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The document contains a solved paper for the CSIR NET Life Science exam from December 2013, featuring a variety of questions across different topics in life sciences, mathematics, and logical reasoning. It includes multiple-choice questions related to physics, biology, and statistics, along with diagrams and scenarios to analyze. The paper is structured into sections with questions that test knowledge and application of concepts in life sciences.
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
74 views27 pages

Dec 2013

The document contains a solved paper for the CSIR NET Life Science exam from December 2013, featuring a variety of questions across different topics in life sciences, mathematics, and logical reasoning. It includes multiple-choice questions related to physics, biology, and statistics, along with diagrams and scenarios to analyze. The paper is structured into sections with questions that test knowledge and application of concepts in life sciences.
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
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CSIR NET LIFE SCIENCE

IFAS – Solved Paper

CSIR NET LIFE SCIENCE DECEMBER 2013


SECTION-A 5. The figure below shows an infinite series of
triangles, in which rl > r2> r3 ... What is the total
1. A cart wheel rolls along a straight line. If the
length of the solid line segments in the figure?
distance covered is equal to the diameter of the
wheel, what is the angle through which the wheel
has turned?
(a) 90°
(b) between 90° and 120°
(c) between 120° and 150°
(d) between 150° and 180°

2. In a class of 10 students, 3 failed in History, 6


failed in geography and 2 failed in both. How
manypassed in both the subjects?
(a) r1 /r2 + r2 /r3 + …
(a) 1 (b) 2
(b) r12 /r2 + r2 /r3 + …
(c) 3 (d) 0
(c) r12 /r1 + r2
3. As shown in the diagram below, a sphere is placed (d) r1 − r2 /r12
on the top of an incline. It rolls down the incline
without slipping in exactly 50 turns. The radius of 6. If ai, bi and Ci are distinct, how many terms will the
thesphere is expansion of the product (a 1 + a2 + a3) (b1 + b2 + b3 +
b4) (C1+C2 + C3 + C4 + C5) contain?
(a) 12 (b) 30
(c) 23 (d) 60

7. The above plot depicts the number of research


(a) (5/π) cm (b) (5/π) m publications of a scientist along with the number of
(c) (10/π) cm (d) 10 cm citations.
Which of the following statements is not correct?
4. A set of concentric circles of integer radii 1,2, ... N (a) In the year 2012, 50% more papers were
is shown in the figure below. An ant starts at point publishedbut citations decreased by 25%.
A1, goes round the first circle, returns to A1, moves (b) In the year 2012, 100% more papers were
to A2, goes round the second circle, returns to A2, published but citations were 75% of the number
moves to A3 and repeats this until it reaches AN. ofpapers in that year.
The distance covered by the ant is (c) The papers published in year 2011 is only 3(3)33%
of the total number of papers in both years.
(d) The total number of citations for both years is
16.66% more than the total number of papers.

8. The next number of the sequence 1, 5, 14, 30, 55,


……. is
(a) N (N + 1) π (b) 2N π + N (a) 85 (b) 90
(c) π (N + l)N + N - 1 (d) π (N - l) N + N - 1 (c) 91 (d) 95

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9. The distribution of heights and weights in a 12. In a room, we have one grandfather, two fathers,
population is shown below in a 2-parameter two sons, and a grandson. The age of one father is
scatter plot. The size of the square is proportional seven times the age of his son. The age' of the other
to the number of persons having a particular father is twice his son's age. Assuming that there
combination of weight and height. Which areonly 3 people in the room and the grandfather is
statement best describes the trend in the 70 years old, how old is the grandson?
population? (a) 1
(b) 2
(c) 5
(d) Cannot be determined

13. A hemispherical bowl is being filled with water at a


constant volumetric rate. The level of water in the
bowl increases
(a) in direct proportion to time
(a) Height and weight are strongly correlated. (b) in inverse proportion to time
(b) Height and weight are anti-correlated. (c) faster than direct proportion to time
(c) Large heights do not imply proportionately large (d) slower than direct proportion to time
weights.
(d) Height and weight are independent 14. Equal masses of two liquids of densities 6 kg/m3 and
characteristics. 4 kg/m3 are mixed thoroughly. The density of the
mixture is
10. What is the maximum sum of the numbers of (a) 4.8 kg/m(3) (b) 5.0 kg/m(3)
(3)
Saturdays and Sundays in a leap year? (c) 5.2 kg/m (d) 5.4 kg/m(3)
(a) 104
(b) 105 15. Two points A and B on the surface of the Earth have
(c) 106 the following latitude and longitude co- ordinates.
(d) 107 A: 300 N, 450 E
B: 300 N, 1350 W
11. Two trains of length 150 m and 250 m pass each If R is the radius of the Earth, the length of the
other with constant speeds on parallel tracks in shortest path from A to B is
opposite directions. The drivers and guards are at (a) √3/2πR (b) π. R/3
the extremities of the trains. The time gap (c) πR/6 (d) 2πR/3
between the drivers passing each other and first
driver-guard pair passing each other is 30 s. How 16. Amoebae are known to double in 3 min. Two
much later will the other driver-guard pair pass identical vessels A & B, respectively contain one and
by? two amoebae to start with. The vessel B gets filled
(a) 10 s in3 hours. When will A get filled?
(b) 20 s (a) 3 hours
(c) 30 s (b) 2 hours 57 min
(d) 50 s (c) 3 hours 3 min
(d) 6 hours
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17. Students of a school are divided into 4 groups. 24. Glucose residues in amylose are linked by
What is the probability that three friends get into (a) β1 4 (b) α1 4
thesame group? (c) α1 6 (d) β1 6
(a) 3/4 (b) 1/64
(c) 1/16 (d) 1/3 25. When a membrane is depolarized to a voltage value
more positive than the threshold voltage, it leads to
18. A fruit vendor buys 120 Shimla apples at 4 for Rs. the generation of
100, and 120 Golden apples at 6 for Rs. 100. She (1) Donnan potential.
decides to mix them and sell at 10 for Rs. 200. She (2) Action potential.
will make (3) resting potential.
(a) no profit, no loss (b) a loss of 4% (4) electrochemical potential.
(c) a gain of 4% (d) a loss of 10 %
26. E. coli proliferates faster on 'glucose' than it does on
0 2 -2 1/2 -1/2
19. 4 + 4 + 4 + 4 +4 = 'lactose' because lactose is
(a) 4° (b) 4(2)5 + 4-(2)5 (a) taken up more slowly than glucose
(c) 199/16
(d) 229/16 (b) not hydrolyzed by E. coli.
(c) taken up faster than glucose.
20. In an enclosure there were both crows and cows.If (d) toxic to the cells.
there were 30 heads and 100 legs, what fraction
ofthem are crows? 27. Out of the list given below, which is the correct
(a) 1/3 (b) 1/4 order of increasing lipid bilayer permeability?
(c) 1/10 (d) 3/10 (a) N2 > Ethanol> H2O> Glucose> Ca+2 > RNA
(b) H2O> Glucose> Ethanol> N2 > Ca+2 > RNA
SECTION-B (c) Ca+2 > RNA > N2 > Ethanol > H2O > Glucose
(d) Ethanol> RNA > Ca+2 > H2O> Glucose >N2
21. The interaction energy between atom A and B is
400 k/mol-1. The type of interaction between 28. In the lysogenic λ-phage
them is (a) both CI and Cro are on.
(a) pi - pi. (b) covalent. (b) both CI and Cro are off
(c) ion-dipole. (d) hydrogen bond. (c) CI is on while Cro is off.
(d) CI is off while Cro is on.
22. Which one of the following bases has the largest
hydrogen bonding possibility?
29. In bacteria chromosomal DNA replication stops at
(a) Adenine (b) Guanine
(a) one specific locus.
(c) Cytosine (d) Uracil
(b) several specific loci.
(c) a single locus, randomly.
23. Enzymes help to lower the activation energies of
(d) from several loci, randomly.
reactions by
(1) covalent interaction with substrates. 30. The 'Uvr ABC' repair mechanism is involved in
(2) binding only with the solvent molecules. repairing
(3) changing reaction equilibria.
(4) forming weak interactions with substrates.

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(a) missing bases. 37. During double fertilization in plants, one spermfuses
(b) strand break. with the egg cell and the other sperm fuses with
(c) cross linked strands. (a) synergid cell. (b) central cell.
(d) DNA damage caused by "bulky" chemical (c) antipodal cell (d) nucellar cell.
adducts.
38. Over-expression of a dominant negative FGF
31. Which of the following phenomena is observed in receptor during amphibian development would
compatible plant-pathogen interactions? prevent formation of
(a) Virulence in pathogen. (a) trunk and tail. (b) head and trunks.
(b) Hypersensitive response in host. (c) trunk and fore limbs. (d) head and forelimbs.
(c) Resistance in host.
(d) Avirulence in pathogen. 39. The cell death pathway in C. elegans can be
schematically represented as:
32. Which one of the following is NOT an extracellular ced9 ⊣ ced4 ced3
matrix protein? Based on the above, which one of the following
(a) Fibronectin (b) Vitronectin statements is TRUE?
(c) Laminin (d) Cyclin (a) A loss-of-function allele of ced9 would lead to
survival of cells that normally die.
33. The cylindrical channels in gap junctions are made (b) A loss-of function allele of ced9 would lead to
of excessive cell death.
(a) connexin. (b) collagen. (c) A gain-of-function allele of ced9 would lead to
(c) fibronectin. (d) N-CAM. excessive cell death.
(d) Neither loss or gain-of-function of ced9 would
34. A tumour suppressor protein make any change to the cell death pathway.
(a) is one whose function brings about regression of
atumour 40. Which of the following mechanisms is NOT involved
(b) one where mutations are shown to cause or are in providing photo protection to plants?
associated with tumours. (a) Degradation of D1 protein.
(c) is inactivated by oncogenes. (b) Zeaxanthin formation.
(d) inhibits the progression of the cell cycle by (c) Photolysis of water.
phosphorylating cyclins. (d) Thermal dissipation.

35. Immediate hypersensitivity reactions are 41. Which of the following plant hormones can mimic
associated with the det1 mutation, causing de-etiolation and
(a) IgG (b) lgE chloroplast development in dark?
(c) lgM (d) lgA (a) Cytokinin (b) Gibberellin
(c) Auxin (d) Ethylene
36. The change in the state of specification of
imaginal disc of Drosophila to that of a different 42. Under which conditions do members of the family
disctype is known as Gramineae synthesize and release
(a) transdetermination (b) transdifferentiation phytosiderophores?
(c) transformation (d) transduction

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(a) Iron deficiency. 47. Thyroxin releasing hormone (TRH) receptor belongs
(b) Phosphorus deficiency. to
(c) Availability of iron complexes in rhizosphere. (a) nuclear receptor family.
(d) Availability of phosphorus complexes in (b) receptor tyrosin kinase family
rhizosphere. (c) G-protein - coupled receptor family.
(d) guanylate cyclase receptor family.
43. The membranes of chilling-sensitive plants is
characterized by 48. A cross is made between a pure breeding plant
(a) high proportion of saturated fatty acids having red coloured flowers with a pure breeding
(b) lower transition temperature plant having white coloured flowers. Such a cross is
(c) lower proportion of saturated fatty acids called as
(d) lower transition temperature and higher (a) test cross. (b) monohybrid cross.
proportion of unsaturated fatty acids (c) dihybrid cross. (d) back cross.

44. The only bone marrow cell that never appears in 49. A cis-trans complementation test is carried out to
peripheral blood is identify
(a) myeloblast (b) myelocyte. (a) if two mutations are allelic in nature.
(c) lymphoblast. (d) megaloblast. (b) if two genes interact with one another.
(c) the number of genes influencing phenotype.
45. Various types of excitable tissues when stimulated (d) to understand the dominance/recessive
showed response as shown in the below figures. relationships between alleles.
Which one of them is an example of fast adapting
tissue? 50. The following is the inheritance pattern of a trait
under observation:
(i) The trait often skips a generation
(ii) The number of affected males and females is
almost equal
(iii) The trait is often found in pedigrees with
consanguineous marriages.
The trait is likely to be
(a) autosomal recessive. (b) autosomal dominant.
(c) sex-linked recessive. (d) sex-linked dominant.

51. Given below is an evolutionary tree

46. After gull nestlings hatch, the parents remove the


egg-shells from the nest. This behaviour is to
(a) clean the area.
(b) reduce infection
(c) make more space in the nest.
(d) minimise nest detection by predators.

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Based on the above, which one of the following


combinations is correct?
(a) A - Protostome; B - Deuterostome; X - Mollusca;
Y - Cnidaria; Z- Protozoa
(b) A- Protostome; B - Deuterostome; X -
Echinodermata; Y - Mollusca; Z - Cnidaria
(c) A - Deuterostome; B - Protostome; X -
(a) dN/dt (b) Nt+1
Crustacea; Y - Mollusca; Z-Cnidaria
(d) dN/dt. 1/N (d) K
(d) A - Deuterostome; B - Protostome; X -
Echinodermata Y- Roundworm; Z - Ctenophora
57. Annual weeds of arable lands are classified as
(a) phonerophytes. (b) therophytes.
52. The fungal group presently classified under
(c) chamaephytes. (d) geophytes.
protists is
(a) Zygomycetes. (b) Oomycetes.
58. Which one of the following advancements in on the
(c) Deuteromycetes. (d) Discomycetes.
animal classification is correct?
(a) Protostomes Pseudocoelomates
53. Name the common Indian bird that is generally
Deuterostomes Eucoelomates
seen in groups (aggregation)
(b) Acoelomates Protostomes Eucoelomates
(a) Bulbul (b) Warbler
Deuterostomes
(c) Babbler (d) Sun bird
(c) Pseudocoelomates Encoclomates Protostomes
Deuterostomes
54. The fungus associated with human oral or vaginal
(d) Protostomes Deuterostomes Acoelomates
infection is
Eucoelomates
(a) Fusarium. (b) Aspergillus
(c) Candida. (d) Pneumocytis
59. Which of the following is the most appropriate
spectral bands for vegetation analysis using remote
55. The most common vegetation in the Western
sensing platforms?
Ghats of India is tropical moist deciduous forest
(a) Red, Near Infrared (b) Infrared, Visible
but that in Deccan plateu is depleted thorn forest.
(c) Red, Microwave (d) Visible, Microwave
The possible reason is
(a) richer soil of Western Ghats compare to Deccan
60. Which of the following diseases does not leave any
plateau.
paleontological evidence?
(b) extensive deforestation in Deccan plateau
(a) Tuberculosis (b) Arthritis.
compared to Western Ghats.
(c) Rickets (d) Cholera
(c) higher rainfall in Western Ghat compared to
Deccan plateau.
61. Greater male investment in the care of offspring is
(d) higher temperature in Deccan plate compared
most likely to lead to
toWestern Ghats.
(a) a lek system.
(b) stronger female choice.
56. The following graph is for a logistically growing
(c) Reverse sexual dimorphism
population, with Nt plotted on the X-axis. What is
(d) run-away selection.
theparameter plotted on the Y-axis?

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62. A neuron that fires when an individual is eating by 69. A weed is assumed to be dispersed randomly in a
hand, also fires when he sees someone else eating meadow. What statistical distribution will describe
with hand. Such neurons are called the dispersion correctly?
(a) mirror neurons. (b) mimicry neurons. (a) Binomial (b) Negative Binomial
(c) motor neurons. (d) reward neurons. (c) Poisson (d) Normal

63. Which of the following microbial fermentations 70. Co-localization of two fluorescently labeled proteins
are anaerobic? in an organelle in cells is usually visualised by
(a) Ethanol and acetone-butanol. (a) interference-contrast microscopy.
(b) Citric acid and propionic acid. (b) scanning electron microscopy.
(c) Penicillin and vitamin B1(2) (c) confocal microscopy.
(d) Streptomycin and rifampicin. (d) atomic force microscopy

64. Encasing of which of the following plant eel in a


71. Tryptic digest of a heptapeptide (built from 3 lysine
gelatinous matrix is referred as artificial seed?
(K), 2 alanine (A), 1 tyrosine (Y) and 1 phenylalanine
(a) Microcalli (b) Somatic embryos
(F) yielded tri and tetrapeptide. Which of the
(c) Root tips (d) Shoot tips
following is the correct sequence of the
65. Which of the following transgenic crops have been heptapeptide?
approved for commercial cultivation in India? (a) KAYAKFK (b) YKAAFKK
(a) Cotton (c) KYKAAKF (d) KYAAKFK
(b) Brinjal
(c) Cotton and Brinjal 72. 100 ml of 0.1 M sodium acetate solution has a pH of
(d) Cotton, Brassica, Brinjal 8.90. To this solution 1000 μl of 1M acetic acid (pKa
= 4.76) of pH 2.80 is added. The pH of this mixture
66. Chinese Brake fern (Pteris vittata) is will be:
hyperaccumulator of : (a) 8.90 (b) 4.76
(a) Cadmium. (b) Arsenic. (c) 2.80 (d) 5.76
(c) Lead. (d) Chromium.
73. What are A, B and C in the following reactions?
67. Which of the following is NOT a post- translational
modification in a mammalian system?
(a) Palmitoylation (b) glycosylation
(c) peptidylation (d) phosphorylation

68. Haemoglobin has characteristic circular dichroism


(CD) peaks C in the far-UV, near UV and Soret
regions. Contribution to near-UV CD comes
(a) Pyruvate, ribose 5-phosphate, glycogen.
entirely from
(b) Ribose 5-phosphate, glycogen, pyruvate.
(a) aromatic amino acid residues.
(c) Glycogen, pyruvate, ribose 5-phosphate.
(b) heme group.
(d) Glycogen, citrate, ribose 5-phosphate.
(c) heme and aromatic amino acid residues.
(d) peptide bonds and aromatic amino acid
residues.
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SECTION-C 76. It has been observed that for the DNA double helix
melting, the value of ΔH (enthalpy change of
74. Michaelis-Menten enzyme kinetics for a simple
denaturation) are 80 and 90 kcal/mole at 70° and
reaction involving an enzyme (E) and substrate (S)
80°, respectively. Assuming that ΔCp (constant-
isgiven by the scheme:
pressure heat capacity change) is independent of
temperature, estimate ΔH associated with the
description of Km, kcat and their relationship is denaturation of DNA at 37°C. This estimated value
provided in the following statements. ofΔH (kcal/mole) is
A. Km represents association constant of the ES (a) 27 (b) 37
complex. (c) 47 (d) 57
B. Km represents the dissociation constant of the
EScomplex. 77. Using FRAP (Fluorescence Recovery After Photo-
C. kcat is the rate constant for the chemical bleaching) techniques, diffusion coefficient of three
conversionof the ES complex to substrate bound integral membranes proteins M1, M2 and M3 in a
enzyme and product. kidney cell is calculated as 1 μm/s, 0.05 μm/s and
D. kcat/Km is a rate constant that refers to the 0.005 μm/s, receptively. Considering fluid-mosaic
properties and reactions of the free enzyme and nature of biological membrane and relationship of
freesubstrate. structural organization of integral membrane
Which of the combinations of above statements is protein with diffusion coefficient, which protein(s)
true? will have highest number of integral membrane
(a) A and C domain?
(b) B and D (a) M2 and M3
(c) A and D (b) M2 only
(d) B and C (c) M3 only
(d) M1 andM3
75. A 26-residue peptide composed of alanine and
leucine shows a circular dichroism (CD) spectrum 78. One highly pathogenic DNA virus enters into the
characteristic of α-helix at 50°C in 5 mM host cells by endocytosis replicates in the nucleus
phosphate buffer at pH 7.4. Deconvolution of the followed by cell lysis. You have drugs at you
spectrum indicates 60% α-helical and 40% random disposalthat block
conformation. When the peptide solution is A. acidification of vesicles.
cooled gradually to 25°C, and the CD spectra are B. mitochondrial transport.
recorded at different temperatures, the most C. nuclear export.
likely observation will be that D. exocytosis.
(a) the % helical content will decrease and % Identify the right combination to prevent the
randomconformation will increase. infection.
(b) the % helical content will increase and % (a) A and B
randomconformation will decrease. (b) B and D
(c) there will be transition from α-helix to β- sheet. (c) A and C
(d) there will be transition from α-helix to β-hairpin. (d) A and D

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79. When cells enter mitosis, their existing array of 81. Cell cycle is regulated by various cyclins and cyclin
cytoplasmic microtubules has to be rapidly broken dependent kinases (CDK). On receiving mitotic
down and replaced with the mitotic spindle, stimuli, cyclin D, the first cyclin expressed, binds
which pulls the chromosomes into the daughter with existing CDK4 to form the active cyclin D-CDK4
cells. The enzyme Katanin is activated during the complex. This in turn phosphorylates
onset of mitosis and chops microtubules into retinoblastoma protein (Rb) which activates E2f to
short pieces. The possible fate of the microtubule further activate the transcription of various
fragments created by Katanin will be downstream cyclins. In a particular cell type there is
(a) depolymerization. a mutation in Rb such that it cannot be
(b) aggregation. phosphorylated. What will be the correct expression
(c) degradation. pattern of cyclin E in these cells after mitotic
(d) translocation. stimulation?

80. A bacterial strain can use carbohydrates and


hydrocarbons as growth substrates. The strain
uses glucose following a minimal lag period after
inoculation, regardless of the other carbohydrates
and hydrocarbons in the growth medium. The
following observations were also made.
A. In the absence of glucose, lactose is used after a
lagperiod of about three times as long as the lag
period for glucose utilization.
B. The presence of hydrocarbons does not affect
thelag period for the utilization of lactose.
C. The utilization pattern for all hydrocarbons is
similar to that of lactose.
D. Branched hydrocarbons are not immediately 82. A bacterial culture was in log phase in the following
utilized if straight chain hydrocarbons are figure. At time x, an antibacterial compound was
initiallypresent. added to the culture.
Which one of the following specific regulatory
mechanisms is consistent with the above
observations related to carbohydrate and
hydrocarbon utilization?
(a) Diauxie
(b) End point repression Which of the following lines in the growth curve
(c) Catabolite repression represents the antibacterial activities of the
(d) Transcription attenuation compound?

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84. The complex responses to different types of DNA


damage in both prokaryotes and eukaryotes fall into
three main categories:
(i) damage bypass
(ii) damage reversal
(iii) damage removal
Many repair proteins are isolated like
(a) DNA methyl transferase
(b) DNA glycosylase
(c) DNA polymerase IV
Which one of the following represents the correct
combination?
83. In a cell free extract containing DNA polymerase I, (a) (i)-(a), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(c) (b) (i)-(b), (ii)-(c), (iii)-(a)
Mg2+, dATP, dGTP, dCTP and dTTP (3H), the (c) (i)-(c), (ii)-(a), (iii)-(b) (d) (i)-(c), (ii)-(b), (iii)-(a)
following DNA molecules were added:
a. Single stranded closed circular DNA molecule 85. In recent years, genome-wide transcription study
containing 824 nucleotides. using high throughput sequence analysis has
b. Single stranded closed circular DNA molecule revealed some novel results that include:
having 1578 nucleotides base paired with a (i) presence of RNA polymerase in both intra- and
linear single standard DNA molecule of 824 intergenic regions of the genome
nucleotideshaving a free-3'-OH group. (ii) existence of non-coding RNAs generated from
c. Double stranded linear DNA molecule mRNA coding genes.
containing 1578 nucleotides having free-3'-OH (iii) existence of sense-and antisense transcripts
group at both ends. generated from the promoter and untranslated
d. Double stranded closed circular DNA molecule regionof many annotated genes.
having 824 nucleotides. Possible interpretation of the above results are:
The rate of DNA synthesis was measured by A. RNA polymerase can loosely bind to any part of
incorporation of 3H thymidine in the DNA molecule the genome but its affinity becomes strong only
and expressed as the percentage of DNA synthesis when it reaches the promoter.
relative to total DNA input. B. Binding of RNA polymerase to non-promoter
Which one of the following graphs represents the regions of the genome leads to the generation of
correct result? various non-coding regulatory RNAs.
C. Non-coding RNAs are generated from mRNA
coding genes due to aberrant transcription
initiation and termination.
D. Sense and antisense transcripts are generated
from the promoter and untranslated regions of
protein coding genes by a novel mechanism of
bidirectional transcription.
Identify the correct combination of the above
interpretations:

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(a) A and B (b) B and D 88. Bacteriophage λ is a temperate bacteriophage and


(c) A and D (d) B and C has two modes in its life cycle, lysogenic and lytic.
Several genes are involved in these two processes
86. Aminacyl tRNA synthetases face two important like N, cI, cII, cIII, Q, int, xis, etc.
challenges: Which one of the following diagrams represents the
i) They must recognize the correct set of tRNAs for control mechanism correctly?
aparticular amino acid.
ii) they must charge all of these isoaccepting tRNAs
with the correct amino acid.
Both of these processes are carried out with high
fidelity by the following possible mechanisms:
A. The discrimination ability resides predominantly
atthe acceptor stem of the tRNAs.
B. The specificity is contributed by the anticodon
loopin tRNAs.
C. The specificity is embedded in the amino acyl
synthetase at the 'N' terminus
D. The specificity is contributed by the variable
loop ofthe tRNA.
89. Clearance of phagocytosed intracellular parasite like
Which of the following is correct?
Leishmania requires the involvement of reactive
(a) A and B (b) A and C
oxygen species (ROS) and reactive nitrogen species
(c) B and C (d) A and D
(RNS). Administration of IFN-γ to macrophages
harbouring an intracellular pathogen leads to the
87. During heat shock, mammalian cells shut down
production of ROS and RNS by JAK/STAT pathway. A
global protein synthesis while inducing heat shock
macrophage cell line J774 infected with Leishmania
proteins (Hsps). The possible molecular
is given the following treatments.
regulation(s) that could explain the phenomenon
A. IFN- γ
are:
B. IFN- γ +AMT, a potent iNOS inhibitor.
A. mRNA of all proteins, except those of Hsps,
C. IFN- γ + apocyanin, a NADPH oxidase inhibitor.
undergoes degradation during heat shock.
D. IFN- γ + NMMA (N-monomethyl arginine), an
B. Cap-dependent translation of most mRNAs is
arginine analogue.
affected during heat shock due to denaturation
What will be the most appropriate graph showing
of capbinding protein, eIF-4E.
the survival of parasites after these treatments?
C. Translation initiation of Hsp mRNAs takes place
through their internal ribosome entry sites
(IRES)
D. Hsp mRNAs are abundant during heat shock and
thus they compete out other mRNAs for
ribosome binding and translation.
Which of the following sets is correct?
(a) A and D (b) B and C
(c) C and D (d) A and D

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90. A ligand recognizes two different cell surface 92. An important role of Fas and mediate elimination of
receptors, A and B, on the same cell type. tumor cells by killer lymphocytes. In a study of 35
Receptor A, after binding with the ligand is primary lung and colon tumors, half the tumors
internalized along with the ligand whereas were found to have amplified and overexpressed a
receptor B, after binding with the ligand, initiates gene for a "secreted protein" that binds to Fas
tyrosine kinase activity of the intracellular ligand. The main reason for survival of these tumor
domain. One particular disease is associated with cells by this "secreted Fas- ligand binding protein"
the loss of receptor-mediated signal transduction may be attributed to its
of the ligand. Different observers inferred that the (a) decoy receptor activity.
disease may be resulted due to (b) anti-proliferative activity.
A. loss of binding affinity of receptor A due to (c) cellular defense activity against cytotoxic killing.
mutation in the extracellular domain. (d) anti-contact inhibition activity.
B. loss of binding affinity of receptor B due to
mutation in the extracellular domain. 93. A BALB/c mouse was thymectomized on the first
C. mutation in the tyrosine kinase domain day after birth (mouse 1) whereas another was
rendering itinactive. thymectomized on day 7 after birth (mouse 2). A
D. mutation in the intracellular domain rendering it third mouse underwent the same operation on day
incapable of endocytosis. 21 after birth. After 56 days, sera were prepared
Which combination of the above inferences do from these mice and also from control mice, which
you think is appropriate for the cause of the had sham operation. The sera were checked for
disease? anti- DNA antibodies. Which one of the following
(a) A and B (b) B and C observations is the most plausible?
(c) C and D (d) A and D (a) Both mouse 1 and mouse 2 had anti-DNA
antibodies but mouse 3 did not have anti-DNA
91. Vascular endothelial (VE)-cadherin is an important antibodies.
cell adhesion molecule for endothelial cells. (b) Only mouse 1 had anti-DNA antibodies.
Endothelial cells that are unable to express VE- (c) Only mouse 3 had anti-DNA antibodies.
cadherin still can adhere to one another via N- (d) Only the control mice had anti-DNA antibodies.
cadherin (neural cadherin), but these cells do not
94. A potentially valuable therapeutic approach for
survive. Which of the following is the most
killing tumour cells without affecting normal cells is
appropriate reason for this?
the use of immunotoxins. Immunotoxins consist of
(a) N-cadherin uses VE-cadherin as co-receptor for
particular cell-specific monoclonal antibodies
adhesion.
coupled to lethal toxins. Which of the following
(b) VE-cadherin acts as co-receptor for VEGF
molecular approaches is NOT appropriate for killing
(vascular endothelial growth factor) mediated
tumor-cells?
signal transduction in endothelial cells.
(a) Cell surface receptor binding polypeptide chain of
(c) VE-cadherin is important for desmosome
toxin molecules should be replaced by monoclonal
formation and interaction of intermediate
antibodies which are specific for a particular
filaments.
tumor cell.
(d) Loss of VE-cadherin impairs Ca2+ homeostasis of
(b) Constant region Fc domain of tumor cell-specific
vascular endothelial cells leading to their death.
monoclonal antibody should be replaced by toxin
molecules.
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(c) Variable region F(ab) domain of tumor cell- Choose the correct set among the following:
specific monoclonal antibody should be replaced (a) A and D (b) A and C
by toxin molecules. (c) B and C (d) A and B
(d) Inhibitor polypeptide chain of toxin molecules
should be conjugated to the F(ab) domain of 97. In Amphibians, when due to some injury, the eye
monoclonal antibody tumor-specific monoclonal lens is damaged, the fully differentiated iris cells can
antibodies. regenerate the lens. It is achieved through the
possible processes:
95. A set of experiments that were carried out to A. Iris cells through some signaling undergo
demonstrate the effect of Apical Ectodermal Ridge dedifferentiation and transdifferentiation into lens
(AER) of the chick limb bud on the underlying cells to regenerate the lens.
mesenchyme are enlisted below, along with their B. Iris cells transform into lens cells spontaneously.
expected outcomes: C. Iris cells induce in a stepwise manner, specific
A. Removal of the AER of forelimb leads to genes responsible for their dedifferentiation and
cessationof limb development. thenconversion to lens cells.
B. If an extra AER is placed in the forelimb bud, D. Stem cells present in iris tissue differentiate into
duplication of the distal region of the wing takes lens cells.
place. Which of the following is correct?
C. If an extra AER is placed in the forelimb bud, a (a) A and B
legdevelops instead of a wing. (b) A and C
D. If AER of forelimb bud is replaced with beads (c) B and D
soaked in FGF2, a normal wing develops. (d) B and C
E. If a non limb mesenchyme is placed below an
AER, the AER directs the mesenchyme to form a 98. The control of flowering is a complex process
normal wing. involving several key regulatory genes. Some
Which of the above statements are correct? statements on flower development are given below:
(a) A, C and E (b) C, D and E A. Two major types of genes regulate floral
(c) B, D and E (d) A, B and D development: meristem identity genes and floral
organ identity genes.
96. Hensen's node is established as the avian B. The important genes in Arabidopsis that play key
equivalent of the amphibian dorsal blastopore lip. regulatory roles in meristem identity are:
The following observations are presumed to be APETALA1, LEAFY and SUPPRESSOR OF
support of the same. CONSTANS1.
A. It is the region whose cells induce and pattern a C. The genes that determine floral organ identity
second embryonic axis when transplanted into werediscovered as floral homeotic mutants.
otherlocations of the gastrula. D. Most plant homeotic genes belong to a class of
B. It is equivalent in terms of tissue structure. related sequences known as FAD box genes.
C. It expresses the same marker genes as the Which one of the following combinations of the
Spemann's organizer in Amphibians. above statements is correct?
D. The same micro RNA can interfere with the (a) A, B and C (b) B, C and D
formation of pre-chordal plate in both Hensen's (c) A, C and D (d) A, B and D
nodeand Spemann's organizer.

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99. A few statements on early developmental stages (a) B, C and D (b) A, B and D
in plants are given below: (c) A, B and C (d) A, C and D
A. The cells of flower are diploid in nature.
B. Only some specialized cells in reproductive 102. Asada-Halliwell pathway protects plants against
organsundergo meiosis produce haploid cells. oxidative stress during unfavorable environmental
C. The haploid cells produced in (B) above, growth regimes. The following are some
undergo afew normal mitotic cell divisions. statements related to the stress-tolerance
D. All the progeny cells produced in (B) above, mechanism through this pathway in plants.
differentiate either into haploid egg cells or into A. Oxygen accepts electrons as an alternative
haploid sperm cells. electronacceptor.
Which one of the following combinations of above B. Hydrogen peroxide is reduced by catalase to
statements is correct? formwater.
(a) A, B and C (b) B, C and D C. Ascorbate is oxidized and regenerated.
(c) A, C and D (d) A, B and D D. Glutathione is oxidized and reduced.
Which one of the following combinations of the
100. Cells from an early frog blastula were remove above statements is true?
from the animal pole and used to replace cells (a) B, C and D (b) A, B and C
from the vegetal pole of the blastula. The (c) A, B and D (d) A, C and D
following eventsmay be expected.
A. Transplanted cells would develop normally as 103. The following are certain facts regarding biological
partof the cells of the vegetal pole. nitrogen fixation in plants:
B. Transplanted cells would develop as cells of the A. Oxygen irreversibly inactivates nitrogenase
animal pole of the adult on the vegetal pole. enzyme involved in nitrogen fixation.
C. Region of the animal pole from where the cells B. The nod genes that code for nodulation proteins
were removed would be missing in the adult. are activated by NodD
D. Remaining cells in the animal pole would C. The two components of nitrogenase enzyme
compensate for the cells that were removed. complex, the Fe protein and MoFe protein, can
Which of the following are true? show catalytic activity independently.
(a) B, C and D (b) A, B and D D. During the reaction catalyzed by nitrogenase
(c) A, B and C (d) A, C and D enzyme, the Fe protein reduces the MoFe
proteinwhile the MoFe protein reduces N(2)
101. Capacitation of mammalian sperms allows them Which one of the following combination of the
to be activated within the uterus and facilitate abovestatements is correct?
fertilization. The following statements were (a) A, B and C
made regarding events occurring during (b) B, C and D
capacitation: (c) A, C and D
A. removal of cholesterol from sperm head. (d) A, B and D
B. Removal of non-covalently bound
glycoproteins. 104. Secondary metabolites are diverse array of organic
C. Increased expression of fibronectin. compounds in plants. The following are certain
D. Decreased permeability of calcium ions. statements about secondary metabolites:
Identify the correct statements:

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A. They protect plants against being eaten by A. Phototropism is a photomorphogenetic response.


herbivores and against being infected by B. PHOT1 and PHOT2 genes mediate phototropism.
microbialpathogens. C. CRY1 and CRY2 genes although help to perceive
B. Terpenes, the largest class of secondary blue light are not involved in phototropism.
metabolites are synthesized by methyl D. Perception of blue light by phyA photoreceptor
erythritol phosphate(MEP) pathway and initiates phototropism.
shikimic acid pathway. Which one of the following combination of the
C. The most abundant classes of phenolic abovestatements is correct?
compounds in plants are derived from (a) A, B, and C (b) B, C and D
phenylalanine. (c) A, C and D (d) A, B and D
D. Alkaloids are nitrogen containing secondary
metabolites in plants. 107. Plants make several hormones that are important
Which one of the following combinations of the for growth and development. Some statements on
above statements is correct? plant hormones are given below:
(a) A, B and C A. Auxin is produced primarily in the root apices
(b) B, C and D B. Cytokinins are a smaller group of related
(c) A, C and D compounds.
(d) A, B and D C. Gibberellins are a large group of related
compounds defined not by their biological
105. The following are some statements about long functionsbut by their structures.
distance translocation of photoassimilates in D. Brassinosteroids are an important class of plant
higherplants: hormones, which control a broad spectrum of
A. Sugars are translocated in the phloem by mass developmental reposes including pollen tube
transfer along a hydrostatic pressure. growth.
B. Gibberellic acid stimulates the unloading of Which one of the following combination of the
sugarsfrom phloem tissue into apoplasts. abovestatements is correct?
C. Munch pressure-flow hypothesis is crucial to (a) A, B and C
drivetranslocation in the phloem. (b) B, C and D
D. Allocation and partition of carbon within a (c) A, C and D
source leaf determine the phloem loading (d) A, B and D
phenomenon.
Which one of the following combinations of the 108. An action potential was generated on a nerve fibre
above statements is true? by a threshold electrical stimulus. When a second
(a) A, B and D stimulus was applied, no matter how strong it was,
(b) A, B and C during the absolute refractory period of the action
potential, the nerve fibre was unable to generate
(c) A, C and D
second action potential. This observation was
(d) B, C and D explained in the following statements:
A. A large fraction of potassium channel was voltage
106. Directional growth of plants induced by light is inactivated
called phototropism. Some statements on B. The critical number of sodium channels required
phototropism are given below: toproduce an action potential could not be
recruited.
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C. A large fraction of sodium channel was voltage C. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes
inactivated. depolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
D. The critical number of potassium channels D. The sodium channels are voltage inactivated in
required to produce an action potential could depolarized state
not be recruited. Which one of the following is true?
Which one of the following is true? (a) Only A
(a) Only A (b) A and B (b) A and B
(c) Only C (d) C and D (c) Only C
(d) C and D
109. Water and electrolytes like Na+ and cl- are lost
from the body in diarrhoea. Oral administration 111. Myoglobin (Mb) in muscles, Hemoglobin A (HbA) in
of NaCl solution in this condition does not adult RaC, Hemoglobin C (HbC) in patients with
improve the situation. When glucose is thinner RBC and Hemoglobin S (HbS) in sickle cell
administered with normal NaCl solution through disease are four different hemoproteins. Oxygen
oral route, the absorption of electrolytes along saturation kinetics of these four proteins is
with water occurs and the patient recovers. different. Which of the following profile is most
A. Glucose enhances ATP production in the plausible?
mucosal cells of small intestine and thus
facilitates sodium absorption.
B. Glucose inhibits the diarrheal toxin induced
cAMP production in the mucosal cells of small
intestine.
C. Na+ is co-transported with glucose on the
apical surface of the mucosal cells of small
intestine.
D. The epithelial sodium channels (ENaC) are
activatedby glucose in colon.
Which one of the following is true?
(a) Only A
(b) A and B
(c) Only C
(d) C and D
112. Maintaining the salt concentration and volume
110. A patient has episodes of painful spontaneous plasma are two key parameters for physiological
muscles contraction, followed by periods of processes achieved by kidney. Which of following
paralysisof the affected muscles. It was identified structural and functional combines the most
as primary hyperkalemic paralysis, an inherited efficientrenal regulatory system mammals?
disorder. The possible causes of the paralysis are
A. The elevation of extracellular K+ causes
hyperpolarization of skeletal muscle cells.
B. The hyperpolarization of the muscle cell
membraneinactivates sodium channels.

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Combination Structural Functional 114. Which of the following representations of


No. chromosomal arrangement in meiotic metaphase I
1 Large Trans-epithelial in best explains the Law of Independent Assortment?
glomerulus, proximal
long proximal countercurrent
and distal multiplier, ADH
tubules, long responsiveness of
Henle's loop distal tubule
2 Small Transepithelial
glomerulus, potential in distal
short proximal tubule, very high
and distal ADH concentration
tubule short in circulation
Henle's loop
3 Very large Very efficient
glomerulus, glomerular filtration,
short proximal prevention of solute
tubule, very loss
ong distal 115. Which of the following statements are true
tubule, long Robertsonian translocations?
Henle's A. The size of the homologous chromosome
loop involved in translocation will differ.
4 Small Preventing water B. Genes on the chromosome involved in
glomerulus, and solute filtration, translocation will show linkage with gene with
long proximal excreting solute, which it normal independently assorts.
and distal lowering ADH C. There will be change in the physical map, but no
tubules, Henle's responsiveness change in the genetic map.
loop D. It can be identified by G-banding chromosomes.
E. It can be identified by C-banding chromosomes.
113. Which one of the following graphs best F. It can lead to Down syndrome
represents the hormone profile in a rat right Which one of the following combination is correct?
aftermatting? (a) A, C and D
(b) A, D and F
(c) A, B, D and F
(d) A, C, E and F

116. Ames test is used to evaluate mutagens in the


environment. Which of the following statements,
about Ames test are true?

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A. The mutagenic effect of a compound tested


using an auxotrophic strain of Salmonella
typhimurium
B. The mutagenic effect of a compound is tested
usingHis strain of Escherichia coli.
C. Using appropriate strains, compounds causing
basesubstitutions and frame shift
D. Liver enzymes are important as they are
A child from marriage between individuals II-2 & II-
activated by test compound to evaluate its
3 will show the disorder only if the parents carry
mutagenicity potential.
the recessive allele. What is the probability that
E. Many compounds may have to be converted to
the childwill show the disorder?
bioactive metabolites, which is carried out by
(a) 1/9, and the probability of the parents carry the
theenzymes from the liver
recessive allele is 2/3.
(a) A, C and D (b) A, B and D
(b) 1/4, and the probability of the parents carry the
(c) A, C and E (d) A and E only
recessive allele is 3/4.
(c) 1/16, and the probability of the parents carry the
117. The genetic map of three genes in Drosophila
recessive allele is 2/3
melanogaster is given below:
(d) 1/64, and the probability of the parents carry the
recessive allele is 3/4

A cross, as given below individuals of the


119. DNA from a strain of bacteria with genotype a + b+
genotype:
c+ d+ e + was isolated and used to transform a strain
of bacteria that was a- b- c- d- e-. The transformed
eel were tested for the presence of donated genes.
The female F1 progeny are test-crossed and 1000
The following genes are found be co-transformed
progeny are obtained. Assuming that there has
i. a+ and d+
been no double crossover, what is the expected
ii. b+ and e+
number ofprogeny with the genotypes:
iii. c+ and d+
iv. c+ and e+
The order of genes on the bacterial chromosome is
Select the set which shows the correct number of (a) a-b-c-d-e (b) a-d-c-e-b
expected progeny. (c) a-c-d-e-b (d) a-d-b-e-c

120. Coelomates have


A. fluid filled body cavity.
B. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived
frommesoderm covering the body cavity.
C. a complete lining called peritoneum, derived
fromectoderm covering the body cavity.
118. The following pedigree shows the inheritance D. Round worm as representative of this group.
pattern of a rare recessive disorder with E. Flat worm as representative of this group.
completepenetrance. Select the correct combination
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(a) A, C and D (b) A, C and E 124. In the following diagram, two models succession
(c) A, B and D (d) A and B are represented. In this diagram A, C and D are
species and arrows indicate replaced by'
121. Most biologists agree that seaweeds are protists.
Some biologists think that at least some
seaweeds should be considered plants, not
protists. Which of the following would support
the latter one?
(a) Certain seaweeds contain several kinds of
specialised cells. Based on the above, which statement is correct.
(b) Certain seaweeds have multicellular (a) Fig.(i) represents facilitation and Fig.(ii)
organization. representstolerance model
(c) Certain seaweeds are found to be prokaryotic. (b) Fig.(i) represents tolerance model Fig. (ii)
(d) Certain seaweeds undergo sexual and asexual represents facilitation model
reproduction. (c) Fig.(i) represents facilitation m and Fig.(ii)
represents inhibition model
122. Which of following shows the correct systematic (d) Fig.(i) represents tolerance model Fig.(ii)
hierarchy? represents inhibition model
(a) Kingdom Phylum Subphylum Superclass
Class Subclass Cohort Order Suborder 125. Lindeman's efficiency between trophic levels is
Super family Family Subfamily Genus depicted by the formula: Efficiency = A/B Where, A
Subgenus Species Subspecies and B, respectively are:
(b) Kingdom Phylum Subphylum Cohort (a) 'assimilation at trophic level n' and 'assimilation
Superclass Class Subclass Superfamily attrophic level n - 1'
Family Subfamily Order Suborder Genus (b) 'intake at trophic level n' and 'assimilation at
Subgenus Species Subspecies trophic level n-1'
(c) Kingdom Phylum Class Order Cohort (c) 'assimilation at trophic level n' and 'net
Family Genus Species productivity at trophic level n - 1'
(d) Kingdom Phylum Class Cohort Family (d) 'intake at trophic level n' and productivity at
Order Genus Species trophic level n - 1'

123. Match the following:


126. The following matrix shows the relationship
between probability of death and duration of
speciesassociation.

(a) A-iv, B-iii, C-ii, D-i


(b) A-iii, B-i, C-iv, D-ii
(c) A-i, B-ii, C-iii, D-iv
(d) A-ii, B-iv, C-i, D-iii
In the above, A, B, C and D are:
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(a) A - Parasites, B = Parasitoids, C - Grazers, D - 129. Which one of the following plants group
Predators combinations reflects the correct increasing order
(b) A - Carnivores, B = Herbivores, C- Parasites, D - ofthe number of species it has?
Parasitoids (a) Gymnosperms, Bryophytes, Algae, Angiosperms
(c) A - Grazers, B = Parasites, C - Herbivores, D - (b) Angiosperms, Algae, Fungi
Parasitoids (c) Algae, Bryophytes, Gymnosperms, Angiosperms
(d) A - Predators, B = Parasitoids, C - Parasites, D - (d) Angiosperms, Gymnosperms, Bryophytes, Algae
Carnivores
130. Micro-evolution is the term used for changes in
127. An observation was made on a species allele frequencies that occur over time.
experiencing three factors A, B and C in order to A) Within a population at species level
infer a density dependent population regulation B) within a community at genus level
by a factor. The following graph shows the C) due to appearance of new genes infections
relationship between the adverse effect of the D) due to mutation, natural selection, flow and
factors in terms of number and population genetic drift
density. Which of the following combinations is NOT
appropriate?
(a) A and C (b) A and D
(c) B and C (d) B and D

131. The following genotypes were observed in a


population
Based on the above observation, which of the Genotypev Number
following is correct? HH 90
(a) A - Density independent; B = Density Hh 60
dependent; C - Inversely density dependent hh 50
(b) A - Inversely density dependent; B- Density Which of the following is the correct frequency of
independent; C - Density dependent H allele and what will be the expected number of
(c) A - Density dependent; B = Inversely density HH inthe given population?
independent; C - Density independent (a) 0.60 and 72 (b) 0.80 and 96
(d) A - Density dependent; B = Density (c) 0.50 and 32 (d) 0.30 and 90
independent; C - Inversely density dependent
132. The first vertebrate animal appeared in which of
128. Which of the following biotic provinces are partof the following geological ages?
Deccan Peninsula biogeographic zone of India? A) Paleozoic era B) Mesozoic era
(a) Malabar Coast, Western Plateau, Eastern C) Ordovician period D) Cretaceous period
Plateau E) Mississippian epoch F) Paleocene epoch
(b) Western Ghats, Central Plateau, Eastern Which of the following combinations give the best
Plateau answer?
(c) Central Plateau, Eastern Plateau, chhota (a) A, C and F (b) A and F
Nagapur (c) B, D and E (d) A and C
(d) Central Plateau, Malabar Coast, Western Ghats
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Fore limb of human and flippers of whale are Organism End product (s)
embryologically homologous structures. What A Streptococcus a. Butanediol, formic acid
does the study of homologous structures tell us B Clostridium b. Lactic acid
about evolution? C Salmonella c. Butyric acid and iso
A. This is the example of adaptive radiation, proanol
occurred due to similar group of organisms D Enterobacter d. Succinic acid, acetic acid
inhabiting differentenvironments The correct match is
B. This is the example of divergent evolution, (a) A-a, B-b, C-c, D-d
occurred due to similar group of organisms (b) A-d, B-c, C-a, D-c
inhabiting different environments (c) A-b, B-c, C-d, D-a
C. Similar group of organisms with mutations and (d) A-c, B-d, C-a, D-b
variations getting naturally selected in different
environments 136. In resting cells, proteins X and Y are localized in the
D. This is the example of convergent evolution, cytosol. Upon stimulation with lipopolysaccharide
occurred due to similar group of organisms (LPS), both of them are phosphorylated and
inhabitingdifferent environments translocate to the nucleus. You have used
Which of the following is the correct antibodies against phosphorylated forms of
combination? proteins X and Y which are conjugated to either
(a) A, B and C red, or green or blue dye. Keeping optical
(b) A and D aberration of light in mind, which one of the
(c) B and D following will be the best for visualizing X and Y In
(d) Only D the nucleus by fluorescence microscopy?
(1) Anti green X and anti red Y
134. Foster pups were presented to a primiparous rat (2) Anti red X and anti green Y
at the mid gestation period. Which of the (3) Anti red X and anti blue Y
following behaviour will be found in the pregnant (4) Anti blue X and anti green Y
rat?
(a) The rat shows maternal behaviour after few 137. A transgenic plant is developed with the following
daysof presentation of pups. T-DNA construct
(b) The rat attacks and kills the pups time they are
presented.
(c) The rat rejects the pups after repeated
presentation.
(d) The rat shows fear response for a days.

135. Electrons are transferred from reduced c In order to analyze the nature of integration,
enzymes like NADH, NADPH to pyruvic acid its
genomic DNA digested with EcoRI was used for
derivatives during fermentation. Those fin
electron acceptors are reduced to the end- Southern hybridization using either probe A or B.
product for example latic acid, propionic acid, Theresult obtained is as
etc. end products depend on the particular
microorganism and the substrate

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139. A protein D is encoded by a gene, which is 5 Kb


long and has three Hind III restriction enzyme sites.
The first one is 0.5 Kb from the transcription start
site, the second one is (2)5 Kb from the first site
and the third one is 0.5 Kb internal to the stop
codon. The second site is polymorphic. In order to
find out whether fetal cells contain the normal or
the mutated gene, total genomic DNA from fetal
cells was isolated, completely digested with Hind
The following conclusions were made:
III, separated in an agarose gel, transferred to
A. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette
membrane and detected by a probe against the
integrated at one loci and a third copy at
region between the second and third restriction
another loci.
site. Which one of the following band patterns will
B. There are two copies of the T-DNA cassette
be obtained if the fetal cell is heterozygous?
integrated at one loci.
C. Complete T-DNA cassette has been integrated
in allcases.
D. In one T-DNA cassette there is a truncation
towards the RB
E. In one T-DNA cassette there is a towards the LB
F. The arrangement of the T-DNA cassett
Which of the above statements is true?
(a) A and D
140. Given below are the experimental protocols to find
(b) A and B
out the exact location of repetitive DNA sequence
(c) B and C
in mitotic chromosome by FISH (fluorescence in
(d) B and D
situ hybridization). Which one of the protocols will
give the correct result?
138. A gene is regulated by a novel transcription
(a) Mitotic chromosomes were fixed on glass slide
factor. The following techniques may be used to
incubated with biotinylated telomeric DNA
identify the cis- regulatory element in the 1 kb
denatured incubated with fluorescently labeled
promoter sequence of the gene where the novel
avidin localization observed under fluorescence
transcription factor binds:
microscope.
A. Bioinformatics analysis.
(b) Mitotic chromosomes were fixed on glass slide
B. Cell based reporter assay.
denatured incubated with FITC labeled
C. S 1 nuclease assay
unrelated non- repetitive DNA sequence
D. Electrophoretic mobility shift assay.
counterstained with propidium iodide
E. DNAse-I foot-printing analysis
localization observed under fluorescence
Which one of the following can help to identify
microscope.
thecis element?
(a) A and B (b) C and E
(c) D only (d) E only

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(c) Mitotic chromosomes were fixed on glass slide


denatured incubated with biotinylated
satellite DNA incubated with fluorescently
labeled avidin localization observed under
fluorescencemicroscope.
(d) mitotic chromosomes were fixed on glass slide
incubated with repetitive DNA sequence
binding protein denatured FITC labeled
antibody against the protein localization
observed under fluorescence microscope.

141. At 25°C values of *θ+222, the mean residue


ellipticity at 222 nm, are - 33,000 and -3,000 deg
cm2 dmol-1 for a polypeptide existing in α-helical
(α) and β-structure (β), respectively. If this
polypeptide undergoes a two-state heat-induced
α β transition,and a value of *θ+222 = -18,000 deg
cm2 dmol-1 is observed at 60°C, then this
observation leads to the conclusion that the α
helix conversion to β-structure:
(a) 40% (b) 50%
(c) 55% (d) 60%

142. An EEG was recorded and its power spectrum


analyses were done in rats with implant
electrode for a long time. The power of the EEG
waves decreased two months after electrode
implantation. This observation may be due to the
following:
A. Glial cells accumulate surrounding exposed tips
ofelectrodes.
B. Degeneration of neurons occur surrounding
theelectrode tips due metal ion deposition.
C. Coating of electrodes are destroyed with time.
D. The microsocket becomes loose time.
Which one of the following is true?
(a) Only A (b) A and B
(c) Only C (d) C and D

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SECTION-A
1 2 3 4 5 6 7 8 9 10
a c a d b d a c c c
11 12 13 14 15 16 17 18 19 20
b c d a d c c b c a

SECTION-B
21 22 23 24 25 26 27 28 29 30
b b d c c a a c a d
31 32 33 34 35 36 37 38 39 40
a d a b * a b a b c
41 42 43 44 45 46 47 48 49 50
a a a d b d c b a a
51 52 53 54 55 56 57 58 59 60
b b c c c a b c a d
61 62 63 64 65 66 67 68 69 70
d a a b a b c c c *

SECTION-C
71 72 73 74 75 76 77 78 79 80
c d c b b c c c a c
81 82 83 84 85 86 87 88 89 90
c b c c b a b a b b
91 92 93 94 95 96 97 98 99 100
b a b c d b b a a b
101 102 103 104 105 106 107 108 109 110
c d d c * a b d c d
111 112 113 114 115 116 117 118 119 120
a a c a c c b a b d
121 122 123 124 125 126 127 128 129 130
b a b c a a b c a b
131 132 133 134 135 136 137 138 139 140
a d a a c c b d a *
141 142 143 144 145
d b c b b

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