1

ASSESMENT AND EVALUATION

MCQS

1. Instrument used for measuring sample of behavior is,

A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
1. Limited to quantative description of pupil’s performance is:
A. Evaluation
B. Measurement
C. Test

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D. Examination
2. The purpose of the evaluation is to make:
A. Decision
B. Prediction
C. Judgment
D. Opinion
3. The purpose of evaluation is to make Judgment about educational:
A. Quantity
B. Quality
C. Time period
D. Age
4. Evaluation that monitors learning progress is:
A. Placement evaluation
B. Formative evaluation
C. Diagnostic evaluation
D. Summative evaluation
5. A formal and systematic procedure of getting information is:
A. Assessment

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B. Test
C. Measurement
D. Evaluation
6. The process of obtaining numerical Value is;
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
7. A sum of questions is:
A. Test
B. Testing
C. Assessment
D. Examination
9. The first step in measurement is:
A. Decision of what to measure
B. Development of the test

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C. Administering the test
D. Marking of the test
10. The purpose of formative evaluation is:
A. Monitoring progress of students
B. Selecting students
C. Promotion to next grade
D. Check final status
11. To assess achievement at the end of instructions is:
A. Placement assessment
B. Formative assessment
C. Summative assessment
D. Diagnostic assessment
12. Vast of all in scope?
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
13. The right sequence is:

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A. Test, assessment, evaluation, measurement

B. Assessment, measurement, evaluation, test
C. Test, measurement, assessment, evaluation
D. Evaluation, test, measurement, assessment
14. The least in scope is:
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
15. Permanent difficulties in learning are investigated in
A. Summative evaluation
B. Diagnostic evaluation
C. Formative evaluation
D. None of above
16. Broader in meaning is
A. Aims

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B. Objectives
C. Instructional objectives
D. Specific objectives
17. Procedures used to determine person’s abilities is:
A. Maximum performance test
B. Typical performance test
C. Norm - Referenced test
D. Criterion referenced test
18. The Process of evaluation is to:
A. Make judgment about the quality of something
B. Assign a mark or score to a student
C. Measure the achievement of students
D. Test the student in a subject
19. In norm referenced test the comparison is between:
A. Groups
B. Individuals
C. Areas
D. Interests

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20. In which question marking will be more reliable?

A. Completion
B. Short answer
C. Multiple choice question
D. Essay
21. Facility value of less than 0.20 means:
A. Item is too easy
B. Item is easy
C. Item is acceptable
D. Item is difficult
22. Objective type question have advantage over essay type
because such questions:
A. Are easy to prepare
B. Are easy to solve
C. Are easy to mark
D. Test critical thinking

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23. Discrimination value of more than 0.4 means:
A. Item is good
B. Item is acceptable
C. Item is weak.
D. Item discriminating negatively
24. Tests involving the construction of certain patterns or solving problems
in terms of concrete materials are called:
A. Intelligence tests
B. Performance tests
C. Scholastic aptitude tests
D. Interest tests
25. In Multiple choice item, the stem of the items should be
A. Large
B. Small
C. Meaningful
D. Relevant
26. Which appropriate verb will you use to make all objective behavioral?
A. To know

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B. To appreciate
C. To understand
D. To construct
27. Objectives representing the purposes of instruction of a teacher are
called:
A. Performance
B. Instructional
C. Attainment
D. Terminal objectives
28. The main advantage of essay type is:
A. They can measure complex learning outcomes which cannot be
measured with other types of questions
B. The student can guess the answer
C. Are essay to mark
D. Can diagnose the learning difficulties of students
29. Running description of active behavior of a student as observed by the

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teacher is:
A. Anecdotal record
B. Autobiography
C. Interview
D. Questionnaire
30. A test very popular with class-room teacher is:
A. True False Test
B. Completion Test
C. Matching items
D. Multiple choice
31. Frequently used tools of summative evaluation are:
A. Test
B. Teacher observation
C. Daily assignment
D. Oral questioning
32. Which of the following statement is a criterion referenced interpretation:
A. Asjad can state Newton's 2nd Law of motion
B. Ahmad got the highest score

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C. Dawood GRE score is 350

D. Rimsha percentile in math test is 35
33. The summative evaluation is:
A. Diagnostic
B. Certifying judgment
C. Continuous
D. On going
34. The difference between maximum and minimum values is:
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Range
D. Quartiles
35. A multiple choice question is composed of question or statement
referred as:
A. Stem
B. Distracter

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C. Foil
D. Response
36. In a norm referenced test which item is best? Whose:
A. Item difficulty is near zero
B. Item difficulty is near 100
C. Item difficulty is near 70
D. Item difficulty is near 50
37. Which question have increasing objectivity of marking:
A. unstructured essays
B. Structured essays
C. Short answers
D. Multiple choice questions
38. The most widely used format on standardized test in USA is:
A. Multiple Choice
B. Essay type
C. Matching list
D. Short answers
39. Which questions arc difficult to mark with reliability:

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A. Multiple type question

B. Short answer
C. Structured essays
D. Unstructured essays
40. Projective techniques are used to measure:
A. Aptitude
B. Intelligence
C. Knowledge
D. personality
41. Test meant for prediction on a certain criterion are called:
A. Achievement test
B. Aptitude test
C. Personality tests
D. Non-standardized test
42. Kuder-Richardson method is used to estimate:
A. Reliability

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B. Validity
C. Objectivity
D. Usability
43. Value that divides the data into two equal parts is:
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Mean deviation
44. The test measures what we intent to measure. This quality of the test is
called:
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Usability
D. Objectively
45. The length of a test is an important factor in obtaining a representative:
A. Mode
B. Sample
C. Group

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D. Factor

46. The test made to compare the performance of student with the other
students is called:
A. Criterion reference
B. Norm reference
C. Achievement
D. Diagnostic

47. Summative evaluation is used:

A. At the start of the programme
B. At the end of the programme
C. During the programme
D. At all times
48. The appearance of normal curve resembles with:
A. U

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B. Bell
C. V
D. Skew ness
49. The alternative name of the "table of specification, is:
A. Test blue print
B. Test Construction
C. Test Administrator
D. Test Scoring
50. Table of specification" helps in:
A. Test Development
B. Test Administration
C. Test Scoring
D. Test Reporting
51. The purpose of table of specification is:
A. To develop integration between objectives and contents
B. To develop a balance test
C. To help the teacher for sampling questions from all contents
D. All above

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52. Table of specification is prepared by:

A. Developing list of instructional objectives
B. Preparing the draft of course contents
C. Preparing two-way chart
D. All above
53. The supply type test item is:
A. True / False items
B. Matching items
C. M C.Q items
D. Completion items
54. Alternative response item is:
A. True / False
B. Right / Wrong
C. Correct / Incorrect
D. All above
55. How many columns matching items have:

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A. One column
B. Two column
C. Four column
D. Five column
56. The item in the column for which a match is sought is:
A. Premise
B. Response
C. Distracter
D. None of above
57. Identifying relationship between two things is demonstrated by:
A. True / False
B. Completion item
C. Matching item
D. Short answer
58. The statement of problem in M.C.Q.S is
A. Stem
B. Option

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C. Distracter
D. Premise
59. The list of suggested answers in M.C.Q.S is:
A. Alternatives
B. Choices
C. Options
D. All above
60. The correct option in M.C.Q is:
A. Answer
B. Distracters
C. Response
D. None of above
61. The incorrect options in M.C.Q are:
A. Answers
B. Distracters
C. Responses

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D. None of above
62. The most widely applicable test item is:
A. Short Answers
B. Completion
C. Matching
D. M.C.Q
63. The type of essay item in which contents arc limited is:
A. Restricted Response Questions
B. Extended Response Question
C. M.C.Q
D. True / False
64. The ability to select, organize, integrate and evaluate ideas is
demonstrated by:
A. Restricted Response
B. Extended Response Question
C. M.C.Q
D. True False
65. The score of a student getting 70 correct and 30 incorrect answers in

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True / False items by applying guessing correction formula will be:

A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
66. The score of a student getting 70 correct and 30 incorrect answers in
M.C.Q items having four options by applying guessing correction formula
will be:
A. 30
B. 40
C. 50
D. 60
67. The Analysis of items is necessary in:
A. Teacher Made Test
B. Standardized Test
C. Both a & b

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D. None of a & b
68. Which one is not the type of test by purpose:
A. Essay Type Test
B. Standardized Test
C. Criterion reference test
D. Norm referenced test
69. The type of the test by method is:
A. Standardized test
B. Norm referenced test
C. Objective type test
D. Criterion reference test
70. Students’ performance is compared with others students in:
A. Norm referenced test
B. Criterion referenced test
C. Objective referenced test
D. None of above
71. performance is compared with clearly defined learning tasks in:
A. Norm referenced test

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B. Criterion referenced test

C. Objective referenced test
D. None of above

72. Test that measures learning outcome of students is:

A. Aptitude Test
B. Intelligence test
C. Achievement Test
D. Diagnostic Test
73. The tests designed to predict future performance is:
A. Aptitude Test
B. Intelligence Test
C. Achievement Test
D. Diagnostic Test
74. The founder of modern intelligent tests was:
A. Alfred Binet

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B. Terman
C. Stern
D. Gulford
75. The formula to determine I.Q was presented by:
A. Alfred Binet
B. Terman
C. Stern
D. Gulford
76. 1-Q of a student having same physical and mental age will be:
A. 90
B. 100
C. 110
D. 120
77. The quality of test that measures “what it claims to measure” is:
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Objectivity
D. Differentiability

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78. The characteristic of a test to discriminate between high achievers and

low achievers is
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Objectivity
D. Differentiability
79. If the scoring of the test is not affected by any factor, quality of test is
called:
A. Reliability
B. Validity
C. Objectivity
D. Differentiability/Discrimination
80. The quality of test to give same scores when administered at different
occasions is:
A. Reliability
B. Validity

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C. Objectivity
D. Differentiability
81. If the sample of the question in the test is sufficiently large enough, the
quality of test is:
A. Validity
B. Usability
C. Adequacy
D. Objectivity
82. The quality of test showing ease of time, cost, administration and
interpretation is called
A. Validity
B. Usability
C. Adequacy
D. Objectivity
83. Item analysis focuses to find out:
A. Facility index
B. Discrimination power
C. Effectiveness of Distracters

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D. All above
84. Facility index (Difficulty level) of an item determines?
A. Ease or difficulty
B. Discrimination Power
C. Effectiveness of distracters
D. All above
85. High and low achievers are sorted out by:
A. Facility Index
B. Discrimination power
C. Effectiveness of distracters
D. All above
86. Test item is acceptable when its facility index /difficulty level ranges
from:
A. 20-60%
B. 30-70%
C. 40-80%

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D. 10-50%
87. Test item is very easy when value of facility index / difficulty level is
higher than:
A. 70%
B. 60%
C. 50%
D. 30%
88. Test item is very difficult when value of facility index/ difficulty level is
less than
A. 20%
B. 30%
C. 40%
D. 50%
89. Discrimination power of an item is acceptable when its value ranges
from:
A. 0.30 -1
B. 0.2-1
C. 0.1-1

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D. 10-1
90. Test item discriminates 100% when its value for discrimination is:
A. 1
B. 0.1
C. 0.01
D. 10
91. Test item cannot discriminate low achievers and high achievers when its
value is lower than:
A. 0.10
B. 0.20
C. 0.30
D. 0.40
92. Good distracter is that which:
A. Attracts high achievers more than low achievers
B. Attracts low achievers more than high achievers
C. Attracts equally high and low achievers

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D. Does not attract
93. Bad distracter is that which:
A. Attracts high achievers, more than low achievers
B. Does not attract at all to any student
C. Attracts high achievers and low achievers equally
D. All above
94. The type of interview when interviewee is one:
A. Individual Interview
B. Single Interview
C. Structural Interview
D. Focused Interview
95. What is interview called when interviewee are more than one:
A. Group Interview
B. Planned interview
C. Structural Interview
D. Focused Interview
96. The planned interview is-

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A. Group Interview
B. Panel interview
C. Structural interview
D. Focused interview
97. Discussion is concentrated on one problem in:
A. Group Interview
B. Panel Interview
C. Structural Interview
D. Focused Interview
98. The collection of productive work called to evaluate the performance of
students is:
A. Port Folio
B. Project
C. Assignment
D. All above
99. The type of marking and reporting system is:

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A. Traditional marking system
B. Pass-fail system
C. Letters to the parent
D. All above
100. Item with difficulty index of 5% is:
A. very easy
B. Easy (d)
C. Acceptable
D. Difficult
101. Quality of a test to give same scores at two times is called:
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Objectivity
D. Usability
102. Alfred Binet's major contribution was testing in the field of:
A. Mental
B. Achievement
C. Diagnosis

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D. None of above
103. The series which divides the distribution in two equal halves is called:
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range
104. The score in a distribution which has maximum frequency is called:
A. Mean
B. Median
C. Mode
D. Range
105. Accuracy of measurement is called:
A. Validity
B. Reliability
C. Practicability
D. All of the above

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106. Which type of lest ends to have the lowest reliability
A. True - false
B. Completion
C. Matching the tests
D. Essay
107. Most of the tests used in our schools are
A. Intelligence tests
B. Achievement tests
C. Aptitude test
D. Personality tests
108. _______involves professional judgment of the value or worth of
measured performance
A. Test
B. Evaluation
C. Assessment
D. Measurement
109. The term evaluation usually covers:

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A. Students performance
B. Teacher performance
C. Instructions performance
D. All of above
110. Multiple choice question provide a broad sampling of:
A. Knowledge
B. Learning
C. Content
D. Comprehension
111. Norm reference test are designed to rank pupil:
A. Learning
B. Effort
C. Achievement
D. Knowledge
112. Reliability is concerned with the __________ of students.
A. Consistency

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B. Stability
C. Dependability
D. All of above
113. Project is concerned with:
A. Practical work
B. Theoretical work
C. Physical work
D. Mental work
114. ______is calculated by adding all the scores in distribution and then
dividing that sum by the numbers of scores.
A. Mean
B. Mode
C. Median
D. Standard deviation
115. The primary determinant of a grade is the_______ of students.
A. Knowledge
B. learning
C. Performance

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D. Assessment
116. An ability test includes:
A. Achievement, aptitude & attitude
B. Aptitude, attitude and interest
C. Attitude, interest & intelligence
D. Achievement, aptitude & intelligence
117. We use simulation as a teaching technique in:
A. Short answers
B. Completion items
C. Performance test
D. Matching exercises
118. The main purpose of classroom testing is:
A. Compare students performance
B. Measure teachers effectiveness
C. Reporting to parents
D. Improve instruction

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119. Diagnostic evaluation is done:
A. Before Teaching
B. After teaching
C. In Between Teaching
D. None of the above
120. What the individual can perform in future is measured by
A. Intelligence test
B. Personality test
C. Achievement test
D. Aptitude rest
121. The best measure to avoid the guessing in a structured test is to use
A. True false items
B. Completion items
C. Matching items
D. Multiple-choice items
122. The first and most important step in making a test is.
A. Collecting context

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B. Defining objectives
C. Determining process
D. Proper planning
123. The final product of measurement is
A. Test item
B. Scores
C. Interpretation of scores
D. Performance
124. Essay test have advantage over the objective tests because they:
A. Are free from opportunities of bluffing
B. Have high consistency in marking
C. Provide adequate representation
D. Provide opportunities to organize knowledge
125. The basic function of educational measurement is to find out student's:
A. Achievement
B. Attitudes (

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C. Habits
D. Interests
126. If a criterion referenced test is reliable, then scores from test are:
A. Useful
B. Standardized
C. Consistent
D. Valid
127. Construct validity is established through:
A. Logical analysis
B. Standardized analysis
C. Both a & b
D. Neither a nor b
128. The standard error of measurement is a measure of:
A. Location
B. Central tendency
C. Variability
D. Association
129. Which of the following is choice items:

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A. Effective testing of higher cognitive levels

B. Content sampling
C. Score reliability
D. Allows for educated guessing
130. When constructing multiple choice items, it is best to:
A. Make all option of same length
B. Put main idea in items
C. Use only two options
D. Repeat key words of stem in options
131. Use of many selected responses in a test can provide good:
A. Level of difficulty
B. Objectivity
C. Context sampling
D. Time sampling
132. Variation in the scores of an individual from time to time could be best
judged by reliability techniques of:

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A. Parallel test forms
B. Rational equivalence
C. Split half
D. Test-retest
133. The most significant advantage of true - false items is:
A. Wide sampling
B. Item validity
C. Ease of construction
D. Elimination of guessing
134. Improvement of scores on a post test after having the pre test the
threat affecting the results is referred as:
A. Instrumentation
B. History
C. Testing
D. Mortality
135. The most comprehensive term used in the process of educational
testing is called:
A. Test

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B. Interview
C. Evaluation
D. Measurement
136. Monitoring the outcomes with reference to the objectives the term used
is called:
A. Test
B. Interview
C. Evaluation
D. Measurement
137. Learning difficulties during instruction can be checked with the help of
evaluation type called:
A. Placement
B. Summative
C. Diagnostic
D. Formative
138. Test designed to measure the number of items an individual can

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attempt correctly in a given time is referred type of test as:
A. Power
B. Supply
C. Achievement
D. Speed
139. Test designed to measure the learning during specific time of an
individual is referred type of test as:
A. Power
B. Supply
C. Achievement
D. Speed
140. 27% of the papers with the highest scores =lowest score = 10. When
H=8, L=3 for item No. 10. What is the index of difficulty for item No. 10?
A. 0.5
B. 1.1
C. 0.25
D. 0.55
141. An aptitude test measure:

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A. Overall mental ability

B. Attained ability
C. Present attainment
D. Potential ability
142. The first step in constructing a test is to:
A. Select a variety of items from which to choose
B. Define the objectives of the course
C. Delimit the content to be covered by the test
D. Decide what kind of test to use
143. Other things being equal, which type of test tends have the lowest
reliability:
A. True - false
B. Completion
C. Matching
D. Essay
144. The chief point of distinction between teacher - made test and

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standardized tests lies in the area of
A. Objectivity
B. Norms
C. Overall quality
D. Sampling 156.
145. Seventy fifth percentile may also be termed as:
A. Q1
B. Q2
C. Q3
D. Q4
146. The quality testing in education is only possible by using:
A. Achievement test
B. Intelligence test
C. Aptitude test
D. Standardized achievement test
147. Achievement Test batteries are widely used at:
A. Elementary School level
B. Secondary School level

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C. Intermediate level
D. Degree level
148. The scale that is used for attitude measurement is named as:
A. Technical Scale
B. Ordinal Scale
C. Likert Scale
D. Projective Scale
149. The type of test used for obtaining dependable ranking of the students
is:
A. Norm reference
B. Diagnostic
C. Prognostic
D. Criterion reference
150. The most significant advantage in the true-false test is:
A. Wide sampling
B. Items validity

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C. Elimination of guessing
D. None of the above
151. A test designed to know the students position in a group is called:
A. Criterion test
B. Norm reference
C. Achievement
D. Aptitude
152. A sum of question is:
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
153. The instrument to measure is:
A. Test
B. Content
C. Assessment
D. Evaluation
154. Measurement is the:

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A. Qualitative value
B. Value judgement
C. Numerical value
D. None of these
155. Evaluation is:
A. Numerical value
B. Value judgement
C. Qualitative value
D. None of these
156. The scores of student in a paper is:
A. Test
B. Measurement
C. Evaluation
D. All of the above
157. A test answer the question:
A. How well

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B. How much
C. How good
D. None of the above
158. Measurement answers the question:
A. How well
B. How much
C. How good
D. None of these
159. Evaluation answers the question:
A. How well
B. How much
C. How good
D. None of the above
160. A symbol indicating the performance of the student is:
A. Test
B. Grade
C. Report
D. Measurement

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161. Evaluation technique are selected on the basis of:

A. Usability
B. Reliability
C. Validity
D. Objectivity
162. CRT is clearly defined and delimited domain of:
A. Knowledge
B. Performance
C. Learning task
D. Evaluation

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