका िाड़िा बिा नर्दया ?

(क) िे श-धविे श के समाचािपत्रनां का

(ख) एां ग्लन-इां धडर्ि समाचािपत्रनां का

(ग) (क) - (ख) िनिनां

(घ) भाितीर् समाचािपत्रनां का

(4) गााँधीजी का क्या आग्रह रहता था ?

(क) कट्टि धविनधिर्नां के साथ भी सत्यधिष्ठा िखन।

(ख) धविर्-धववेक-र्ुि धववाि किन।

(ग) धिधटश अखबािनां की पिां पिाएँ अपिाओ

(घ) उपर्ुयि सभी।

(5) निम्ननिखखत अनिकथि (A) तथा कारण (R) को ध्यािपूर्वक पनढ़ए। उसके बार्द नर्दए गए
नर्कल्पों में से सही नर्कल्प चुिकर निखखए।

अनिकथि (A) : र्दे श-नर्र्दे श के समाचारपत्र गााँधीजी की प्रनतनर्दि की गनतनर्नधयों को र्दे खा

करते थे और उि पर बराबर टीका-नटप्पणी करते रहते थे।

कारण (R): गााँधीजी ऊाँची से ऊाँची निनटश समाचारपत्रों की परं पराओं को अपिा कर चििे
को कहते थे।

(क) अधभकथि (A) तथा कािण (R) िनिनां गलत हैं ।

(ख) अधभकथि (A) गलत है लेधकि कािण (R) सही है।

(ग) अधभकथि (A) सही है लेधकि कािण (R) उसकी सही व्याख्या िहीां किता है।

(घ) अधभकथि (A) तथा कािण (R) िनिनां सही हैं तथा कािण (R) अधभकथि (A) सही व्याख्या
किता है।

प्रश्न 11. निधावररत पािों के आधार पर चार में से नकन्ी ं तीि प्रश्नों के उत्तर र्दीनजए।
(2×3=6)

क) बुधढ़र्ा के लडके की मृत्यु कैसे हुई तथा बुधढ़र्ा लडके की मृत्यु के िू सिे धिि ही खिबूजे
बेचिे क्यनां चल पडी — पाठ के आिाि पि धलखें।
ख) एविे स्ट पि चढ़िे के धलए कुल धकतिे कैंप बिाए गए ? उिका वणयि कीधजए।
ग) ‘अधतधथ सिै व िे वता िहीां हनता, वह मािव में थनडे अांशनां में िाक्षस भी हन सकता है ’— इस
कथि का आशर् स्पष्ट कीधजए।
घ) चांद्रशेखि िामि् के व्यक्तित्व की िन धवशेषताओां का उल्लेख कीधजए।

प्रश्न 12. निधावररत कनर्ताओं के आधार पर चार में से नकन्ी ं तीि प्रश्नों के उत्तर र्दीनजए।
(2×3=6)

क) िहीम के अिुसाि प्रेम का िागा टू टिे पि पहले की भाँधत क्यनां िहीां हन पाता — पाठ के
आिाि पि स्पष्ट कीधजए।
ख) ‘गीत-अगीत' कधवता का प्रधतपाद्य धलक्तखए।
ग) ‘खुशबू िचते हैं हाथ’ कधवता के द्वािा कधव उच्च- वगय कन उिके धकस कतयव्य की र्ाि
धिलािा चाहता है ?
घ) िै िास अपिे पिनां द्वािा हमें क्या सांिेश िे िा चाहते हैं ?
प्रश्न 13. निधावररत पूरक पाठ्यपुस्तक से नर्दए गए तीि प्रश्नों में से र्दो प्रश्नों के उत्तर िगिग 80
शब्ों में निखखए । (4×2=8)

क) ‘धगल्लू' पाठ के आिाि पि बताइए धक कौए कन एक साथ समािरित औि अिािरित प्राणी

क्यनां कहा गर्ा है ?
ख) ‘मेिा छनट-सा धिजी पुस्तकालर्’ पाठ से पुस्तक प्रेम औि पुस्तकनां से प्राप्त सांस्कािनां सांबांिी
धकि जीवि मूल्नां की प्रेिणा धमलती है ? सनिाहिण धलक्तखए।
ग) ‘कल्लू कुम्हाि की उिाकनटी' पाठ के सांिभय में उिाकनटी क्तित गांगावतिण की कहािी कन
अपिे शब्दनां में धलक्तखए।

खंड – घ
(रचिात्मक िेखि)

प्रश्न 14. नर्दए गए संकेत-नबंर्दुओ ं के आधार पर तीि नर्र्यों में से नकसी एक नर्र्य पर
िगिग 100 शब्ों में अिुच्छेर्द निखखए। (5)

(क) पुस्तक मेिा

• प्रमुख आकषयण • लाभ • मेिी धप्रर् पुस्तकें

(ख) समय का सर्दु पयोग

• समर् की महत्ता • कुछ उिाहिण

• आत्मधवश्वास की जििी •हमािा कतयव्य

(ग) प्रर्दूर्ण की समस्या

• समस्या का स्वरूप • प्रिू षण के कािण

• प्रिू षण का िु ष्प्रभाव • प्रिू षण िनकिे के उपार्

प्रश्न 15. आप िर्मी कक्षा के छात्र नर्िय/नर्िीता है और छात्रार्ास में रहते/रहती ं हैं। अपिे
नमत्र को छात्रार्ास में रहिे का अिुिर् बताते हुए एक पत्र निखखए। (5)

अथर्ा

नर्र्ाह-बंधि में शीघ्र बाँधिे र्ािे अपिे नमत्र के बड़े िाई को शुिकामिाएाँ र्दे ते हुए पत्र
निखखए।
प्रश्न 16. िीचे नर्दए गए नचत्र का र्णवि अपिे शब्ों में कीनजए। (5)

प्रश्न 17. नकसी एक पररखिनत पर िगिग 100 शब्ों में संर्ार्द निखखए। (5)

िािी औि पनती के बीच मधहलाओां की धशक्षा औि उिके कामकाजी हनिे के धवषर् में धवचािनां कन
सांवाि शैली में धलक्तखए।

अथर्ा

िन छात्रनां के बीच प्रधतर्नगी पिीक्षाओां के धवषर् में की गई चचाय कन सांवाि के रूप में धलक्तखए।
 MATHEMATICS

TIME - 3HOURS
M.M-80

I. GENERAL INSTRUCTION
• All questions are compulsory.
• This question paper consists of 38 questions divided into five
sections –A,B,C,D and E.
• Section A contain 20 questions of 1 mark each.
• Section B contain 5 questions of 2 marks each.
• Section C contain 6 questions of 3 marks each.
• Section D contains 4 questions of 5 marks each.
• Section E contains 3 questions of 4 marks each.

SECTION- A

1. ‘Lines are parallel if they do not intersect ‘is stated in the form of
a) an axiom b) a definition c) a postulate d) a proof
2. How many linear equations in x and y can be satisfied by x=1 and y=2 ?
a) Only one b) two c) Infinitely many d) Three
3. The number of dimensions, a solid has
a) 2 b) 1 c) 3 d )none se
4.The ordinate of the point (4,-5) is
a) 4 b) 5 c) -5 d) None of these
5. In which quadrilateral diagonals are perpendicular
a) Trapezium b) Parallelogram c) Rhombus d) none of these
6 .The sides of triangle is 16cm,30cm,34cm. Its area is
a) 240 cm2 b) 280cm2 c) 220 cm2 d) 250 cm
7. If the volume and the surface area of sphere are numerically the same then its
radius is
a) 1 units b) 2 units c) 3 units d) 4 units
0 0 0
8. Three angles of quadrilateral are 75 .90 ,75 .Find the fourth angle
a) 1200 b) 1250 c) 140 0 d)none of these
9.The radius of sphere is 2r , then its surface area will be
a) 16𝜋r2 b) 8 𝜋r2 c) 4𝜋r2 d)none of these
0
10. If ABCD is a rhombus such that ∠𝐴𝐶𝐵=40 then ∠𝐴𝐷𝐵 is
a) 500 b) 450 c) 600 d) 300
11. In how many parts a plane can divide a circle if it intersect perpendicularly ?
a) 2 parts b) 3 parts c) 4 parts d) 8 parts
12. If one angle of a triangle is equal to the sum of the other two angles then the
triangle is
a) an isosceles triangle b) an obtuse triangle
c) an equilateral triangle d) a right triangle
13. Chords equidistant from the centre of a circle are equal in length is
(a) True (b) false (c) both are correct d) none of these
14. In a parallelogram ABCD, If ∠𝐴 = 750 find ∠𝐶
a)900 b)1200 c) 750 d) None of these
15. In a circle of radius 5 cm ,Find the length of a chord which is at a distance of
4cm from the centre of the circle
a) 8 cm b) 6 cm c) 15 cm d) 9 cm
2
16. If the surface area of a sphere is 154 cm .find the radius
a) 3.5 cm b) 4 cm c) 7 cm d) none of the these
17.If slant height of a cone is 17 cm and the base radius is 8 cm ,then the height
of cone is
a) 16 cm b) 12 cm c) 15 cm d) 18 cm
18 .If a ray stands on a line then the sun of two adjacent angles so formed is
a) 800 b) 1800 c) 1200 d) none of these
Directions for questions 19 and 20 : In question numbers 19 and 20 , a
statement of
Assertion (A) is followed by a statement of Reason(R) chose the correct option
The following questions consists of two statements- Assertion (A) and Reason(R)
Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:
a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation for A.
b) Both A and R are true and R is not the correct explanation for A.
c) A is true but R is false.
d) A is false but R is true
19. Assertion(A): In a parallelogram. ABCD , ∠A = 900 ,then ABCD is a rectangle
Reason(R): Every parallelogram is rectangle
20. Assertion(A): There can be infinite number of lines that can be drawn through
a single point
Reason(R): Through two distinct points there can be only one line drawn

SECTION-B
21. If x = 3 and y = 2 is a solution of the equation 2x+ 3y = k, then find the value
of k .
22. Prove that Angles in the same segment of a circle are equal.

23. Find the point which lies on the line y = 2x - 3 having abscissa 3.
24.The diameter of a right circular cone is 8cm and its volume is 48𝜋cm3. What is
its height ?
OR
Find the surface area of sphere with radius 7cm.
25. If a point lies between two points A and B such that AC=BC, then prove that
 1
AC= AB. Explain by drawing the figure.
2
OR
Solve the equation x-3=7 and state the axiom that you use here.
SECTION-C
26. Sides of a triangle are in ratio of 12:17:25 and its perimeter is 540 cm .Find
its area.
27.The measure of an angle is 5 times its compliment then the angle measure is?
28. Show that 0.45 ̅̅̅̅ can be expressed in the form of 𝑃 where p and q are
𝑞
integers and q ≠0
OR
Locate √9.3 on a number line.

29. ABCD is a quadrilateral in which AD=BC and ∠𝐷𝐴𝐵 = ∠𝐶𝐵𝐴 ,then prove that
(i) ∆𝐴𝐵𝐷 ≅ ∆ 𝐵𝐴𝐶 (ii) BD=AC (iii) ∠𝐴𝐵𝐷 = ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶
30.Draw a histogram for the following data :

Life time 100 - 200 200 - 300 300 –400 400 - 500 500 -600
(hrs)
No of 10 20 16 8 12
lamps

31.If x+y+z=0, show that x2+y2+z3 = 3xyz.

OR
3 2
Factorise- x - 2x -x +5
SECTION-D
32. Three girls Reshma, Salma and Mandeep are playing a game by standing on
a circle of radius 5 cm drawn in a park . Reshma throws a ball to Salma ,Salma to
Mandeep ,Mandeep to Reshma. If the distance between Reshma and Salma and
between Salma and Mandeep is 6 cm each. What is the the distance between
Reshma and Mandeep.
33. The diameter of the moon is approximately one fourth of the diameter of the
earth. Find the ratio of their surface areas
OR
A hemispherical bowl is made of steel,0.25 cm thick. The inner radius of
bowl is 5 cm .find the outer curved surface area of bowl.
34. State and prove the mid point theorem
OR
ABCD is a rectangle in which diagonal AC bisects ∠𝐴 as well as ∠𝐶 .Show
that
(i) ABCD is a square (ii) diagonal BD bisects ∠𝐵 as well as ∠𝐷
35. (a) Write any three Euclid’s postulates OR Axioms
(b) Prove that an equilateral triangle can be constructed on any given line segment

SECTION-E
CASE STUDY QUESTIONS. (1+1+2)
36. Traffic cones are used outdoor road work in various situation such as traffic
redirection advanced warning of hazards or the prevention of traffic .Raghav saw
a cone and tries to make it. Raghav’s cone has radius 7 cm and height 24 cm
(I) Find the slant height of cone
(ii) Find the curved surface area of cone
(iii) Find the cost of 20 such cones if a cone is made at an expense of Rs.4/ cm2
OR
Find the volume of cone
37.A circular park of radius 20 cm is situated in a colony .Three boys Ankur
,Bhaskar and Chirag are sitting at equal distance on its boundary each having a
toy telephone in his hands to talk each other

(i) which type of triangle ABC in the figure.

(ii) Measure of ∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 is
(iii) Measure of ∠𝐵𝑂𝐶 + ∠𝑂𝐶𝐵 is OR Measure of ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶 +
∠𝐵𝐴𝐶 is

38. Eiffel tower in Paris is an architectural wonder of the world .It uses an
arrangement of criss crossing X shaped beams known as truss.

ABCD is a trapezium in which AB ∥ 𝐷𝐶,P,Q,R and S are the mid points of AB

BC,CD and DA respectively
Refer the following geometric description answer the following questions:
 (I) Which type of quadrilateral PQRS is ? .
(ii) In quadrilateral PQRS, if PQ=QR ,then which type of quadrilateral PQRS is ?
(iii) In trapezium ABCD, if AD = BC then prove that ∠𝐵𝐶𝐷 = ∠𝐴𝐷𝐶
OR
Prove that ∠𝐷𝐴𝐵 = ∠𝐴𝐵𝐶
 SOCIAL SCIENCE

Time: 3hrs M.M.:80

General Instructions:
a) The question paper comprises Six Sections – A, B, C, D, E and F. There are 37
questions in the question paper. All questions are compulsory.
b) Section A – From questions 1 to 20 are MCQs of 1 mark each.
c) Section B – Question no. 21 to 24 are Very Short Answer Type Questions,
carrying 2 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 40 words.
d) Section C – Question no. 25 to 29 are Short Answer Type Questions, carrying
3 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 60 words.
e) Section D – Question no. 30 to 33 are long answer type questions, carrying 5
marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed 120 words.

f) Section E - Question no. from 34 to 36 are case based questions with three sub
questions and are of 4 marks each. Answer to each question should not exceed
100 words.

g) Section F – Question no. 37 is map-based, carrying 5 marks with two parts, 37a
from History (2 marks) and 37b from Geography (3 marks).

h) There is no overall choice in the question paper. However, an internal choice

has been provided in a few questions. Only one of the choices in such questions
have to be attempted.

H/C Q.no: 7,8,10,11,13,14,17,18,19,20,21,22,27,29,31,32,34,36,37(a).

 SECTION A
MULTIPLE CHOICE QUESTIONS

1. Which one of the following is not a Himalayan range?

(1)
(a) Himadri (c)Kullu
(b) Himachal (d) ShivaliK

2. Which physical feature lies close to the equator and experiences equatorial climate? (1)
(a) The Coastal Plains (c)The Peninsular plateau
(b) The Islands (d)The Indian Deser

3. Population becomes ________ capital when there is investment made in the form of
education, training and medical care. (1)
(a) Working (c)Labour
(b) Fixed (d)Human

5. Match the column A with the column B.

COULMN A COLUMN B

(1) Drainage (a) Headwaters of the Ganga

(b) Area drained by a single river

(2) Drainage basin
system

(3) Bhagirathi (c) River system of an area

(4) Sambhar lake (d) Salt water lake

(a)(1)-(c),(2)-(b),(3)-(a),(4)-(d) (c)(1)-(a),2-(c),(3)-(d),(4)-(b)

(b)(1)-(b),(2)-(c),(3)-(a),(4)-(d) (d)(1)-(d), 2-(b), (3)-(a), (4)-(c)

5. The accepted average calorie requirement per person in urban areas in India is _____.
(a) 2200 calories (c)2300 calories
(b) 2000 calories (d)2100calories
6. The following question consist of two statements — Assertion (A) and Reason (R).
Answer the question by selecting the most appropriate option given below:
(1)

Assertion: The poverty line is determined on the basis of calorie requirements.

Reason: The poverty line is the minimum income required to meet the basic needs of an
individual, which includes food, clothing, and shelter.
(a) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not the correct explanation of A.
(c) A is correct but R is wrong.
(d) A is wrong but R is correct.

7. The term ‘Old Regime’ is usually used to describe____________. (1)

(a) France before 1000 B.C. (c) Society of France after 1789 A.D.

(b) Society and institutions of France before (d) None of the above
1789
8. How does a ‘Subsistence Crisis’ happen?
(a) Bad harvest leads to scarcity of grains
(b) Food prices rise and the poorest cannot buy bread
(c) Leads to weaker bodies, diseases, deaths and even food riots
(d) All the above
9. Which of the following is not a component of food security?

(a) Availability (c)Accessibility

(b) Affordability (d) Sustainability

10. The leader of the Bolshevik party was___________.

(a) Stalin (c) Karl Marx
(b) Lenin (d) Louis Blanc

11. Name the country, which helped Germany during the crisis of hyper inflation.

(a) Austria -Hungry (d) Italy

(b) Japan

(c) USA

12. Which organization is responsible for maintaining buffer stock of food grains in India?
(a) Food Corporation of India (FCI) (c) National Food Security Act (NFSA)
(b) World Trade Organization (WTO) (d) Indian Council Agricultural Research
13. The minimum age required for being a voter is:
(a) 25 years (c) 18 years
(b) 21 years (d) 15 years

14. In India, elections for which of these bodies are held after every five years?
(a) Rajya Sabha (c) Vidhan Parishad
(b) Lok Sabha and Vidhan Sabha (d) Only Lok Sabha

15. Amul is a cooperative established in _________.

(1)
(a) Punjab (c)Gujarat
(b) Haryana (d) Kerala

16. Which of the following statements is true about the population of a country?
(a) More population always leads to economic development.
(b) Population growth is always a burden on the economy.
(c) Population can be an asset if provided with proper education and skills.
(d) Population has no impact on economic growth.

17. Free and fair elections are ensured by the _______________.

18. An introductory statement in a constitution which states the reasons and guiding
values of the constitution is _______________.

19. Define democracy.

20. When did the French Revolution occur?

SECTION B

VERY SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

21. Explain Bloody Sunday.
22. What is a Constitution?
23. Explain the features of the cold weather season.

24. What is the difference between economic activities and non-economic activities?

SECTION C

SHORT ANSWER QUESTIONS

25. Describe with examples how distance from the sea influences the climate of a place.

26. What are the main causes of poverty in India?

27. Explain the three Estates of French society.

28. Explain, how different states have succeeded in reducing poverty.

29. What do you mean by secularism and sovereignty?

SECTION D
LONG ANSWER QUESTIONS
30. What are the problems of the functioning of ration shops?
Or
Why there should be food security?
31. Discuss the peculiar features of Nazism.
Or
Write a short note on Hitler.
32. What are the merits of democracy?
Or
What is Constitution? Why do we need Constitution?
33. Discuss the major components of population growth.

Or
Why in India most migrations have been from rural to urban areas? What are its effects?

SECTION E
CASE BASED QUESTIONS

34. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: (1×4=4)

In 1774 Louis XVI of the Bourbon family of Kings at ascended the Throne of France. He
was 20 years old and married to the Austrian princess Marie Antoinette upon his
accession the new king found as empty treasury. Long years of War had drained the
financial resources of France. Added to this was the cost of maintaining the extravagant
court at the immense place of Versailles. Under Louis XVI France helped the 13
American colonies to gain their Independence from the common enemy, Britain. The
war added more than a billion Livres to a debt that had already already risen to more

than 2 billion livres. Lenders, who gave the State credit, now begin to charge 10%
interest on loan. So the France government was obliged to spend the increasing
percentage of its budget on interest payments alone. To meet the regular expenses,
such as the cost of maintaining an army, the court, running government offices or
universities, the state was forced to increase taxes. Yet even this measure would not
have sufficient. French society in the eighteenth century was divided into three estates,
and only members of the third estate paid taxes.
1. Who was the King of France at the time of the Revolution?

(a) Louis XIV (c) Marie Antoinette

(b) Louis XVI (d) Nicholas II

2. How much interest was charged by the lenders from the France government?
(a) 10% (c)15%
(b) 12% (d) 18%

3. The word livres stands for:

(a) Unit of currency in France (c) Tax to be paid directly to the state

(b) Tax levied by the Church (d) None of these

4. Write the name of the common enemy of France and American colonies?
(a) Germany (c)Austria
(b) Britain (d) Russia

35. Read the source given below and answer the questions that follow: (1×4=4)

The headwaters of the Ganga, called the ‘Bhagirathi’ is fed by the Gangotri Glacier and
joined by the Alaknanda at Devaprayag in Uttarakhand. At Haridwar the Ganga
emerges from the mountains on to the plains. The Ganga is joined by many tributaries
from the Himalayas, a few of them being major rivers such as the Yamuna, the
Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi. The river Yamuna rises from the Yamunotri
Glacier in the Himalayas. It flows parallel to the Ganga and as a right bank tributary,
meets the Ganga at Allahabad. The Ghaghara, the Gandak and the Kosi rise in the
Nepal Himalaya. They are the rivers, which flood parts of the northern plains every year,
causing widespread damage to life and property but enriching the soil for the extensive
agricultural lands. The main tributaries, which come from the peninsular uplands, are
the Chambal, the Betwa and the Son. These rise from semi arid areas, have shorter
courses and do not carry much water in them.
(a) Which is the head water of the Ganga?
(b) Name any two tributaries of the river Ganga.
(c) Which tributaries come from the peninsular uplands?
(d) The river Yamuna rises from the ______________.

36. Read the following passage and answer the questions that follow:
(1+1+2=4)

Rights are claims of a person over other fellow beings, over the society and over the
government. All of us want to live happily, without fear and without being subjected to
degraded treatment. For this, we expect others to behave in such a way that does not
 harm us or hurt us. Equally, our actions should not also harm or hurt others. So, a right
is possible when you make a claim that is equally possible for others. You cannot have
a right that harms or hurts others. You cannot have a right to play a game in such a way
that it breaks the neighbour’s window. The Serbs in Yugoslavia could not have claimed
the whole country for themselves. The claims we make should be reasonable. They
should be such that can be made available to others in an equal measure. Thus, a right
comes with an obligation to respect other rights.
(a) What are rights?
(b) Why is it said that right comes with an obligation to respect others’ rights?
(c)Why are rights reasonable claims? Give reasons.

SECTION F
MAP BASED QUESTIONS

37(a) On the given outline map of the world, locate and label four Allied Powers in the
Second World War.

(b) On the political map of India, locate and label any three of the following:
i. Ganga River
ii. Rajaji National Park
iii. Area of Evergreen forest
iv.State with highest population density
 SCIENCE

General Instructions:

i. This question paper consists of 39 questions in 5 sections.

ii. All questions are compulsory. However, an internal choice is provided in some
questions. A student is expected to attempt only one of these questions.

iii. Section A consists of 20 objective type questions carrying 1 mark each.

iv. Section B consists of 6 Very Short questions carrying 02 marks each. Answers
to these questions should be in the range of 30 to 50 words.

v. Section C consists of 7 Short Answer type questions carrying 03 marks each.

Answers to these questions should be in the range of 50 to 80 words.

vi. Section D consists of 3 Long Answer type questions carrying 05 marks each.
Answer to these questions should be in the range of 80 to 120 words.

vii. Section E consists of 3 source-based/case-based units of assessment of 04

marks each with sub-parts.

Section-A

Select and write the most appropriate option out of the four options given
for each of the questions 1 - 20. There is no negative mark for incorrect
response.

Q1. Seema visited a Natural Gas Compressing Unit and found that the gas can
be liquefied under specific conditions of temperature and pressure. While sharing
her experience with friends she got confused. Help her to identify the correct set
of conditions

(a) Low temperature, low pressure

(b) High temperature, low pressure

(c) Low temperature, high pressure

(d) High temperature, high pressure

Q2. Neutron was discovered by

(a) James Chadwick

(b) Neils Bohr

(c) E. Goldstein

(d) J.J. Thomson

Q3. A few substances are arranged in the increasing order of ‘forces of attraction’
between their particles. Which one of the following represents a correct
arrangement?

(a) Water, air, wind

(b) Air, sugar, oil

(c) Oxygen, water, sugar

(d) Salt, juice, air

Q4. The boiling points of diethyl ether, acetone and n-butyl alcohol are 35°C,
56°C and 118°C respectively. Which one of the following correctly represents
their boiling points in kelvin scale?

(a) 306 K, 329 K, 391 K

(b) 308 K, 329 K, 392 K

(c) 308 K, 329 K, 391 K

(d) 329 K, 392 K, 308 K

Q5. Atomicity of phosphorous molecule is

(a) 3
(b) 6
(c) 4
(d) 1

Q6.The National Dairy Development Board (NDDB) designed and implemented

the world’s largest dairy development programme, called “Operation Flood”,
which came out to be the reason behind White Revolution in India. Can you
name the man who is known as the Father of White Revolution? (1)
(a) Dr. G Nammalvar
(b) Abdul Rashid
(c) Dr. Jagadish Chandra Bose
(d) Dr. V. Kurien
Q7. “Drones” in the honeybee colony are stingless and are unable to gather food.
Their main role is to mate with queen bees and help in breeding.

Drones are born out from:

(a) Fertilized eggs and well-nourished larvae

(b) Unfertilized eggs

(c) Fertilized eggs giving heat treatment

(d) Same way as the worker bee is born

Q8. Find out the wrong statement among the following:

(a) White revolution is meant for increase in milk production

(b) Blue revolution is meant for increase in fish production
(c) Increasing food production without compromising with environment quality
is called as sustainable agriculture
(d) None of these

Q9. valency of oxygen atom is

(a) -2
(b) 0
(c) 1
(d) 2

Q10. In order to obtain the good quality and quantity of yield in dairy and poultry
farming which of the following management practices should be followed?

i. Proper housing facilities having hygienic conditions

ii. Preventing the entrance of sunlight into the cattle farms

iii. Prevention and control of diseases and pests

iv.Maintenance of proper temperature

(a) (i) and (iii)

(b) (i), (ii) and (iii)

(c) (i), (iii) and (iv)

(d) All of the above

Q11- The SI unit of universal gravitational constant, G is

(a N m–2 kg–2

(b) N m2 kg2

(c) N m2 kg–2

(d) N m kg–2

Q12. The image below shows a sound wave.

Which of the following distance correctly represents the wavelength of the wave?

(a) AB

(b) AC

(c) BD

(d) BF
Q13. Which of the following statements marks a difference between plant cell
and animal cell?

(a) Plant cells have cell walls which animal cells do not.

(b) Plant cells do not have vacuole while animal cells do have.

(c) Plant cells have only cell membrane while animal cells have both cell wall as
well as cell membrane.

(d) Plant cells have more plastids while animal cells have few plastids.

Q14. The nucleus controls all the activities of the cell and acts as a site of DNA
material and protein synthesis. It is composed of some components which all
together give the nucleus its functionality. Here is shown a figure of the nucleus
with some of its

components labelled as A, B, C and D. Can you name these components

correctly? (1)

(a) A – Nucleons; B – Chromatin; C – Nuclear membrane; D – Nucleoplasm

(b) A – Nucleus; B – Chromatin; C – Nuclear membrane; D – Nucleoplasm

(c) A – Nucleolus; B – Chromatin; C – Nuclear membrane; D – Nucleoplasm

(d) A – Nucleolus; B – Chromatin; C – Nuclear membrane; D – Nuclear wall

Q15. The process of plasmolysis in plant cell is defined as:

(a) Breakdown of plasma membrane in hypotonic solution.

(b) Shrinkage of cytoplasm in hypertonic medium.

(c) Shrinkage of Nucleoplasm.

(d) None of these.

Q16- Which of the following are true for an element?

(i) Atomic number = number of protons + number of electrons
(ii) Mass number = number of protons + number of neutrons
(iii) Atomic mass = number of protons = number of neutrons
(iv) Atomic number = number of protons = number of electrons
(a) (i) and (ii)
(b) (i) and (iii)

(c) (ii) and (iii)

(d) (ii) and (iv)

Question No. 17 to 20 consist of two statements –Assertion (A) Reason (R).

Answer these questions selecting the appropriate option given below:

a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

b) Both A and R are true, and R is not the correct explanation of A.

c) A is true but R is false.

d) A is false but R is true.

Q17 Assertion(A) Work done can never be zero.

 Reason(R) Work done by a constant force is equal to the product of force
and the displacement of the object in the direction of force.

Q18. Assertion(A) Our natural resources are damaged due to human activities.

Reason(R) Due to the revolution natural resources are getting used more
intensively

Q19. Assertion(A) Wheat is a rabi crop

Reason(R) Wheat is completely grown in the month of November to April.

Q20- Assertion(A) : Isobars have equal mass number and different atomic
number.

Reason(R): Isobars possess different chemical properties.

SECTION B

Question No. 21 to 26 are very short answer questions

Q21. How many nutrients are

(a) essential for plant growth ?

(b) obtained from soil ?

(c) called major or macro.

(d) called minor or micro.

Q22. A sound wave travels at a speed of 339 m/s .If its wavelength is 1.5 cm
,what is the frequency of the wave ? Will it be audible?

Q23- How does the water kept in an earthen pot (matka) become cool during
summer?

Q24. Differentiate between Kharif and Rabi crops? (Any two differences)

Q25. State Archimedes’ principle. Also write it's two applications.

Q26. What do you understand by
1. Note
2. Timbre or Quality

SECTION C

Question No. 27 to 33 are short answer questions

Q27. (a) On what factors does the kinetic energy possessed by a body depend ?

(b) With what velocity should a student of mass 60 kg run so that his kinetic
energy becomes 270 J ?

Q28. Waves of higher frequencies are used for cleaning hard to reach places
such as spiral tubes ,odd -shaped parts and electronic components. They find
extensive applications in industries and medical fields.

(i) Name the type of waves.

(ii) Mention the frequency of these waves.

(iii) Write another important use of this wave.

Q29. Answer the following:

(i) Give one example each of milch and draught animals.
(ii) Name one indigenous and one exotic breed of cow.
(iii) Name one nitrogen fixing bacteria.

Q30. A boy raises a load of 0.4 kg, at a constant speed, through a vertical
distance of 1.5m. If the power developed by the boy in raising the load is 3W,
then calculate the time taken. (Take acceleration due to gravity as 10 m/s 2 )

OR
(i) What is meant by potential energy of a body?

(ii) A body of mass m is raised to a vertical height h through two different paths A
and B. What will be the potential energy of the body in the two cases? Give
reason for your answer.

Q31- Explain the following term:

(a) Sublimation
(b) Latent heat of fusion
(c) Evaporation
OR

Explain the following terms with suitable example:

(a) Polyatomic ion

(b) Valency
(c) Isotopes

Q32. What is the main function of each

a) plasma membrane
b) mitochondria
c) lysosomes

Q33- Explain Rutherford’s model and its drawbacks ?

OR

Explain Bohr-Bury scheme and write sub-atomic particles of atom?

SECTION D

Question No. 34 to 36 are long answer questions

Q34. The image below shows two sound waves. Carefully observe the image and
answer the following question
(a) Define amplitude.

(b) What can be said about the amplitudes of both the sound waves?

(c) Define frequency. Also, identify which wave has greater frequency.

(d) Which characteristic of sound depends on the frequency of the wave.

OR

A person standing in front of a vertical cliff fires a gun and hears its echo in 4 s.
The speed of sound in air is 340 m/s.

(a) Which phenomena is responsible for the production of echo?

(b) Calculate the distance at which the person is standing from the cliff.

(c) What should be the minimum time interval between the original sound and the
reflected one to hear a distinct echo?

(d) What is reverberation?

Q35. (a) An Italian bee variety, Apis mellifera, has been introduced in India for
honey production. Write about its merit over the other varieties.

(b) Why is excessive use of fertilisers harmful to the environment?

OR

(a) What do you understand about the composite fish culture? Describe its
advantages and disadvantages.
(b) On a cattle farm, there are fifteen cattle. How can you differentiate between
diseased and healthy cattle without any diagnostic test?

Q36- Write the following questions:

(a) If the formula of chloride of an element M is MCl3 ,
What is the formula of its carbonate?
(b) Calculate the molecular mass of Sulphuric acid,
H2SO4 ? ( S= 32 u, H = 1 u , O = 16 u)
(c) Identify the cation and anion present in NH4Cl
(d) Two elements X and Y combine to form XY in the
ratio 1:35.5 by mass, what mass of Y will combine
with 2 grams of X ?
(e) Write the chemical formula of sodium sulphide.

SECTION E

Question No. 37 to 39 are case-based/data -based questions with 3 to 4

short sub-parts. Internal choice is provided in one of these sub-parts.

Q37- The Bohr model of the atom was proposed by Neils Bohr in 1915. It came
into existence with the modification of Rutherford’s model of an atom. Bohr’s
model consists of a small nucleus surrounded by negative electrons moving
around the nucleus surrounded by negative electrons moving around the nucleus
in orbits. The standard notation of an element with its atomic number and mass
number is given as :

(Mass 𝑛𝑜.)𝐴
(𝐴𝑡𝑜𝑚𝑖𝑐 𝑛𝑜.)𝑍𝑿 (Symbol of the element )

(i) Write the electronic configuration of Sodium. Draw the orbital diagram of
Sodium according to Bohr’s model of atom.
108
(ii) What are the number of protons and neutrons in 47𝐴𝑔

(iii) Write an important application of Radioactive isotope. (2+1+1)

Q38 . The fundamental unit of life is the cell. All living organisms are composed
of cells, which are the smallest structural and functional units of life. Cells vary in
size, shape, and organisation in different organisms. They can be classified into
two broad categories: prokaryotic cells and eukaryotic cells. Prokaryotic cells are
simple and lack a well-defined nucleus, while eukaryotic cells are more complex
and contain a true nucleus surrounded by a nuclear membrane. Within a cell,
various organelles perform specific functions. For instance, the nucleus controls
the cell’s activities and contains genetic material, while the cytoplasm houses
organelles and provides a site for cellular processes. Understanding the structure
and functions of cells is crucial to comprehend the complexity of living organisms
and their ability to carry out essential life processes.

1. What is the fundamental unit of life?

a) Atom
b) Molecule
c) Cell
d) Tissue
2. What are cells?
a) Structural units of life
b) Building blocks of matter
c) Functional units of life
d) All of the above
3. How do prokaryotic cells differ from eukaryotic cells?
a) Prokaryotic cells have a true nucleus, while eukaryotic cells lack a
nucleus.
b) Prokaryotic cells are more complex than eukaryotic cells.
c) Prokaryotic cells lack a well-defined nucleus, while eukaryotic cells have
a true nucleus.
d) Prokaryotic cells are larger in size than eukaryotic cells.
4. Which organelle controls the cell’s activities and contains genetic
material?
a) Nucleus
b) Cytoplasm
c) Cell membrane
d) Mitochondria

Q39. We know that the earth attracts every object with a certain force and this
force depends on the mass (m) of the object and the acceleration due to the
gravity (g). The weight of an object is the force with which it is attracted towards
the earth. Mathematically

W=mxg

Where, W= weight of object m= mass of object g= acceleration due to the

gravitational force
We have learnt that the value of g is constant at a given place. Therefore at a
given place, the weight of an object is directly proportional to the mass. It is due
to this reason that at a given place, we can use the weight of an object as a
measure of its mass.

Answer the following questions.

(i) Unit of acceleration due to the gravity (g) is

(a) m/s

(b) m/s²

(c) Newton(N)

(d) None of these

(ii) Direction of weight of any object is

(a) Always towards centre of earth

(b) Always away from centre of earth

(c) Weight don't have direction

(d) None of these

(iii) Which of the following has same unit

(a) Mass and weight

(b) Weight and force

(c) Velocity and acceleration

(d) None of these

(iv) Differentiate between mass and weight.