Model Examination
1. A voltmeter is used to find potential difference in any electrical circuit which of the statement
given below is true?
A. voltmeter is a high resistance instrument and is connected in series circuit
B. voltmeter is a low resistance instrument and is connected in series circuit
C. voltmeter is a high resistance instrument and is connected in parallel circuit
D. voltmeter is a low resistance instrument and is connected in series circuit
2. The amount of work done in joules, when one-unit electric charge moves from one point to
another point in an electric circuit is called:
A. electric current C. electric conductance
B. electric resistance D. potential difference
3. Three resistance of 30 ohm, 20 ohm and 10 ohm respectively connected in parallel. The
combined resistor will be;
A. Greater than 30 ohm C. Less than 10 ohm
B. Between 20 and 30 ohm D. Between 10 and 20 ohm
4. The circuit in which current has a complete path to flow is called ______ circuit.
A. Short B. Open C. Closed D. open loop
5. If the voltage-current characteristics is a straight line through the origin, then the element is
said to be;
A. Linear element C. Unilateral element
B. Non-linear element D. Bilateral element
6. Instantaneous voltage is the product of resistance and _____________ current in a resistive
circuit.
A. Instantaneous B. Average C. RMS D. Peak
7. Which one of the following is NOT needed for a complete circuit?
A. Conductor (wire) B. Power and ground C. Load D. Switch
8. What will result from adding resistor to a series circuit?
A. Total resistance of the circuit decrease
B. Same current flow through each resistor of the circuit
C. More current flow through the circuit
D. The same voltage drops across each resistor of the circuit
9. When transistors are used in digital circuits they usually operate in the
A. active region C. saturation and cut-off regions
B. breakdown region D. linear region
Page | 1
Model Examination
10. Testing a good diode with an ohmmeter should indicate
A. high resistance when forward or reverse biased
B. low resistance when forward or reverse biased
C. high resistance when reverse biased and low resistance when forward biased
D. high resistance when forward biased and low resistance when reverse biased
11. A transistor configuration with the lowest current gain
A. Common base C. Common collector
B. Common emitter D. Emitter follower
12. Silicon that has been doped with a trivalent impurity is called
A. N-type semiconductor C. Intrinsic semiconductor
B. P-type semiconductor D. Extrinsic semiconductor
13. When the emitter junction is forward biased while the collector junction is reverse biased the
transistor is at_______region.
A. Cut-off B. Saturation C. Active D. Breakdown
14. The peak inverse voltage (PIV) across a non-conducting diode in a bridge rectifier equals
approximately
A. Half the peak secondary voltage
B. Twice the peak secondary voltage
C. The peak value of the secondary voltage
D. Four times the peak value of the secondary voltage
15. A commonly used pentavalent material is
A. Arsenic B. Boron C. Gallium D. Neon
16. The temperature coefficient of resistance of a semiconductor is
A. Positive B. Negative C. Zero D. Infinity
17. Which of the following systems is time invariant?
A. y(t) = x(2t) + x(t) C. y(t) = -x(t) + x(1-t)
B. y(t) = x(t) + x(1-t) D. y(t) = x(t) + x(t-1)
18. Which of the following statement is a incorrect
A. A periodic signal is a power signal if its energy content per period is finite
B. The Sum of two continuous-time periodic signals may not be periodic
C. If the signal is a random signal whose values are specified for any given time
D. the product of an even signal and an odd signal is an odd signal
19. Form the following signal which of the following stable signal
Page | 2
Model Examination
A. y(t) = 2 log(x(t)) C. y(t) = cos(x(t))
B. y(t) = exp[2x(t)] D. y(t) = 5tx(t)
20. When considering two LTI systems with impulse response h1(t) and h2(t) and those are
connected in parallel then output is given by
A. y(t) = x(t)*[h1(t)+h2(t)] C. y(t) = x(t)*h1(t)*h2(t)
B. y(t) = x(t)+h1(t)+h2(t) D. y(t) = [x(t)+h1(t)]*h2(t)]
21. What is the Z-transform of y[n] = x[n+2]u[n]?
A. z2x(Z) - z2)x(0) - zx(1) C. z2x(Z) - z2)x(0) + zx(1)
B. z2x(Z) + z2x(0) - zx(1) D. z2x(Z) + z2x(0) + zx(1)
22. What is the Fourier transform of an exponential signal f(t) = [exp(-at)]u(t), a>0?
1 1 1 1
A. B. 𝑎−𝑗𝜔 C. D. −𝑎−𝑗𝜔
𝑎+𝑗𝜔 −𝑎+𝑗𝜔
23. The convolution of x(n) = {1,2,3,1} and h(n) = {1,2,1,-1}, origin at 2, is
A. {1,4,8,8,3,-2,-1}, origin at 4 C. {1,3,8,8,3,-2,-1}, origin at 4
B. {1,4,8,8,3,-2,1}, origin at 4 D. {1,4,8,3,-2,-1}, origin at 4
24. The Laplace transform and ROC of [exp(-at)]u(t), respectively, is
1 1
A. , 𝑅𝑒{𝑠} > −𝑎 C. 𝑠+𝑎 , 𝑅𝑒{𝑠} > 𝑎
𝑠−𝑎
1 1
B. , 𝑅𝑒{𝑠} > 𝑎 D. 𝑠+𝑎 , 𝑅𝑒{𝑠} > −𝑎
𝑠
25. A voltage source of 10 sin(100t) has an internal impedance of 4 + j3 (Ohm). What amount of
purely resistive load, in Ohm, should be connected for a maximum power to be extracted from
this source?
A. 3 B. 4 C. 5 D. 7
26. A series RL network has H(s) = 1/[s+3], the steady state value of a response for an excitation
of sin(2t) is
A. 1/8 B. 0 C. 8 D. ∞
1
( )(𝑠+4)
27. The initial value of a voltage with a transfer function 𝑠
is 3/4. The value of k is
𝑠+𝑘
A. 3/16 B. 16/3 C. 4 D. 1/4
28. Which of the following network functions is positive real?
(s+1)(s+2) (s−1)(s+2) 𝑠4 +𝑠2 +1 s−1
A. (𝑠2 +1)2
B. C. D. 𝑠2 −1
𝑠2 +1 (s+1)(s+2)(s+3)
29. If a network function contains only poles whose real parts are zero or negative, the network is
A. Always stable
B. Stable, if the 𝑗𝜔 axis poles are simple
Page | 3
Model Examination
C. Stable, if the 𝑗𝜔 axis poles are at most multiplicity 2
D. Always unstable
30. Which of the following is correct for a driving point functions?
A. The real parts of all poles must be negative
B. The real parts of all poles and zeros must be negative
C. The real parts of all poles and zeros must be negative or zero
D. The real parts of all zeros must be negative
𝑠2 +2𝑠+6
31. The driving point impedance of a network is 𝑍(𝑠) = . The number of energy storing
𝑠(𝑠+63
elements in the network is
A. 1 B. 2 C. 3 D. 4
32. Given the polynomials in s,
𝑃(𝑠) = 𝑠 4 + 𝑠 3 + 2𝑠 2 + 4𝑠 + 3 and
𝑄(𝑠) = 𝑠 4 + 2𝑠 3 + 𝑠
which of the following is trure?
A. Both P(s) and Q(s) are Hurwitz C. P(s) is Hurwitz but Q(s) is non-Hurwitz
B. Both P(s) and Q(s) are non-Hurwitz D. P(s) is non-Hurwitz but Q(s) is Hurwitz
33. Which of the following is a correct identifier in C++?
A. VAR_1234 B. $var_name C. 7VARNAME D. 7var_name
34. In C++ a name that is assigned by a user for a program element such as a variable, type, class,
function, or namespaces is called
A. Operators B. Identifiers C. Literals D. All of them
35. Which symbol is used for horizontal tab in C++?
A. /t B. \t C. \a D. \n
36. C++ is a
A. Case-sensitive language C. Only lowercase letter identifier
B. Case-insensitive language D. None of them
37. What is the correct syntax of for loop?
A. for(initialization;condition; increment/decrement)
B. for(increment/decrement; initialization; condition)
C. for(initialization, condition, increment/decrement
D. None of These
38. Can any function call itself?
Page | 4
Model Examination
A. Yes B. No C. Compilation Error D. Runtime Error
39. What is the value of a in below program?
int main()
{
int a, b=20;
a = 90/b;
return 0;
}
A. 4.5 B. 4.0 C. 4 D. Compilation Error
40. Find the output of below program?
int main()
{
int i = 0, x = 0;
do
{
if(i % 5 == 0)
{
cout<<x;
x++;
}
++i;
}while(i<10);
cout<<x;
return 0;
}
A. 01 B. 012 C. 0 D. 0123
41. ___________ is an OOP technique of wrapping the data and code together in a single
compartment.
A. Encapsulation B. Abstraction C. Composition D. Class
42. Which of the following is the correct method to create an array in java?
A. int[] arr = {1, 3, 5}; C. arr = new int[] {3, 1, 8};
Page | 5
Model Examination
B. int[] arr; D. int arr[] = {1, 4, 6}; E. All of these
43. Method used to take a string as input in Java?
A. next() B. nextLine() C. Both A. and B. D. None of these
44. What could be the constructor for the program with class name “Selam”
A. public void Selam() C. shalom()
B. pubic Selam() D. public void Shallom()
45. Which of these is correct way of inheriting class A by class B?
A. class B + class A {} C. class B inherits class A {}
B. class B extends A {} D. class B extends class A {}
46. What is the output of the following code snippets?
for(int i = 0; i < 10; i++){
if(i % 2 == 0){
continue;
}
[Link](i);
A. Program will print all even numbers between 0 to 10
B. Program will print all odd numbers between 0 to 10
C. Program gives a compilation error
D. None of the above
47. A student has created a Cat class. The class contains variables to represent the following.
• A String variable called color to represent the color of the cat
• A String variable called breed to represent the breed of the cat
• An int variable called age to represent the age of the cat
The object myCat will be declared as type Cat. Which of the following descriptions is
accurate?
A. An attribute of breed is String.
B. color, breed, and age are instances of the Cat class.
C. Cat is an instance of the myCat lass.
D. Age is an attribute of the mycat object
48. Which polymorphism behavior do you see in below class?
class Paint {
Page | 6
Model Examination
// all methods have same name public
void Color(int x) {
}
public void Color(int x, int y) {
}
public void Color(int x, int y, int z) {
}
}
A. Method overloading C. Method overriding
B. Constructor overloading D. Run time polymorphism
49. /2The output of an OR gate is not HIGH when
A. Any input is HIGH C. No inputs are HIGH
B. All inputs are HIGH D. One input is HIGH
50. The device used to convert a binary number to a 7-segment display format
A. Multiplexer B. Encoder C. Decoder D. Register
51. The decimal number -34 is expressed in the 2’s complement form as
A. 01011110 B. 10100010 C. 11011110 D. 01011101
52. Which one of the following is not a valid rule of Boolean algebra?
A. A + 1 = 1 B. A̅ = A C. A.A = A D. A+0 = A
53. The Boolean expression X = AB + CD represents
A. Two ORs ANDed together C. Two ANDs ORed together
B. a 4- input AND gate D. an exclusive- OR
54. A full adder is characterized by
A. Two inputs and two outputs C. Two inputs and three outputs
B. Three inputs and two outputs D. Two inputs and one output
55. If an S-R latch has a 1 on the S input and a 0 on the R input and then the S input goes to 0, the
latch will be
A. Set B. reset C. invalid D. clear
56. The purpose of the clock inputs to a flip-flop is to
A. Clear the device
B. Set the device
C. Always cause the output to change states
D. Cause the output to assume a stable dependent on the controlling (S-R, J-K, or D) inputs.
Page | 7
Model Examination
57. Which of the following is true about computer registers?
A. Controls the operation of the CPU and hence the computer
B. Performs the computer’s data processing functions
C. Provides storage internal to the CPU
D. Provides for communication among the control unit, ALU, and other components
58. From the design of Von-Neuman and his colleagues, which register is responsible to store the
instruction being executed?
A. Memory buffer register (MBR) C. Instruction register (IR)
B. Instruction buffer register (IBR) D. Program counter (PC)
59. Which of the following is correct about the memory system of a computer system?
A. Cache memory are found at the highest level (closest to the processor)
B. Cache memory can be found organized in different levels
C. Cache memory has a higher cost per bit than a main memory (RAM)
D. In choosing a memory type and structure, there is a trade-off between speed and cost of the
memory
60. Which of the following is FALSE about an Interrupt in a computer design?
A. It is an undesirable incident that makes a computer to stop working
B. An interrupt might be generated by a signal from a hardware device
C. An interrupt might be generated by a software program
D. In a x86 architecture to return from an interrupt, the interrupt service routine executes a
certain instruction
61. Which of the following is correct about the advantage that can be earned from using Reduced
Instruction Set Computer Architecture (RISC) and Complex Instruction Set Computer
Architecture (CISC)?
A. RISC architectures outperform a CISC architecture from multiple perspectives
B. Simpler compiler design is possible in RISC architectures than CISC architectures
C. Less memory space requirement is achieved in RISK architectures than CISC architectures
D. An ease to pipelining is better achieved by CISC architectures
62. Assume that a certain computer can perform a total of 250 distinct operations. An instruction
supports two register operands and an immediate operand. If the length of the instruction is 32
bits and the total number of registers to available are 65, what is the maximum number of bits
that can be available for immediate addressing?
A. 8 B. 9 C. 10 D. 12
Page | 8
Model Examination
63. Which of the following tasks is typically performed immediately after an instruction is
executed in a normal interrupt free mode?
A. The program counter (PC) is reset to 0
B. The instruction program (IR) is reset to 0
C. The opcode of the next instruction is loaded to register (IR)
D. The opcode of the next instruction is loaded to program counter (PC)
64. What is the sign-magnitude representation of -39 in an 8-bit sysetm?
A. 00100111 B. 10100111 C. 11011000 D. 11011001
65. An FM broadcast station is assigned a channel between 92.1MHz and 92.34MHz. If the
maximum modulating frequency is 15kHz, what is the maximum permissible value of the
deviation ratio?
A. 8 B. 15 C. 5 D. 7
66. A 1.2MHz radio transmitter is to be amplitude modulated by audio frequencies up to 9kHz.
What is the required bandwidth for the signal?
A. 9kHz B. 18kHz C. 1.2MHz D. 2MHz
67. A modulation scheme with a densely packed constellation diagram:
A. is energy efficient C. is power efficient
B. has high probability of error D. has low probability of error
68. Consider an analog information signal, s(t) = 3cos(50πt)+10sin(300πt)–cos(100πt). The
recommended sampling frequency for reconstructing s(t) without significant distortion is
A. 50Hz B. 150Hz C. 300Hz D. 1kHz
69. Digital modulation techniques possess the following desirable features except
A. Maximum utilization of available channel bandwidth
B. Minimum transmitted power and maximum data rate
C. Minimum resistance to interfering signals
D. Minimum system complexity
70. In television broadcasting, there three different signals are present. Among the following
statements which one is not true about modulation and the corresponding signal?
A. Vestigial sideband VSB-AM for transmission of a TV video signal
B. FM for the sound signal associated with video signals
C. AM for the transmission of colour information along with video and sound signals
D. AM (SSB) for transmission of a TV video signal
Page | 9
Model Examination
71. An AM radio transmitter gives a power output of 5 kW when modulated to a depth of 95%. If
after modulation by a speech signal which produces an average modulation index of just 20%,
the carrier and one sideband are suppressed. Determine the average power in remaining single-
sideband signal.
A. 34.5W B. 69W C. 4.5W D. 5Kw
72. The effect of keeping modulating frequency constant and increasing frequency deviation on
the resulting FM wave is
A. increase in the modulation index but not bandwidth and side band components
B. increase in the modulation index, bandwidth and side band components.
C. increase in bandwidth but not the modulation index and side band components
D. increase in modulation index and bandwidth, but not the side band components
73. The superior performance of FM compared to AM in the presence of noise is due to
A. constant amplitude in the modulated signal
B. modulation index of FM can be larger than unity
C. Frequency dependent effect of noise in case of FM
D. none of the above
74. A stepper motor may be considered as a _______ converter.
A. DC to DC B. AC to AC C. DC to AC D. Digital-to-Analog
75. Which of the following motor would suit applications where constant speed is essential to
ensure a consistent product?
A. Brushless dc motor C. Permanent-magnet synchronous motor
B. Disk motor D. Stepper motor
76. Which of the following motor runs from a low dc supply and has permanently magnetized
salient poles on its rotor?
A. Permanent-magnet DC motor C. Permanent-magnet synchronous motor
B. Disk DC. Motor D. Brushless DC motor
77. The most common two-phase ac servomotor differs from the standard ac induction motor
because it has
A. Higher rotor resistance C. Motor stator windings
B. Higher power rating D. Greater inertia
78. A variable reluctance stepper motor is constructed of _______ material with salient poles.
A. Paramagnetic B. Ferromagnetic C. Diamagnetic D. Non-magnetic
Page | 10
Model Examination
79. Before removing the ammeter from a current transformer, its secondary must be short circuited
in order to avoid
A. Excessive heating of the core C. Increase in iron losses
B. High secondary e.m.f. D. All of the above
80. Statement 1. A direct-on-line (DOL) starter is used to start a small DC motor because;
Statement 2. It limits initial current drawn by the armature circuit.
A. Both statement 1 and 2 are incorrect C. Statement 1 is correct but 2 is wrong
B. Both statement 1 and 2 are correct D. Statement 2 is correct but 1 is wrong
81. A 220 V shunt motor develops a torque of 54 N-m at armature current of 10 A. The torque
produced when the armature current is 20 A, is
A. 54 N-m B. 81 N-m C. 108 N-m D. 9 N-m
82. Which of the material is used to insulate the segments of commutator?
A. Fiber glass B. Plastic C. Mica D. PVC
83. The system in which all the roots of the characteristics equation lie on the imaginary axis of
the s plane is_________________.
A. Unstable system C. Marginally stable system
B. Stable system D. Conditionally stable system
84. Which one of the following an example of open loop system.
A. Automatic electric iron C. Servo voltage stabilizer
B. Automatic washing machine D. An air conditioner
85. Find the range of the value of K so that system with the characteristic equation, 𝑀(𝑠) = 𝑠(𝑠 2 +
𝑠 + 1)(𝑠 + 4) + 𝐾 = 0, is stable?
A. 0>K>3.36 B. 0<K<3.36 C. K>3.36 D. K<3.36
86. A system with a unity gain margin and zero phase margin is___________
A. Sluggish B. Highly stable C. Oscillatory D. Relatively stable
87. An open loop transfer function with negative unity feedback is given as
𝐾(𝑠+2)
𝐺(𝑠) = (𝑠(𝑠+1)(𝑠+6)) the number of asymptotes will be
A. 3 B. 2 C. 4 D. 1
88. Which point on root locus specifies the meeting or collision of two poles?
A. Centroid B. Break away point C. Stability point D. Anti-break point
𝐾
89. If the system is specified by open loop transfer function 𝐺(𝑠)𝐻(𝑠) = (𝑠(𝑠+2)(𝑠+3)) how many
root loci proceed to end at infinity?
Page | 11
Model Examination
A. 3 B. 2 C. 5 D. 6
90. Consider the equation s3 + 3s2 + 5s + 2 = 0. How many roots are located in left half of s-plane?
A. Zero B. Two C. Four D. Three
91. For a critically damped system the closed loop poles are_______________.
A. Real, unequal and negative C. Real, equal and negative
B. Complex conjugate with negative real part D. Purely imaginary
92. In modeling of a medium transmission line, the model classification is done based on
A. Localized capacitance method C. Localized resistance method
B. Localized inductance method D. Localized capacitance & resistance method
93. The skin effect in a conductor results in
A. Increases in its DC resistance C. Increase in its AC resistance
B. Decrease in its AC resistance D. Increase in its DC resistance
94. Skin effect exists in
A. Cable carrying DC current C. AC transmission line only
B. DC transmission line only D. DC as well as AC transmission lines
95. Skin effect in a conductor becomes more prominent at
A. Higher frequency B. Lower frequency C. DC D. Stormy weather
96. Which mechanical component of a transmission line is responsible for keeping the conductors
at a suitable level above the ground?
A. Cross-arm B. Insulators C. Spacer D. Tower
97. For better performance in power, a transmission line conductor should have the property of:
A. Low electrical conductivity C. High cost
B. Low tensile strength D. Low specific gravity
98. The insulator type which is used at dead ends and on straight lines as a suspension type
insulator in power distribution systems is:
A. Stay insulator B. Pin insulator C. Strain insulator D. Shackle insulator
99. Suppose the rating of the power transmission line is to be increased due to high power demand
on the customer’s side. Which type of insulator can be used cost effectively to match the
increased power at the load side?
A. Pin type insulators C. Shackle insulators
B. Suspension type insulators D. Strain insulators
100. Which of the following statement is true regarding HVDC transmission line suspension type
insulators?
Page | 12
Model Examination
A. The voltage impressed on a string of suspension insulators does not distribute itself
uniformly across the individual discs.
B. The disc nearest to the conductor has the minimum voltage across it. As we move towards
the cross-arm, the voltage across each disc goes on increasing.
C. The unit nearest to the cross-arm is under maximum electrical stress and is likely to be
punctured.
D. Voltage across each unit would be the same.
Page | 13
Model Examination
Answer
1. D 37.A 73.A
2. D 38.A 74.D
3. C 39.C 75.C
4. C 40.B 76.A
5. A 41.A 77.A
6. A 42.E 78.B
7. D 43.C 79.D
8. B 44.B 80.C
9. C 45.C 81.C
10.C 46.B 82.C
11.A 47.D 83.C
12.B 48.A 84.B
13.C 49.C 85.B
14.C 50.C 86.C
15.A 51.C 87.B
16.B 52.B 88.B
17.D 53.C 89.A
18.C 54.B 90.D
19.C 55.A 91.B
20.A 56.D 92.A
21.A 57.C 93.C
22.A 58.C 94.C
23.A 59.A 95.A
24.D 60.A 96.D
25.C 61. B 97.D
26.B 62.C 98.C
27.B 63.C 99.B
28.C 64.B 100. D
29.B 65.C
30.C 66.B
31.B 67.B
32.C 68.C
33.D 69.C
34.B 70.D
35.B 71.A
36.A 72.B
Page | 14
