ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No.

1. Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-

i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
2. Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and interfacing the teams
involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
3. Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Implementation and execution
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case.
Indentify the invalid Equivalance class value.
a. CLASS
b. cLASS
c. CLass
d. CLa01ss
5. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is
taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall
into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
6. Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are :
a) Designed by persons who write the software under test
b) Designed by a person from a different section
c) Designed by a person from a different organization
d) Designed by another person
7. We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for writing :-
a) User Acceptance Test Cases
b) Integration Level Test Cases
c) Unit Level Test Cases
d) Program specifications
8. Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
9. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a) Component testing
b) Non-functional system testing
c) User acceptance testing
d) Maintenance testing
10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room

B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
a) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
b) A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
c) A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
d) A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.

11. Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects
introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another
related or unrelated software component:
a) Re Testing .
b) Confirmation Testing
c) Regression Testing
d) Negative Testing
12. Impact Analysis helps to decide :-
a) How much regression testing should be done.
b) Exit Criteria
c) How many more test cases need to written.
d) Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
13. Functional system testing is:
a) testing that the system functions with other systems
b) testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c) testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d) testing the system performs functions within specified response times
14. Consider the above state transition diagram of a switch.
Which of the following represents an invalid state transition?
a) OFF to ON
b) ON to OFF
c) FAULT to ON
15. Peer Reviews are also called as :-a) Inspection
b) Walkthrough
c) Technical Review
d) Formal Review
16. Consider the following statements:
i. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii. 100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv. 100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v. 100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
17. The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objective
b) Fixing defects found typically done by author
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
18. Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
a) i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
b) i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
c) i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
d) i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
19. Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
a) Test Planning and Control
b) Test implementation and Execution
c) Requirement Analysis
d) Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a) State transition testing
b) LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
c) syntax testing
d) boundary value analysis
21. Success Factors for a review include :
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
a) ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
b) iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
c) i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
d) ii is correct
22. Defects discovered by static analysis tools include :
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
a) i , ii,iii,iv is correct
b) iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect.
c) i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
d) iv, ii is correct
23. Test Conditions are derived from :-
a) Specifications
b) Test Cases
c) Test Data
d) Test Design
24. Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
a) Equivalance partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
b) Equivalence partitioning , Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
c) Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
d) Equivalence Partioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing
Techniques.
25. Regression testing should be performed:
i. every week
ii. after the software has changed
iii. as often as possible
iv. when the environment has changed
v. when the project manager says
a) i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
b) ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
c) ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
d) ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
26. Benefits of Independent Testing
a) Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
b) Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
c) Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
d) Independent Testers can test better than developers
27. Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage :-Read P
Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print “Large”
End if
If p > 50 then
Print “pLarge”
End if
a) Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
b) Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
c) Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
d) Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
28. Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage :-Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
a) Statement coverage is 4
b) Statement coverage is 1
c) Statement coverage is 3
d) Statement Coverage is 2
29. The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test
Documentation IEEE 829 and is called as : -
a) Anomaly Report
b) Defect Report
c) Test Defect Report
d) Test Incident Report
30. Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
31. Features of White Box Testing Technique :-i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of
the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the
path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also checks for functionality.
a) i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
b) iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
c) ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
d) iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
32. Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?i. Checking which planned deliverables
have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
a) i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
b) i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
c) i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
d) All of above are true
33. Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing :-
a) The goal / purpose of testing is
to demonstrate that the program works.
b) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
c) The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
d) Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
34. Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
a) Top down
b) Big-bang
c) Bottom up
d) Functional incrementation.
35. Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffoldinga) i , ii are true and iii is false
b) i , iii are true and ii is false
c) ii , iii are true and i is false
d) All of the above are true
36. Exit Criteria may consist of :-i. Thoroughness measures , such as coverage of code, functionality or
risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
b) i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
c) ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
d) iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
37. Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:
-i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
a) iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
b) i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
c) i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
d) i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
38. The selection of a test approach should consider the context :-i. Risk of Failure of the Project,
hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
39. In case of Large Systems :-
a) Only few tests should be run
b) Testing should be on the basis of Risk
c) Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
d) Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
40. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items
is called asa) Configuration Control
b) Status Accounting
c) Configuration Identification
d) Configuration Identification
Answers :
1 c 2 a 3 a 4 d 5 d 6 c 7 a 8 b 9 d 10 d 11 c 12 a 13 c 14 c 15 c 16 d 17 a 18 d 19 c 20 b 21 a
22 a 23 a 24 c 25 c 26 b 27 c 28 b 29 d 30 a 31 a 32 c 33 d 34 b 35 c 36 b 37 b 38 b 39 b 40 a

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 2

1. When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this is called:
a) an error
b) a fault
c) a failure
d) a defect
e) a mistake
2. Regression testing should be performed:
v) every week
w) after the software has changed
x) as often as possible
y) when the environment has changed
z) when the project manager says
a) v & w are true, x – z are false
b) w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c) w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d) w is true, v, x y and z are false
e) all of the above are true
3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
a) test items
b) test deliverables
c) test tasks
d) test environment
e) test specification
4. Testing should be stopped when:
a) all the planned tests have been run
b) time has run out
c) all faults have been fixed correctly
d) both a) and c)
e) it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive. Which
of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and
valid boundaries:
a) 1000, 5000, 99999
b) 9999, 50000, 100000
c) 10000, 50000, 99999
d) 10000, 99999
e) 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
6. Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. early test design can find faults
iv. early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. early test design takes more effort
a) i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
b) iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
c) iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
d) i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
e) i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
7. Non-functional system testing includes:
a) testing to see where the system does not function properly
b) testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c) testing a system feature using only the software required for that action
d) testing a system feature using only the software required for that function
e) testing for functions that should not exist
8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
a) status accounting of configuration items
b) auditing conformance to ISO9001
c) identification of test versions
d) record of changes to documentation over time
e) controlled library access
9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing in
the small?
a) to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b) to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c) to specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
d) to ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
e) to specify how the software should be divided into modules
10. What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
a) to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b) to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c) to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d) to know when test planning is complete
e) to plan when to stop testing
11. Consider the following statements
i. an incident may be closed without being fixed
ii. incidents may not be raised against documentation
iii. the final stage of incident tracking is fixing
iv. the incident record does not include information on test environments
v. incidents should be raised when someone other than the author of the software performs the test
a) ii and v are true, I, iii and iv are false
b) i and v are true, ii, iii and iv are false
c) i, iv and v are true, ii and iii are false
d) i and ii are true, iii, iv and v are false
e) i is true, ii, iii, iv and v are false
12. Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for full
statement and branch coverage:
Read P
Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print “Large”
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN
Print “P Large”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13. Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start “outlook”
IF outlook appears THEN
Send an email
Close outlook
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
b) 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
e) 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
14. Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN
C=A–B
ELSE
C=A+B
ENDIF
Read D
IF C = D Then
Print “Error”
ENDIF
a) 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b) 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c) 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
d) 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
e) 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
15. Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and watch the
program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
a) SC = 1 and DC = 1
b) SC = 1 and DC = 2
c) SC = 1 and DC = 3
d) SC = 2 and DC = 2
e) SC = 2 and DC = 3
16. The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
a) Attend a tool exhibition
b) Invite a vendor to give a demo
c) Analyse your needs and requirements
d) Find out what your budget would be for the tool
e) Search the internet
17. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a) A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b) Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c) The independent testing team
d) The managers to see what projects it should be used in
e) The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) The use of a variable before it has been defined
b) Unreachable (“dead”) code
c) Whether the value stored in a variable is correct
d) The re-definition of a variable before it has been used
e) Array bound violations
19. Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
a) Equivalence partitioning
b) State transition testing
c) LCSAJ
d) Syntax testing
e) Boundary value analysis
20. Beta testing is:
a) Performed by customers at their own site
b) Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
c) Performed by an independent test team
d) Useful to test bespoke software
e) Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers and which by an
independent test team:
i. static analysis
ii. performance testing
iii. test management
iv. dynamic analysis
v. test running
vi. test data preparation
a) developers would typically use i, iv and vi; test team ii, iii and v
b) developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii, iii, v and vi
c) developers would typically use i, ii, iii and iv; test team v and vi
d) developers would typically use ii, iv and vi; test team I, ii and v
e) developers would typically use i, iii, iv and v; test team ii and vi
22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a) finding faults in the system
b) ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c) testing the system with other systems
d) testing for a business perspective
e) testing by an independent test team
23. Which of the following statements about the component testing standard is false:
a) black box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
b) white box design techniques all have an associated measurement technique
c) cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d) black box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
e) white box measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24. Which of the following statements is NOT true:
a) inspection is the most formal review process
b) inspections should be led by a trained leader
c) managers can perform inspections on management documents
d) inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
e) inspection compares documents with predecessor (source) documents
25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
a) generating expected outputs
b) replaying inputs according to a programmed script
c) comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
d) recording test inputs
e) reading test values from a data file
26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
a) re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
b) re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
c) re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d) re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
e) re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
27. Expected results are:
a) only important in system testing
b) only used in component testing
c) never specified in advance
d) most useful when specified in advance
e) derived from the code
28. Test managers should not:
a) report on deviations from the project plan
b) sign the system off for release
c) re-allocate resource to meet original plans
d) raise incidents on faults that they have found
e) provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
29. Unreachable code would best be found using:
a) code reviews
b) code inspections
c) a coverage tool
d) a test management tool
e) a static analysis tool
30. A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
a) a dynamic analysis tool
b) a test execution tool
c) a debugging tool
d) a test management tool
e) a configuration management tool
31. What information need not be included in a test incident report:
a) how to fix the fault
b) how to reproduce the fault
c) test environment details
d) severity, priority
e) the actual and expected outcomes
32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:1. led by author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a trained moderator or leader
5. uses entry exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
b) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
e) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) requirements-based testing
d) usability testing
e) top-down integration testing
34. What statement about expected outcomes is FALSE:
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes include outputs to a screen and changes to files and databases
d) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
e) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS7925-1
c) BS7925-2
d) ANSI/IEEE 829
e) ANSI/IEEE 729
36. The cost of fixing a fault:
a) Is not important
b) Increases as we move the product towards live use
c) Decreases as we move the product towards live use
d) Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
e) Can never be determined
37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard:
a) Test items (i.e. software versions)
b) What is not to be tested
c) Test environments
d) Quality plans
e) Schedules and deadlines
38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing:
a) No, because they apply to development documentation
b) No, because they are normally applied before testing
c) No, because they do not apply to the test documentation
d) Yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
e) Yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
a) Measuring response time
b) Measuring transaction rates
c) Recovery testing
d) Simulating many users
e) Generating many transactions
40. Error guessing is best used
a) As the first approach to deriving test cases
b) After more formal techniques have been applied
c) By inexperienced testers
d) After the system has gone live
e) Only by end users
Answers:
1 C 2 C 3 E 4 E 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 B 9 C 10 E 11 B 12 B 13 B 14 B 15 E 16 C 17 B 18 C 19 C
20 A 21 B 22 D 23 A 24 D 25 A 26 A 27 D 28 C 29 E 30 D 31 A 32 B 33 E 34 A 35 B
36 B 37 D 38 D 39 C 40 B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 3

[Link] testing activities should start

a. as soon as the code is written
b. during the design stage
c. when the requirements have been formally documented
d. as soon as possible in the development life cycle
[Link] found by users are due to:
a. Poor quality software
b. Poor software and poor testing
c. bad luck
d. insufficient time for testing
[Link] is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
a. to show that system will work after release
b. to decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
c. to find as many bugs as possible before release
d. to give information for a risk based decision about release
4. which of the following statements is not true
a. performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
b. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
c. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
d. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
5. When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
a. as polite, constructive and helpful as possible
b. firm about insisting that a bug is not a “feature” if it should be fixed
c. diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
d. All of the above
[Link] which order should tests be run?
a. the most important tests first
b. the most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
c. the easiest tests first(to give initial confidence)
d. the order they are thought of
7. The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix. why?
a. the documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
b. wages are rising
c. the fault has been built into more documentation,code,tests, etc
d. none of the above
8. Which is not true-The black box tester
a. should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
b. should be able to understand the source code.
c. is highly motivated to find faults
d. is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
9. A test design technique is
a. a process for selecting test cases
b. a process for determining expected outputs
c. a way to measure the quality of software
d. a way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
10. Testware(test cases, test dataset)
a. needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
b. should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
c. is needed only until the software is released into production or use
d. does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the released
software system
11. An incident logging system
a only records defects
b is of limited value
c is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
d. should be used only by the test team.
12. Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time needed for
testing (the test phases) by:
a. reducing test time
b. no change
c. increasing test time
d. can’t say
13. Coverage measurement
a. is nothing to do with testing
b. is a partial measure of test thoroughness
c. branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
d. can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
14. When should you stop testing?
a. when time for testing has run out.
b. when all planned tests have been run
c. when the test completion criteria have been met
d. when no faults have been found by the tests run
15. Which of the following is true?
a. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
b. if u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
c. the fewer bugs you find,the better your testing was
d. the more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
16. What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
a. how well you know a particular technique
b. the objective of the test
c. how appropriate the technique is for testing the application
d. whether there is a tool to support the technique
17. If the pseudocode below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to achieve 100%
statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
18. Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100%
branch/decision coverage?
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. 4
19. Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
a. State-Transition
b. Usability
c. Performance
d. Security
20. Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
a. State analysis
b. Coverage analysis
c. Dynamic analysis
d. Memory analysis
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
[Link] of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23. which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22
are rejected
which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary
values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
31. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004. The boundary values for testing this field
are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
32. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
33. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
34. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
35. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
36. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and
passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
37. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for the
following program fragment? …………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. 1
b. 2
c. 3
d. None of the above
38. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
39. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
40. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
Answers:
1. d 2.b 3.d 4.c 5.d 6.a 7.c 8.b 9.a 10.a 11.c 12.a 13.b 14.c 15.b 16.b 17.c 18.c 19.a 20.c 21.b 22.d 23.c 24.a 25.b
26.d 27.a 28.d 29.c 30.b 31.c 32.d 33.c 34.b 35.c 36.b 37.c 38.a 39.a 40.a

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 4

1. We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
a) Each test stage has a different purpose.
b) It is easier to manage testing in stages.
c) We can run different tests in different environments.
d) The more stages we have, the better the testing.
2. Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and
replay facilities?
a) Regression testing
b) Integration testing
c) System testing
d) User acceptance testing
3. Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
a) A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
b) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
c) A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that
achieves 100% statement coverage.
d) A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one
that achieves 100% branch coverage.
4. Which of the following requirements is testable?
a) The system shall be user friendly.
b) The safety-critical parts of the system shall contain 0 faults.
c) The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
d) The system shall be built to be portable.
5. Analyse the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: “What type of ticket do you require, single or return?”
IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: “What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?”
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: “That will be £11:20”
ELSE
Say: “That will be £19:50”
ENDIF
ELSE
Say: “That will be £9:75”
ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all
the questions have been asked, all combinations have occurred and all
replies given.
a) 3
b) 4
c) 5d) 6
6 Error guessing:
a) supplements formal test design techniques.
b) can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
c) is only performed in user acceptance testing.
d) is not repeatable and should not be used.
7. Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
a) Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
b) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
c) A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
d) Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
8. In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
a) find as many faults as possible.
b) test high risk areas.
c) obtain good test coverage.
d) test whatever is easiest to test.
9. Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5), which one of the
following best pairs the two sets?
v – test control
w – test monitoring
x - test estimation
y - incident management
z - configuration control
1 - calculation of required test resources
2 - maintenance of record of test results
3 - re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - report on deviation from test plan
5 - tracking of anomalous test results
a) v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
b) v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
c) v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
d) v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
10. Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
a) System tests are often performed by independent teams.
b) Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
c) Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
d) End-users should be involved in system tests.
11. Which of the following is false?
a) Incidents should always be fixed.
b) An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
c) Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
d) An incident can be raised against documentation.
12. Enough testing has been performed when:
a) time runs out.
b) the required level of confidence has been achieved.
c) no more faults are found.
d) the users won’t find any serious faults.
13. Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
a) Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
b) Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
c) Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
d) Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
14. Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
a) syntax testing
b) equivalence partitioning
c) stress testing
d) modified condition/decision coverage
15. Which of the following is false?
a) In a system two different failures may have different severities.
b) A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
c) A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
d) Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behaviour.
16. Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
a) They are used to support multi-user testing.
b) They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
c) They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
d) They capture aspects of user behaviour.
17. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
a) Metrics from previous similar projects
b) Discussions with the development team
c) Time allocated for regression testing
d) a & b
18. Which of the following is true of the V-model?
a) It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
b) It only models the testing phase.
c) It specifies the test techniques to be used.
d) It includes the verification of designs.
19. The oracle assumption:
a) is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
b) is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
c) is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
d) is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
20. Which of the following characterises the cost of faults?
a) They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the latest test
phases.
b) They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
c) Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
d) Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix then.
21. Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
a) To find faults in the software.
b) To assess whether the software is ready for release.
c) To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
d) To prove that the software is correct.
22. Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Usability testing
c) Performance testing
d) Security testing
23. Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
a) Features to be tested
b) Incident reports
c) Risks
d) Schedule
24. Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
a) Test management
b) Test design
c) Test execution
d) Test planning
25. Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
a) Statement testing
b) Path testing
c) Data flow testing
d) State transition testing
26. Data flow analysis studies:
a) possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
b) the rate of change of data values as a program executes.
c) the use of data on paths through the code.
d) the intrinsic complexity of the code.
27. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
a) £1500
b) £32001
c) £33501
d) £28000
28. An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
a) enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
b) can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
c) can be performed by inexperienced staff.
d) are cheap to perform.
29. Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
a) Actual results
b) Program specification
c) User requirements
d) System specification
30. What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
a) An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
b) An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
c) Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
d) A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
31. Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
a) It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
b) It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
c) It reduces defect multiplication.
d) It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
32. Integration testing in the small:
a) tests the individual components that have been developed.
b) tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
c) only uses components that form part of the live system.
d) tests interfaces to other systems.
33. Static analysis is best described as:
a) the analysis of batch programs.
b) the reviewing of test plans.
c) the analysis of program code.
d) the use of black box testing.
34. Alpha testing is:
a) post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
b) the first testing that is performed.
c) pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
d) pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
35. A failure is:
a) found in the software; the result of an error.
b) departure from specified behaviour.
c) an incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
d) a human action that produces an incorrect result.
36. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%
The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
a) £4800; £14000; £28000
b) £5200; £5500; £28000
c) £28001; £32000; £35000
d) £5800; £28000; £32000
37. The most important thing about early test design is that it:
a) makes test preparation easier.
b) means inspections are not required.
c) can prevent fault multiplication.
d) will find all faults.
38. Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
a) Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
b) Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
c) Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
d) Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
39. Test cases are designed during:
a) test recording.
b) test planning.
c) test configuration.
d) test specification.
40. A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
a) linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
b) facilities to compare test results with expected results.
c) the precise differences in versions of software component source code.
d) restricted access to the source code library.
Answers:
1 A 2 A 3 D 4 C 5 A 6 A 7 C 8 B 9 C 10 D 11 A 12 B 13 A 14 C 15 B 16 B 17 D 18 D 19 B
20 A 21 D 22 A 23 B 24 C 25 D 26 C 27 C 28 A 29 C 30 D 31 C 32 B 33 C 34 C 35 B 36 D
37 C 38 D 39 D 40 B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 5

1. An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
a. 0,1900,2004,2005
b. 1900, 2004
c. 1899,1900,2004,2005
d. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
2. Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
a. System testing
b. Usability testing
c. Performance testing
d. Both b & c
3. Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
a. Data tester
b. Boundary tester
c. Capture/Playback
d. Output comparator.
4. Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
a. Statement Coverage
b. Pole Coverage
c. Condition Coverage
d. Path Coverage
5. Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
a. Functionality
b. Usability
c. Supportability
d. Maintainability
6. To test a function, the programmer has to write a _________, which calls the function to be tested and
passes it test data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
7. Boundary value testing
a. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
b. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
c. Tests combinations of input circumstances
d. Is used in white box testing strategy
8. Pick the best definition of quality
a. Quality is job one
b. Zero defects
c. Conformance to requirements
d. Work as designed
9. Fault Masking is
a. Error condition hiding another error condition
b. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
c. Masking a fault by developer
d. Masking a fault by a tester
10. One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
a. Lack of technical documentation
b. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
c. Lack of training
d. Lack of Objectivity
11. During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
a. When the code is complete.
b. When the design is complete.
c. When the software requirements have been approved.
d. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
12. In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
a. Takes minutes of the meeting
b. Mediates between people
c. Takes telephone calls
d. Writes the documents to be reviewed
13. Given the Following program
IF X < Y
THEN Statement 1;
ELSE IF Y >= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
a. 2
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths) for
the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each other : -
…………
if (Condition 1)
then statement 1
else statement 2
fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3
fi
…………
a. 2 Test Cases
b. 3 Test Cases
c. 4 Test Cases
d. Not achievable
15. Acceptance test cases are based on what?
a. Requirements
b. Design
c. Code
d. Decision table
16. “How much testing is enough?”
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. This question is easy to answer
c. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
d. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
17. A common test technique during component test is
a. Statement and branch testing
b. Usability testing
c. Security testing
d. Performance testing
18. Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
a. Missing Statements
b. Unused Branches
c. Dead Code
d. Unused Statement
19. Independent Verification & Validation is
a. Done by the Developer
b. Done by the Test Engineers
c. Done By Management
d. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
20. Code Coverage is used as a measure of what ?
a. Defects
b. Trends analysis
c. Test Effectiveness
d. Time Spent Testing
Answers
1 c 2 d 3 c 4 b 5 c 6 b 7 b 8 c 9 a 10 d 11 c 12 b 13 b 14 c 15 a 16 c 17 a 18 a 19 d 20 c

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 6

1. Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A Determining the test approach.
B Preparing test specifications.
C Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D Measuring and analyzing results.
2. Which of the following statements is MOST OFTEN true?
A Source-code inspections are often used in component testing.
B Component testing searches for defects in programs that are separately testable.
C Component testing is an important part of user acceptance testing.
D Component testing aims to expose problems in the interactions between software and hardware components.
3. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these groups of numbers fall into three
DIFFERENT equivalence classes?
A £4000; £5000; £5500.
B £32001; £34000; £36500.
C £28000; £28001; £32001.
D £4000; £4200; £5600.
4. Which of the following will NOT be detected by static analysis?
A Parameter type mismatches.
B Errors in requirements.
C Undeclared variables.
D Uncalled functions.
5. Which of the following test activities can be automated?
i Reviews and inspections.
ii Metrics gathering.
iii Test planning.
iv Test execution.
v Data generation.
A i, iii, iv.
B i, ii, iii.
C ii, iv, v.
D ii, iii, v.
6. Which of the following is an objective of a pilot project for the introduction of a testing tool?
A Evaluate testers’ competence to use the tool.
B Complete the testing of a key project.
C Assess whether the benefits will be achieved at reasonable cost.
D Discover what the requirements for the tool are.
7. What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B To communicate how testing will be performed.
C To produce a test schedule.
D To produce a work breakdown structure.
8. In a REACTIVE approach to testing when would you expect the bulk of the test design work to be
begun?
A After the software or system has been produced.
B During development.
C As early as possible.
D During requirements analysis.
9. What is the objective of debugging?
i To localise a defect.
ii To fix a defect.
iii To show value.
iv To increase the range of testing.
A i, iii.
B ii, iii, iv.
C ii, iv.
D i, ii.
10. Given the following decision table

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A.TC1: Fred is a 32 year old smoker resident in London
B.TC3: Jean-Michel is a 65 year non-smoker resident in Paris
A A – Insure, 10% discount, B – Insure, no discount.
B A – Don’t insure, B – Don’t insure.
C A – Insure, no discount, B – Don’t insure.
D A – Insure, no discount, B – Insure with 10% discount.
11. Which of the following are valid objectives for testing?
[Link] find defects.
[Link] gain confidence in the level of quality.
[Link] identify the cause of defects.
[Link] prevent defects.
A i,ii, and iii.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iv.
D i,iii and iv.
[Link] process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these activities?
A iii, i, iv, ii.
B iii, iv, i, ii.
C iii, ii, i, iv.
D ii, iii, i, iv.
13. What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
A To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
14. Which of the following requirements would be tested by a functional system test?
A The system must be able to perform its functions for an average of 23 hours 50 mins per day.
B The system must perform adequately for up to 30 users.
C The system must allow a user to amend the address of a customer.
D The system must allow 12,000 new customers per year.
[Link] a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free.
The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.
To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A £28000.
B £33501.
C £32001.
D £1500.
[Link] of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
A Test plan.
B Test procedure specification.
C Test case specification.
D Test design specification.
17. Given the following state transition
Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch coverage?
A A, B, E, B, C, F, D.
B A, B, E, B, C, F, F.
C A, B, E, B, C, D.
D A, B, C, F, F, D.
18. Given the following decision table

What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
A. Frequent flyer member, travelling in Business class
B. Non-member, travelling in Economy class
A A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
C A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
D A – Offer upgrade to First, B – Offer upgrade to Business class.
19. During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.
20. What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
A Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the
project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
B Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are
potential failure areas in the software or system.
C Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks
are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier
issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
21. Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME equivalence
partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured.
Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a 20% discount.
Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
A 17, 18, 19.
B 29, 30, 31.
C 18, 29, 30.
D 17, 29, 31.
22. Considering the following pseudo-code, calculate the MINIMUM number of test cases for statement
coverage, and the MINIMUM number of test cases for decision coverage respectively.
READ A
READ B
READ C
IF C>A THEN
IF C>B THEN
PRINT "C must be smaller than at least one number"
ELSE
PRINT "Proceed to next stage"
ENDIF
ELSE
PRINT "B can be smaller than C"
ENDIF
A 3, 3.
B 2, 3.
C 2, 4.
D 3, 2.
23. Which of the following is a benefit of independent testing?
A Code cannot be released into production until independent testing is complete.
B Testing is isolated from development.
C Developers do not have to take as much responsibility for quality.
D Independent testers see other and different defects, and are unbiased.
24. Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
A Dynamic Analysis tool.
B Test Execution tool.
C Static Analysis tool.
D Security tool.
25. Given the following State Table:
ABCDEF
SS S1
S1 S2
S2 S3 S1
S3 ES S3
ES
Which of the following represents an INVALID state transition?
A E from State S2.
B E from State S3.
C B from State S1.
D F from State S3.
26. Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
A All document reviews involve the development team.
B Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.
27. Which activity in the fundamental test process includes evaluation of the testability of the
requirements and system?A Test analysis and design.
B Test planning and control.
C Test closure.
D Test implementation and execution.
28. The following statements are used to describe the basis for creating test cases using either black or
white box techniques:
i information about how the software is constructed.
ii models of the system, software or components.
iii analysis of the test basis documentation.
iv analysis of the internal structure of the components.
Which combination of the statements describes the basis for black box techniques?
A ii and iii.
B ii and iv.
C i and iv.
D i and iii.
29. What is typically the MOST important reason to use risk to drive testing efforts?
A Because testing everything is not feasible.
B Because risk-based testing is the most efficient approach to finding bugs.
C Because risk-based testing is the most effective way to show value.
D Because software is inherently risky.
30. Which of the following defines the scope of maintenance testing?
A The coverage of the current regression pack.
B The size and risk of any change(s) to the system.
C The time since the last change was made to the system.
D Defects found at the last regression test run.
31. Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
A An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
B An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who wrote
the software.
C An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software
than the person who wrote it.
D An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the software.
32. For testing, which of the options below best represents the main concerns of Configuration
Management?
i. All items of testware are identified and version controlled;
ii. All items of testware are used in the final acceptance test;
iii. All items of testware are stored in a common repository;
iv. All items of testware are tracked for change;
v. All items of testware are assigned to a responsible owner;
vi. All items of testware are related to each other and to development items.
A i, iv,
vi.
B ii, iii, v.
C i, iii, iv.
D iv, v, vi.
33. Which of the following would be a valid measure of test progress?
A Number of undetected defects.
B Total number of defects in the product.
C Number of test cases not yet executed.
D Effort required to fix all defects.
34. Which of following statements is true? Select ALL correct options Regression testing should be
performed:
i once a month
ii when a defect has been fixed
iii when the test environment has changed
iv when the software has changedA ii and iv.
B ii, iii and iv.
C i, ii and iii.
D i and iii.
35. In which of the following orders would the phases of a formal review usually occur?
A Planning, preparation, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
B Kick off, planning, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
C Preparation, planning, kick off, meeting, rework, follow up.
D Planning, kick off, preparation, meeting, rework, follow up.
36. Which of the following are valid objectives for incident reports?
i. Provide developers and other parties with feedback about the problem to enable identification, isolation
and correction as necessary.
ii. Provide ideas for test process improvement.
iii. Provide a vehicle for assessing tester competence.
iv. Provide testers with a means of tracking the quality of the system under test.
A i, ii, iii.
B i, ii, iv.
C i, iii, iv.
D ii, iii, iv.
37. Consider the following techniques. Which are static and which are dynamic techniques?
i. Equivalence Partitioning.
ii. Use Case Testing.
[Link] Flow Analysis.
[Link] Testing.
v. Decision Testing.
vi Inspections.
A i-iv are static, v-vi are dynamic.
B iii and vi are static, i, ii, iv and v are dynamic.
C ii, iii and vi are static, i, iv and v are dynamic.
D vi is static, i-v are dynamic.
38. Why are static testing and dynamic testing described as complementary?
A Because they share the aim of identifying defects and find the same types of defect.
B Because they have different aims and differ in the types of defect they find.
C Because they have different aims but find the same types of defect.
D Because they share the aim of identifying defects but differ in the types of defect they
find.
39. Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a manual
tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play correctly.
A i, iii, iv, v.
B ii, iv and v.
C i, ii and iv.
D i and v.
40. Which of the following is determined by the level of product risk identified?
A Extent of testing.
B Scope for the use of test automation.
C Size of the test team.
D Requirement for regression testing.
Answers
1. A 2. B 3. D 4. B 5. C 6. C 7. B 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. C 12. A 13. D 14. C 15. B 16. B
17. A 18. C 19. B 20. B 21. C 22. A 23. D 24. B 25. B 26. C 27. A 28. A 29. A 30. B
31. D 32. A 33. C 34. B 35. D 36. B 37. B 38. D 39. A 40. A

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 7

1. ___________ Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations

(1M)
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
2. System testing should investigate (2M)
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
3. Which is the non-functional testing (1M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing
4. Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during the
review meeting (2M)
A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author
5. What is the main purpose of Informal review (2M)
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
6. Purpose of test design technique is (1M)
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
7. ___________ technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage (1M)
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing
8. Use cases can be performed to test (2M)
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing
9. ________________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s site (1M)
A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing
10. The purpose of exit criteria is (2M)
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
11. Which is not the project risks (2M)
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
12. Poor software characteristics are (3M)
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
13. ________ and ________ are used within individual workbenches to produce the right output products.
(2M)
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
14. The software engineer's role in tool selection is (3M)
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
15. A _____ is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met (2M)
A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure
16. Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality (1M)
A. ISO 1926 B. ISO 829 C. ISO 1012 D. ISO 1028
17. Which is not the testing objectives (1M)
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
18. Bug life cycle (1M)
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
19. Which is not the software characteristics (1M)
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability
20. Which is not a testing principle (2M)
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
21. ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99. Using BVA which is the
appropriate one (3M)
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99
22. Which is not the fundamental test process (1M)
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None
23. Which is not a Component testing (2M)
A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
24. PDCA is known as (1M)
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
25. Contract and regulation testing is a part of (2M)
A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
26. Which is not a black box testing technique (1M)
A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
27. Arc testing is known as (2M)
A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing
28. A software model that can’t be used in functional testing (2M)
A. Process flow model B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model D. Plain language specification model
29. Find the mismatch (2M)
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
30. The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as independent
paths (2M)
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
31. FPA is used to (2M)
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
32. Which is not a test Oracle (2M)
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
33. Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review (3M)
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
34. Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method (3M)
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
35. A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule. The delivery date for the
product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date or compromise on the
quality standards established for this product. Which of the following actions would bring this project
back on schedule? (3M)
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
36. One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the
following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion? (3M)
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage others to express their ideas.
37. Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs of
quality? (3M)
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Answers:
1 B 2 C 3 A4 B 5 A 6 C 7 B 8 C 9 C 10 D 11 D 12 B 13 B 14 A 15 D 16 A 17 D 18 A 19 C 20 D 21 C 22
D23 D 24 A 25 B 26 D 27 A 28 C 29 D 30 A 31 B 32 B 33 C 34 C 35 A 36 B 37 A

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 8

1. COTS is known as
A. Commercial off the shelf software
B. Compliance of the software
C. Change control of the software
D. Capable off the shelf software
2. From the below given choices, which one is the ‘Confidence testing’
A. Sanity testing
B. System testing
C. Smoke testing
D. Regression testing
3. ‘Defect Density’ calculated in terms of
A. The number of defects identified in a component or system divided by the size of the component or the
system
B. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by that test phase and any other
means after wards
C. The number of defects identified in the component or system divided by the number of defects found by a test
phase
D. The number of defects found by a test phase divided by the number found by the size of the system
4. ‘Be bugging’ is known as
A. Preventing the defects by inspection
B. Fixing the defects by debugging
C. Adding known defects by seeding
D. A process of fixing the defects by tester
5. An expert based test estimation is also known as
A. Narrow band Delphi
B. Wide band Delphi
C. Bespoke Delphi
D. Robust Delphi
6. When testing a grade calculation system, a tester determines that all scores from 90 to 100 will yield a
grade of A, but scores below 90 will not. This analysis is known as:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. Boundary value analysis
C. Decision table
D. Hybrid analysis
7. All of the following might be done during unit testing except
A. Desk check
B. Manual support testing
C. Walk-through
D. Compiler based testing
8. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change
show up in some test?
A. Introducing mutations
B. Performance testing
C. A mutation error
D. Debugging a program
9. Which of the following characteristics is primarily associated with software reusability?
A. The extent to which the software can be used in other applications
B. The extent to which the software can be used by many different users
C. The capability of the software to be moved to a different platform
D. The capability of one system to be coupled with another system
10. Which of the following software change management activities is most vital to assessing the impact of
proposed software modifications?
A. Baseline identification
B. Configuration auditing
C. Change control
D. Version control
11. Which of the following statements is true about a software verification and validation program?
I. It strives to ensure that quality is built into software.
II. It provides management with insights into the state of a software project.
III. It ensures that alpha, beta, and system tests are performed.
IV. It is executed in parallel with software development activities.
A. I, II&III [Link], III&IV C.I, II&IV D.I, III&IV
12. Which of the following is a requirement of an effective software environment?
I. Ease of use
II. Capacity for incremental implementation
III. Capability of evolving with the needs of a project
IV. Inclusion of advanced tools
A.I, II &III B.I, II &IV [Link], III&IV D.I, III&IV
13. A test manager wants to use the resources available for the automated testing of a web application. The
best choice is
A. Test automater, web specialist, DBA, test lead
B. Tester, test automater, web specialist, DBA
C. Tester, test lead, test automater, DBA
D. Tester, web specialist, test lead, test automater
14. A project manager has been transferred to a major software development project that is in the
implementation phase. The highest priority for this project manager should be to
A. Establish a relationship with the customer
B. Learn the project objectives and the existing project plan.
C. Modify the project’ s organizational structure to meet the manager’ s management style.
D. Ensure that the project proceeds at its current pace
15. Change X requires a higher level of authority than Change Y in which of the following pairs?
Change X Change Y
A. Code in development Code in production
B. Specifications during requirements analysis Specifications during systems test
C. Documents requested by the technical development group Documents requested by customers
D. A product distributed to several sites A product with a single user
16. Which of the following functions is typically supported by a software quality information system?
I. Record keeping
II. System design
III. Evaluation scheduling
IV. Error reporting
A.I, II&III [Link], III &IV C.I, III &IV D.I, II & IV
17. During the testing of a module tester ‘X’ finds a bug and assigned it to developer. But developer rejects
the same, saying that it’s not a bug. What ‘X’ should do?
A. Report the issue to the test manager and try to settle with the developer.
B. Retest the module and confirm the bug
C. Assign the same bug to another developer
D. Send to the detailed information of the bug encountered and check the reproducibility
18. The primary goal of comparing a user manual with the actual behavior of the running program during
system testing is to
A. Find bugs in the program
B. Check the technical accuracy of the document
C. Ensure the ease of use of the document
D. Ensure that the program is the latest version
19. A type of integration testing in which software elements, hardware elements, or both are combined all
at once into a component or an overall system, rather than in stages.
A. System Testing
B. Big-Bang Testing
C. Integration Testing
D. Unit Testing
20. In practice, which Life Cycle model may have more, fewer or different levels of development and
testing, depending on the project and the software product. For example, there may be component
integration testing after component testing, and system integration testing after system testing.
A. Water Fall Model
B.V-Model
C. Spiral Model
D. RAD Model
21. Which technique can be used to achieve input and output coverage? It can be applied to human input,
input via interfaces to a system, or interface parameters in integration testing.
A. Error Guessing
B. Boundary Value Analysis
C. Decision Table testing
D. Equivalence partitioning
22. There is one application, which runs on a single terminal. There is another application that works on
multiple terminals. What are the test techniques you will use on the second application that you would not
do on the first application?
A. Integrity, Response time
B. Concurrency test, Scalability
C. Update & Rollback, Response time
D. Concurrency test, Integrity
23. You are the test manager and you are about the start the system testing. The developer team says that
due to change in requirements they will be able to deliver the system to you for testing 5 working days
after the due date. You can not change the resources(work hours, test tools, etc.) What steps you will take
to be able to finish the testing in time. (
A. Tell to the development team to deliver the system in time so that testing activity will be finish in time.
B. Extend the testing plan, so that you can accommodate the slip going to occur
C. Rank the functionality as per risk and concentrate more on critical functionality testing
D. Add more resources so that the slippage should be avoided
24. Item transmittal report is also known as
A. Incident report
B. Release note
C. Review report
D. Audit report
25. Testing of software used to convert data from existing systems for use in replacement systems
A. Data driven testing
B. Migration testing
C. Configuration testing
D. Back to back testing
26. Big bang approach is related to
A. Regression testing
B. Inter system testing
C. Re-testing
D. Integration testing
27. Cause effect graphing is related to the standard
A. BS7799
B. BS 7925/2
C. ISO/IEC 926/1
D. ISO/IEC 2382/1
28. “The tracing of requirements for a test level through the layers of a test documentation” done by
A. Horizontal tracebility
B. Depth tracebility
C. Vertical tracebility
D. Horizontal & Vertical tracebilities
29. A test harness is a
A. A high level document describing the principles, approach and major objectives of the organization regarding
testing
B. A distance set of test activities collected into a manageable phase of a project
C. A test environment comprised of stubs and drives needed to conduct a test
D. A set of several test cases for a component or system under test
30. You are a tester for testing a large system. The system data model is very large with many attributes
and there are a lot of inter dependencies with in the fields. What steps would you use to test the system and
also what are the efforts of the test you have taken on the test plan
A. Improve super vision, More reviews of artifacts or program means stage containment of the defects.
B. Extend the test plan so that you can test all the inter dependencies
C. Divide the large system in to small modules and test the functionality
D. Test the interdependencies first, after that check the system as a whole
31. Change request should be submitted through development or program management. A change request
must be written and should include the following criteria.
I. Definition of the change
II. Documentation to be updated
III. Name of the tester or developer
IV. Dependencies of the change request.
A. I, III and IV B. I, II and III C. II, III and IV D. I, II and IV
32. ‘Entry criteria’ should address questions such as
I. Are the necessary documentation, design and requirements information available that will allow testers to
operate the system and judge correct behavior.
II. Is the test environment-lab, hardware, software and system administration support ready?
III. Those conditions and situations that must prevail in the testing process to allow testing to continue effectively
and efficiently.
IV. Are the supporting utilities, accessories and prerequisites available in forms that testers can use
A. I, II and IV
B. I, II and III
C. I, II, III and IV
D. II, III and IV.
33. “This life cycle model is basically driven by schedule and budget risks” This statement is best suited
for
A. Water fall model
B. Spiral model
C. Incremental model
D. V-Model
34. The bug tracking system will need to capture these phases for each bug.
I. Phase injected
II. Phase detected
III. Phase fixed
IV. Phase removed
A. I, II and III B. I, II and IV C. II, III and IV D. I, III and IV
35. One of the more daunting challenges of managing a test project is that so many dependencies converge
at test execution. One missing configuration file or hard ware device can render all your test results
meaning less. You can end up with an entire platoon of testers sitting around for days. Who is responsible
for this incident?
A. Test managers faults only
B. Test lead faults only
C. Test manager and project manager faults
D. Testers faults only
36. System test can begin when?
I. The test team competes a three day smoke test and reports on the results to the system test phase entry meeting
II. The development team provides software to the test team 3 business days prior to starting of the system
testing
III. All components are under formal, automated configuration and release management control
A. I and II only
B. II and III only
C. I and III only
D. I, II and III
37. Test charters are used in ________ testing
A. Exploratory testing B. Usability testing
C. Component testing D. Maintainability testing
Answers:
1 (A) 2 (C) 3 (A) 4 (C) 5 (B) 6 (A) 7 (B) 8 (A) 9 (A) 10 (C) 11 (C) 12 (A) 13 (B) 14 (B)
15 (D) 16 (C)17 (D)18 (B)19 (B) 20 (B) 21 (D) 22 (C) 23 (C) 24 (B) 25 (B) 26 (D) 27 (B) 28 (A) 29 (C) 30
(A) 31 (D) 32 (A) 33 (D) 34 (B) 35 (A) 36 (D) 37 (A)

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 9

1. Deliverables of test design phase include all the following except (Testing artifacts)
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan
2. Which of the following is not decided in the test-planning phase? (Testing artifacts)
a) Schedules and deliverables
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test cases
3. Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
A. deviations from standards,
[Link] defects,
[Link] defects,
[Link] maintainability and incorrect interface specifications.
[Link] of the above.
4. Load Testing Tools (Per. Testing)
a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above
5. Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective –
[Link] defects.
B. fixing defects.
C. 1 and 2
D. None
6. Defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
7. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis? (Test Mgmt)
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss or impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
8. We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF statement, and you got to
the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's
flow of control.
C. Both A and B
D. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
9. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review? (Performing Test)
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager
10. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
11. What are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for
world wide web sites (Test Execution)
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
12. What can be done if requirements are changing continuously? (Test Mgmt)
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how requirements might change so that alternate
test plans and strategies can be worked out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the project, while moving more difficult
new requirements into future versions of the application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
13. The selection of test cases for regression testing (Testing artifacts)
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above
14. Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects
of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to
interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.
15. What do you mean by “Having to say NO” (test planning process)
a. No, the problem is not with testers
b. No, the software is not ready for production
c. Both a & b
d. none of the above
16. According to the lecture, there are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical
reliability model. These include (choose one or more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's
work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low
rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs.
D. All of the above
17. Operations testing is (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
18. Tools like change Man, Clear case are used as (test planning process)
a. functional automation tools
b. performance testing tools
c. configuration management tools
d. none of the above.
19. Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some managers to argue for very
little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because every task takes time that
could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
20. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process (Tester’s Role SDLC)
a Assess development plan and status
b Develop the test plan
c Test software design
d Test software requirement
21. In the MASPAR case study:
A. Security failures were the result of untested parts of code.
B. The development team achieved complete statement and branch coverage but missed a serious bug in the
MASPAR operating system.
C. An error in the code was so obscure that you had to test the function with almost every input value to find its
two special-case failures.
D. All of the above.
22. Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
23. What if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing? (Test Mgmt)
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
24. Security falls under (Performing Test)
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
25. Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
26. What is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change
show up in some test? (Testing concepts)
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations
Answers:
1 - C 2 - D 3 - E 4 - D 5 - A 6 - A 7 - C 8 - C 9 - A 10 - A 11 - D 12 - C 13 - D 14 - A 15 - B
16 - D 17 - E 18 - C 19 - D 20 - C 21 - C 22 - B 23 - A 24 - A 25 - D 26 - E

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 10

1. Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools are a part
of which phase
a) Test Implementation and execution
b) Test Analysis and Design
c) Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
d) Test Closure Activities
2. Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and
optionally preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
d) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
3. A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following :-
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
d) i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
4. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of 18 to 25.
Indentify the invalid Equivalance class
a) 17
b) 19
c) 24
d) 21
5. In a Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks inorder to clear the exam.
The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalance values if the student clears
the exam.
a) 22,23,26
b) 21,39,40
c) 29,30,31
d) 0,15,22
6. Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:
a) static testing requires the running of tests through the code
b) static testing includes desk checking
c) static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
d) static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
7. Verification involves which of the following :-
i. Helps to check that we have built product right.
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
a) Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
b) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
d) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.
8. Component Testing is also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing
iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .
a) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
b) i,ii,iii,iv are false
c) i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
d) all of above is true
9. Link Testing is also called as :
a) Component Integration testing
b) Component System Testing
c) Component Sub System Testing
d)Maintenance testing
10. What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?
Rule 1 Rule 2 Rule 3 Rule 4
Conditions
Indian resident? False True True True
Age between 18 – 55? Don’t care False True True
Married? Don’t care Don’t care False True
Actions
Issue Memebership? False False True True
Offer 10% discount? False False True False
A.TC1: Anand is a 32 year old married, residing in Kolkatta.
B.TC3: Attapattu is a 65 year old married person, residing in Colombo.
a. A – Issue membership, 10% discount, B – Issue membership, offer no discount. B
b. A – Don’t Issue membership, B – Don’t offer discount. C
c. A – Issue membership, no discount, B – Don’t Issue membership.
d. Issue membership, no discount, B- Issue membership with 10% discount.
11. Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
a) Breadth Test and Depth Test
b) Retesting
c) Confirmation Testing
d) Sanity Testing
12. Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
a) ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
b) i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
c) i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
d) iii is true and I,ii,iv are false
13. The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.
i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
a) i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
b) vi,i,ii,iii,iv,v
c) i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
d) i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi
14. Consider the following state transition diagram of a two-speed hair dryer, which is operated by
pressing its one button. The first press of the button turns it on to Speed 1, second press to Speed 2 and the
third press turns it off. Which of the following series of state transitions below will provide 0-switch
coverage?
a. A,C,B
b. B,C,A
c. A,B,C
d. C,B,A
15. White Box Techniques are also called as :-
a) Structural Testing
b) Design Based Testing
c) Error Guessing Technique
d) Experience Based Technique
16. What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
a) A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
b) An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
c) An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
d) An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.
17. The Test Cases Derived from use cases
a) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
b) Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
c) Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
d) Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level
18. Exhaustive Testing is
a) Is impractical but possible
b) Is practically possible
c) Is impractical and impossible
d) Is always possible
19. Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution Phase
a) Creating test suites from the test cases
b) Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
c) Comparing actual results
d) Designing the Tests
20. Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
a) Statement Testing and coverage
b) Decision Testing and coverage
c) Condition Coverage
d) Boundary value analysis
21. A Project risk includes which of the following :
a) Organizational Factors
b) Poor Software characteristics
c) Error Prone software delivered.
d) Software that does not perform its intended functions
22. In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
a) ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
c) ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
d) ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
23. Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
a) i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
b) ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
c) i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
d) iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
24. The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
a) Explaining the objectives
b) Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
c) Follow up
d) Individual Meeting preparations
25. A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified during a formal
review.
a) Moderator.
b) Scribe
c) Author
d) Manager
26. Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-
i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder
iv. Assistant Manager
a) i,ii,iii,iv are true
b) i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
c) ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
d) i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
27. Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
a) Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
b) Pre Meeting Preparations
c) Formal Follow Up Process
d) Includes Metrics
28. What can static analysis NOT find?
a) the use of a variable before it has been defined
b) unreachable (“dead”) code
c) memory leaks
d) array bound violations
29. Incidents would not be raised against:
a) requirements
b) documentation
c) test cases
d) improvements suggested by users
30. A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of threats, such as
virus from malicious outsiders.
a) Security Testing
b) Recovery Testing
c) Performance Testing
d) Functionality Testing
31. Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
a) Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
b) Logging the outcome of test execution.
c) Assessing if more tests are needed.
d) Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
32. Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and evaluate the
performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function properly under
these different workloads.
a) Load Testing
b) Integration Testing
c) System Testing
d) Usability Testing
33. Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction between
integrated components is :-
a) System Level Testing
b) Integration Level Testing
c) Unit Level Testing
d) Component Testing
34. Static analysis is best described as:
a) The analysis of batch programs.
b) The reviewing of test plans.
c) The analysis of program code.
d) The use of black box testing.
35. One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify the Valid
Equivalence class
a) BOOK
b) Book
c) Boo01k
d) book
36. Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
37. Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Implementation and execution
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
38. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration Management?
a) operating systems
b) test documentation
c) live data
d) user requirement document
39. Handover of Testware is a part of which Phase
a) Test Analysis and Design
b) Test Planning and control
c) Test Closure Activities
d) Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
40. The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the
temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values
which belong to the same class.
a) 12,16,22
b) 24,27,17
c) 22,23,24
d) 14,15,19
Answers:
1 b 2 a 3 b 4 a 5 c 6 a 7 b 8 a 9 a 10 c 11 a 12 b 13 c 14 c 15 a 16 b 17 a 18 a 19 d 20 d
21 a 22 b 23 b 24 b 25 b 26 b 27 a 28 c 29 d 30 a 31 b 32 a 33 b 34 c 35 c 36 a 37 b 38 c 39 c 40 c

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 11

1. Which of the following is true
a. Testing is the same as quality assurance
b. Testing is a part of quality assurance
c. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
d. Testing is same as debugging
2. Why is testing necessary?
a. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
b. Because verification and validation are nto enough to get to know the quality of the software
c. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality
d. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.
3. Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests
a. I, II and III are correct
b. I is correct
c. I, III and IV are correct
d. I, II and IV are correct
4. A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports. The
test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
a. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
b. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other modules
c. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression testing
d. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module may affect other
modules
5. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?
a. Static analysis tools are used only by developers
b. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis
c. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
d. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage
6. In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input.
A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane.
Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated.
Which of the following lists is correct?
a. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
b. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
c. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
d. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one
7. For the code fragment given below, which answer correctly represents minimum tests
required for statement and branch coverage respectively?
Discount rate=1;
Fare = 1000;
If ((person == “senior citizen”) and (“travel month = January”))
Bonuspoints = 100+Bonuspoints
If (class==”first”)
discountRate = .5;
Fare = fare * discountRate;
a. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 2
b. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 2
c. Statement Coverage = 1, Branch Coverage = 3
d. Statement Coverage = 2, Branch Coverage = 4
8. Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools
a. They help you find defects rather than failures
b. They are used by developers only
c. They require compilation of code
d. They are useful only for regulated industries
9. Acme Inc. decides to use functional test execution automation tool for testing GUI of their product. The
GUI is expected to change frequently. Acme Inc. has put some of the manual testers through a 3 day
training program on how to use the tool. Which of the following is likely to be true?
a. Automation is likely to fail because of frequent changes and lack of experience
b. Automation is likely to fail because of GUI automation is not the right way to automate
c. Automation is likely to succeed because automation is very useful for frequent changes
d. Automation is likely to succeed because the team has been trained on tool.
10. In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the following
sentences describes one of these basic principles?
a. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
b. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a product than
with manual testing
c. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and output combinations.
d. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.
11. Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?
a. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
b. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and fixed
c. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
d. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.
12. In system testing...
a. .. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
b. ... Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in a review
c. ... Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in a review
d. ... Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested
13. Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?
a. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process
b. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
c. A walkthrough requires meeting
d. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures
14. Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
a. Because it is an industry standard
b. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the ‘edges’ of the range of
values
c. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are considered in the test cases
d. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits
15. Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?
a. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing
b. System testing, performance testing
c. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing
d. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing
16. The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed. Which of
these risks is an example of a product risk?
a. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
b. Software delivery is behind schedule
c. Threat to a patient’s life
d. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
17. Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
a. Number of detected defects, testing cost;
b. Number of residual defects in the test object.
c. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases
prepared
d. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
18. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution
b. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of different configurations
c. Stress testing tools examine the behaviour of the test object at or beyond full load
d. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle
19. What makes an inspection different from other review types?
a. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
b. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
c. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
d. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
20. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: An integer
field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15
a. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
b. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
c. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
d. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
21. Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem: Paying
with credit cards shall be possible with Visa, Master and Amex cards only.
a. Visa, Master, Amex;
b. Visa, Master, Amex, Diners, Keycards, and other option
c. Visa, Master, Amex, any other card, no card
d. No card, other cards, any of Visa – Master – Amex
22. Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
a. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
b. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
c. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
d. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing
23. A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce the
rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be best?
a. Logic-based testing
b. Use-case-based testing
c. State transition testing
d. Systematic testing according to the V-model
24. If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following
coverage criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% branch coverage
b. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
c. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
d. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%
25. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?
a. 2
b. Indefinite
c. 1
d. 4
26. Why can be tester dependent on configuration management?
a. Because configuration management assures that we know the exact version of the testware and the test object
b. Because test execution is not allowed to proceed without the consent of the change control board
c. Because changes in the test object are always subject to configuration management
d. Because configuration management assures the right configuration of the test tools
27. What test items should be put under configuration management?
a. The test object, the test material and the test environment
b. The problem reports and the test material
c. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
d. The test object and the test material
28. Why is successful test execution automation difficult?
a. Because the tools for automated testing require too much effort for learning
b. Because the maintenance of the test system is difficult
c. Because the test robot tools are restricted in their ability to recognize outputs
d. Because the test robot needs to be supported by a test management.
29. Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
a. (I) and (II) are correct
b. (I) through (IV) are correct
c. (III) through (V) are correct
d. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
30. Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
a. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British units
b. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
c. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error cause
d. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
31. Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
(I) contractual requirements
(II) legal requirements
(III) Industry standards
(IV) application risk
(V) project size
a. (I) through (III) are correct
b. All alternatives are correct
c. (II) and (V) are correct
d. (I), (III) and (V) are correct
32. If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage criteria
is then guaranteed to be achieved?
a. 100% Equivalence class coverage
b. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
c. 100% Statement coverage
d. 100% Multiple condition coverage
33. This part of a program is given:-
WHILE (condition A) Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path
coverage?
a. One
b. Indefinite
c. Two
d. Four
34. What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
a. To specify when to stop the testing activity
b. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
c. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
d. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
35. Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
a. The version number of the test object
b. Test data and used environment
c. Identification of the test case that failed
d. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
36. V-Model is:
a. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software development
phases
b. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
c. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
d. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases
37. Why is incremental integration preferred over “big bang” integration?
a. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation
ability
b. Because “big bang” integration is suitable only for real time applications
c. Incremental integration is preferred over “Big Bang Integration” only for “bottom up”
development model
d. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate
component testing
38. Maintenance testing is:
a. Testing management
b. Synonym of testing the quality of service
c. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
d. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor
39. A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
a. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
b. Actual result
c. History of the report
d. Ideas for the test case improvement
40. Why is it necessary to define a Test Strategy?
a. As there are many different ways to test software, thought must be given to decide what will be the most
effective way to test the project on hand.
b. Starting testing without prior planning leads to chaotic and inefficient test project
c. A strategy is needed to inform the project management how the test team will schedule the test-cycles
d. Software failure may cause loss of money, time, business reputation, and in extreme cases injury and death. It
is therefore critical to have a proper test strategy in place.
Answers:
1 - B 2 - C 3 - C 4 - D 5 - B 6 - B 7 - A 8 - A 9 - A 10 - C 11 - B 12 - A 13 - B 14 - B
15 - C 16 - C 17 - D 18 - C 19 - A 20 - A 21 - D 22 - B 23 - C 24 - B 25 - A 26 - A
27 - A 28 - B 29 - B 30 - A 31 - B 32 - B 33 - C 34 - A 35 - D 36 - A 37 - A 38 - C
39 - B 40 - D

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 12

1. A deviation from the specified or expected behavior that is visible to end-users is called:
a)an error
b)a fault
c)a failure
d)a defect
2. Regression testing should be performed:
v)every week
w)after the software has changed
x)as often as possible
y)when the environment has changed
z)when the project manager says
a)v & w are true, x, y & z are false
b)w, x & y are true, v & z are false
c)w & y are true, v, x & z are false
d)w is true, v, x, y & z are false
3. IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except
a)test items
b)test deliverables
c)test tasks
d)test specifications
4. When should testing be stopped?
a)when all the planned tests have been run
b)when time has run out
c)when all faults have been fixed correctly
d)it depends on the risks for the system being tested
5. Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive.
Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes and
valid boundaries?
a)1000, 50000, 99999
b)9999, 50000, 100000
c)10000, 50000, 99999
d)10000, 99999, 100000
6. Consider the following statements about early test design:
[Link] test design can prevent fault multiplication
[Link] found during early test design are more expensive to fix
[Link] test design can find faults
[Link] test design can cause changes to the requirements
[Link] test design normally takes more effort
a)i, iii & iv are true; ii & v are false
b)iii & iv are true; i, ii & v are false
c)i, iii, iv & v are true; ii is false
d)i & ii are true; iii, iv & v are false
7. Non-functional system testing includes:
a)testing to see where the system does not function correctly
b)testing quality attributes of the system including performance and usability
c)testing a system function using only the software required for that function
d)testing for functions that should not exist
8. Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management?
a)auditing conformance to ISO 9000
b)status accounting of configuration items
c)identification of test versions
d)controlled library access
9. Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing
in the small?
a)to ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
b)to ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
c)to specify which modules to combine when, and how many at once
d)to specify how the software should be divided into modules
10. What is the purpose of a test completion criterion?
a)to know when a specific test has finished its execution
b)to ensure that the test case specification is complete
c)to set the criteria used in generating test inputs
d)to determine when to stop testing
11. Consider the following statements:
[Link] incident may be closed without being fixed.
[Link] may not be raised against documentation.
[Link] final stage of incident tracking is fixing.
[Link] incident record does not include information on test environments.
a)ii is true, i, iii and iv are false
b)i is true, ii, iii and iv are false
c)i and iv are true, ii and iii are false
d)i and ii are true, iii and iv are false
12. Given the following code, which statement is true about the minimum number
of test
cases required for full statement and branch coverage?
Read p
Read q
IF p+q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
IF p > 50 THEN
Print "p Large"
ENDIF
a)1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
b)1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
c)1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
d)2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
13. Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
a)ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
b)i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
c)ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
d)ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
14. Functional system testing is:
a)testing that the system functions with other systems
b)testing that the components that comprise the system function together
c)testing the end to end functionality of the system as a whole
d)testing the system performs functions within specified response times
15. Incidents would not be raised against:
a)requirements
b)documentation
c)test cases
d)improvements suggested by users
16. Which of the following items would not come under Configuration
Management?
a)operating systems
b)test documentation
c)live data
d)user requirement documents
17. Maintenance testing is:
a)updating tests when the software has changed
b)testing a released system that has been changed
c)testing by users to ensure that the system meets a business need
d)testing to maintain business advantage
18. What can static analysis NOT find?
a)the use of a variable before it has been defined
b)unreachable (“dead”) code
c)memory leaks
d)array bound violations
19. Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
a)state transition testing
b)LCSAJ
c)syntax testing
d)boundary value analysis
20. Beta testing is:
a)performed by customers at their own site
b)performed by customers at the software developer's site
c)performed by an Independent Test Team
d)performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
21. Given the following types of tool, which tools would typically be used by developers, and which by an
independent system test team?
[Link] analysis
[Link] testing
[Link] management
[Link] analysis
a)developers would typically use i and iv; test team ii and iii
b)developers would typically use i and iii; test team ii and iv
c)developers would typically use ii and iv; test team i and iii
d)developers would typically use i, iii and iv; test team ii
22. The main focus of acceptance testing is:
a)finding faults in the system
b)ensuring that the system is acceptable to all users
c)testing the system with other systems
d)testing from a business perspective
23. Which of the following statements about component testing is FALSE?
a)black box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
b)white box test design techniques all have an associated test measurement technique
c)cyclomatic complexity is not a test measurement technique
d)black box test measurement techniques all have an associated test design technique
24. Which of the following statements is NOT true?
a)inspection is the most formal review process
b)inspections should be led by a trained leader
c)managers can perform inspections on management documents
d)inspection is appropriate even when there are no written documents
25. A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following, EXCEPT:
a)calculating expected outputs
b)comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
c)recording test inputs
d)reading test values from a data file
26. The difference between re-testing and regression testing is:
a)re-testing ensures the original fault has been removed; regression testing looks for unexpected side-effects
b)re-testing looks for unexpected side-effects; regression testing ensures the original fault has been removed
c)re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
d)re-testing is done by developers; regression testing is done by independent testers
27. Expected results are:
a)only important in system testing
b)only used in component testing
c)most useful when specified in advance
d)derived from the code
28. What type of review requires formal entry and exit criteria, including metrics:
a)walkthrough
b)inspection
c)management review
d)post project review
29. Which of the following uses Impact Analysis most?
a)component testing
b)non-functional system testing
c)user acceptance testing
d)maintenance testing
30. What is NOT included in typical costs for an inspection process?
a)setting up forms and databases
b)analysing metrics and improving processes
c)writing the documents to be inspected
d)time spent on the document outside the meeting
31. Which of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a)to find faults in the software
b)to prove that the software has no faults
c)to give confidence in the software
d)to find performance problems
32. Which expression best matches the following characteristics of the review processes:
[Link] by the author
[Link]
[Link] management participation
[Link] by a moderator or leader
[Link] entry and exit criteria
s)inspection
t)peer review
u)informal review
v)walkthrough
a)s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b)s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c)s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d)s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
33. Which of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a)business process-based testing
b)performance, load and stress testing
c)usability testing
d)top-down integration testing
34. Which statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a)expected outcomes are defined by the software's behaviour
b)expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c)expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d)expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
35. The standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a)ISO/IEC 12207
b)BS 7925-1
c)ANSI/IEEE 829
d)ANSI/IEEE 729
36. The cost of fixing a fault:
a)is not important
b)increases the later a fault is found
c)decreases the later a fault is found
d)can never be determined
37. Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard?
a)what is not to be tested
b)test environment properties
c)quality plans
d)schedules and deadlines
38. Could reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a)no, because they apply to development documentation
b)no, because they are normally applied before testing
c)yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d)yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
39. Which of the following is not part of performance testing?
a)measuring response times
b)recovery testing
c)simulating many users
d)generating many transactions
40. Error guessing is best used:
a)after more formal techniques have been applied
b)as the first approach to deriving test cases
c)by inexperienced testers
d)after the system has gone live
Answers:
1 C 2 C 3 D 4 D 5 C 6 A 7 B 8 A 9 C 10 D 11 B 12 B 13 D 14 C 15 D 16 C 17 B 18 C 19 B 20 A 21 A 22 D 23
A 24 D 25 A 26 A 27 C 28 B 29 D 30 C 31 B 32 A 33 D 34 A 35 B 36 B 37 C 38 C 39 B 40 A

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 13

1. The process starting with the terminal modules is called -
a. Top-down integration
b. Bottom-up integration
c. None of the above
d. Module integration
2. The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
a. Project plan
b. Business plan
c. Support plan
d. None of the above
3. If an expected result is not specified then:
a. We cannot run the test
b. It may be difficult to repeat the test
c. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
d. We cannot automate the user inputs
4. Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
a. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
b. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
c. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
d. All of them are valid reasons for failure
5. Test are prioritized so that:
a. You shorten the time required for testing
b. You do the best testing in the time available
c. You do more effective testing
d. You find more faults
6. Which of the following is not a static testing technique
a. Error guessing
b. Walkthrough
c. Data flow analysis
d. Inspections
7. Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
a. Component testing should be performed by development
b. Component testing is also known as isolation or module testing
c. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
d. Component testing does not involve regression testing
8. During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
a. Execution
b. Design
c. Planning
d. Check Exit criteria completion
9. Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
a. Being diplomatic
b. Able to write software
c. Having good attention to detail
d. Able to be relied on
10. The purpose of requirement phase is
a. To freeze requirements
b. To understand user needs
c. To define the scope of testing
d. All of the above
11. Verification is:
a. Checking that we are building the right system
b. Checking that we are building the system right
c. Performed by an independent test team
d. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
12. A regression test:
a. Will always be automated
b. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
c. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
d. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
13. Function/Test matrix is a type of
a. Interim Test report
b. Final test report
c. Project status report
d. Management report
14. Defect Management process does not include
a. Defect prevention
b. Deliverable base-lining
c. Management reporting
d. None of the above
15. What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country, versus
testing software developed by a contractor within your country?
a. Does not meet people needs
b. Cultural difference
c. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
d. Relinquishments of control
16. Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?
a. 10-20
b. 40-50
c. 70-80
d. 5-10
17. A reliable system will be one that:
a. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
b. Is unlikely to cause a failure
c. Is likely to be fault-free
d. Is likely to be liked by the users
18. How much testing is enough
a. This question is impossible to answer
b. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
c. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
d. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
19. Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
a. Operability
b. Observability
c. Simplicity
d. Robustness
20. Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
a. White box
b. Black box
c. Green box
d. Yellow box
21. Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
a. Simple Loops
b. Nested Loops
c. Concatenated Loops
d. All of the above
22. To test a function, the programmer has to write a ______, which calls the function and passes it test
data.
a. Stub
b. Driver
c. Proxy
d. None of the above
23. Equivalence partitioning is:
a. A black box testing technique used only by developers
b. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
c. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
d. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
24. When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
a. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
b. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
c. The independent testing team
d. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
25. Inspections can find all the following except
a. Variables not defined in the code
b. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
c. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
d. How much of the code has been covered
Answers:
1)- b 14) - b
2)- a 15) - b
3)- c 16) - b
4)- d 17) - b
5)- b 18) - b
6)- a 19) - d
7)- d 20) - a
8 )- c 21) - d
9) - b 22) - b
10) - d 23) - c
11) -b 24) - a
12) - b 25) - d

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 14

1. What is failure?
A. Deviation from expected result to actual result
B. Defect in the software.
C. Error in the program code.
D. Fault in the system.
2. People who don’t participate in technical reviews
A. Analysts
B. Management
C. Developers
D. Testers
3. What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?
A. Regression testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. Error Guessing
D. System testing.
4. Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to ….
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing
C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.
5. What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch coverage?
If(x>y) x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y)
{ y=x*y; x=x+1; }
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
6. Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
A. number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
B. number of binary decisions + 1
C. upper bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all
statements have been executed at least once
D. number of branches and decisions
7. If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get 80%
for distinction, what is equivalence class.
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32,37,40
8. Match the following:
1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. measures of tracking process
b. effort required to perform activities
c. reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
9. One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II
standards.
A. Random testing
B. Data Flow testing.
C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.
10. Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:
A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.
B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.
C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.
D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.
11. Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a.
B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b.
C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c.
D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.
12. Cost of the reviews will not include.
A. Review process itself
B. Metrics analysis
C. Tool support.
D. Process improvement.
13. What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution?
A. System integration
B. Functional testing
C. Non-functional testing.
D. Requirements testing
14. Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool.
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.
15. Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.
A. Features to be tested.
B. Environmental needs.
C. Suspension criteria.
D. Expected results.
16. A piece of software has been given….what tests in the Following will you perform?
1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities
A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
B. 1,2&3 are true.
C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true.
17. Amount of testing performed will not depend on
A. Risks involved
B. Contractual requirements
C. Legal requirements
D. Test data.
18. Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost saving from use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test planning
D. Test execution
19. Testing is not done to ….
A. Find faults
B. Improve quality
C. Check user friendliness.
D. Improve software accuracy
20. Software quality is not relevant to …
A. Correctness
B. Usability
C. Viability
D. Reusability.
21. Which of the following are false?
A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.
B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
22. Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?
A. Usability testing.
B. Statement Coverage.
C. Dataflow testing.
D. Cause-effect graphing.
23. To make a test effective it is most important that:
A. It is easy to execute.
B. It is designed to detect faults if present.
C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.
D. It is unlikely to delay progress.
24. Error guessing is:
A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
C. Only used when good requirements are available.
D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.
25. A standard for software testing terminology is:
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2
26. Which of the following is true of V-model?
A. It includes the verification of designs.
B. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It only models the testing phase.
27. Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.
28. When do you stop testing?
A. When the specified number of faults are found.
B. When the test completion criteria are met.
C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
D. When all statements have been executed.
29. Which of the following is least important in test management?
A. Estimating test duration.
B. Incident Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. De-bugging.
30. How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
A. Metrics from previous similar projects.
B. Discussions with the development team.
C. Time allocated for regression testing.
D. Both A & B.
31. Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.
32. Regression testing always involves
A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed.
B. Executing a large number of different tests.
C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.
D. Using a test automation tool.
33. A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true?
A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.
B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.
C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.
D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.
34. Integration testing in the large involves:
A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.
35. Data flow analysis studies:
A. How rapidly data is transferred through a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
36. The oracle assumption is that:
A. There is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
B. The tester knows everything about the software under test.
C. The tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
D. Tools are used to check the results of testing.
36 The following text will be used in Q.37 and Q.38. In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has $4000 of salary tax free
The next $1500 is taxed at 10%
The next $28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
37. To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $28000
D. $33501
38. Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
39. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing?
A. Use of automated test execution tools.
B. Testing performed by users.
C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.
D. Integration of system with user documentation.
40. For software to be reliable it must:
A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards
Answers:
1. A 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B 6. B 7. D 8. A 9. D 10. C 11. B 12. C 13. C 14. A 15. D 16. A 17. D
18. D 19. D 20. C 21. C 22. A 23. C 24. D 25. C 26. B 27. C 28. B 29. D 30. A 31. A 32. C
33. C 34. A 35. B 36. C 37. D 38. A 39. A 40. B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 15

Q. 1: Given the following state transition table Which of the test cases below will cover the following series
of state transitions? S1 SO S1 S2 SO

A. D, A, B, C.
B. A, B, C, D.
C. D, A, B.
D. A, B, C.
Q. 2: From a Testing perspective, what are the MAIN purposes of Configuration Management?:
i) Identifying the version of software under test.
ii) Controlling the version of testware items.
iii) Developing new testware items.
iv) Tracking changes to testware items.
v) Analysing the need for new testware items.
A. ii, iv and v.
B. ii, iii and iv.i,
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i, iii and v.
Q. 3: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test planning?
A. Scheduling test analysis and design tasks.
B. Initiating corrective actions.
C. Monitoring progress and test coverage.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
Q. 4: Which of the following BEST describes the difference between an inspection and a walkthrough?
A. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by the author.
B. An inspection is led by a moderator and a walkthrough is led by the author.
C. Both inspections and walkthroughs are led by a trained moderator.
D. A walkthrough is led by the author. The author is not present during inspections.
Q. 5: Where may functional testing be performed?
A. At system and acceptance testing levels only.
B. At all test levels.
C. At all levels above integration testing.
D. At the acceptance testing level only.
Q. 6: What is the MAIN objective when reviewing a software deliverable?
A. To identify potential application failures by use of a test specification.
B. To identify defects in any software work product.
C. To identify spelling mistakes in a requirements specification.
D. To identify standards inconsistencies in the code.
Q. 7: Who would USUALLY perform debugging activities?
[Link].
B. Analysts.
C. Testers.
D. Incident Managers.
Q. 8: Which of the following would you NOT usually find on a software incident report?
A. The name and/or organisational position of the person raising the problem.
B. Version of the Software Under Test.
C. Suggestions as to how to fix the problem.
D. Actual and expected results.
Q. 9: Which of the following defines the expected results of a test?
A. Test case specification.
B. Test design specification.
C. Test procedure specification.
D. Test results.
Q. 10: Some tools are geared more for developer use. For the 5 tools listed, which statement BEST details
those for developers
i) Performance testing tools.
ii) Coverage measurement tools.
iii) Test comparators.
iv) Dynamic analysis tools.
v) Incident management tools.
A. i, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
B. ii. and iv. are more for developers.
C. ii, iii. and iv. are more for developers.
D. ii. and iii. are more for developers.
Q. 11: Which of the following is correct?
A. Impact analysis assesses the effect on the system of a defect found in regression testing.
B. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a new person joining the regression test team.
C. Impact analysis assesses whether or not a defect found in regression testing has been fixed correctly.
D. Impact analysis assesses the effect of a change to the system to determine how much regression testing to do.
Q. 12: As part of which test process do you determine the exit criteria?
A. Test planning.
B. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
C. Test closure.
D. Test control.
Q. 13: Given the following state transition diagram Which of the following series of state transitions
contains an INVALID transition which may indicate a fault in the system design?
Exhibit:

A. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Checkout Pay Logout.

B. Login Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
C. Login Browse Basket Checkout Basket Logout.
D. Login Browse Basket Browse Basket Checkout Pay Logout.
Q. 14: Which of the following is a MAJOR task of test implementation and execution?
A. Measuring and analyzing results.
B. Reporting discrepancies as incidents.
C. Identifying test conditions or test requirements.
D. Assessing if more tests are needed.
Q. 15: What is beta testing?
A. Testing performed by potential customers at the developers location.
B. Testing performed by potential customers at their own locations.
C. Testing performed by product developers at the customer's location.
D. Testing performed by product developers at their own locations.
Q. 16: Given the following fragment of code, how many tests are required for 100% decision coverage?
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width
if height > width then
biggest_dimension = height end_if
else
biggest_dimension = length if height > length
then
biggest_dimension = height end_if
end_if
A. 3
B. 4
C. 2
D. 1
Q. 17: You have designed test cases to provide 100% statement and 100% decision coverage for the
following fragment of code.
if width > length then
biggest_dimension = width else
biggest_dimension = length end_if
The following has been added to the bottom of the code fragment above.
print "Biggest dimension is " & biggest_dimension print "Width: " & width
print "Length: " & length
How many more test cases are required?
A. One more test case will be required for 100 % decision coverage.
B. Two more test cases will be required for 100 % statement coverage, one of which will
be used to provide 100% decision coverage.
C. None, existing test cases can be used.
D. One more test case will be required for 100" statement coverage.
Q. 18: A thermometer measures temperature in whole degrees only. If the temperature falls below 18
degrees, the heating is switched off. It is switched on again when the temperature reaches 21 degrees.
What are the best values in degrees to cover all equivalence partitions?
A. 15, 19 and 25.
B. 17, 18 and19.
C. 18, 20 and22.
D. 16, 26 and 32.
Q. 19: Which activity in the fundamental test process creates test suites for efficient test execution?
A. Implementation and execution.
B. Planning and control.
C. Analysis and design.
D. Test closure.
Q. 20: Which of the following is TRUE?
A. Confirmation testing is testing fixes to a set of defects and Regression testing is testing to establish whether
any defects have been introduced as a result of changes.
B. Confirmation testing is testing to establish whether any defects have been introduced as a result of changes
and Regression testing is testing fixes to a set of defects.
C. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing to establish whether any defects have been
introduced as a result of changes.
D. Confirmation testing and Regression testing are both testing fixes to a set of defects.
Q. 21: Given the following decision table: Which of the following test cases and
expected results is VALID?

A. 23 year old in insurance class A Premium is 0 and excess is,500.

B. 51 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is 00.
C. 31 year old in insurance class B Premium is 0 and excess is ,500.
D. 43 year old in insurance class C Premium is 0 and excess is ,000.
Q. 22: When should configuration management procedures be implemented?
A. During test planning.
B. During test analysis.
C. During test execution.
D. When evaluating exit criteria
Q. 23: Which of the following are characteristic of regression testing ?
i) Regression testing is run ONLY once
ii) Regression testing is used after fixes have been made
iii) Regression testing is often automated
iv) Regression tests need not be maintained
Options:
A. ii, iv.
B. ii, iii.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. iii.
Q. 24: A wholesaler sells printer cartridges. The minimum order quantity is 5.
There is a 20% discount for orders of 100 or more printer cartridges. You have been asked to prepare test
cases using various values for the number of printer cartridges ordered. Which of the following groups
contain three test inputs that would be generated using Boundary Value Analysis?
A. 5, 6, 20
B. 4, 5, 80
C. 4, 5, 99
D. 1, 20, 100
Q. 25: Which of the following activities should be performed during the selection and implementation of a
testing tool?
i) Investigate the organisation's test process. ii) Conduct a proof of concept.
iii) Implement the selected tool on a project behind schedule to save time.
iv) Identify coaching and mentoring requirements for the use of the selected tool.
Options:
A. i, ii, iii.
B. ii, iii, iv.
C. i, iii, iv.
D. i, ii, iv.
Q. 26: What is the MAIN benefit of designing tests early in the life cycle?
A. It is cheaper than designing tests during the test phases.
B. It helps prevent defects from being introduced into the code.
C. Tests designed early are more effective than tests designed later.
D. It saves time during the testing phases when testers are busy.
Q. 27: Which of the following benefits are MOST likely to be achieved by using test tools?
i) Easy to access information about tests and testing.
ii) Reduced maintenance of testware.
iii) Easy and cheap to implement.
iv) Greater consistency of tests.
Options:
A. ii and iv
B. ii and iii
C. i and iv
D. i and iii
Q. 28: What is the KEY difference between preventative and reactive approaches to testing?
A. Preventative tests and reactive tests are designed as early as possible.
B. Preventative tests are designed early; reactive tests are designed after the software
has been produced.
C. Preventative testing is always analytical; reactive testing is always heuristic.
D. Preventative tests are designed after the software has been produced; reactive tests
are designed early in response to review comments.
Q. 29: What is the purpose of exit criteria?
A. To define when a test level is complete.
B. To determine when a test has completed.
C. To identify when a software system should be retired.
D. To determine whether a test has passed.
Q. 30: What determines the level of risk?
A. The cost of dealing with an adverse event if it occurs.
B. The probability that an adverse event will occur.
C. The amount of testing planned before release of a system.
D. The likelihood of an adverse event and the impact of the event.
Q. 31: With which of the following categories is a test comparator tool USUALLY associated?
A. Tool support for performance and monitoring.
B. Tool support for static testing.
C. Tool support for test execution and logging.
D. Tool support for the management of testing and tests.
Q. 32: Which activities form part of test planning?
i) Developing test cases.
ii) Defining the overall approach to testing.
iii) Assigning resources.
iv) Building the test environment
v) Writing test conditions.
A. i, ii & iv are true, iii & v are false.
B. ii & iii are true, i, iv & v are false.
C. iv & v are true, i, ii & iii are false.
D. i, ii & iii are true iv & v are false.
Q. 33: Match the following terms and statements.
[Link] Table Testing
[Link] Testing
[Link] Transition Testing
[Link] Testing
W. Testing carried out w boxes to achieve specific test objectives, possibly to complement structured
testing.
X. A test technique used which may be used to verify different system re depending on current conditions
or previous history.
Y. A test technique which combines combinations of inputs that might not otherwise have been exercised
during testing.
Z. A form of control flow testing based on decision outcomes.
Options:
A. 1Y, 2Z, 3X, 4W.
B. 1X ,2W, 3Z, 4Y.
C. 1Z, 2X, 3W, 4Y.
D. 1Z, 2Y, 3X, 4W.
Q. 34: Which type of test design techniques does the following statement best describe a procedure to
derive test cases based on the specification of a component?
A. Black Box Techniques.
B. White Box Techniques.
C. Glass Box Techniques.
D. Experience Based Techniques.
Q. 35: For which of the following would a static analysis tool be MOST useful?
A. Supporting reviews.
B. Validating models of the software.
C. Testing code executed in a special test harness.
D. Enforcement of coding standards.
Q. 36: Which of the following types of defects is use case testing MOST LIKELY to uncover?
i) Defects in the process flows during real-world use of the system.
ii) Defects in the interface parameters in integration testing.
iii) Integration defects caused by the interaction and interference of different components.
iv) Defects in the system as it transitions between one state and another.
A. ii, iii.
B. i, iii.
C. iii, iv.
D. i, ii
Q. 37: Which of the following is MOST important in the selection of a test approach?
A. Availability of tools to support the proposed techniques.
B. The budget allowed for training in proposed techniques.
C. Available skills and experience in the proposed techniques.
D. The willingness of the test team to learn new techniques.
Q. 38: Which of the following is a benefit of test independence?
A. It does not require familiarity with the code.
B. It is cheaper than using developers to test their own code.
C. It avoids author bias in defining effective tests.
D. Testers are better at finding defects than developers.
Q. 39: The above diagram represents the following paths through the code.
A. vwy
B. vwz
C. vxy
D. vxz
What is the MINIMUM combination of paths required to provide full statement overage?
Exhibit:

A. A
B. ABD
C. ABCD
D. ACD
Q. 40: Which of the following is MOST characteristic of specification based (black-box) techniques?
A. Test cases can be easily automated.
B. Test cases are independent of each other.
C. Test cases are derived systematically from models of the system.
D. Test cases are derived systematically from the delivered code.
Answers:
Q. 1-A Q. 2-C Q. 3-A Q. 4-B Q. 5-B Q. 6-B Q. 7-A Q. 8-C Q. 9-A Q. 10-B Q. 11-D Q. 12-A
Q. 13-C Q. 14-B Q. 15-B Q. 16-B Q. 17-C Q. 18-A Q. 19-A Q. 20-A Q. 21-A Q. 22-A Q. 23-B
Q. 24-C Q. 25-D Q. 26-B Q. 27-C Q. 28-B Q. 29-A Q. 30-D Q. 31-C Q. 32-B Q. 33-A Q. 34-A
Q. 35-D Q. 36-B Q. 37-C Q. 38-C Q. 39-A Q. 40-C

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 16

Q. 1: Which of the following combinations correctly describes a valid approach to
component testing:
i) Functional testing of the component in isolation.
ii) Structure-based testing of the code without recording incidents.
iii) Automated tests that are run until the component passes.
iv) Functional testing of the interfaces between modules.
A. i and ii.
B. I, ii and iii
C. iii.
D. ii and iv
Q. 2: Which of the following is a purpose of the review planning phase?
A. Log defects.
B. Explain the documents to the participants.
C. Gather metrics.
D. Allocate the individual roles.
Q. 3: A defect arrival rate curve:
A. Shows the number of newly discovered defects per unit time
B. Shows the number of open defects per unit time.
C. Shows the cumulative total number of defects found up to this time.
D. Any of these, depending on the company.
Q. 4: Which is the best definition of complete testing:
A. You have discovered every bug in the program.
B. You have tested every statement, branch, and combination of branches in the program.
C. You have completed every test in the test plan.
D. You have reached the scheduled ship date.
Q. 5: Complete statement and branch coverage means:
A. That you have tested every statement in the program.
B. That you have tested every statement and every branch in the program.
C. That you have tested every IF statement in the program.
D. That you have tested every combination of values of IF statements in the program
Q. 6: There are several risks of managing your project's schedule with a statistical reliability model. These
include (choose one or more of the following):
A. Testers spend more energy early in the product trying to find bugs than preparing to do the rest of the project's
work more efficiently
B. Managers might not realize that the testing effort is ineffective, late in the project, because they expect a low
rate of bug finding, so the low rate achieved doesn't alarm them.
C. It can increase the end-of-project pressure on testers to not find bugs, or to not report bugs.
D. All of the above
Q. 7: Typical defects that are easier to find in reviews than in dynamic testing are:
A. Deviations from standards,
B. Requirement defects,
C. Design defects,
D. Insufficient maintainability and incorrect interface specifications. E. All of the above.
Q. 8: Reviews, static analysis and dynamic testing have the same objective
A. Identifying defects.
B. Fixing defects.
C. A. and B
D. None of the above
Q. 9: We can achieve complete statement coverage but still miss bugs because:
A. The failure occurs only if you reach a statement taking the TRUE branch of an IF statement, and you got to
the statement with a test that passed through the FALSE branch.
B. The failure depends on the program's inability to handle specific data values, rather than on the program's
flow of control.
C. We are not required to test code that customers are unlikely to execute.
D. All of the above
Q. 10: Measurement dysfunction is a problem because:
A. Even though the numbers you look at appear better, to achieve these numbers, people are doing other aspects
of their work much less well.
B. We don't know how to measure a variable (our measurement is dysfunctional) and so we don't know how to
interpret the result.
C. You are measuring the wrong thing and thus reaching the wrong conclusions.
D. All of the above.
Q. 11: Important consequences of the impossibility of complete testing are (Choose one or more answers):
A. We can never be certain that the program is bug free.
B. We have no definite stopping point for testing, which makes it easier for some
managers to argue for very little testing.
C. We have no easy answer for what testing tasks should always be required, because
every task takes time that could be spent on other high importance tasks.
D. All of the above.
Q. 12: Poor software characteristics are
A. Only Project risks
B. Only Product risks
C. Project risks and Product risks
D. Project risks or Product risks
Q. 13: System testing should investigate
A. Non-functional requirements only not Functional requirements
B. Functional requirements only not non-functional requirements
C. Non-functional requirements and Functional requirements
D. Non-functional requirements or Functional requirements
Q. 14: Contract and regulation testing is a part of
A. System testing
B. Acceptance testing
C. Integration testing
D. Smoke testing
Q. 15: Find the correct flow of the phases of a formal review
A. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Kick off
B. Planning, Individual preparation, Kick off, Rework
C. Planning, Review meeting, Rework, Follow up
D. Planning, Individual preparation, Follow up, Kick off
Q. 16: Which is not the testing objectives
A. Finding defects
B. Gaining confidence about the level of quality and providing information
C. Preventing defects.
D. Debugging defects
Q. 17: Maintenance releases and technical assistance centers are examples of which of the following costs
of quality?
A. External failure
B. Internal failure
C. Appraisal
D. Prevention
Q. 18: Which is not the project risks
A. Supplier issues
B. Organization factors
C. Technical issues
D. Error-prone software delivered
Q. 19: Bug life cycle
A. Open, Assigned, Fixed, Closed
B. Open, Fixed, Assigned, Closed
C. Assigned, Open, Closed, Fixed
D. Assigned, Open, Fixed, Closed
Q. 20: Who is responsible for document all the issues, problems and open point that were identified during
the review meeting
A. Moderator
B. Scribe
C. Reviewers
D. Author
Q. 21: ‘X’ has given a data on a person age, which should be between 1 to 99.
Using BVA which is the appropriate one
A. 0,1,2,99
B. 1, 99, 100, 98
C. 0, 1, 99, 100
D. –1, 0, 1, 99
Q. 22: Which is not a testing principle
A. Early testing
B. Defect clustering
C. Pesticide paradox
D. Exhaustive testing
Q. 23: A project that is in the implementation phase is six weeks behind schedule.
The delivery date for the product is four months away. The project is not allowed to slip the delivery date
or compromise on the quality standards established for his product. Which of the following actions would
bring this project back on schedule?
A. Eliminate some of the requirements that have not yet been implemented.
B. Add more engineers to the project to make up for lost work.
C. Ask the current developers to work overtime until the lost work is recovered.
D. Hire more software quality assurance personnel.
Q. 24: The Testing will be performed by the people at client own locations
A. Alpha testing
B. Field testing
C. Performance testing
D. System testing
Q. 25: Which of the following is the standard for the Software product quality
A. ISO 1926
B. ISO 829
C. ISO 1012
D. ISO 1028
Q. 26: Which is not a black box testing technique
A. Equivalence partition
B. Decision tables
C. Transaction diagrams
D. Decision testing
Q. 27: Find the mismatch
A. Test data preparation tools – Manipulate Data bases
B. Test design tools – Generate test inputs
C. Requirement management tools – Enables individual tests to be traceable
D. Configuration management tools – Check for consistence
Q. 28: Use cases can be performed to test
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Business scenarios
D. Static testing
Q. 29: Purpose of test design technique is
A. Identifying test conditions only, not Identifying test cases
B. Not Identifying test conditions, Identifying test cases only
C. Identifying test conditions and Identifying test cases
D. Identifying test conditions or Identifying test cases
Q. 30: One person has been dominating the current software process improvement meeting. Which of the
following techniques should the facilitator use to bring other team members into the discussion?
A. Confront the person and ask that other team members be allowed to express their
opinions.
B. Wait for the person to pause, acknowledge the person’ s opinion, and ask for
someone else’ s opinion.
C. Switch the topic to an issue about which the person does not have a strong opinion.
D. Express an opinion that differs from the person’ s opinion in order to encourage
others to express their ideas.
Q. 31: Stochastic testing using statistical information or operational profiles uses the following method
A. Heuristic testing approach
B. Methodical testing approach
C. Model based testing approach
D. Process or standard compliant testing approach
Q. 32: A software model that can’t be used in functional testing
A. Process flow model
B. State transaction model
C. Menu structure model
D. Plain language specification model
Q. 33: Arc testing is known as
A. Branch testing
B. Agile testing
C. Beta testing
D. Ad-hoc testing
Q. 34: The purpose of exit criteria is
A. Define when to stop testing
B. End of test level
C. When a set of tests has achieved a specific pre condition
D. All of the above
Q. 35: The ____________ technique can be used to achieve input and output
coverage
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Decision table testing
D. State transition testing
Q. 36: The ____________ testing is performed at the developing organization’s
site
A. Unit testing
B. Regression testing
C. Alpha testing
D. Integration testing
Q. 37: What is the main purpose of Informal review
A. Inexpensive way to get some benefit
B. Find defects
C. Learning, gaining understanding, effect finding
D. Discuss, make decisions, solve technical problems
Q. 38: Which is not a Component testing
A. Check the memory leaks
B. Check the robustness
C. Check the branch coverage
D. Check the decision tables
Q. 39: The software engineer's role in tool selection is
A. To identify, evaluate, and rank tools, and recommend tools to management
B. To determine what kind of tool is needed, then find it and buy it
C. To initiate the tool search and present a case to management
D. To identify, evaluate and select the tools
Q. 40: Which is not the fundamental test process
A. Planning and control
B. Test closure activities
C. Analysis and design
D. None
Answers:
Q.1-B Q.2-D Q.3-A Q.4-A Q.5-B Q.6-D Q.7-E Q.8-A Q.9-B Q.10-A Q.11-D Q.12-B Q.13-C Q.14-B Q.15-C
Q.16-D Q.17-A Q.18-D Q.19-A Q.20-B Q.21-C Q.22-D Q.23-A Q.24-B Q.25-A Q.26-D Q.27-D Q.28-C Q.29-C
Q.30-B Q.31-C Q.32-C Q.33-A Q.34-D Q.35-B Q.36-C Q.37-A Q.38-D Q.39-A Q.40-D

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 17

Q. 1: The and are used within individual workbenches to produce the right
output products.
A. Tools and techniques
B. Procedures and standards
C. Processes and walkthroughs
D. Reviews and update
Q. 2: Which is not the software characteristics
A. Reliability
B. Usability
C. Scalability
D. Maintainability
Q. 3: The principle of Cyclomatic complexity, considering L as edges or links, N as nodes, P as
independent paths
A. L-N +2P
B. N-L +2P
C. N-L +P
D. N-L +P
Q. 4: FPA is used to
A. To measure the functional requirements of the project
B. To measure the size of the functionality of an Information system
C. To measure the functional testing effort
D. To measure the functional flow
Q. 5: A is the step-by-step method followed to ensure that standards are met
A. SDLC
B. Project Plan
C. Policy
D. Procedure
Q. 6: Which is not a test Oracle
A. The existing system (For a bench mark)
B. The code
C. Individual’s knowledge
D. User manual
Q. 7: PDCA is known as
A. Plan, Do, Check, Act
B. Plan, Do, Correct, Act
C. Plan, Debug, Check, Act
D. Plan, Do, Check, Accept
Q. 8: Which is the non-functional testing
A. Performance testing
B. Unit testing
C. Regression testing
D. Sanity testing
Q. 9: A Test Plan Outline contains which of the following:
i. Test Items
ii. Test Scripts
iii. Test Deliverables
iv. Responsibilities
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. ii,iii are true and i and iv are false
D. i,ii are false and iii , iv are true
Q. 10: Testing where in we subject the target of the test , to varying workloads to measure and
evaluate the performance behaviors and ability of the target and of the test to continue to function
properly under these different workloads.
A. Load Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. System Testing
D. Usability Testing
Q. 11: Which of the following is the task of a Tester?
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Prepare and acquire Test Data
iii. Implement Tests on all test levels, execute and log the tests.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q. 12: What can static analysis NOT find?
A. The use of a variable before it has been defined
B. Unreachable ("dead") code
C. Memory leaks
D. Array bound violations
Q. 13: White Box Techniques are also called as:
A. Structural Testing
B. Design Based Testin
C. Error Guessing Technique
D. Experience Based Technique
Q. 14: Reviewing the test Basis is a part of which phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 15: Component Testing is also called as :-
i. Unit Testing
ii. Program Testing iii. Module Testing
iv. System Component Testing .
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
D. all of above is true
Q. 16: Which of the following is not a major task of Exit criteria?
A. Checking test logs against the exit criteria specified in test planning.
B. Logging the outcome of test execution.
C. Assessing if more tests are needed.
D. Writing a test summary report for stakeholders.
Q. 17: Which of the following is true about Formal Review or Inspection:-
i. Led by Trained Moderator (not the author).
ii. No Pre Meeting Preparations
iii. Formal Follow up process.
iv. Main Objective is to find defects
A. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
B. i,iii,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,iii,iv are false and ii is true
D. iii is true and I,ii,iv are false
Q. 18: The Phases of formal review process is mentioned below arrange them in the correct order.
i. Planning
ii. Review Meeting
iii. Rework
iv. Individual Preparations
v. Kick Off
vi. Follow Up
A.i,ii,iii,iv,v,vi
[Link],i,ii,iii,iv,v
C.i,v,iv,ii,iii,vi
D.i,ii,iii,v,iv,vi
Q. 19: Testing activity which is performed to expose defects in the interfaces and in the interaction
between integrated components is :
A. System Level Testing
B. Integration Level Testing
C. Unit Level Testing
D. Component Testing
Q. 20: Methodologies adopted while performing Maintenance Testing:-
A. Breadth Test and Depth Test
B. Re-testing
C. Confirmation Testing
D. Sanity Testing
Q. 21: The Switch is switched off once the temperature falls below 18 and then it is turned on when the
temperature is more than 21. When the temperature is more than 21. Identify the Equivalance values
which belong to the same class.
A. 12,16,22
B. 24,27,17
C. 22,23,24
D. 14,15,19
Q. 22: What is an equivalence partition (also known as an equivalence class)?
A. A set of test cases for testing classes of objects
B. An input or output range of values such that only one value in the range becomes a test case
C. An input or output range of values such that each value in the range becomes a test case
D. An input or output range of values such that every tenth value in the range becomes a test case.
Q. 23: Which of the following is not a part of the Test Implementation and Execution
Phase
A. Creating test suites from the test cases
B. Executing test cases either manually or by using test execution tools
C. Comparing actual results
D. Designing the Tests
Q. 24: Link Testing is also called as :
A. Component Integration testing
B. Component System Testing
C. Component Sub System Testing
D. Maintenance testing
Q. 25: Who are the persons involved in a Formal Review :-
i. Manager
ii. Moderator
iii. Scribe / Recorder iv. Assistant Manager
A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false. C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Q. 26: Which of the following statements regarding static testing is false:
A. Static testing requires the running of tests through the code
B. Static testing includes desk checking
C. Static testing includes techniques such as reviews and inspections
D. Static testing can give measurements such as cyclomatic complexity
Q. 27: Designing the test environment set-up and identifying any required infrastructure and tools
are a part of which phase
A. Test Implementation and execution
B. Test Analysis and Design
C. Evaluating the Exit Criteria and reporting
D. Test Closure Activities
Q. 28: A Type of functional Testing, which investigates the functions relating to detection of
threats, such as virus from malicious outsiders.
A. Security Testing
B. Recovery Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Functionality Testing
Q. 29: A Person who documents all the issues, problems and open points that were identified
during a formal review.
A. Moderator.
B. Scribe
C. Author
D. Manager
Q. 30: The Test Cases Derived from use cases
A. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
B. Are most useful in uncovering defects in the process flows during the testing use of the system
C. Are most useful in covering the defects in the process flows during real world use of the system
D. Are most useful in covering the defects at the Integration Level
Q. 31: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts alpha numeric values. Identify
the Valid Equivalence class
A. BOOK
B. Book
C. Boo01k
D. book
Q. 32: In an Examination a candidate has to score minimum of 24 marks in order to clear the exam.
The maximum that he can score is 40 marks. Identify the Valid Equivalence values if the student
clears the exam.
A. 22,23,26
B. 21,39,40
C. 29,30,31
D. 0,15,22
Q. 33: Verification involves which of the following :-
i. Helps to check the Quality of the built product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product.
iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false.
Q. 34: A Project risk includes which of the following :
A. Organizational Factors
B. Poor Software characteristics
C. Error Prone software delivered.
D. Software that does not perform its intended functions
Q. 35: Which of the following is a Key Characteristics of Walk Through
A. Scenario , Dry Run , Peer Group
B. Pre Meeting Preparations
C. Formal Follow Up Process
D. Includes Metrics
Q. 36: Which of the following techniques is NOT a White box technique?
A. Statement Testing and coverage
B. Decision Testing and coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Boundary value analysis
Q. 37: Reporting Discrepancies as incidents is a part of which phase :-
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Implementation and execution
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 38: In a risk-based approach the risks identified may be used to :
i. Determine the test technique to be employed
ii. Determine the extent of testing to be carried out
iii. Prioritize testing in an attempt to find critical defects as early as possible.
iv. Determine the cost of the project
A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i is false
Q. 39: Incidents would not be raised against:
A. Requirements
B. Documentation
C. Test cases
D. Improvements suggested by users
Q. 40: The Planning phase of a formal review includes the following :-
A. Explaining the objectives
B. Selecting the personnel, allocating roles.
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
Answers:
Q.1-B Q.2-C Q.3-A Q.4-B Q.5-D Q.6-B Q.7-A Q.8-A Q.9-B Q.10-A Q.11-B Q.12-C Q.13-A Q.14-A Q.15-A
Q.16-B Q.17-B Q.18-C Q.19-B Q.20-A Q.21-C Q.22-B Q.23-D Q.24-A Q.25-B Q.26-A Q.27-B Q.28-A Q.29-B
Q.30-A Q.31-C Q.32-C Q.33-B Q.34-A Q.35-A Q.36-D Q.37-B Q.38-B Q.39-D Q.40-B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 18

Q. 1: Test Implementation and execution has which of the following major tasks?
i. Developing and prioritizing test cases, creating test data, writing test procedures and optionally
preparing the test harnesses and writing automated test scripts.
ii. Creating the test suite from the test cases for efficient test execution.
iii. Verifying that the test environment has been set up correctly.
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 2: One of the fields on a form contains a text box which accepts numeric values in the range of
18 to 25. Identify the invalid Equivalance class
A. 17
B. 19
C. 24
D. 21
Q. 3: Exhaustive Testing is
A. Is impractical but possible
B. Is practically possible
C. Is impractical and impossible
D. Is always possible
Q. 4: Hand over of Testware is a part of which Phase
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Closure Activities
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 5: Which one is not comes under international standard
A. IEC
B. IEEE
C. ISO
D. All of the above
Q. 6: In which phase static tests are used
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Coding
D. All of the above
Q. 7: What's the disadvantage of Black Box Testing
A. Chances of having repetition of tests that are already done by programmer.
B. The test inputs needs to be from large sample space.
C. It is difficult to identify all possible inputs in limited testing time. So writing test cases is
slow and difficult
D. All above
Q. 8: Static analysis tools are typically used by
A. Testers
B. Developers
C. Testers & Developers
D. None
Q. 9: Majority of system errors occur in the phase
A. Requirements Phase.
B. Analysis and Design Phase
C. Development Phase
D. Testing Phase
Q. 10: The specification which describes steps required to operate the system and exercise test
cases in order to implement the associated test design
A. Test Case Specification
B. Test Design Specification
C. Test Procedure Specification
D. None
Q. 11: How much percentage of the life cycle costs of a software are spent on maintenance.
A. 10%
B. 30%
C. 50%
D. 70%
Q. 12: When a defect is detected and fixed then the software should be retested to confirm that
the original defect has been successfully removed. This is called
A. Regression testing
B. Maintenance testing
C. Confirmation testing
D. None of the above
Q. 13: Equivalence testing divides the input domain into classes of data from which test cases can
be derived to reduce the total number of test cases that must be developed.
A. True
B. False
Q. 14: When to stop Testing?
A. Stop when scheduled time for testing expires
B. Stop if 75% of the pre-defined number of errors is detected.
C. Stop when all the test cases execute with detecting few errors.
D. None above
Q. 15: With thorough testing it is possible to remove all defects from a program prior to delivery to
the customer.
A. True
B. False
Q. 16: Structure is unknown for which type of development project
A. Traditional system development
B. Iterative development
C. System maintenance
D. Purchased/contracted software
Q. 17: indicates how important it is to fix the bug and when it should be fixed
A. Severity
B. Priority
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 18: The person who leads the review of the document(s), planning the review,running the
meeting and follow-up after the meeting
A. Reviewer
B. Author
C. Moderator
D. Auditor
Q. 19: Performs sufficient testing to evaluate every possible path and condition in the application
system. The only test method that guarantees the proper functioning of the application system is
called as
A. Regression Testing
B. Exhaustive Testing
C. Basic Path Testing
D. Branch Testing
Q. 20: Quality Assurance is the process by which product quality is compared with the application
standards and the action taken when nonconformance is detected.
A. True
B. False
Q. 21: A formal assessment of a work product conducted by one or more qualified independent
reviewer to detect defects.
A. Inspection.
B. Walkthrough.
C. Review
D. Non Conformance
Q. 22: Test Case are grouped into Manageable (and scheduled) units are called as
A. Test Harness
B. Test Suite
C. Test Cycle
D. Test Driver
Q. 23: Configuration and compatibility testing are typically good choices for outsourcing
A. True
B. False
Q. 24: What type of tools to be used for Regression Testing
A. Performance
B. Record/Playback
C. A. & B.
D. None
Q. 25: System Integration testing should be done after
A. Integration testing
B. System testing
C. Unit testing
D. Component integration testing
Q. 26: During this event the entire system is tested to verify that all functional information structural and
quality requirements have been met. A predetermined combination of tests is designed that when executed
successfully satisfy management that the system meets specifications
A. Validation Testing
B. Integration Testing
C. User Acceptance Testing
D. System Testing
Q. 27: What is the normal order of activities in which software testing is organized?
A. Unit, integration, system, validation
B. System, integration, unit, validation
C. Unit, integration, validation, system
D. None of the above
Q. 28: The goal of a software tester is to find bugs, find them as early as possible and make sure they get
fixed.
A. True
B. False
Q. 29: Beta testing is performed at developing organization's site where as Alpha testing is performed by
people at their own locations.
A. True
B. False
Q. 30: The principal attributes of tools and automation are
A. Speed & efficiency
B. Accuracy & precision
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 31: In testing doesn't know anything about the sofware being tested; it just clicks or types randomly.
A. Random testing
B. Gorilla testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. Dumb monkey testing
Q. 32: A series of probing questions about the completeness and attributes of an application system
is called
A. Checklist
B. Checkpoint review
C. Decision table
D. Decision tree
Q. 33: The testing technique that requires devising test cases to demonstrate that each program function is
operational is called
A. Black-box testing
B. Glass-box testing
C. Grey-box testing
D. White-box testing
Q. 34: A white box testing technique that measures the number of or percentage of decision directions
executed by the test case designed is called
A. Condition coverage
B. Decision/Condition coverage
C. Decision Coverage
D. Branch coverage
Q. 35: Which summarizes the testing activities associated with one or more test design specifications.
A. Test Summary report
B. Test Log
C. Test Incident Report
D. Test Script
Q. 36: Testing without a real plan and test cases is called ---
A. Gorilla testing
B. Monkey testing
C. Adhoc testing
D. All of the above
Q. 37: Which rule should not be followed for reviews
A. Defects and issues are identified and corrected
B. The product is reviewed not the producer
C. All members of the reviewing team are responsible for the result of the review
D. Each review has a clear predefined objective
Q. 38: Verification can be termed as 'Are we building the product right?"
A. True
B. False
Q. 39: Which testing is used to verify that the system can perform properly when internal program
or system limitations have been exceeded
A. Stress Testing
B. Load Testing
C. Performance Testing
D. Volume testing
Q. 40: Defects are recorded into three major purposes. They are:
[Link] correct the defect
[Link] report status of the application
[Link] improve the software development process
A. True
B. False
Answers:
Q.1-A Q.2-A Q.3-A Q.4-C Q.5-B Q.6-D Q.7-D Q.8-B Q.9-A Q.10-C Q.11-D Q.12-C Q.13-A Q.14-A Q.15-B
Q.16-D Q.17-C Q.18-C Q.19-C Q.20-A Q.21-A Q.22-B Q.23-A Q.24-B Q.25-C Q.26-C Q.27-A Q.28-A Q.29-B
Q.30-C Q.31-D Q.32-A Q.33-C Q.34-B Q.35-C Q.36-D Q.37-C Q.38-A Q.39-A Q.40-A
ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 19
Q. 1: Drivers are tools used to control and operate the software being tested.
A. True
B. False
Q. 2: Typical defects discovered by static analysis includes
A. Programming standard violations
B. Referring a variable with an undefined value
C. Security vulnerabilities
D. All Above
Q. 3: EULA stands for
A. End Usability License Agreement
B. End User License Agreement
C. End User License Arrangement
D. End User License Attachment
Q. 4: is a very early build intended for limited distribution to a few key customers and
to marketing for demonstration purposes.
A. Alpha release
B. Beta release
C. Test release document
D. Build
Q. 5: CAST stands for
A. Computer Aided Software Testing
B. Computer Aided Software Tools
C. Computer Analysis Software Techniques
D. None
Q. 6: The tool modifies the program code or manipulates the operating environment in any way is
considered non-invasive
A. True
B. False
Q. 7: Which test may not mimic real world situations
A. Functional testing
B. Structural Testing
C. All of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 8: includes both Black box and White Box Testing features
A. Gray Box Testing
B. Hybrid Testing
C. A. & B.
D. None
Q. 9: Exhaustive testing is possible
A. True
B. False
Q. 10: Tool which stores requirement statements, check for consistency and allow requirements to
be prioritized and enable individual tests to be traceable to requirements, functions and features.
A. Incident management tools
B. Requirements management tools
C. Configuration management tools
D. None
Q. 11: The number of tests to test all control statements equals the cyclomatic complexity
A. True
B. False
Q. 12: Boundary value analysis can only be used during white-box testing.
A. True
B. False
Q. 13: Which of these are objectives for software testing?
A. Determine the productivity of programmers
B. Eliminate the need for future program maintenance
C. Eliminate every error prior to release
D. Uncover software errors
Q. 14: Failure is
A. Incorrect program behaviour due to a fault in the program
B. Bug found before product Release
C. Bug found after product Release
D. Bug found during Design phase
Q. 15: During the software development process, at what point can the test process start?
A. When the code is complete.
B. When the design is complete.
C. When the software requirements have been approved.
D. When the first code module is ready for unit testing
Q. 16: "How much testing is enough?"
A. This question is impossible to answer
B. This question is easy to answer
C. The answer depends on the risk for your industry, contract and special requirements
D. This answer depends on the maturity of your developers
Q. 17: Which of the following tools would be involved in the automation of regression test?
A. Data tester
B. Boundary tester
C. Capture/Playback
D. Output comparator.
Q. 18: Incorrect form of Logic coverage is:
A. Statement Coverage
B. Pole Coverage
C. Condition Coverage
D. Path Coverage
Q. 19: Code Coverage is used as a measure of what?
A. Defects
B. Trends analysis
C. Test Effectiveness
D. Time Spent Testing
Q. 20: Fault Masking is
A. Error condition hiding another error condition
B. Creating a test case which does not reveal a fault
C. Masking a fault by developer
D. Masking a fault by a tester
Q. 21: Which of the following is not a quality characteristic listed in ISO 9126 Standard?
A. Functionality
B. Usability
C. Supportability
D. Maintainability
Q. 22: One Key reason why developers have difficulty testing their own work is :
A. Lack of technical documentation
B. Lack of test tools on the market for developers
C. Lack of training
D. Lack of Objectivity
Q. 23: Statement Coverage will not check for the following.
A. Missing Statements
B. Unused Branches
C. Dead Code
D. Unused Statement
Q. 24: Given the Following program
IF X <>= Z
THEN Statement 2;
END
McCabe’s Cyclomatic Complexity is :
A. 2
B. 3
C. 4
D. 5
Q. 25: To test a function, the programmer has to write a , which calls the function to
be tested and passes it test data.
A. Stub
B. Driver
C. Proxy
D. None of the above
Q. 26: Pick the best definition of quality
A. Quality is job one
B. Zero defects
C. Conformance to requirements
D. Work as designed
Q. 27: Boundary value testing
A. Is the same as equivalence partitioning tests
B. Test boundary conditions on, below and above the edges of input and output equivalence classes
C. Tests combinations of input circumstances
D. Is used in white box testing strategy
Q. 28: An input field takes the year of birth between 1900 and 2004
The boundary values for testing this field are
A. 0,1900,2004,2005
B. 1900, 2004
C. 1899,1900,2004,2005
D. 1899, 1900, 1901,2003,2004,2005
Q. 29: How many test cases are necessary to cover all the possible sequences of statements (paths)
for the following program fragment? Assume that the two conditions are independent of each
other:
if (Condition 1) then statement 1 else statement 2 fi
if (Condition 2)
then statement 3 fi
A. 2 Test Cases
B. 3 Test Cases
C. 4 Test Cases
D. Not achievable
Q. 30: A common test technique during component test is
A. Statement and branch testing
B. Usability testing
C. Security testing
D. Performance testing
Q. 31: In a review meeting a moderator is a person who
A. Takes minutes of the meeting
B. Mediates between people
C. Takes telephone calls
D. Writes the documents to be reviewed
Q. 32: Acceptance test cases are based on what?
A. Requirements
B. Design
C. Code
D. Decision table
Q. 33: Which one of the following are non-functional testing methods?
A. System testing
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Both B & C
Q. 34: Independent Verification & Validation is
A. Done by the Developer
B. Done by the Test Engineers
C. Done By Management
D. Done by an Entity Outside the Project’s sphere of influence
Q. 35: Defect Management process does not include
A. Defect prevention
B. Deliverable base-lining
C. Management reporting
D. None of the above
Q. 36: Which of the following could be a reason for a failure
1) Testing fault
2) Software fault
3) Design fault
4) Environment Fault
5) Documentation Fault
A. 2 is a valid reason; 1,3,4 & 5 are not
B. 1,2,3,4 are valid reasons; 5 is not
C. 1,2,3 are valid reasons; 4 & 5 are not
D. All of them are valid reasons for failure
Q. 37: Test are prioritized so that:
A. You shorten the time required for testing
B. You do the best testing in the time available
C. You do more effective testing
D. You find more faults
Q. 38: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
Q.39: During which test activity could faults be found most cost effectively?
A. Execution
B. Design
C. Planning
D. Check Exit criteria completion
Q. 40: What is the difference between testing software developed by contractor outside your country,
versus testing software developed by a contractor within your country?
A. Does not meet people needs
B. Cultural difference
C. Loss of control over reallocation of resources
D. Relinquishment of control
Answers:
Q.1-A Q.2-C Q.3-B Q.4-B Q.5-A Q.6-B Q.7-B Q.8-A Q.9-B Q.10-B Q.11-A Q.12-B Q.13-D Q.14-A Q.15-C
Q.16-C Q.17-C Q.18-B Q.19-C Q.20-A Q.21-C Q.22-D Q.23-A Q.24-B Q.25-B Q.26-C Q.27-B Q.28-C Q.29-C
Q.30-A Q.31-B Q.32-A Q.33-D Q.34-D Q.35-B Q.36-D Q.37-B Q.38-A Q.39-C Q.40-B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 20

Q. 1: The inputs for developing a test plan are taken from
A. Project plan
B. Business plan
C. Support plan
D. None of the above
Q. 2: To test a function, the programmer has to write a
, which calls the function and
passes it the test data.
A. Stub B. Driver C. Proxy
D. None of the above
Q. 3: Which of the following is not a static testing technique
A. Error guessing
B. Walkthrough
C. Data flow analysis
D. Inspections
Q. 4: Which of the following statements about component testing is not true?
A. Component testing should be performed by development
B. Component testing is also known as isolation or module testing
C. Component testing should have completion criteria planned
D. Component testing does not involve regression testing
Q. 5: Inspections can find all the following except
A. Variables not defined in the code
B. Spelling and grammar faults in the documents
C. Requirements that have been omitted from the design documents
D. How much of the code has been covered
Q. 6: Which of the following is not a characteristic for Testability?
A. Operability
B. Observability
C. Simplicity
D. Robustness
Q. 7: Software testing accounts to what percent of software development costs?
A. 10-20
B. 40-50
C. 70-80
D. 5-10
Q. 8: Equivalence partitioning is:
A. A black box testing technique used only by developers
B. A black box testing technique than can only be used during system testing
C. A black box testing technique appropriate to all levels of testing
D. A white box testing technique appropriate for component testing
Q. 9: If an expected result is not specified then:
A. We cannot run the test
B. It may be difficult to repeat the test
C. It may be difficult to determine if the test has passed or failed
D. We cannot automate the user inputs
Q. 10: How much testing is enough
A. This question is impossible to answer
B. The answer depends on the risks for your industry, contract and special requirements
C. The answer depends on the maturity of your developers
D. The answer should be standardized for the software development industry
Q. 11: The purpose of requirement phase is
A. To freeze requirements
B. To understand user needs
C. To define the scope of testing
D. All of the above
Q. 12: Which of these can be successfully tested using Loop Testing methodology?
A. Simple Loops
B. Nested Loops
C. Concatenated Loops
D. All of the above
Q. 13: Cyclomatic Complexity method comes under which testing method.
A. White box
B. Black box
C. Green box
D. Yellow box
Q. 14: A reliable system will be one that:
A. Is unlikely to be completed on schedule
B. Is unlikely to cause a failure
C. Is likely to be fault-free
D. Is likely to be liked by the users
Q. 15: Which, in general, is the least required skill of a good tester?
A. Being diplomatic
B. Able to write software
C. Having good attention to detail
D. Able to be relied on
Q. 16: A regression test:
A. Will always be automated
B. Will help ensure unchanged areas of the software have not been affected
C. Will help ensure changed areas of the software have not been affected
D. Can only be run during user acceptance testing
Q. 17: Function/Test matrix is a type of
A. Interim Test report
B. Final test report
C. Project status report
D. Management report
Q. 18: The process starting with the terminal modules is called:
A. Top-down integration
B. Bottom-up integration
C. None of the above
D. Module integration
Q. 19: Verification is:
A. Checking that we are building the right system
B. Checking that we are building the system right
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Making sure that it is what the user really wants
Q. 20: The difference between re-testing and regression testing is
A. Re-testing is running a test again; regression testing looks for unexpected side effects
B. Re-testing looks for unexpected side effects; regression testing is repeating those tests
C. Re-testing is done after faults are fixed; regression testing is done earlier
D. Re-testing uses different environments, regression testing uses the same environment
E. Re-testing is done by developers, regression testing is done by independent testers
Q. 21: Testing should be stopped when:
A. All the planned tests have been run
B. Time has run out
C. All faults have been fixed correctly
D. Both A. and C.
E. I depends on the risks for the system being tested
Q. 22: Which of the following is the main purpose of the integration strategy for integration testing
in the small?
A. To ensure that all of the small modules are tested adequately
B. To ensure that the system interfaces to other systems and networks
C. To specify which modules to combine when and how many at once
D. To ensure that the integration testing can be performed by a small team
E. To specify how the software should be divided into modules
Q.223: Which of the following is NOT part of configuration management:
A. Status accounting of configuration items
B. Auditing conformance to ISO9001
C. Identification of test versions
D. Record of changes to documentation over time
E. controlled library access
Q. 24:Regression testing should be performed:
v) Every week
w) After the software has changed
x) As often as possible
y) When the environment has changed
z) Wwhen the project manager says
A. v & w are true, x – z are false
B. w, x & y are true, v & z are false
C. w & y are true, v, x & z are false
D. w is true, v, x y and z are false
E. All of the above are true
Q. 25: A tool that supports traceability, recording of incidents or scheduling of tests is called:
A. A dynamic analysis tool
B. A test execution tool
C. A debugging tool
D. A test management tool
E. A configuration management tool
Q. 26: The cost of fixing a fault:
A. Is not important
B. Increases as we move the product towards live use
C. Decreases as we move the product towards live use
D. Is more expensive if found in requirements than functional design
E. Can never be determined
Q. 27: Order numbers on a stock control system can range between 10000 and 99999 inclusive.
Which of the following inputs might be a result of designing tests for only valid equivalence classes
and valid boundaries:
A. 1000, 5000, 99999
B. 9999, 50000, 100000
C. 10000, 50000, 99999
D. 10000, 99999
E. 9999, 10000, 50000, 99999, 10000
Q. 28: When what is visible to end-users is a deviation from the specific or expected behavior, this
is called:
A. An error
B. A fault
C. A failure
D. A defect
E. A mistake
Q. 29: Which expression best matches the following characteristics or review processes:
1. Led by author
2. Undocumented
3. No management participation
4. Led by a trained moderator or leader
5. Uses entry exit criteria
s) Inspection
t) Peer review
u) Informal review
v) Walkthrough
A. s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
B. s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
C. s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
D. s = 5, t = 4, u = 3, v = 1 and 2
E. s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u = 2, v = 3
Q. 30: Given the following:
Switch PC on
Start "outlook"
IF outlook appears THEN Send an email
Close outlook
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
Q. 31: Test managers should not:
A. Report on deviations from the project plan
B. Sign the system off for release
C. Re-allocate resource to meet original plans
D. Rise incidents on faults that they have found
E. Provide information for risk analysis and quality improvement
Q. 32: Which of the following is NOT part of system testing:
A. Business process-based testing
B. Performance, load and stress testing
C. Requirements-based testing
D. Usability testing
E. Top-down integration testing
Q. 33: When a new testing tool is purchased, it should be used first by:
A. A small team to establish the best way to use the tool
B. Everyone who may eventually have some use for the tool
C. The independent testing team
D. The managers to see what projects it should be used in
E. The vendor contractor to write the initial scripts
Q. 34: Which of the following is not part of performance testing:
A. Measuring response time
B. Measuring transaction rates
C. Recovery testing
D. Simulating many users
E. Generating many transactions
Q. 35: What is the purpose of test completion criteria in a test plan:
A. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
B. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
C. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
D. To know when test planning is complete
E. To plan when to stop testing
Q. 36: Given the following code, which is true:
IF A > B THEN C = A – B
ELSE
C = A + B ENDIF Read D
IF C = D Then Print "Error" ENDIF
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 2 tests for statement coverage. 3 for branch coverage
D. 3 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 3 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q. 37: Unreachable code would best be found using:
A. Code reviews
B. Code inspections
C. A coverage tool
D. A test management tool
E. A static analysis tool
Q. 38: What information need not be included in a test incident report:
A. How to fix the fault
B. How to reproduce the fault
C. Test environment details
D. Severity, priority
E. The actual and expected outcomes
Q. 39: Which of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard:
A. Test items (i.e. software versions)
B. What is not to be tested
C. Test environments
D. Quality plans
E. Schedules and deadlines
Q. 40: IEEE 829 test plan documentation standard contains all of the following except:
A. Test items
B. Test deliverables
C. Test tasks
D. Test environment
E. Test specification
Answers:
Q.1-A Q.2-B Q.3-A Q.4-D Q.5-D Q.6-D Q.7-B Q.8-C Q.9-C Q.10-B Q.11-D Q.12-D Q.13-A Q.14-B Q.15-B
Q.16-B Q.17-C Q.18-B Q.19-B Q.20-A Q.21-E Q.22-C Q.23-B Q.24-C Q.25-E Q.26-B Q.27-C Q.28-C Q.29-B
Q.30-B Q.31-C Q.32-E Q.33-A Q.34-C Q.35-E Q.36-B Q.37-A Q.38-A Q.39-D Q.40-E

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 21

Q. 1: Which of the following is NOT a black box technique:
A. Equivalence partitioning
B. State transition testing
C. LCSAJ
D. Syntax testing
E. Boundary value analysis
Q. 2: Expected results are:
A. Only important in system testing
B. Only used in component testing
C. Never specified in advance
D. Most useful when specified in advance
E. Derived from the code
Q. 3: Beta testing is:
A. Performed by customers at their own site
B. Performed by customers at their software developer’s site
C. Performed by an independent test team
D. Useful to test bespoke software
E. Performed as early as possible in the lifecycle
Q. 4: Consider the following:
Pick up and read the newspaper
Look at what is on television
If there is a program that you are interested in watching then switch the the television on and
watch the program
Otherwise
Continue reading the newspaper
If there is a crossword in the newspaper then try and complete the crossword
A. SC = 1 and DC = 1
B. SC = 1 and DC = 2
C. SC = 1 and DC = 3
D. SC = 2 and DC = 2
E. SC = 2 and DC = 3
Q. 5: A typical commercial test execution tool would be able to perform all of the following EXCEPT:
A. Generating expected outputs
B. Replaying inputs according to a programmed script
C. Comparison of expected outcomes with actual outcomes
D. Recording test inputs
E. Reading test values from a data file
Q. 6: Consider the following statements about early test design:
i. Early test design can prevent fault multiplication
ii. Faults found during early test design are more expensive to fix
iii. Early test design can find faults
iv. Early test design can cause changes to the requirements
v. Early test design takes more effort
A. i, iii & iv are true. Ii & v are false
B. iii is true, I, ii, iv & v are false
C. iii & iv are true. i, ii & v are false
D. i, iii, iv & v are true, ii us false
E. i & iii are true, ii, iv & v are false
Q. 7: Given the following code, which is true about the minimum number of test cases required for
full statement and branch coverage:
Read P Read Q
IF P+Q > 100 THEN
Print "Large"
ENDIF
If P > 50 THEN Print "P Large" ENDIF
A. 1 test for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
B. 1 test for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
C. 1 test for statement coverage, 1 for branch coverage
D. 2 tests for statement coverage, 3 for branch coverage
E. 2 tests for statement coverage, 2 for branch coverage
Q. 8: The place to start if you want a (new) test tool is:
A. Attend a tool exhibition
B. Invite a vendor to give a demo
C. Analyse your needs and requirements
D. Find out what your budget would be for the tool
E. Search the internet
Q. 9: Error guessing is best used
A. As the first approach to deriving test cases
B. After more formal techniques have been applied
C. By inexperienced testers
D. After the system has gone live
E. Only by end users
Q. 10: Exit Criteria may consist of:
i. Thoroughness measures, such as coverage of code, functionality or risk
ii. Estimates of Defect density or reliability measures.
iii. Residual risk such as defects not fixed or lack of test coverage in certain areas
iv. Verifying the Test Environment.
A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect.
B. i,ii,iii is correct and iv is incorrect
C. ii is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
D. iii and iv are correct and i,ii are incorrect
Q. 11: One of the fields on a form contains a text box, which accepts alphabets in lower or upper case.
Identify the invalid Equivalance class value.
A. CLASS
B. cLASS
C. CLass
D. CLa01ss
Q. 12: The Kick Off phase of a formal review includes the following:
A. Explaining the objective
B. Fixing defects found typically done by author
C. Follow up
D. Individual Meeting preparations
Q. 13: Peer Reviews are also called as :
A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical Review
D. Formal Review
Q. 14: Validation involves which of the following
i. Helps to check the Quality of the Built Product
ii. Helps to check that we have built the right product. iii. Helps in developing the product
iv. Monitoring tool wastage and obsoleteness.
A. Options i,ii,iii,iv are true.
B. ii is true and i,iii,iv are false
C. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
D. iii is true and i,ii,iv are false.
Q. 15: Success Factors for a review include:
i. Each Review does not have a predefined objective
ii. Defects found are welcomed and expressed objectively
iii. Management supports a good review process.
iv. There is an emphasis on learning and process improvement.
A. ii,iii,iv are correct and i is incorrect
B. iii , i , iv is correct and ii is incorrect
C. i , iii , iv , ii is in correct
D. ii is correct
Q. 16: Which of the following helps in monitoring the Test Progress:
i. Percentage of Test Case Execution
ii. Percentage of work done in test environment preparation.
iii. Defect Information e.g. defect density, defects found and fixed
iv. The size of the testing Team and skills of the engineers
A. iv is correct and i,ii,iii are incorrect
B. i,ii,iii are correct and iv is incorrect
C. i,ii are correct and iii,iv are incorrect
D. i,iv are correct and ii , iii are incorrect
Q. 17: Defects discovered by static analysis tools include:
i. Variables that are never used.
ii. Security vulnerabilities.
iii. Programming Standard Violations
iv. Uncalled functions and procedures
A. i , ii,iii,iv is correct
B. iii ,is correct I,ii,iv are incorrect. C. i ,ii, iii and iv are incorrect
D. iv, ii is correct
Q. 18: Which of the following is true about White and Black Box Testing Technique:-
A. Equivalence partitioning, Decision Table and Control flow are White box Testing Techniques.
B. Equivalence partitioning, Boundary Value Analysis , Data Flow are Black Box Testing Techniques.
C. Equivalence partitioning , State Transition , Use Case Testing are black box Testing Techniques.
D. Equivalence Partitioning, State Transition, Use Case Testing and Decision Table are White Box Testing
Techniques.
Q. 19: Which of the following techniques is NOT a black box technique?
A. State transition testing
B. LCSAJ (Linear Code Sequence and Jump)
C. Syntax testing
D. Boundary value analysis
Q. 20: Features of White Box Testing Technique:
i. We use explicit knowledge of the internal workings of the item being tested to select the test data.
ii. Uses specific knowledge of programming code to examine outputs and assumes that the tester knows the
path of logic in a unit or a program.
iii. Checking for the performance of the application
iv. Also Checks for functionality.
A. i, ii are true and iii and iv are false
B. iii is true and i,ii, iv are false
C. ii ,iii is true and i,iv is false
D. iii and iv are true and i,ii are false
Q. 21. The Provision and Management of a controlled library containing all the configurations items
is called as
A. Configuration Control
B. Status Accounting
C. Configuration Identification
D. Configuration Analysis
Q. 22: The selection of a test approach should consider the context:
i. Risk of Failure of the Project, hazards to the product and risks of product failure to humans
ii. Skills and experience of the people in the proposed technique, tools and methods
iii. The objective of the testing endeavor and the mission of the testing team.
iv. The size of the testing Team
A. i,ii,iii,iv are true
B. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false.
C. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false.
D. i,iv are true and ii, iii are false.
Q. 23: Benefits of Independent Testing
A. Independent testers are much more qualified than Developers
B. Independent testers see other and different defects and are unbiased.
C. Independent Testers cannot identify defects.
D. Independent Testers can test better than developers
Q. 24: Minimum Test Required for Statement Coverage:
Disc = 0
Order-qty = 0
Read Order-qty
If Order-qty >=20 then
Disc = 0.05
If Order-qty >=100 then
Disc =0.1
End if
End if
A. Statement coverage is 4
B. Statement coverage is 1
C. Statement coverage is 3
D. Statement Coverage is 2
Q. 25: Test Conditions are derived from:
A. Specifications
B. Test Cases
C. Test Data
D. Test Design
Q. 26: Which of the following is the task of a Test Lead / Leader.
i. Interaction with the Test Tool Vendor to identify best ways to leverage test tool on the project.
ii. Write Test Summary Reports based on the information gathered during testing
iii. Decide what should be automated , to what degree and how.
iv. Create the Test Specifications
A. i, ii, iii is true and iv is false
B. ii,iii,iv is true and i is false
C. i is true and ii,iii,iv are false
D. iii and iv is correct and i and ii are incorrect
Q. 27: Impact Analysis helps to decide:
A. How much regression testing should be done.
B. Exit Criteria
C. How many more test cases need to written.
D. Different Tools to perform Regression Testing
Q. 28: Drivers are also known as:
i. Spade
ii. Test harness
iii. Scaffolding
A. i , ii are true and iii is false
B. i , iii are true and ii is false
C. ii , iii are true and i is false
D. All of the above are true
Q. 29: Which of the following is not a type of incremental testing approach?
A. Top down
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom up
D. Functional incrementation.
Q. 30: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same
equivalence class?
A. £4800; £14000; £28000
B. £5200; £5500; £28000
C. £28001; £32000; £35000
D. £5800; £28000; £32000
Q. 31: In case of Large Systems :
A. Only few tests should be run
B. Testing should be on the basis of Risk
C. Only Good Test Cases should be executed.
D. Test Cases written by good test engineers should be executed.
Q. 32: What is the expected result for each of the following test cases?

A. Citibank card member, holding a Silver room

B. Non Citibank-member, holding a Platinum room
A. A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
B. A – Don’t offer any upgrade, B – Offer upgrade to Gold.
C. A – Offer upgrade to Silver, B – Offer upgrade to Silver.
D. A – Offer upgrade to Gold, B – Don’t offer any upgrade.
Q. 33: Which of the following is not phase of the Fundamental Test Process?
A. Test Planning and Control
B. Test implementation and Execution
C. Requirement Analysis
D. Evaluating Exit criteria and reporting
Q. 34: The structure of an incident report is covered in the Standard for Software Test Documentation
IEEE 829 and is called as:
A. Anomaly Report
B. Defect Report
C. Test Defect Report
D. Test Incident Report
Q. 35: Repeated Testing of an already tested program, after modification, to discover any defects
introduced or uncovered as a result of the changes in the software being tested or in another related or
unrelated software component:
A. Re Testing
B. Confirmation Testing
C. Regression Testing
D. Negative Testing
Q. 36: Consider the following state transition diagram of a switch. Which of the following
represents an invalid state transition?

A. OFF to ON
B. ON to OFF
C. FAULT to ON
Q. 37: We use the output of the requirement analysis, the requirement specification as the input for
writing:
A. User Acceptance Test Cases
B. Integration Level Test Cases
C. Unit Level Test Cases
D. Program specifications
Q. 38: Regression testing should be performed:
i. Every week
ii. After the software has changed
iii. As often as possible
iv. When the environment has changed
v. When the project manager says
A. i & ii are true, iii, iv & v are false
B. ii, iii & iv are true, i & v are false
C. ii & iv are true, i, iii & v are false
D. ii is true, i, iii, iv & v are false
Q. 39: Evaluating testability of the requirements and system are a part of which phase:-
A. Test Analysis and Design
B. Test Planning and control
C. Test Implementation and execution
D. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting
Q. 40: Which of the following has highest level of independence in which test cases are:
A. Designed by persons who write the software under test
B. Designed by a person from a different section
C. Designed by a person from a different organization
D. Designed by another person
Answers:
Q.1-C Q.2-D Q.3-A Q.4-E Q.5-A Q.6-A Q.7-B Q.8-C Q.9-B Q.10-B Q.11-D Q.12-A Q.13-C Q.14-B
Q.15-A Q.16-B Q.17-A Q.18-C Q.19-B Q.20-A Q.21-A Q.22-B Q.23-B Q.24-B Q.25-A Q.26-A Q.27-A
Q.28-C Q.29-B Q.30-D Q.31-B Q.32-D Q.33-C Q.34-A Q.35-C Q.36-C Q.37-A Q.38-C Q.39-A Q.40-C

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 22

Q. 1: Test planning has which of the following major tasks?
i. Determining the scope and risks, and identifying the objectives of testing.
ii. Determining the test approach (techniques,test items, coverage, identifying and
interfacing the teams involved in testing , testware)
iii. Reviewing the Test Basis (such as requirements,architecture,design,interface)
iv. Determining the exit criteria.
A. i,ii,iv are true and iii is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 2: Deciding How much testing is enough should take into account :-
i. Level of Risk including Technical and Business product and project risk
ii. Project constraints such as time and budget
iii. Size of Testing Team
iv. Size of the Development Team
A. i,ii,iii are true and iv is false
B. i,,iv are true and ii is false
C. i,ii are true and iii,iv are false
D. ii,iii,iv are true and i is false
Q. 3: Which of the following will be the best definition for Testing:
A. The goal / purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program works.
B. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program is defect free.
C. The purpose of testing is to demonstrate that the program does what it is supposed to do.
D. Testing is executing Software for the purpose of finding defects.
Q. 4: Minimum Tests Required for Statement Coverage and Branch Coverage:
Read P Read Q
If p+q > 100 then
Print "Large" End if
If p > 50 then Print "pLarge" End if
A. Statement coverage is 2, Branch Coverage is 2
B. Statement coverage is 3 and branch coverage is 2
C. Statement coverage is 1 and branch coverage is 2
D. Statement Coverage is 4 and Branch coverage is 2
Q. 5: Match every stage of the software Development Life cycle with the Testing Life cycle:
i. Hi-level design a Unit tests
ii. Code b Acceptance tests
iii. Low-level design c System tests
iv. Business requirements d Integration tests
A. i-d , ii-a , iii-c , iv-b
B. i-c , ii-d , iii-a , iv-b
C. i-b , ii-a , iii-d , iv-c
D. i-c , ii-a , iii-d , iv-b
Q. 6: Which of the following is a part of Test Closure Activities?
i. Checking which planned deliverables have been delivered
ii. Defect report analysis.
iii. Finalizing and archiving testware.
iv. Analyzing lessons.
A. i , ii , iv are true and iii is false
B. i , ii , iii are true and iv is false
C. i , iii , iv are true and ii is false
D. All of above are true
Q. 7: Which of the following is NOT part of a high level test plan?
A. Functions not to be tested.
B. Environmental requirements.
C. Analysis of Specifications.
D. Entry and Exit criteria.
Q. 8: If a candidate is given an exam of 40 questions, should get 25 marks to pass (61%) and should get
80% for distinction, what is equivalence class.
A. 23, 24, 25
B. 0, 12, 25
C. 30, 36, 39
D. 32,37,40
Q. 9: Which of the following statements is true of static analysis:
A. Compiling code is not a form of static analysis.
B. Static analysis need not be performed before imperative code is executed.
C. Static analysis can find faults that are hard to find with dynamic testing.
D. Extensive statistic analysis will not be needed if white- Box testing is to be performed.
Q. 10: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax free. The
next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% Which of
these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
A. $5800; $28000; $32000
B. $0; $200; $4200
C. $5200; $5500; $28000
D. $28001; $32000; $35000
Q. 11: Cost of the reviews will not include.
A. Review process itself
B. Metrics analysis
C. Tool support.
D. Process improvement.
Q. 12: Regression testing always involves
A. Testing whether a known software fault been fixed. B. Executing a large number of different tests.
C. Testing whether modifications have introduced adverse side effects.
D. Using a test automation tool.
Q. 13: Capture and replay facilities are least likely to be used to
A. Performance testing
B. Recovery testing
C. GUI testing
D. User requirements.
Q. 14: Which tool will be used to test the flag memory leaks and unassigned pointers
A. Dynamic analysis tool
B. Static Analysis tool.
C. Maintenance tool.
D. Configuration tool.
Q. 15: Cyclomatic complexity is used to calculate
A. Number of independent paths in the basis set of a program
B. Number of binary decisions + 1
C. Number bound for the number of tests that must be conducted to ensure that all statements have
been executed at least once
D. Number of branches and decisions
Q. 16: Which of the following is not included in Test Plan.
A. Features to be tested.
B. Environmental needs.
C. Suspension criteria.
D. Expected results.
Q. 17: Software quality is not relevant to
A. Correctness
B. Usability
C. Viability
D. Reusability.
Q. 18: Match the following:
1. Test estimation
2. Test control
3. Test monitoring
a. Measures of tracking process
b. Effort required to perform activities
c. Reallocation of resources
A. 1-b, 2-c, 3-a
B. 1-b, 2-a, 3-c
C. 1-c, 2-a, 3-b
D. 1-a, 2-b, 3-c
Q. 19: When do you stop testing?
A. When the specified number of faults are found.
B. When the test completion criteria are met.
C. When all high and medium priority tests are complete.
D. When all statements have been executed
Q. 20: What is the smallest number of test cases required to Provide 100% branch coverage?
If(x>y) x=x+1;
else y=y+1;
while(x>y)
{
y=x*y; x=x+1;
}
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 21: Match the following.
1. Configuration identification
2. Configuration control
3. Status reporting
4. Configuration auditing
a. Maintains of CI’s in a library
b. Checks on the contents of the library
c. Function recording and tracking problems.
d. Requires the all CI’s and their versions in the system are known
A. 1-d, 2-c, 3-d, 4-a. B. 1-d, 2-a, 3-c, 4-b. C. 1-a, 2-b, 3-d, 4-c. D. 1-c, 2-b, 3-a, 4-d.
Q. 22: Integration testing in the large involves:
A. Testing the system when combined with other systems.
B. Testing a sub-system using stubs and drivers.
C. Testing a system with a large number of users.
D. Combing software components and testing them in one go.
Q. 23: One of the following is not a part of white box testing as per BS7925-II standards.
A. Random testing
B. Data Flow testing.
C. Statement testing.
D. Syntax testing.
Q. 24: A piece of software has been given what tests in the Following will you perform?
1) Test the areas most critical to business processes
2) Test the areas where faults will be maximum
3) Test the easiest functionalities
A. 1&2 are true and 3 is false.
B. 1,2&3 are true.
C. 1 is true, 2&3 are false.
D. 1&2 are false, 3 is true
Q. 25: Which of the following is a type of non-functional testing?
A. Usability testing.
B. Statement Coverage.
C. Dataflow testing.
D. Cause-effect graphing.
Q. 26: What type of testing will you perform on internet banking solution?
A. System integration
B. Functional testing
C. Non-functional testing.
D. Requirements testing
Q. 27: Which of the following are false?
A. Incidents should always be investigated and resolved.
B. Incidents occur when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analyzed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
Q. 28: Testing is not done to
A. Find faults
B. Improve quality
C. Check user friendliness.
D. Improve software accuracy
Q. 29: A field failure occurs when multiple users access a system. Which of the following is true?
A. This is an acceptable risk of a multi-user system.
B. Insufficient functional testing has been performed.
C. This indicates an important non-functional requirement was not specified and tested.
D. It is not possible to test against such events prior to release.
Q. 30: People who don’t participate in technical reviews
A. Analysts
B. Management
C. Developers
D. Testers
Q. 31: What is failure?
A. Deviation from expected result to actual result
B. Defect in the software.
C. Error in the program code. D. Fault in the system.
Q. 32: Exclusive use of white box testing in a test-phase will:
A. Ensure the test item is adequately tested.
B. Make the need for black-box testing redundant.
C. Run the risk that the requirements are not satisfied.
D. Suffices for the unit testing phase.
Q. 33: Which of the following is least important in test management?
A. Estimating test duration.
B. Incident Management.
C. Configuration Management.
D. De-bugging.
Q. 34: A standard for software testing terminology is:
A. IEEE 802.11
B. ISO 9001
C. BS 7925-1
D. BS 7925-2
Q. 35: Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of User Acceptance Testing?
A. Use of automated test execution tools.
B. Testing performed by users.
C. Testing against acceptance test criteria.
D. Integration of system with user documentation.
Q. 36: Which of the following provides the biggest potential cost saving from use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test planning
D. Test execution
Q. 37: What type of testing is done to supplement the rigorous testing?
A. Regression testing.
B. Integration testing.
C. Error Guessing
D. System testing.
Q. 38: To make a test effective it is most important that:
A. It is easy to execute.
B. It is designed to detect faults if present.
C. The expected outcome is specified before execution.
D. It is unlikely to delay progress.
Q. 39: Error guessing is:
A. An appropriate way of deriving system tests.
B. Only used if good requirements are not available.
C. Only used when good requirements are available.
D. The most appropriate way of deriving system tests.
Q. 40: Amount of testing performed will not depend on
A. Risks involved
B. Contractual requirements
C. Legal requirements
D. Test data.
Answers:
Q.1-A Q.2-C Q.3-D Q.4-C Q.5-D Q.6-C Q.7-C Q.8-D Q.9-A Q.10-A Q.11-C Q.12-C Q.13-D Q.14-A Q.15-B
Q.16-D Q.17-C Q.18-A Q.19-B Q.20-B Q.21-B Q.22-A Q.23-D Q.24-A Q.25-A Q.26-C Q.27-C Q.28-D Q.29-C
Q.30-B Q.31-A Q.32-C Q.33-D Q.34-C Q.35-A Q.36-D Q.37-C Q.38-C Q.39-D Q.40-D

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 23

Q. 1: For software to be reliable it must:
A. Be easy to maintain.
B. Be unlikely to cause a failure.
C. Never fail under any circumstances.
D. Be written according to coding standards
Q. 2: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid: An employee has $4000 of salary tax
free. The next $1500 is taxed at 10% The next $28000 is taxed at 22% Any further amount is taxed
at 40% To the nearest $ which of these is a valid Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A. $1500
B. $32001
C. $28000
D. $33501
Q. 3: Faults found by users are due to:
A. Poor quality software
B. Poor software and poor testing
C. Bad luck
D. Insufficient time for testing
Q. 4: An incident logging system
A. Only records defects
B. Is of limited value
C. Is a valuable source of project information during testing if it contains all incidents
D. Should be used only by the test team.
Q. 5: The later in the development life cycle a fault is discovered, the more expensive it is to fix.
Why?
A. The documentation is poor, so it takes longer to find out what the software is doing.
B. Wages are rising
C. The fault has been built into more documentation, code, tests, etc.
D. None of the above
Q. 6: Which of the following is true?
A. Component testing should be black box, system testing should be white box.
B. If u find a lot of bugs in testing, you should not be very confident about the quality of software
C. The fewer bugs you find, the better your testing was
D. The more tests you run, the more bugs you will find.
Q. 7: If the pseudo code below were a programming language ,how many tests are required to
achieve 100% statement coverage?
1. If x=3 then
2. Display_messageX;
3. If y=2 then
4. Display_messageY;
5. Else
6. Display_messageZ;
7. Else
8. Display_messageZ;
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 8: Software testing activities should start
A. As soon as the code is written
B. During the design stage
C. When the requirements have been formally documented
D. As soon as possible in the development life cycle
Q. 9: Using the same code example as question 17,how many tests are required to achieve 100%
branch/decision coverage?
A. 1
B. 2
C. 3
D. 4
Q. 10: A test design technique is
A. A process for selecting test cases
B. A process for determining expected outputs
C. A way to measure the quality of software
D. A way to measure in a test plan what has to be done
Q. 11: What is the main reason for testing software before releasing it?
A. To show that system will work after release
B. To decide when the software is of sufficient quality to release
C. To find as many bugs as possible before release
D. To give information for a risk based decision about release
Q. 12: Testware(test cases, test dataset)
A. Needs configuration management just like requirements, design and code
B. Should be newly constructed for each new version of the software
C. Is needed only until the software is released into production or use
D. Does not need to be documented and commented, as it does not form part of the
released software system
Q. 13: Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
A. IEEE829
B. IEEE610
C. BS7925-1
D. BS7925-2
Q. 14: In which order should tests be run?
A. The most important tests first
B. The most difficult tests first(to allow maximum time for fixing)
C. The easiest tests first (to give initial confidence)
D. The order they are thought of
Q. 15: A program validates a numeric field as follows:
Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22
are rejected. Which of the following covers the MOST boundary values?
A. 9,10,11,22
B. 9,10,21,22
C. 10,11,21,22
D. 10,11,20,21
Q. 16: Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
A. Design based
B. Big-bang
C. Bottom-up
D. Top-down
Q. 17: Which of the following tools would you use to detect a memory leak?
A. State analysis
B. Coverage analysis
C. Dynamic analysis
D. Memory analysis
Q. 18: Which of the following statements are true?
A. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
B. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
C. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
D. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
Q. 19: Increasing the quality of the software, by better development methods, will affect the time
needed for testing (the test phases) by:
A. Reducing test time
B. No change
C. Increasing test time
D. Can’t say
Q. 20: Which of the following is a black box design technique?
A. Statement testing
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Error- guessing
D. Usability testing
Q. 21: When reporting faults found to developers, testers should be:
A. As polite, constructive and helpful as possible
B. Firm about insisting that a bug is not a "feature" if it should be fixed
C. Diplomatic, sensitive to the way they may react to criticism
D. All of the above
Q. 22: Which of the following statements is not true
A. Performance testing can be done during unit testing as well as during the testing of whole system
B. The acceptance test does not necessarily include a regression test
C. Verification activities should not involve testers (reviews, inspections etc)
D. Test environments should be as similar to production environments as possible
Q. 23: What is the important criterion in deciding what testing technique to use?
A. How well you know a particular technique
B. The objective of the test
C. How appropriate the technique is for testing the application
D. Whether there is a tool to support the technique
Q. 24: When should you stop testing?
A. When time for testing has run out.
B. When all planned tests have been run
C. When the test completion criteria have been met
D. When no faults have been found by the tests run
Q. 25: Coverage measurement
A. Is nothing to do with testing
B. Is a partial measure of test thoroughness
C. Branch coverage should be mandatory for all software
D. Can only be applied at unit or module testing, not at system testing
Q. 26: Which of the following is NOT a type of non-functional test?
A. State-Transition
B. Usability
C. Performance
D. Security
Q. 27: Which of the following is the component test standard?
A. IEEE 829
B. IEEE 610
C. BS7925-1
D. BS7925-2
Q. 28: A program validates a numeric field as follows:
Values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or
equal to 22 are rejected. Which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
A. 10,11,21
B. 3,20,21
C. 3,10,22
D. 10,21,22
Q. 29: Which is not true-The black box tester
A. Should be able to understand a functional specification or requirements document
B. Should be able to understand the source code.
C. Is highly motivated to find faults
D. Is creative to find the system’s weaknesses
Q. 30: Which of the following is a static test?
A. Code inspection
B. Coverage analysis
C. Usability assessment
D. Installation test
Q. 31: A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
A. Large
B. Small
C. Difficult to write
D. Difficult to test
Q. 32: Which of the following is the odd one out?
A. White box
B. Glass box
C. Structural
D. Functional
Q. 33: Which of the following techniques are black box techniques?
A. State transition testing, code testing, agile testing
B. Equivalence partitioning, state transition testing, decision table testing
C. System testing, acceptance testing, equivalence partitioning
D. System integration testing, system testing, decision table testing
Q. 34: A number of critical bugs are fixed in software. All the bugs are in one module, related to reports.
The test manager decides to do regression testing only on the reports module.
A. The test manager should do only automated regression testing.
B. The test manager is justified in her decision because no bug has been fixed in other modules
C. The test manager should only do confirmation testing. There is no need to do regression testing
D. Regression testing should be done on other modules as well because fixing one module may affect other
modules
Q. 35: Which of the following statements contains a valid goal for a functional test set?
A. A goal is that no more failures will result from the remaining defects
B. A goal is to find as many failures as possible so that the cause of the failures can be identified and
fixed
C. A goal is to eliminate as much as possible the causes of defects
D. A goal is to fulfil all requirements for testing that are defined in the project plan.
Q. 36: What makes an inspection different from other review types?
A. It is led by a trained leader, uses formal entry and exit criteria and checklists
B. It is led by the author of the document to be inspected
C. It can only be used for reviewing design and code
D. It is led by the author, uses checklists, and collects data for improvement
Q. 37: Why does the boundary value analysis provide good test cases?
A. Because it is an industry standard
B. Because errors are frequently made during programming of the different cases near the ‘edges’ of the range of
values
C. Because only equivalence classes that are equal from a functional point of view are considered in the test
cases
D. Because the test object is tested under maximal load up to its performance limits
Q. 38: If a program is tested and 100% branch coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
A. 100% Equivalence class coverage
B. 100% Condition coverage and 100% Statement coverage
C. 100% Statement coverage
D. 100% Multiple condition coverage
Q. 39: A defect management system shall keep track of the status of every defect registered and enforce
the rules about changing these states. If your task is to test the status tracking, which method would be
best?
A. Logic-based testing
B. Use-case-based testing
C. State transition testing
D. Systematic testing according to the V-model
Q. 40: In system testing...
A. Both functional and non-functional requirements are to be tested
B. Only functional requirements are tested; non-functional requirements are validated in a
review
C. Only non-functional requirements are tested; functional requirements are validated in a review
D. Only requirements which are listed in the specification document are to be tested
Answers:
Q.1-B Q.2-D Q.3-B Q.4-C Q.5-C Q.6-B Q.7-C Q.8-D Q.9-C Q.10-A Q.11-D Q.12-A Q.13-B Q.14-A Q.15-B
Q.16-A Q.17-C Q.18-C Q.19-A Q.20-B Q.21-D Q.22-C Q.23-B Q.24-C Q.25-B Q.26-A Q.27-D Q.28-C Q.29-B
Q.30-A Q.31-D Q.32-D Q.33-B Q.34-D Q.35-B Q.36-A Q.37-B Q.38-B Q.39-C Q.40-A

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 24

Q. 1: Integration testing has following characteristics
I. It can be done in incremental manner
II. It is always done after system testing
III. It includes functional tests
IV. It includes non-functional tests
A. I, II and III are correct
B. I is correct
C. I, III and IV are correct
Q. 2: Which of the following activities differentiate a walkthrough from a formal review?
A. A walkthrough does not follow a defined process
B. For a walkthrough individual preparation by the reviewers is optional
C. A walkthrough requires meeting
D. A walkthrough finds the causes of failures, while formal review finds the failures
Q. 3: Why is testing necessary?
A. Because testing is good method to make there are not defects in the software
B. Because verification and validation are not enough to get to know the quality of the software
C. Because testing measures the quality of the software system and helps to increase the quality
D. Because testing finds more defects than reviews and inspections.
E. I, II and IV are correct
Q. 4: In foundation level syllabus you will find the main basic principles of testing. Which of the
following sentences describes one of these basic principles?
A. Complete testing of software is attainable if you have enough resources and test tools
B. With automated testing you can make statements with more confidence about the quality of a
product than with manual testing
C. For a software system, it is not possible, under normal conditions, to test all input and output
combinations.
D. A goal of testing is to show that the software is defect free.
Q. 5: Which of the following is true
A. Testing is the same as quality assurance
B. Testing is a part of quality assurance
C. Testing is not a part of quality assurance
D. Testing is same as debugging
Q. 6: This part of a program is given:
WHILE (condition A)
Do B
END WHILE
How many decisions should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% decision coverage?
A. 2
B. Indefinite
C. 1
D. 4
Q. 7: In a flight reservation system, the number of available seats in each plane model is an input.
A plane may have any positive number of available seats, up to the given capacity of the plane.
Using Boundary Value analysis, a list of available – seat values were generated. Which of the
following lists is correct?
A. 1, 2, capacity -1, capacity, capacity plus 1
B. 0, 1, capacity, capacity plus 1
C. 0, 1, 2, capacity plus 1, a very large number
D. 0, 1, 10, 100, capacity, capacity plus one
Q. 8: Which of the following is a valid collection of equivalence classes for the following problem:
An integer field shall contain values from and including 1 to and including 15
A. Less than 1, 1 through 15, more than 15
B. Negative numbers, 1 through 15, above 15
C. Less than 1, 1 through 14, more than 15
D. Less than 0, 1 through 14, 15 and more
Q. 9: Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools
A. They help you find defects rather than failures
B. They are used by developers only
C. They require compilation of code
D. They are useful only for regulated industries
Q. 10: Which of the following is most often considered as components interface bug?
A. For two components exchanging data, one component used metric units, the other one used British
units
B. The system is difficult to use due to a too complicated terminal input structure
C. The messages for user input errors are misleading and not helpful for understanding the input error
cause
D. Under high load, the system does not provide enough open ports to connect to
Q. 11: Which of the following is correct about static analysis tools?
A. Static analysis tools are used only by developers
B. Compilers may offer some support for static analysis
C. Static analysis tools help find failures rather than defects
D. Static analysis tools require execution of the code to analyze the coverage
Q. 12: Which of the following list contains only non-functional tests?
A. Interoperability (compatibility) testing, reliability testing, performance testing
B. System testing, performance testing
C. Load testing, stress testing, component testing, portability testing
D. Testing various configurations, beta testing, load testing
Q. 13: Which set of metrics can be used for monitoring of the test execution?
A. Number of detected defects, testing cost;
B. Number of residual defects in the test object.
C. Percentage of completed tasks in the preparation of test environment; test cases prepared
D. Number of test cases run / not run; test cases passed / failed
Q. 14: What test items should be put under configuration management?
A. The test object, the test material and the test environment
B. The problem reports and the test material
C. Only the test object. The test cases need to be adapted during agile testing
D. The test object and the test material
Q. 15: This part of a program is given:
WHILE (condition A)
Do B
END WHILE
How many paths should be tested in this code in order to achieve 100% path coverage?
A. One
B. Indefinite
C. Two
D. Four
Q. 16: What is the purpose of test exit criteria in the test plan?
A. To specify when to stop the testing activity
B. To set the criteria used in generating test inputs
C. To ensure that the test case specification is complete
D. To know when a specific test has finished its execution
Q. 17:If a program is tested and 100% condition coverage is achieved, which of the following coverage
criteria is then guaranteed to be achieved?
A. 100% branch coverage
B. 100% condition coverage and 100% statement coverage
C. Equivalence class and boundary value coverage
D. No other white box coverage criterion is guaranteed to be fulfilled 100%
Q. 18: Which of the following can be root cause of a bug in a software product?
(I) The project had incomplete procedures for configuration management.
(II) The time schedule to develop a certain component was cut.
(III) the specification was unclear
(IV) Use of the code standard was not followed up
(V) The testers were not certified
A. (I) and (II) are correct
B. (I) through (IV) are correct
C. (III) through (V) are correct
D. (I), (II) and (IV) are correct
Q. 19: The following list contains risks that have been identified for a software product to be developed.
Which of these risks is an example of a product risk?
A. Not enough qualified testers to complete the planned tests
B. Software delivery is behind schedule
C. Threat to a patient’s life
D. 3rd party supplier does not supply as stipulated
Q. 20: Which of the following statements is correct?
A. Static analysis tools produce statistics during program execution
B. Configuration management systems allow us to provide accurate defect statistics of different
configurations
C. Stress testing tools examine the behavior of the test object at or beyond full load
D. Performance measurement tools can be used in all phases of software life-cycle
Q. 21: Which of the following project inputs influence testing?
(I) Contractual requirements
(II) Legal requirements(III) Industry standards
(IV) Application risk
(V) Project size
A. (I) through (III) are correct
B. All alternatives are correct
C. (II) and (V) are correct
D. (I), (III) and (V) are correct
Q. 22: A test engineer is testing a Video Player (VCR), and logs the following report:
Title: Fast Forward stops after 2 minutes. It happens every time
Expected result: Fast forward continues till the end of the tape
Severity: High
Priority: Urgent
What important information did the engineer leave out?
A. Identification (Software and hardware) of the VCR
B. Actual result
C. History of the report
D. Ideas for the test case improvement
Q. 23: Maintenance testing is:
A. Testing management
B. Synonym of testing the quality of service
C. Triggered by modifications, migration or retirement of existing software
D. Testing the level of maintenance by the vendor
Q. 24: Why is incremental integration preferred over "big bang" integration?
A. Because incremental integration has better early defects screening and isolation ability
B. Because "big bang" integration is suitable only for real time applications
C. Incremental integration is preferred over "Big Bang Integration" only for "bottom up"
development model
D. Because incremental integration can compensate for weak and inadequate component testing
Q. 25: V-Model is:
A. A software development model that illustrates how testing activities integrate with software
development phases
B. A software life-cycle model that is not relevant for testing
C. The official software development and testing life-cycle model of ISTQB
D. A testing life cycle model including unit, integration, system and acceptance phases
Q. 26: Which of the following items need not to be given in an incident report?
A. The version number of the test object
B. Test data and used environment
C. Identification of the test case that failed
D. The location and instructions on how to correct the fault
Q. 27: Test data planning essentially includes
A. Network
B. Operational Model
C. Boundary value analysis
D. Test Procedure Planning
Q. 28: Acceptance testing means
A. Testing performed on a single stand – alone module or unit of code
B. Testing after changes have been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were introduced
C. Testing to ensure that the system meets the needs of the organization and end user.
D. Users test the application in the developers environment
Q. 29: The testing should include operational tests of the new environment as well as of
the changed software
A. System Testing
B. Integration testing
C. Component testing
D. Maintenance testing
Q. 30: A risk-based approach to testing provides proactive opportunities to reduce the levels of
product risk, starting in the initial stages of a project
A. True
B. False
Q. 31: Functional testing is mostly
A. Validation techniques
B. Verification techniques
C. Both of the above
D. None of the above
Q. 32: Branch Coverage
A. Another name for decision coverage
B. Another name for all-edges coverage
C. Another name for basic path coverage
D. All the above
Q. 33: The Is the activity where general testing objectives are transformed into
tangible test conditions and test designs
A. Testing Planning
B. Test Control
C. Test analysis and design
D. Test implementation
Q. 34: Integration testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the system’s
components being combined to form the system.
A. System testing
B. Component Testing
C. Incremental Testing
D. Big bang testing
Q. 35: A test case design technique for a component in which test cases are designed to execute
statements is called as?
A. State transition Testing
B. Static Testing
C. Transition testing
D. Statement testing
Q. 36: Who should have technical and Business background.
A. Moderator
B. Author
C. Reviewer
D. Recorder
Q. 37: A test plan defines
A. What is selected for testing
B. Objectives and results
C. Expected results
D. Targets and misses
Q. 38: Component integration testing can be done
A. Before Integration testing
B. After unit testing
C. After component testing
D. After system testing
Q. 39: Test basis documentation is analyzed in which phase of testing
A. Test Analysis
B. Test Design
C. Test Execution
D. Test Planning
Q. 40: Which one is not the task of test leader?
A. Coordinate the test strategy and plan with project managers and others
B. Decide about the implementation of the test environment
C. Write test summary reports
D. Review and contribute to test plans
Answers:
Q.1-C Q.2-B Q.3-C Q.4-C Q.5-B Q.6-A Q.7-B Q.8-A Q.9-A Q.10-A Q.11-B Q.12-C Q.13-D Q.14-A Q.15-C
Q.16-A Q.17-B Q.18-B Q.19-C Q.20-C Q.21-B Q.22-A Q.23-C Q.24-A Q.25-A Q.26-D Q.27-D Q.28-C Q.29-D
Q.30-A Q.31-A Q.32-A Q.33-C Q.34-D Q.35-D Q.36-C Q.37-B Q.38-C Q.39-A Q.40-D

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 25

Q. 1: if (condition1 && (condition2 function1()))
statement1;
else statement2;
A. Decision coverage
B. Condition coverage
C. Statement coverage
D. Path Coverage
Q. 2: reviews are often held with just the programmer who wrote the code and one or two other
programmers or testers.
A. Formal Reviews
B. Peer Reviews
C. Semi-Formal Reviews
D. All of the above
Q. 3: In testing test cases i.e input to the software are created based on the specifications languages
A. State Transition Testing
B. Random Testing
C. Syntax Testing
D. Penetration testing
Q. 4: White Box Testing
A. Same as glass box testing
B. Same as clear box testing
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of the above.
Q. 5: Verification activities during design stages are
A. Reviewing and Inspecting
B. Inspecting and Testing
C. Reviewing and Testing
D. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.
Q. 6: Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:
A. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class at least once
B. Identify all inputs and all outputs
C. Identify equivalence classes for each input
D. All of the above
Q. 7: Static Analysis
A. Same as static testing
B. Done by the developers
C. Both A. and B
D. None of the above
Q. 8: Size of a project is defined in terms of all the following except
A. Person days
B. Person hours
C. Calendar months
D. None of the above
Q. 9: Testing responsibilities:
Tester 1 – Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors in the lab
Tester 2 - Make sure the program instructions are easy to use Security concerns are important for which
type of applications
Tester 3 – Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad hoc testing.
Which term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by Tester 3 in the above scenario?
A. Unit testing
B. Algorithm specific testing
C. Compatibility testing
D. Black box testing
Q. 10: Objective of review meeting is
A. To identify problems with design
B. To solve the problems with design
C. Both A. and B
D. None of the above.
Q. 11: QC is
A. Phase building activity
B. Intermediate activity
C. End of Phase activity
D. Design activity
Q. 12: Which tool store information about versions and builds of software and testware
A. Test Management tool
B. Requirements management tool
C. Configuration management tool
D. Static analysis too;
Q. 13: Testing Process comprised of
A. Test Plan and Test Cases
B. Test log and Test Status
C. Defect Tracking
D. All of the above
Q. 14: Preparing and automating test cases before coding is called
A. Test first approach
B. Test-driven development
C. Both A. & B.
D. None of the above
Q. 15: Which one is not characteristic of test management tool?
A. Support for the management of tests and the testing activities carried out
B. Interfaces to test execution tools
C. Quantitative analysis related to tests
D. Check for consistency and undefined requirements
E. None of the above
Q. 16: Code Walkthrough
A. Type of dynamic testing
B. Type of static testing
C. Neither dynamic nor static
D. Performed by the testing team
Q. 17: Risk analysis talks about
A. The data required for testing, the infrastructure requirements to manage the data as well as the methods for
preparing test data, requirements, converters and sources
B. Details what types of tests must be conducted, what stages of testing are required and outlines the sequence
and timing of tests
C. A testing goal. It is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a esting
activity. These guide the development of test cases and procedures
D. None of the above
Q. 18: What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
A. The probability the negative event will occur
B. The potential loss or impact associated with the event
C. Both A. and B.
D. Neither A. nor B.
Q. 19: If the application is complex, but NOT data intensive and is to be tested on one configuration and 2
rounds, the easiest method to test is
A. Manual testing
B. Automation testing
C. Both
D. None
Q. 20: Functional tests can be performed at all test levels
A. True
B. False
Q. 21: Structural Testing
A. Same as black box testing
B. Same as white box testing
C. Same as functional testing
D. None of the above.
Q. 22: In formal review, Rework: fixing defects found typically done by
A. Moderator
B. Author
C. Reviewer
D. Recorder
Q. 23: The may facilitate the testing of components or part of a system by simulation the environment in
which the test object will run
A. Test Design tool
B. Test data preparation tool
C. Test execution tool
D. Test harness
E. None of the above
Q. 24: Regression testing mainly helps in
A. Re-testing fixed defects
B. Checking for side-effects of fixes
C. Checking the core gaps
D. Ensuring high level sanity
Q. 25: Review is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are
A. Inspection
B. Walkthrough
C. Testing
D. All of the above
Q. 26: Which review is inexpensive
A. Informal Review
B. Walkthrough
C. Technical review
D. Inspection
Q. 27: Following are some of the testing risks
A. Budget, Test environment
B. Budget, Number of qualified test resources
C. Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment
D. None of the above
Q. 28: Random Testing
A. Program is tested randomly sampling the input.
B. A black-box testing technique
C. Both A. and B.
D. None of the above.
Q. 29: Black-box testing technique is also called as structure based technique
A. True
B. False
Q. 30: Reliability, usability, efficiency are
A. Functional characteristics
B. Nonfunctional characteristics
C. Both A. & B.
D. None of the above
Q. 31: Test Plan
A. Road map for testing
B. Tells about the actual results and expected results
C. Both a and b
D. None of the above
Q. 32: User Acceptance Testing
A. Same as Alpha Testing
B. Same as Beta Testing
C. Combination of Alpha and Beta Testing
D. None of the above
Q. 33: Path coverage includes
A. Statement coverage
B. Condition coverage
C. Decision coverage
D. None of these
Q. 34: Which testing technique do you prefer for the following situations?
1. Severe time pressure
2. Inadequate specification
A. Decision testing
B. Error guessing
C. Statement testing
D. Exploratory testing
Q. 35: Recovery testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is
properly performed. The following should be checked for correctness
1. Re-initialization
2. Restart
3. Data Recovery
4. Check Point Mechanism
A. 1 and 2
B. 1, 2 and 3
C. 1, 2, 3 and 4
D. 2 and 4
Q. 36: Data flow analysis studies:
A. Possible communications bottlenecks in a program.
B. The rate of change of data values as a program executes.
C. The use of data on paths through the code.
D. The intrinsic complexity of the code.
Q. 37: Which of the following is NOT a white box technique?
A. Statement testing
B. Path testing
C. Data flow testing
D. State transition testing
Q. 38: Which one of the following describes the major benefit of verification early in the life cycle?
A. It allows the identification of changes in user requirements.
B. It facilitates timely set up of the test environment.
C. It reduces defect multiplication.
D. It allows testers to become involved early in the project.
Q. 39: Which of the following is false?
A. In a system two different failures may have different severities.
B. A system is necessarily more reliable after debugging for the removal of a fault.
C. A fault need not affect the reliability of a system.
D. Undetected errors may lead to faults and eventually to incorrect behavior.
Q. 40: Alpha testing is:
A. Post-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
B. The first testing that is performed.
C. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at the developer’s site.
D. Pre-release testing by end user representatives at their sites.
Answer:
Q.1-B Q.2-B Q.3-C Q.4-A Q.5-A Q.6-A Q.7-C Q.8-C Q.9-D Q.10-C Q.11-C Q.12-C Q.13-D Q.14-C Q.15-D
Q.16-B Q.17-B Q.18-C Q.19-A Q.20-A Q.21-B Q.22-B Q.23-D Q.24-B Q.25-D Q.26-A Q.27-B Q.28-A Q.29-B
Q.30-B Q.31-A Q.32-C Q.33-D Q.34-D Q.35-C Q.36-C Q.37-D Q.38-C Q.39-B Q.40-C

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 26

Q. 1: We split testing into distinct stages primarily because:
A. Each test stage has a different purpose.
B. It is easier to manage testing in stages.
C. We can run different tests in different environments.
D. The more stages we have, the better the testing.
Q. 2: Which of the following would NOT normally form part of a test plan?
A. Features to be tested
B. Incident reports
C. Risks
D. Schedule
Q. 3: Which of the following is a form of functional testing?
A. Boundary value analysis
B. Usability testing
C. Performance testing
D. Security testing
Q. 4: Which one of the following statements about system testing is NOT true?
A. System tests are often performed by independent teams.
B. Functional testing is used more than structural testing.
C. Faults found during system tests can be very expensive to fix.
D. End-users should be involved in system tests.
Q. 5: Which of the following is not described in a unit test standard?
A. Syntax testing
B. Equivalence partitioning
C. Stress testing
D. Modified condition/decision coverage
Q. 6: Which of the following is likely to benefit most from the use of test tools providing test capture and
replay facilities?
A. Regression testing
B. Integration testing
C. System testing
D. User acceptance testing
Q. 7: Which of the following is false?
A. Incidents should always be fixed.
B. An incident occurs when expected and actual results differ.
C. Incidents can be analysed to assist in test process improvement.
D. An incident can be raised against documentation.
Q. 8: Static analysis is best described as:
A. The analysis of batch programs.
B. The reviewing of test plans.
C. The analysis of program code.
D. The use of black box testing.
Q. 9: Which of the following statements is NOT correct?
A. A minimal test set that achieves 100% LCSAJ coverage will also achieve 100% branch coverage.
B. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will also achieve 100% statement coverage.
C. A minimal test set that achieves 100% path coverage will generally detect more faults than one that
achieves 100% statement coverage.
D. A minimal test set that achieves 100% statement coverage will generally detect more faults than one
that achieves 100% branch coverage.
Q. 10: Which of the following statements about reviews is true?
A. Reviews cannot be performed on user requirements specifications.
B. Reviews are the least effective way of testing code.
C. Reviews are unlikely to find faults in test plans.
D. Reviews should be performed on specifications, code, and test plans.
Q. 11: What is the main difference between a walkthrough and an inspection?
A. An inspection is lead by the author, whilst a walkthrough is lead by a trained moderator.
B. An inspection has a trained leader, whilst a walkthrough has no leader.
C. Authors are not present during inspections, whilst they are during walkthroughs.
D. A walkthrough is lead by the author, whilst an inspection is lead by a trained moderator.
Q. 12: Which of these activities provides the biggest potential cost saving from the use of CAST?
A. Test management
B. Test design
C. Test execution
D. Test planning
Q. 13: Which of the following is NOT true of incidents?
A. Incident resolution is the responsibility of the author of the software under test.
B. Incidents may be raised against user requirements.
C. Incidents require investigation and/or correction.
D. Incidents are raised when expected and actual results differ.
Q. 14: Which of the following characterizes the cost of faults?
A. They are cheapest to find in the early development phases and the most expensive to fix in the
latest test phases.
B. They are easiest to find during system testing but the most expensive to fix then.
C. Faults are cheapest to find in the early development phases but the most expensive to fix then.
D. Although faults are most expensive to find during early development phases, they are cheapest to fix
then.
Q. 15: Which one of the following statements, about capture-replay tools, is NOT correct?
A. They are used to support multi-user testing.
B. They are used to capture and animate user requirements.
C. They are the most frequently purchased types of CAST tool.
D. They capture aspects of user behaviour.
Q. 16: Which of the following is true of the V-model?
A. It states that modules are tested against user requirements.
B. It only models the testing phase.
C. It specifies the test techniques to be used.
D. It includes the verification of designs.
Q. 17: Error guessing:
A. Supplements formal test design techniques.
B. Can only be used in component, integration and system testing.
C. Is only performed in user acceptance testing.
D. Is not repeatable and should not be used.
Q. 18: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed at 22%
Any further amount is taxed at 40%
Which of these groups of numbers would fall into the same equivalence class?
A. £4800; £14000; £28000
B. £5200; £5500; £28000
C. £28001; £32000; £35000
D. £5800; £28000; £32000
Q. 19: The oracle assumption:
A. Is that there is some existing system against which test output may be checked.
B. Is that the tester can routinely identify the correct outcome of a test.
C. Is that the tester knows everything about the software under test.
D. Is that the tests are reviewed by experienced testers.
Q. 20: In prioritising what to test, the most important objective is to:
A. Find as many faults as possible.
B. Test high risk areas.
C. Obtain good test coverage.
D. Test whatever is easiest to test.
Q. 21: The most important thing about early test design is that it:
A. Makes test preparation easier.
B. Means inspections are not required.
C. Can prevent fault multiplication.
D. Will find all faults.
Q. 22: A configuration management system would NOT normally provide:
A. Linkage of customer requirements to version numbers.
B. Facilities to compare test results with expected results.
C. The precise differences in versions of software component source code.
D. Restricted access to the source code library.
Q. 23: Integration testing in the small:
A. Tests the individual components that have been developed.
B. Tests interactions between modules or subsystems.
C. Only uses components that form part of the live system.
D. Tests interfaces to other systems.
Q. 24: Which of the following requirements is testable?
A. The system shall be user friendly.
B. The safety-critical parts of the system s all contain 0 faults.
C. The response time shall be less than one second for the specified design load.
D. The system shall be built to be portable.
Q. 25: An important benefit of code inspections is that they:
A. Enable the code to be tested before the execution environment is ready.
B. Can be performed by the person who wrote the code.
C. Can be performed by inexperienced staff.
D. Are cheap to perform.
Q. 26: Test cases are designed during:
A. Test recording.
B. Test planning.
C. Test configuration.
D. Test specification.
Q. 27: A failure is:
A. Found in the software; the result of an error.
B. Departure from specified behaviour.
C. An incorrect step, process or data definition in a computer program.
D. A human action that produces an incorrect result.
Q. 28: How would you estimate the amount of re-testing likely to be required?
A. Metrics from previous similar projects
B. Discussions with the development team
C. Time allocated for regression testing
D. A. & B.
Q. 29: Given the following sets of test management terms (v-z), and activity descriptions (1-5),
which one of the following best pairs the two sets?
v - Test control
w - Test monitoring
x - Test estimation
y - Incident management
z - Configuration control
1 - Calculation of required test resources
2 - Maintenance of record of test results
3 - Re-allocation of resources when tests overrun
4 - Report on deviation from test plan
5 - Tracking of anomalous test results
A. v-3,w-2,x-1,y-5,z-4
B. v-2,w-5,x-1,y-4,z-3
C. v-3,w-4,x-1,y-5,z-2
D. v-2,w-1,x-4,y-3,z-5
Q. 30: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10% The next £28000 is taxed
at 22% Any further amount is taxed at 40% To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid
Boundary Value Analysis test case?
A. £1500
B. £32001
C. £33501
D. £28000
Q. 31: Which of the following is NOT true of test coverage criteria?
A. Test coverage criteria can be measured in terms of items exercised by a test suite.
B. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of user requirements covered.
C. A measure of test coverage criteria is the percentage of faults found.
D. Test coverage criteria are often used when specifying test completion criteria.
Q. 32: Analyze the following highly simplified procedure:
Ask: "What type of ticket do you require, single or return?" IF the customer wants ‘return’
Ask: "What rate, Standard or Cheap-day?"
IF the customer replies ‘Cheap-day’
Say: "That will be £11:20" ELSE
Say: "That will be £19:50" ENDIF
ELSE
Say: "That will be £9:75" ENDIF
Now decide the minimum number of tests that are needed to ensure that all the questions have been asked,
all combinations have occurred and all replies given.
A. 3
B. 4
C. 5
D. 6
Q. 33: Which of the following should NOT normally be an objective for a test?
A. To find faults in the software.
B. To assess whether the software is ready for release.
C. To demonstrate that the software doesn’t work.
D. To prove that the software is correct.
Q. 34: Enough testing has been performed when:
A. Time runs out.
B. The required level of confidence has been achieved.
C. No more faults are found.
D. The users won’t find any serious faults.
Q. 35: Which of the following is the best source of Expected Outcomes for User Acceptance Test scripts?
A. Actual results
B. Program specification
C. User requirements
D. System specification
Q. 36: Which of the following are disadvantages of capturing tests by recording the actions of a
manual tester?
i The script may be unstable when unexpected events occur.
ii Data for a number of similar tests is automatically stored separately from the script.
iii Expected results must be added to the captured script.
iv The captured script documents the exact inputs entered by the tester.
v When replaying a captured test, the tester may need to debug the script if it doesn’t play
correctly.
A. i, iii, iv, v.
B. ii, iv and v.
C. i, ii and iv.
D. i and v.
Q. 37: Which of the following is a characteristic of good testing in any life cycle model?
A. All document reviews involve the development team.
B. Some, but not all, development activities have corresponding test activities.
C. Each test level has test objectives specific to that level.
D. Analysis and design of tests begins as soon as development is complete.
Q. 38: The process of designing test cases consists of the following activities:
i. Elaborate and describe test cases in detail by using test design techniques.
ii. Specify the order of test case execution.
iii. Analyse requirements and specifications to determine test conditions.
iv. Specify expected results.
According to the process of identifying and designing tests, what is the correct order of these
activities?
A. iii, i, iv, ii.
B. iii, iv, i, ii.
C. iii, ii, i, iv.
D. ii, iii, i, iv.
Q. 39: Which is the MOST important advantage of independence in testing?
A. An independent tester may find defects more quickly than the person who wrote the software.
B. An independent tester may be more focused on showing how the software works than the person who
wrote the software.
C. An independent tester may be more effective and efficient because they are less familiar with the software
than the person who wrote it.
D. An independent tester may be more effective at finding defects missed by the person who wrote the
software.
Q. 40: Given the following specification, which of the following values for age are in the SAME
equivalence partition?
If you are less than 18, you are too young to be insured. Between 18 and 30 inclusive, you will receive a
20% discount. Anyone over 30 is not eligible for a discount.
A. 17, 18, 19.
B. 29, 30, 31.
C. 18, 29, 30.
D. 17, 29, 31.
Answers:
Q.1-A Q.2-B Q.3-A Q.4-D Q.5-C Q.6-A Q.7-C Q.8-C Q.9-D Q.10-D Q.11-D Q.12-C Q.13-B Q.14-A Q.15-D
Q.16-D Q.17-A Q.18-D Q.19-B Q.20-B Q.21-C Q.22-B Q.23-B Q.24-C Q.25-A Q.26-D Q.27-B Q.28-D Q.29-C
Q.30-C Q.31-C Q.32-A Q.33-D Q.34-B Q.35-C Q.36-A Q.37-C Q.38-A Q.39-D Q.40-C

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 27

Q. 1: Consider the following statements:
i.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
ii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% statement coverage.
iii.100% branch coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
iv.100% decision coverage guarantees 100% branch coverage.
v.100% statement coverage guarantees 100% decision coverage.
A. ii is True; i, iii, iv & v are False
B. i & v are True; ii, iii & iv are False
C. ii & iii are True; i, iv & v are False
D. ii, iii & iv are True; i & v are False
Q. 2: What is the difference between a project risk and a product risk?
A. Project risks are potential failure areas in the software or system; product risks are risks that surround the
project’s capability to deliver its objectives.
B. Project risks are the risks that surround the project’s capability to deliver its objectives; product risks are
potential failure areas in the software or system.
C. Project risks are typically related to supplier issues, organizational factors and technical issues; product risks
are typically related to skill and staff shortages.
D. Project risks are risks that delivered software will not work; product risks are typically related to supplier
issues, organizational factors and technical issues.
Q. 3: During which fundamental test process activity do we determine if MORE tests are needed?
A Test implementation and execution.
B Evaluating test exit criteria.
C Test analysis and design.
D Test planning and control.
Q. 4: What is the MAIN purpose of a Master Test Plan?
A. To communicate how incidents will be managed.
B. To communicate how testing will be performed.
C. To produce a test schedule.
D. To produce a work breakdown structure.
Q. 5: Which of the following defines the sequence in which tests should be executed?
A. Test plan.
B. Test procedure specification.
C. Test case specification.
D. Test design specification.
Q. 6: Which of the following is a major task of test planning?
A. Determining the test approach.
B. Preparing test specifications.
C. Evaluating exit criteria and reporting.
D. Measuring and analyzing results.
Q. 7: What is the main purpose of impact analysis for testers?
A. To determine the programming effort needed to make the changes.
B. To determine what proportion of the changes need to be tested.
C. To determine how much the planned changes will affect users.
D. To determine how the existing system may be affected by changes.
Q. 8: In a system designed to work out the tax to be paid:
An employee has £4000 of salary tax free. The next £1500 is taxed at 10%.
The next £28000 after that is taxed at 22%.
Any further amount is taxed at 40%.To the nearest whole pound, which of these is a valid Boundary
Value Analysis test case?
A. £28000.
B. £33501.
C. £32001.
D. £1500.
Q. 9: Which of the following tools is most likely to contain a comparator?
A. Dynamic Analysis tool.
B. Test Execution tool.
C. Static Analysis tool.
D. Security tool.
Q. 10: When software reliability measures are used to determine when to stop testing, the best
types of test cases to use are those that
A. Exercise system functions in proportion to the frequency they will be used in the released product
B. Push the system beyond its designed operation limits and are likely to make the system fail
C. Exercise unusual and obscure scenarios that may not have been considered in design
D. Exercise the most complicated and the most error-prone portions of the system
11. Load Testing Tools
a) reduces the time spent by the testers
b) reduces the resources spent (hardware)
c) mostly used in web testing
d) all of the above
12. Test coverage analysis is the process of
a) Creating additional test cases to increase coverage
b) Finding areas of program exercised by the test cases
c) Determining a quantitative measure of code coverage, which is a
direct measure of quality.
d) All of the above.
13. Critical in Web Testing
a) Performance and Functionality
b) Functionality and usability
c) Usability and Performance
d) None of the above
14. Class testing
a) require a driver to test
b) no need of instances of other classes
c) no need to test the transitions
d) all of the above.
15. Defect Tracking
a) is the communication channel between test team and development team
b) is the communication channel between testing team and the rest of the team
c) is the communication channel between the testing team and end users
d) all of the above
16. Essential Testing Skills are
a) Test Planning, Risk Management, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management
b) Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management, Test Measurement
c) Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management
d) Test Planning, Tool Usage, Test Execution, Defect Management, Test Case Design
17. Testing across different languages is called
a) Linguistic Testing
b)Localization Testing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.
[Link] System
a) several levels of component that includes objects and classes
b) several levels of component that includes objects, classes, systems
c) several levels of component that includes, foundation component, systems
d) none of the above.
19. Hybrid Testing
a) combination of one or more testing techniques
b) Combination of top-down and bottom-up testing
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.
20. White Box Testing
a) same as glass box testing
b) same as clear box testing
c) both a and b
d) none of the above.
21. Build Verification Test
a) same as smoke test
b) done after each build to make sure that the build doesn’t contain major errors
c) both a and b
d) None of the above.
22. Content Testing
a) similar to proof reading
b) widely used in web testing
c) part of usability testing
d) All of the above.
23. Decision Coverage.
a) Testing Boolean expressions which are not in control structures.
b) entire expression is considered as boolean expression irrespective of logical-and and logical-or operators
c) coverage except switch-statement cases, exception handlers
d) all of the above.
24. Branch Coverage (Testing concepts)
a) another name for decision coverage
b) another name for all-edges coverage
c) another name for basic path coverage
d) all the above
25. The following example is a
if (condition1 && (condition2 || function1()))
statement1;
else
statement2; (Testing concepts)
a) Decision coverage
b) Condition coverage
c) Statement coverage
d) Path Coverage
[Link] cases need to be written for
a) invalid and unexpected conditions
b) valid and expected conditions
c) both a and b
d) none of these
[Link] Checking
a) same as code walkthrough
b) same as code inspection
c) verification of code by the developers
d) none of the above.
[Link] coverage includes
a) statement coverage
b) condition coverage
c) decision coverage
d) none of these
[Link] usage
a) very helpful in regression testing
b) saves time
c) helpful in simulating Users
d) all the above
30. Which is a true prevention mechanism
a) verifying that the executable contains a defect
b) detecting that the executable contains a defect
c) validating that the specified requirements are right, complete, achievable, reasonable, testable.
D) verifying that the specified requirements are right, complete, achievable, reasonable, testable
31. Objective of review meetings is
a) to identify problems with design
b) to solve the problems with design
c) both a and b
d) none of the above.
32. The benefits of glass box testing are
a) Focused Testing, Testing coverage, control flow
b) Data integrity, Internal boundaries, algorithm specific testing
c) Both a and b
d) Either a or b
33. Structural Testing
a) same as black box testing
b) same as white box testing
c) same as functional testing
d) none of the above.
[Link] of a good test
a) reasonable probability of catching an error and can be redundant
b) it is not simple or too complex
c) reasonable probability of catching an error and cannot be redundant
d) it is either too simple or too complex.
35. Find the Equivalence class for the following test case
Enter a number to test the validity of being accepting the numbers between 1 and 99
a) All numbers < 1
b) All numbers > 99
c) Number = 0
d) All numbers between 1 and 99
36. Find the invalid equivalence class for the following test case
Draw a line up to the length of 4 inches
a) Line with 1 dot-width
b) Curve
c) line with 4 inches
d) none of the above.
[Link] user documentation involves
a) Improved usability, reliability, maintainability
b) Install-ability, scalability, liability
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.
[Link] of regression test cases are
a) boundary tests and other preplanned tests.
b) Tests that reveal bugs in the program
c) Customer reported bugs
d) All of the above
[Link] which one is an internal failure
a) Delaying tester’s access to areas of the code
b) Replacement with updated product
c) Training programmers to make or miss fewer bugs
d) Testing by Tech. Support
[Link] which one is a load condition
a) Lost messages
b) Task starts before its prerequisites are met.
c) Lost or out of sync messages
d) Early end of string
Answers:
Q.1-D Q.2-B Q.3-B Q.4-B Q.5-B Q.6-A Q.7-D Q.8-B Q.9-B Q.10-A Q.11-D Q.12-A Q.13-C Q.14-A Q.15-D
Q.16-C Q.17-B Q.18-D Q.19-B Q.20-C Q.21-C Q.22-D Q.23-B Q.24-D Q.25-A Q.26-C Q.27-C Q.28-C Q.29-D
Q.30-D Q.31-A Q.32-C Q.33-B Q.34-C Q.35-D Q.36-B Q.37-C Q.38-D Q.39-A Q.40-A

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 28

[Link] Testing team is responsible for
a) Performing the data validations
b) Performing the Usability Testing
c) Performing the Beta Testing
d) None of the above
[Link] Process comprised of
a) Test Plan and Test Cases
b) Test log and Test Status
c) Defect Tracking
d) All of the above
[Link] Testing
a) Testing performed for local functions
b) Testing across different languages
c) Testing across different locations
d) None of the above
[Link] Oriented Testing
a) Same as Top-Down Testing
b) Same as Bottom-Up Testing
c) Same as Hybrid Testing
d) All of the above
[Link] Testing
a) To find whether the hardware burns out
b) Same as build verification test
c) To find that software is stable
d) None of the above
[Link] Plan
a) Road map for testing
b) Tells about the acutal results and expected results
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
[Link] Script
a) written version of test cases
b) Code used in manual testing
c) Always used when we use tools
d) A code segment to replace the test case
[Link] Procedure
a) collection of test plans
b) combination of test plan and test cases
c) collection of test cases
d) none of the above
[Link] Walkthrough
a) a type of dynamic testing
b) type of static testing
c) neither dynamic nor static
d) performed by the testing team
[Link] Analysis
a) same as static testing
b) done by the developers
c) both a and b
d) none of the above
[Link] Acceptance Testing
a) same as Alpha Testing
b) same as Beta Testing
c) combination of Alpha and Beta Testing
d) none of the above
[Link] which of the one is false
a) In performance testing, usage of tool is a must
b) In database testing, database knowledge is a must.
c) In Functional Testing, knowledge of business logic is a must
d) none of the above.
[Link] which one is true. Collection of testing metrics contributes
a) in the improvement of testing
b) Affects tester’s growth.
c) Used against a developer
d) none
[Link] Testing
a) Program is tested randomly sampling the input.
b) A black-box testing technique
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above.
[Link] seeding
a) Evaluates the thoroughness with which a computer program is tested by purposely inserting errors into a
supposedly correct program.
b) Errors inserted by the developers intentionally to make the system malfunctioning.
c) Neither a or b
d) Both a and b
[Link] collected during testing includes
a) System test cases planned/executed/passed
b) Discrepancies reported/resolved
c) Staff hours
d) All of the above
[Link] Testing
a) at least performed one time
b) need to be executed before going for automation
c) both a and b
d) neither a or b
[Link] is the use of Affinity Diagram?
a) A group process that takes large amount of language data such as a list developed by brainstorming and
divides it into categories
b) A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production to determine whether it is likely to
meet the originating business case.
c) A test method that requires that each possible branch on each decision point be executed at least once.
d) None of the above
[Link] following best describes the defect density:
a) ratio of failure reports received per unit of time.
b) ratio of discoved errors per size of code.
c) number of modifications mede per size of code.
d) number of failures reported against the code.
[Link] of the following technique is the most suitable for negative testing
a) Boundary value analysis
b) Internal value analysis
c) State transition testing
d) All of the above
21. Unit, Integration and System testing being replaced by ________ using object oriented software testing
concepts
a) classing testing, Object Integration testing, System testing
b) Statement coverage, Branch coverage , Condition coverage
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
22. What is the relationship between equivalence partitioning and boundary value analysis techniques
a) Structural testing
b) Opaque testing
c) Compatibility testing
d) All of the above
23. Which statement is relevant for test driver (Testing concepts)
a) A program that directs the execution of another program against a collection of test data sets. Usually the test
driver also records and organizes the output generated as the tests are run.
b) A document that identifies test items and includes current status and location information.
c) A document describing any event during the testing process that requires investigation
d) A software item that is an object of testing.
24. Which of the following best describes validation (Testing concepts)
a) Determination of the correctness of the final program or software produced from a development project with
respect to the user needs and requirements.
b) A document that describes testing activities and results and evaluates the corresponding test items
c) Test data that lie within the domain of the function represented by the program
d) All of the above
25. Coverage based analysis is best described as: (Test artifacts)
a) A metric used to show the logic covered during a test session providing insight to the extent of testing.
b)A tool for documenting the unique combinations of conditions and associated results in order to derive unique
test cases for validation testing.
c)Tools for documenting defects as they are found during testing and for tracking their status through to
resolution.
d)The most traditional means for analyzing a system or a program
[Link] of the following best describes the difference between clear box and opaque box?
Clear box is structural testing, opaque box is functional testing
Clear box is done by tester, and opaque box is done by developer
Ad-hoc testing is a type of opaque box testing
a) 1 only
b) 1 and 3
c) 2
d) 3
27. How do you test a module for integration?
a) Big bang approach
b) Pareto analysis
c) Cause and Effect diagram
d) Scatter diagram
28. 80:20 rule can also called as
a) Fish bone diagram
b) Pareto analysis
c) Scatter diagram
d) Histogram
[Link] an alternative for requirement traceability matrix
a) [Link] Coverage matrix
b) [Link] defect aging
c) [Link] Effectiveness
d) [Link] discovery rate
[Link] can be done to minimize the reoccurrence of defects
a) [Link] Prevention plan
b) [Link] tracking
c) [Link] Management
d) [Link] of the above
[Link] is one of the methods of V&V. The other methods are
a) Inspection
b) Walkthough
c) Testing
d) All of the above
32. What needs to be done when there is an insufficient time for testing (Test Mgmt)
1)Do Ad-hoc testing
2)Do usability testing
3)Do sanity testing
4)Do a risk based analysis to prioritize
a) 1 and 2
b) 3 & 4
c) All of the above
d) None of the above
33. What is the scenario in which automation testing can be done: (Automation)
Application is stable
Usability testing is to be done
The project is short term
Long term project having numerous releases
a) 1
b) 1 & 4
c) 1 & 2
d) 2 & 3
34. Choose the best match for cyclomatic complexity (Test Execution)
a) The number of decision statements plus one.
b) A set of Boolean conditions such that complete test sets for the
conditions uncover the same errors
c) The process of analyzing and correcting syntactic logic and other
errors identified during testing
d) None of the above
35. According to Crosby, it is less costly to (Quality)
a) let the customer find the defects.
b) detect defects than to prevent them.
c) prevent defects than to detect them.
d) ignore minor defects
36. Which of the following is LEAST likely to be used during software maintenance?
a) Project management plan
b) Customer support hot line
c) Software problem reports
d) Change control board
[Link] of the following reviews are required in order to ensure proper tracking of software between
phases of a project?
[Link] feasibility
[Link] requirements
[Link] design
[Link] test
a) I and II only
b) II and III only
c) I, II, and III only
d) II, III, and IV only
[Link] can it be known when to stop testing?
a) When no more bugs can be found
b) When the time allocated is over
c) When the quality goals set up for testing have been achieved
d) All of the above
[Link] can be done if requirements are changing continuously?
a) Work with the project's stakeholders early on to understand how requirements might change so that alternate
test plans and strategies can be worked out in advance, if possible.
b) Negotiate to allow only easily-implemented new requirements into the project, while moving more difficult
new requirements into future versions of the application
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
[Link] goal of software testing is to
a) Debug the system
b) Validate that the system behaves as expected
c) Let the developer know the defects injected by him
d) Execute the program with the intent of finding errors
Answers:
Q.1-D Q.2-D Q.3-B Q.4-D Q.5-B Q.6-A Q.7-D Q.8-C Q.9-B Q.10-C Q.11-C Q.12-D Q.13-A
Q.14-C Q.15-A Q.16-D Q.17-C Q.18-A Q.19-B Q.20-D Q.21-A Q.22-B Q.23-A Q.24-A Q.25-A
Q.26-B Q.27-A Q.28-B Q.29-A Q.30-D Q.31-D Q.32-B Q.33-B Q.34-A Q.35-C Q.36-A Q.37-D
Q.38-C Q.39-C Q.40-B

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 29

1. A test plan defines
a) What is selected for testing
b) Objectives and results
c) Expected results
d) Targets and misses
2. Test planning should begin
a) At the same time that requirement definitions begins
b) When building starts
c) When code build is complete
d) After shipping the first version
3. Risk analysis talks about
a) The data required for testing, the infrastructure requirements to manage the data as well as the methods for
preparing test data, requirements, converters and sources
b) Details what types of tests must be conducted, what stages of testing are required and outlines the sequence
and timing of tests
c) A testing goal. It is a statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during a testing
activity. These guide the development of test cases and procedures
d) None of the above
[Link] following defines the statement of what the tester is expected to accomplish or validate during
testing activity
a) Test scope
b) Test objective
c) Test environment
d) None of the above
[Link] technique of Black Box testing is Equivalence Partitioning. In a program statement that accepts
only one choice from among 10 possible choices, numbered 1 through 10, the middle partition would be
from ________ to ___________
a) 4 to 6
b) 0 to 10
c) 1 to 10
d) None of the above
6. What are the 2 major components taken into consideration with risk analysis?
a) The probability the negative event will occur
b) The potential loss of impact associated with the event
c) Both a and b
d) Neither a nor b
7. Following are some of the testing taks
a) Budget, Test environment
b) Budget, Number of qualified test resources
c) Budget, Number of qualified test resources, Test environment
d) None of the above
8. Cost of quality is
a) Prevention costs
b) Appraisal costs
c) Failure costs
d) All of the above
9. Which of the following metrics involves defects reported by client
a) Test efficiency
b) Test effectiveness
c) Test Coverage
d) None of the above
10. Security concerns are important for which type of applications.
a) A product advertisement website
b) A requirements tracking database
c) An e-commerce website
d) An employment application
11. Testing responsiveness
Tester 1- Verify that the program is able to display images clearly on all 10 of the monitors in the tab
Tester 2- Make sure the program instructions are easy to use Security concerns are important for which
type of applications.
Tester 3 – Verify that the calculation module works correctly by using both scripts and ad hoc testing.
Which term is used to refer to the testing that is performed by Tester 3 in the above scenario?
a) Unit testing
b) Algorithm specific testing
c) Compatibility testing
d) Black box testing
[Link] a tester, what is your main objective in reviewing a requirement document?
a) To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business need
b) To ascertain that each requirement is both testable and uniquely
identifiable
c) To ascertain that each requirement is traceable to a business
need, testable, and uniquely identifiable
d) To ascertain that each requirement is uniquely identifiable
[Link] is the common limitation of automated testing?
a) They are not useful for performance testing
b) They cannot be used for requirement validation
c) It is very difficult for automated scripts to verify a wide range of
application responses.
d) They are not useful when requirements are changing frequently
[Link] testing guidelines suggest which one of the following as the correct source of functional test
cases?
a) The developer’s knowledge of what the software can do
b) The software design
c) The software requirements
d) The tester’s knowledge of what the software should do
e) The functional test procedures
[Link] is the concept of introducing a small change to the program and having the effects of that change
show up in some test?
a) Desk checking
b) Debugging a program
c) A mutation error
d) Performance testing
e) Introducing mutations
[Link] effort estimation uses which of the following techniques
a) Function point method
b) Test case point method
c) Use case point method
d) All of the above
[Link] is the verification process in software development?
a) The probability that undesirable things will happen such as loss of human life or large
financial losses
b) The process of monitoring the software to ensure full compliance with established
standards and procedures
c) The process of trying to discover every conceivable fault of weakness in a work
product.
d) The process of evaluating a system of component to determine whether or not the
products of a given developement phase satisfy the conditions imposed at the start of
that phase
e) The process of evaluating a system or component during or at the end of the sales
process to determine whether or not it satisfies specified requirements
[Link] a testing perceptive, what results in the clicking of a button?
a) An interface event
b) A sound
c) A text item
d) A bio-metric event
e) An internal processing event
[Link] design mainly emphasizes all the following except
a) Data planning
b) Test procedures planning
c) Mapping the data and test cases
d) Data synchronisation
[Link] type of testing is performed to test applications across different browsers and OS?
a) Static testing
b) Performance testing
c) Compatibility testing
d) Functional testing
[Link] document helps you to track test coverage?
a) Traceability Matrix
b) Test plan
c) Test log
d) Test summary report
[Link] type of test would you perform to accept a build
a) Beta test
b) Smoke test
c) Functional test
d) User acceptance test
[Link] a defect at which of the following stage is most economical?
a) Design
b) Build
c) Testing
d) Deployment
[Link] the application is complex, but NOT data intensive and is to be tested on one configuration and 2
rounds, the easiest method to test is
a) Manual testing
b) Automation testing
c) Both
d) None
[Link] testing is mostly
a) Validation techniques
b) Verification techniques
c) Both of the above
d) None of the above
[Link] imprecise definition for quality is
a) Fitness for use
b) Meeting customers expectations
c) Completeness of requirements
d) Efficient and effective product
[Link] testing include all the following except
a) Performance services
b) Security services
c) Usability services
d) Monitoring services
[Link] points are used for estimating
a) Size
b) Effort
c) Cost
d) None of the above
[Link] of a project is defined in terms of all the following except
a) Person days
b) Person hours
c) Calendar months
d) None of the above
[Link] of test design phase include all of the following except
a) Test data
b) Test data plan
c) Test summary report
d) Test procedure plan
[Link] of the following in not decided in the test-planning phase?
a) Schedules and deliverable
b) Hardware and software
c) Entry and exit criteria
d) Types of test case
[Link] testing for products involves all the following except
a) Certified and supported client environments
b) High and low level sanity testing
c) Client and server side testing
d) Functional and non-functional compatibility
[Link] business importance and testing the core business cases in an application is called
a) Risk based testing
b) High level sanity testing
c) Low level sanity testing
d) Regression testing
[Link] testing mainly helps in
a) Retesting fixed defects
b) Checking for side-effects of fixes
c) Checking the core gaps
d) Ensuring high level sanity
[Link] testing emphasizes on performance under load while stress testing emphasizes on
a) Breaking load
b) performance under stress
c) Performance under load
d) There is no such difference, both are same
[Link] of the following is not a form of performance testing?
a) Spike testing
b) Volume testing
c) Transaction testing
d) Endurance testing
[Link] of the following is not a type of test under phases in testing life cycle?
a) Integration test
b) Load test
c) User Acceptance test
d) Beta test
[Link] efficiency is always directly proportional to
a) Product Delivery
b) Functional Coverage
c) Product Reliability
d) Product Cost
[Link] economics of testing – optimum test is suggested because
a) Number of defects decrease along with extent of testing
b) Number of defects increase along with extent of testing
c) Cost of testing increases with the extent of testing
d) Cost of testing increases with the number of defects
[Link] a V-model of software testing, UAT plans are prepared during the
a) Analysis phase
b) HLD phase
c) LLD phase
d) System Testing phase
Answers:
Q.1-B Q.2-A Q.3-D Q.4-B Q.5-C Q.6-C Q.7-C Q.8-D Q.9-B Q.10-C Q.11-D Q.12-C Q.13-D Q.14-C Q.15-E
Q.16-D Q.17-D Q.18-A Q.19-D Q.20-C Q.21-A Q.22-B Q.23-A Q.24-A Q.25-A
Q.26-B Q.27-D Q.28-A Q.29-C Q.30-C Q.31-D Q.32-B Q.33-B Q.34-B Q.35-A Q.36-C Q.37-D
Q.38-C Q.39-C Q.40-A

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 30

[Link] performed without any executable code is referred to as
a) Review
b) Static testing
c) Validation
d) Sanity testing
[Link] Quality Control and Quality Assurance are compared
a) Both are literally the same
b) QA is a higher activity in the management Hierarchy
c) QC ia a higher activity in the management Hierarchy
d) QA is done by the client and QC si done by the software vendor
[Link] extent of automation for a given project is generally guided by
a) Scope for automation
b) Tool support
c) Business Functionality
d) Vendor's skills
[Link] data planning essentially includes
a) Network
b) Operational Model
c) Boundary value analysis
d) Test Procedure Planning
[Link] of the following is not a client side statistics in load testing
a) Hits per second
b) Throughput
c) Cache hit ratio
d) Transaction per second
[Link] study is more imoprtant before load testing
a) Web Applications
b) Client-server applications
c) Mainframe applications
d) Citrix applications
[Link] one of the following need not be part of the bug tracker?
a) Bug identifier
b) One line bug description
c) Severity of the bug
d) None of the above
[Link] of the following approach needs to be taken if there are a large number
of defects being found in the software?
1. Try continuing testing and logging the critical defects.
2. Immediately stop testing the product.
3. Inform the lead/manager providing proper documentation
4. Continue testing in the normal manner
a) 1 and 3
b) 3 and 4
c) 2 only
d) 3 only
[Link] if the application has functionality that wasn't in the requirements?
a) Ignore testing that functionality
b) Continue to test the functionality and report the results
c) Update the Project Manager with the details and the risk involved
d) None of the above
[Link] are the key features to be concentrated upon when doing a testing for world wide web sites
a) Interaction between html pages
b) Performance on the client side
c) Security aspects
d) All of the above
[Link] if the project isn't big enough to justify extensive testing?
a) Use risk based analysis to find out which areas need to be tested
b) Use automation tool for testing
c) a and b
d) None of the above
[Link] selection of test cases for regression testing
a) Requires knowledge on the bug fixes and how it affect the system
b) Includes the area of frequent defects
c) Includes the area which has undergone many/recent code changes
d) All of the above
[Link] are the main attributes of test automation
1. Time saving
2. Correctness
3. Less Manpower
4. More reliable
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1, 2 , 3 and 4
d) None of the above
[Link] of the common problems of test automation are
a) Changing requirements
b) Lack of time
c) Both a and b
d) None of the above
[Link] of the metrics which are collected in a testing project are
Productivity
Test effectiveness
Requirement stability
Bug fix rate
a) 1 and 2
b) 2 and 3
c) 1,2, and 4
d) 1 and 4
[Link] Suit Manager
a) A tool that specifies an order of actions that should be performed during a test session
b) A software package that cretes test transactions for testing application systems and programs
c) A tool that allows testers to recognize test script by function or other grouping
d) None of the above
[Link] means
a) A single software product that may or may not fully support a business function
b) A quantitative measure of the current level of performance
c) A test or analysis coducted after an application is moved into production
d) None of the above
18.A document describing any event during the testing process that requires investigation
a) Test log
b) Test Incident report
c) Test Cycle
d) Test Item
[Link] purpose of this event is to review the application user interface and other human factors of the
application with the people who will be using the application.
a) User Acceptance test
b) Usablity test
c) Validation
d) None of the above
[Link] is used to measure the characteristics of the documentation and code?
a) Process metrics
b) Product metrics
c) Software Quality metrics
d) None of the above
[Link] of an executable model to represent the behavior of an object is called
a) Simulation
b) Software item
c) Software feature
d) None of the above
[Link] is
a) Comparing your company’s products services or processes against best practices or competitive practices to
help define superior performance of a product service or support process.
b) A quantitative measure of the current level of performance
c) A test or analysis conducted after an application is moved into production
c) None of the above
[Link] testing is a system test that forces the software to fail and verifies that data recovery is
properly performed.
The following should be checked for correctness
1. Re-initialization
2. Restart
3. Data Recovery
4. Check Point Mechanism
a) 1 and 2
b) 1, 2 and 3
c) 1, 2, 3 and 4
d) 2 and 4
[Link] is different from other testing types normally because of
a) Data
b) Cycles
c) Defects
d) None of the above
[Link] testing is differentiated from Beta testing by
a) The location where the tests are conducted.
b) The types of test conducted
c) The people doing the testing
d) The degree to which white box techniques are used
26. What is the need for test planning
a) to utilize a balance of testing techniques
b) to understand testing process
c) to collect metrics
d) to perform ad hoc testing.
27. Which of the following is NOT a part of Test plan document?
a. assumptions
b) communication approach
c) risk analysis
d) status report
28. Which part of Test plan will define 'What will and will not be covered in the test'?
a) test scopt
b) test objective
c) both a & b
d) none of the above
29. Test objective is simply a testing
a) direction
b) vision
c) mission
d) goal
30. Which out of the below is NOT a concern for testers to complete a test plan
a) not enough tranining
b) lack of test tools
c) enough time for testing
d) rapid change
[Link] effort taken to create a test plan shoule be
a) half of the total test effort
b) one-third of the total test efforts
c) two times of the total test effort
d) one-fifth of the total test effort
[Link] do you mean by 'Having to say NO'
a) No, the problem is not with testers
b) No, the software is not ready for production
c) Both a and b
d) none of the above
[Link] like change Man, Clear case are used as
a) functional automation tools
b) performance testing tools
c) configuration management tools
d) none of the above
[Link] Life cycle approach to testing, test execution occurs
a) during testing phase
b) during requirement phase
c) during coding phase
d) none of the above
35. Who is responsible for conducting test readiness review?
a. Test manager
b. Test engineer
c. both A & B
d. Project Manager
36. What is NOT a test log?
a. Maps the test results to requirements
b. Records test activities
c. Maintains control over the test
d. Contains pass or fail results.
37. When Integration testing should begin
a. during black-box testing
b. once unit testing is complete for the integrating components
c. Before unit testing is complete
d. All of the above
38. Which is NOT a part of integration testing
a. Validation of the links between the clients and server
b. Output interface file accuracy
c. back-out situations
d. none of the above.
39. When to stop testing?
a. When all quality goals defined at the start of the project have been met.
b. When running short of time
c. When all test cases are executed
d. all the above
40. Authorization _________
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
Answers:
Q.1-B Q.2-C Q.3-A Q.4-C Q.5-C Q.6-A Q.7-D Q.8-A Q.9-C Q.10-D Q.11-A Q.12-D Q.13-C
Q.14-C Q.15-C Q.16-C Q.17-B Q.18-B Q.19-B Q.20-B Q.21-A Q.22-A Q.23-C Q.24-A Q.25-A
Q.26-A Q.27-D Q.28-A Q.29-D Q.30-C Q.31-B Q.32-B Q.33-C Q.34-D Q.35-A Q.36-A
Q.37-B Q.38-D Q.39-A Q.40-C

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 31

1. File Integrity falls under
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
[Link] testing is
a. compliance tesitng
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operatins
[Link] falls under
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. functional testing
e. ease of operations
[Link] falls under
a. compliance testing
b. disaster testing
c. verifying compliance to rules
d. fuctional testing
e. ease of operations
[Link] are the four attributes to be present in any test problem?
a. statement, criteria, effect and cause
b. priority, fix, schedule and report
c. statement, fix effect and report
d. none of the above
[Link] is not the Phase of SDLC?
a. Initiation Phase
b. Defintion Phase
c. Planning Phase
d. Programming and Training Phase
[Link] of the expected benefit versus the cost of the solution is done in which phase of SDLC?
a. Defintion Phase
b. Design Phase
b. Initiation Phase
d. Implementation Phase
[Link] is the policy/oversight participant in SDLC?
a. Project Manager
b. Contracting Office
c. Information Technology Manager
d. Information Resorces Management Official
9. Who reviews proposed procurement for sufficiency in the acquisition and installation of the Off-the-Self
Software?
a. Sponsor / User
b. Project Manager
c. IT Manger
d. All of the Above
10. “V” testing process is
a. System development process and system test process begins
b. Testing starts after coding is done
c. Do procedures are followed by Check procedures
d. Testing starts after the prototype is done
11. Validation is
a. Execute test
b. Review code
c. Desk check
d. Audit
12. Which is not in sequence in 11 Step Software Testing process
a. Assess development plan and status
b. Develop the test plan
c. Test software design
d. Test software requirement
13. Structural testing is
a. Requirements are properly satisfied by the application
b. Uncover errors during “Coding” of the program
c. Functions works properly
d. To test how the business requirements are implemented.
14. Functional testing is
a. Path testing
b. Technology has been used properly
c. Uncover errors that occurs in implementing requirements.
d. Uncover errors in program unit.
15. Structural testing is NOT
a. Installation testing
b. Stress testing
c. Recovery testing
d. Compliance testing
[Link] testing transaction can be obtained from
a. Test Data generators
b. Test transactions created by the test group
c. Transactions previously processed in the production evironment
d. All of the above.
[Link] will assess vulnerability in the system
a. Internal Control Officer
b. System Security Officer
c. QA Engineer
d. Test Manager
[Link] is the structure testing process
a. Parallel
b. Regression
c. Stress
d. Intersystem
[Link] is Risk analysis?
a. Evaluating risks
b. Evaluating Controls
c. Evaluating vulnerabilities
d. All of the above
[Link] component of Risk Analysis are
a. The probability that the negative event will occur
b. The potential loss is very high
c. The potential loss or impact associated with the event
21. Method of conducting Risk Analysis is
a. Use your judgment
b. Use your instict
c. Cost of failure
d. All of the above
[Link] is not Testing Risk
a. Budget
b. Number of qualified test resources
c. Sequence and increments of code delivery
d. Inadequately tested applications
[Link] abnormal termination type X occurs 100 times per year, and the loss per occurrence is $500, then the
loss associated with the risk is $50,000. What methods of measuring the magnitude of risk I am using?
a. Judgment
b. Annual loss expectation estimation
c. Risk Formula
d. Consensus
24. What is Cascading error?
a. Unrelated errors
b. Triggers a second unrelated error in another part
c. A functionality could not be tested
d. Two similar errors
25. Configuration defects will be introduced if
a. Environment is not stable
b. Environment does not mirror test environment
c. Environment does not mirror production environment
d. All of the above
26. Quality Risk is
a. Requirement comply with methodology
b. Incorrect result will be produced
c. Result of the system are unreliable
d. Complex technology used.
27. Risk control objectives are established in
a. Design phase
b. Requirement Phase
c. Testing Phase
d. Implementation Phase
28. Which of the following is not Risk characteristic
a. Inherent in every project
b. Neither intrinsically good not bad
c. Something to fear but not something to manage
d. Probability of loss
29. Application developed should fit user’s business process. The components of fit are
a. Data
b. People
c. Structure
d. All of the above
30. Which is not the responsibility of customer/ user of the software
a. Plan how and by whom each acceptance activity will be performed
b. Prepare the acceptance plan
c. Prepare resource plan
d. Plan resources for providing information on which to base acceptance decisions
[Link] preparation for developing the acceptance criteria, the user should
a. Know the defects in the application
b. Acquire the basis knowledge of the application for which the system is intended
c. Understand the risks and benefits of the development methodology that is to be used
in correcting the software system
d. Know new enhancement and basic understanding of how the application is
implemented in users organization
[Link] requirements that a system should meet is
a. Usability
b. Understandablity
c. Functionality
d. Enhancements
[Link] techniques that can be used in acceptance testing are
a. Structural
b. Functional
c. Usability
d. A and B
e. B and C
[Link] final software acceptance testing, the system should include
a. Delivered software
b. All user documents
c. Final version of other sofware deliverables
d. All of the above
[Link] testing means
a. Testing performed on a single stand-alone module or unit of code
b. Testing after changes has been made to ensure that no unwanted changes were
introduced
c. Testing to ensure that the system meets the need of the organization and end user.
d. Users test the application in the developers environment
[Link] tests are normally conduced by the
a. Developers
b. End users
c. Test team
d. System engineers
37. Which is not test result data
a. Test factors
b. Interface objective
c. Platform
d. Test estimation
38. What type of test that will be conducted during the execution of tests, which will be based on software
requirements. What category of status data I am looking?
a. Test Result
b. Test Transaction
c. Defects
d. Efficiency
39. Summary (project)status report provides
a. General view of a project
b. General view of all the projects
c. Detailed view of all the projects
d. Detailed information about a project
40. Project status report provides
a. General view of a project
b. General view of all the projects
c. Detailed view of all the projects
d. Detailed information about a project
Answers:
Q.1-D Q.2-E Q.3-A Q.4-B Q.5-A Q.6-C Q.7-C Q.8-D Q.9-A Q.10-A Q.11-A Q.12-C Q.13-B
Q.14-C Q.15-B Q.16-D Q.17-A Q.18-C Q.19-D Q.20-D Q.21-D Q.22-D Q.23-C Q.24-B Q.25-D
Q.26-A Q.27-B Q.28-C Q.29-D Q.30-C Q.31-C Q.32-C Q.33-D Q.34-D Q.35-C Q.36-B Q.37-D
Q.38-B Q.39-B Q.40-D

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 32

1. What is not the primary data given by the tester in test execution
a. Total number of tests
b. Number of test cases written for change request
c. Number of test executed to date
d. Number of tests executed successfully to date
2. Do the current project results meet the performance requirements? Which section of Project Status
Report I should look for:
a. Vital Project Information
b. General Project Information
c. Project Activities Information
d. Essential Elements Information
3. Which is a section of Summary status report
a. Vital project information
b. Essential elements information
c. Project activities information
[Link] Line Information
[Link] Result data is
a. Test Transactions
b. Test events
c. Business objectives
d. Reviews
[Link] types of efficiench can be evaluated during testing?
a. Software system
b. Testing
c. Development
d. A and C
e. A and B
[Link] is essentially responsible for the quality of a product?
a. Customer
b. QA Manager
c. Development Manager
d. Test Manager
[Link] are the 3 costs that make up the Cost of Quality?
a. Prevention, Appraisal, Failure
b. Appraisal, Developement, Testing
c. Testing, Prevention, rework
d. Failure, Prevention, Testing
[Link] are expected production costs?
a. labor, materials, and equipment
b. personnel, training, and rollout
c. training, testing, user-acceptance
[Link] costs are:
a. Costs associated with preventing errors
b. Costs associated with detection of errors
c. Costs associated with defective products delivered to customers
[Link] example of a Failure Cost is:
a. Training
b. Inspections
c. Rework
11. If you could build a 0 defect product, would there be any costs involved?
If yes, what costs?
a. Preventive costs, but they are minimally involved
b. No costs will be involved
c. Failure costs
12. How many Deming principles are there?
a. 10
b. 14
c. 5
d. 7
13. How many levels are in the CMM?
a. 18
b. 3
c. 4
d. 5
14. The Pareto analysis is most effective for:
a) Ranking items by importance
b) Showing relationships between items Measuring the impact of identified items
15. What is COTS?
a. Commercial On-the-shelf software
b. Commercial off-the-shelf software
c. Common Offshore testing Software
16. What is the purpose of code coverage tools?
a. They are used to show the extent to which the logic in the program was executed during testing.
b. They are used as an alternative to testing
c. They are used to compile the program
[Link] examples of test specific metrics.
a. Testing Effort variation, Defect Density, Testing Efficiency, Requirements tested.
b. Inspection, review efficiency, Testing Effort variation, Defect Density
c. Test scalability, Defect deviation, Testing Efficiency, Schedule variation
[Link] one commonly recognized size measurement tool.
a. Effort analysis
b. LCO Analysis
c. LOC Analysis
d. Code Analysis
[Link] three components included in a system test report.
a. Description of Testing; resource requirement; and Recommendation
b. Testing requirements; defects; and usability
c. Description of test results and finding(defects); Summary(environment and
references; and Recommendation)
[Link] is what category of cost of quality?
a. preventive
b. Appraisal
c. Failure
[Link] largest cose of quality is from production failure
a. True
b. False
22. Defects are least costly to correct at what stage of the development cycle?
a. Requirements
b. Analysis and Design
c. Construction
d. Implementation
23. The purpose of software testing is to:
a. Demonstrate that the application works properly
b. Detect the defects
c. Validate the logical design
24. _________must be developed to describe when and how testing will occur.
a. Test Strategy
b. Test Plan
c. Test Design
d. High Level document
25. It is difficult to create test scenarios for high-level risks
a. True
b. False
26. __________ testing assumes that the path of logic in a unit or program is known.
a. Black Box testing
b. Performance Testing
c. White Box testing
d. Functional testing
27. _________ test is conducted at the developer’s site by a customer.
a. Beta
b. System
c. Alpha
d. None of the above
28. Juran is famous for
a. Quality Control
b. Working on Trend Analysis
c. Pareto
d. Fish Bone Diagram
[Link] testing activities should start
a. As soon as the code is written
b. During the design stage
c. When the requirements have been formally documented
d. As soon as possible in the development lifecycle
[Link] statistical tools are used in the
a. Work Practice process
b. Benchmarking process
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above
[Link] Function deploement(QFD) is a
a. Statistical tool
b. Non statistical tool
c. Development tool
d. None of the above
[Link] sequence of the four Phases involved in Bench marking process is
a. Action, Planning, Integration, Analysis
b. Planning, Analysis, Integration, Action
c. Analysis, Planning, Integration, Action
d. Analysis, Action, Planning, Integration
[Link] Density is calculated by
a. Total no. of Defects/Effort
b. Valid Defects/ Total no. of Defect
c. Invalid Defects/ Valid Defects
d. Valid Defects/ Effort
[Link] Variation is calculated by
a. (Planned-Actual)/Actual
b. (Actual-Planned)/Actual
c. (Actual-Planned)/Planned
d. (Planned-Actully)/Planned
[Link] Rework is calculated by
a. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
b. (Review effort + Rework effort)/Actual Effort expended
c. Rework Effort/Planned Effort
d. Rework Effort/Actual Effort expanded
36. The ______________ is an application of process management and quality
improvement concepts to software development and maintenance.
a. Malcolm Baldridge
b. ISO 9000
c. SEI/CMM
d. QS14000
37. A quantitative measurement used to determine the test completion is
a. Defect measurement
b. Requirements coverage
c. Statistical Analysis
38. The categories of Error Oriented Techniques are
a. Statistical assessment and Error-based testing
b. Error-based testing and Fault based testing.
c. Fault based testing and Statistical assessment
d. Statistical assessment, Error-based testing and Fault based testing.
39. The following factors should be considered for the Test Tool selection
[Link] Phase
[Link] Objective
[Link] Technique
[Link] Deliverable
a. 1 & 2
b. 1,2,3 & 4
c. 2 & 3
d. 1,2 & 3
40. Equivalence partitioning consists of various activities:
a. Ensure that test cases test each input and output equivalence class
at least once
b. Identify all inputs and all outputs
c. Identify equivalence classes for each input
d. All of the above
Answers:
Q.1-B Q.2-D Q.3-D Q.4-C Q.5-E Q.6-C Q.7-A Q.8-A Q.9-B Q.10-C Q.11-A Q.12-B
Q.13-D Q.14-A Q.15-B Q.16-A Q.17-A Q.18-C Q.19-C Q.20-B Q.21-A Q.22-A Q.23-A
Q.24-B Q.25-A Q.26-C Q.27-C Q.28-A Q.29-D Q.30-B Q.31-B Q.32-B Q.33-A Q.34-C
Q.35-D Q.36-C Q.37-B Q.38-D Q.39-B Q.40-D

ISTQB Foundation Sample Question Paper No. 33

1. It is an unfair test to perform stress testing at the same time you perform load testing.
a. True
b. False
[Link] error message fall under __________ category of testing.
a. Incremental Testing
b. Thread Testing
c. Documentation Testing
d. Stress Testing
[Link] term “defect” is related to the term “fault” because a “fault” is a defect, which has not yet been
identified.
a. True
b. False
[Link] qualities must an individual possess to test effectively a software
application.
a. Good Communication Skill
b. Good Error Guessing
c. Good Analytical Skill
d. All of the above
[Link] are least costly as what stage of Development cycle.
a. Analysis and Design
b. Construction
c. Requirements
d. Implementation
[Link] is
a. Phase building activity
b. Intermediate activity
c. End of Phase activity
d. Design activity
7.________ is monitoring defects from the time of recording until satisfactory resolution has been
determined.
a. Quality measurement
b. Defect measurement
c. Defect Tracking
d. None of the above
8. Most common cause of defects is
a. Failure to estimate
b. Failure to asses risks
c. Ambiguous or incomplete requirements
d. Weak communication
9. Verification activities during design stages are
a. Reviewing and Inspecting
b. Inspecting and Testing
c. Reviewing and Testing
d. Reviewing, Inspecting and Testing.
10. Decision to stop testing should be based upon
a. Successful use of specific test case design methodologies
b. A percentage of coverage for each coverage category
c. Rate of error detection falls below a specified threshold
d. All of the above
11. Testing, which is carried out using no recognized test case design
a. Failure Testing
b. Adhoc Testing
c. Exhaustive Testing
d. Empty test case Testing
12. A test case design technique for a component in which test cases are designed to execute statements is
called as?
a. State transition Testing
b. Static Testing
c. Transition testing
d. Statement testing
13. This testing is a mechanism that simulates problems in the original environment so that an alternative-
processing environment can be tested.
a. Disaster testing
b. Functional testing
c. Regression testing
d. Compliance Testing
14. Status Reports in Test Director can be generated using
a. Document Viewer
b. Document Generator
c. Document Tracker
d. None of the above
[Link] following five tasks are needed to develop, use and maintain Test scripts.
Unit scripting
Pseudo concurrency scripting
Integration scripting
Regression scripting
Stress/Performance scripting
a.1, 2 and 3
b. 2 and 4
c. 1, 2 and 5
d. 1, 2, 3, 4 and 5
[Link] where the system is subjected to large number of idea.
a. System Testing
b. Volume Testing
c. Statistical Testing
d. Statement Testing
[Link] testing where no incremental testing takes place prior to all the system’s components being
combined to form the system.
a. System Testing
b. Component Testing
c. Incremental Testing
d. Big bang Testing
[Link] testing aims at verifying the system’s ability to recover from varying degrees of failure.
a. True
b. False
[Link] testing methods are used by end-users who actually test software before they use it?
a. Alpha and Beta Testing
b. White Box Testing
c. Black Box Testing
d. Trial and Error Testing
[Link] testing attempts to violate those procedures, which should test the adequacy of the security
procedures.
a. Disaster testing
b. Functional testing
c. Regression testing
d. Compliance testing
21. Which of the following is NOT a standard related to testing?
a. IEEE829
b. IEEE610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
[Link] of the following is the component test standard?
a. IEEE 829
b. IEEE 610
c. BS7925-1
d. BS7925-2
23 which of the following statements are true?
a. Faults in program specifications are the most expensive to fix.
b. Faults in code are the most expensive to fix.
c. Faults in requirements are the most expensive to fix
d. Faults in designs are the most expensive to fix.
24. Which of the following is not the integration strategy?
a. Design based
b. Big-bang
c. Bottom-up
d. Top-down
25. Which of the following is a black box design technique?
a. statement testing
b. equivalence partitioning
c. error- guessing
d. usability testing
26. A program with high cyclometic complexity is almost likely to be:
a. Large
b. Small
c. Difficult to write
d. Difficult to test
27. Which of the following is a static test?
a. code inspection
b. coverage analysis
c. usability assessment
d. installation test
28. Which of the following is the odd one out?
a. white box
b. glass box
c. structural
d. functional
29. A program validates a numeric field as follows:
values less than 10 are rejected, values between 10 and 21 are accepted, values greater than or equal to 22
are rejected; which of the following input values cover all of the equivalence partitions?
a. 10,11,21
b. 3,20,21
c. 3,10,22
d. 10,21,22
30. Using the same specifications as question 29, which of the following covers the MOST boundary
values?
a. 9,10,11,22
b. 9,10,21,22
c. 10,11,21,22
d. 10,11,20,21
[Link] of the following is NOT a reasonable test objective:
a) to find faults in the software
b) to prove that the software has no faults
c) to give confidence in the software
d) to find performance problems
[Link] expression best matches the following characteristics of the review
processes:
1. led by the author
2. undocumented
3. no management participation
4. led by a moderator or leader
5. uses entry and exit criteria
s) inspection
t) peer review
u) informal review
v) walkthrough
a) s = 4 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 1
b) s = 4, t = 3, u = 2 and 5, v = 1
c) s = 1 and 5, t = 3, u = 2, v = 4
d) s = 4 and 5, t = 1, u= 2, v = 3
[Link] of the following is NOT part of system testing?
a) business process-based testing
b) performance, load and stress testing
c) usability testing
d) top-down integration testing
[Link] statement about expected outcomes is FALSE?
a) expected outcomes are defined by the software’s behaviour
b) expected outcomes are derived from a specification, not from the code
c) expected outcomes should be predicted before a test is run
d) expected outcomes may include timing constraints such as response times
[Link] standard that gives definitions of testing terms is:
a) ISO/IEC 12207
b) BS 7925-1
c) ANSI/IEEE 829
d) ANSI/IEEE 729
[Link] cost of fixing a fault:
a) is not important
b) increases the later a fault is found
c) decreases the later a fault is found
d) can never be determined
[Link] of the following is NOT included in the Test Plan document of the Test Documentation
Standard?
a) what is not to be tested
b) test environment properties
c) quality plans
d) schedules and deadlines
[Link] reviews or inspections be considered part of testing?
a) no, because they apply to development documentation
b) no, because they are normally applied before testing
c) yes, because both help detect faults and improve quality
d) yes, because testing includes all non-constructive activities
[Link] of the following is not part of performance testing?
a) measuring response times
b) recovery testing
c) simulating many users
d) generating many transactions
[Link] guessing is best used:
a) after more formal techniques have been applied
b) as the first approach to deriving test cases
c) by inexperienced testers
d) after the system has gone live
Answers:
Q.1-B Q.2-C Q.3-A Q.4-D Q.5-C Q.6-C Q.7-C Q.8-C Q.9-D Q.10-D Q.11-B Q.12-D Q.13-A Q.14-B Q.15-D
Q.16-B Q.17-D Q.18-A Q.19-A Q.20-D Q.21-B Q.22-D Q.23-C Q.24-A Q.25-B Q.26-D Q.27-A Q.28-D Q.29-C
Q.30-B Q.31-B Q.32-A Q.33-D Q.34-A Q.35-B Q.36-B Q.37-C Q.38-C Q.39-B Q.40-A