OBJECTIVE QUESTIONS

BOOKLET
CLASS 11
2025-26

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 Chapter 1: Basic Concepts of Chemistry
1. What is the mass of 1 molecule of CO₂?
a) 44 g b) 7.31 × 10⁻²³ g c) 44 u d) 44 kg
2. If the density of water is 1 g/mL, what is the volume occupied by one molecule of water?
a) 18 mL b) 2.99 × 10⁻²³ mL c) 3 × 10⁻²² mL d) 6.02 × 10²³ mL

3. The number of oxygen atoms in 1 g of CaCO₃ is:

a) 6.02 × 10²³ b) 1.806 × 10²² c) 3.01 × 10²² d) 6.02 × 10²¹
4. Which has the highest number of molecules?
a) 1 g CO₂ b) 1 g N₂ c) 1 g H₂ d) 1 g CH₄
5. The molarity of pure water (density = 1 g/mL) is:
a) 1 M b) 18 M c) 55.5 M d) 1000 M

6. If Avogadro’s number is changed from 6.022 × 10²³ to 6.022 × 10²⁰, what happens to the mass of 1
mole of carbon?
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains same d) Becomes 1000 times
7. The empirical formula of a compound is CH₂O, and its molecular mass is 180. The molecular
formula is:
a) C₆H₁₂O₆ b) C₃H₆O₃ c) C₄H₈O₄ d) C₂H₄O₂
8. The number of neutrons in 18 mL of water (density = 1 g/mL) is:
a) 6.02 × 10²³ b) 8 × 6.02 × 10²³ c) 10 × 6.02 × 10²³ d) 12 × 6.02 × 10²³

9. What is the percentage of nitrogen in urea (NH₂CONH₂)?

a) 23.3% b) 46.6% c) 42.4% d) 50%
10. The volume of 0.1 M HCl required to neutralize 1 g of CaCO₃ is:
a) 100 mL b) 200 mL c) 500 mL d) 1000 mL
11. If 1 L of O₂ at STP contains N molecules, how many molecules are present in 2 L of SO₂ at STP?
a) N b) 2N c) N/2 d) 4N

12. The mass of 1 atom of gold (Au = 197 u) is:

a) 197 g b) 3.27 × 10⁻²² g c) 6.02 × 10²³ g d) 197 × 10⁻²³ g
13. The number of electrons in 18 g of water is:
a) 6.02 × 10²³ b) 10 × 6.02 × 10²³ c) 8 × 6.02 × 10²³ d) 12 × 6.02 × 10²³
14. What is the mass of 1 mole of electrons?
a) 9.1 × 10⁻³¹ g b) 5.48 × 10⁻⁷ g c) 1.008 g d) 0.55 mg

15. The number of significant figures in 0.01020 is:

a) 3 b) 4 c) 5 d) 6
16. Which of the following has the highest mass?
a) 1 g atom of C b) 0.5 mol of CH₄
c) 10 mL of H₂O (density = 1 g/mL) d) 3.01 × 10²³ atoms of O
17. The empirical formula of glucose (C₆H₁₂O₆) is:
a) C₆H₁₂O₆ b) CH₂O c) C₃H₆O₃ d) C₂H₄O₂

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18. The molarity of a solution containing 4 g of NaOH in 500 mL is:
a) 0.1 M b) 0.2 M c) 0.5 M d) 1 M

19. The number of atoms in 4.25 g of NH₃ is:

a) 6.02 × 10²³ b) 4 × 6.02 × 10²³ c) 1.204 × 10²³ d) 2 × 6.02 × 10²³
20. The percentage composition of carbon in CH₄ is:
a) 25% b) 50% c) 75% d) 80%
Assertion-Reasoning (A/R) Questions
21. Assertion (A): The molar mass of CO₂ is 44 g/mol.
Reason (R): The molecular mass of CO₂ is 44 u.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
22. Assertion (A): 1 mole of different substances contains the same number of particles.
Reason (R): The mole is defined based on Avogadro’s number (6.022 × 10²³).
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
23. Assertion (A): The empirical formula of benzene (C₆H₆) is CH.
Reason (R): The empirical formula represents the simplest whole-number ratio of atoms.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
24. Assertion (A): The percentage composition of oxygen is highest in H₂O.
Reason (R): Water has a higher proportion of oxygen by mass compared to other compounds like
CO₂.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

25. Assertion (A): The number of significant figures in 0.0040 is two.

Reason (R): Leading zeros are not significant.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

Answer key

Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)

1 b) 7.31 × 10⁻²³ g
2 b) 2.99 × 10⁻²³ mL
3 b) 1.806 × 10²²
4 c) 1 g H₂
5 c) 55.5 M

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Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)
6 c) Remains same
7 a) C₆H₁₂O₆
8 b) 8 × 6.02 × 10²³
9 b) 46.6%
10 b) 200 mL
11 b) 2N
12 b) 3.27 × 10⁻²² g
13 b) 10 × 6.02 × 10²³
14 d) 0.55 mg
15 b) 4
16 b) 0.5 mol of CH₄
17 b) CH₂O
18 b) 0.2 M
19 a) 6.02 × 10²³
20 c) 75%

Assertion-Reasoning (A/R) Questions

Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)
21 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
22 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
23 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
24 c) A is true, but R is false.
25 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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 Chapter 2: Structure of Atom
1. Which of the following statements about cathode rays is correct?
a) They are electromagnetic waves
b) They are positively charged particles
c) They travel in straight lines in the absence of electric/magnetic fields
d) Their e/m ratio depends on the gas in the discharge tube
2. The ratio of the wavelengths of the last lines of the Balmer and Lyman series is:
a) 4:1 b) 2:1 c) 1:2 d) 1:4

3. An electron in a hydrogen atom jumps from the 3rd orbit to the 1st orbit. The emitted photon will
have energy (in eV):
a) 12.09 b) 10.2 c) 1.51 d) 13.6
4. The number of nodal planes in a d-orbital is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3
5. The orbital angular momentum of an electron in 4f orbital is:
a) b) c) d)

6. The correct set of quantum numbers for the unpaired electron in chlorine atom (Z=17) is:
a) b)
c) d)

7. The de Broglie wavelength of an electron accelerated by 100 V potential is approximately:

a) 1.23 Å b) 12.3 Å c) 0.123 Å d) 123 Å

8. Which of the following transitions in hydrogen spectrum has the shortest wavelength?
a) n=5 to n=2 b) n=4 to n=1 c) n=6 to n=3 d) n=3 to n=1
9. The maximum number of electrons that can have principal quantum number n=3 and spin quantum
number s=-1/2 is:
a) 9 b) 10 c) 14 d) 18
10. The ratio of radii of first orbits of He⁺ and Li²⁺ is:
a) 1:2 b) 2:1 c) 3:2 d) 2:3
11. The number of photons emitted per second by a 100 W sodium lamp (λ=589 nm) is approximately:

a) b) c) d)

12. The orbital with zero angular momentum is:

a) 2s b) 3p c) 3d d) 4f
13. The correct order of increasing energy of atomic orbitals is:
a) 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d b) 3s < 3p < 3d < 4s
c) 3s < 4s < 3p < 3d d) 3s < 3d < 4s < 3p
14. The maximum number of electrons in an atom with n=4 and m=0 is:
a) 4 b) 8 c) 12 d) 16
15. The ionization energy of hydrogen atom is 13.6 eV. The energy required to excite the electron
from n=1 to n=2 is:
a) 3.4 eV b) 10.2 eV c) 13.6 eV d) 1.89 eV

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16. The number of spherical nodes in 3p orbital is:
a) 0 b) 1 c) 2 d) 3

17. The ratio of the radii of the first three orbits in hydrogen atom is:
a) 1:2:3 b) 1:4:9 c) 1:8:27 d) 1:3:5
18. The electronic configuration of Cr (Z=24) is:
a) [Ar] 3d⁴4s² b) [Ar] 3d⁵4s¹ c) [Ar] 3d⁶ d) [Ar] 3d³4s²4p¹
19. The magnetic moment of an ion having 3 unpaired electrons is approximately (in BM):
a) 1.73 b) 2.83 c) 3.87 d) 4.90

20. The uncertainty in the position of an electron (mass=9.1×10⁻³¹ kg) moving with velocity 300 m/s
accurate to 0.001% is (h=6.63×10⁻³⁴ Js):
a) 1.93 × 10⁻² m b) 1.93 × 10⁻³ m c) 1.93 × 10⁻⁴ m d) 1.93 × 10⁻⁵ m
Assertion-Reasoning (A/R) Questions
21. Assertion (A): The energy of an electron in a hydrogen atom is negative.
Reason (R): The electron is bound to the nucleus by electrostatic attraction.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

22. Assertion (A): All d-orbitals have the same shape.

Reason (R): All d-orbitals have two nodal planes.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
23. Assertion (A): The spin quantum number distinguishes between the two electrons present in the
same orbital.
Reason (R): Pauli's exclusion principle states that no two electrons in an atom can have the same
set of four quantum numbers.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
24. Assertion (A): The Balmer series of hydrogen spectrum lies in the visible region.
Reason (R): Balmer series corresponds to transitions from higher energy levels to n=2.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
25. Assertion (A): The de Broglie wavelength of a moving particle is inversely proportional to its
momentum.
Reason (R): According to de Broglie's equation, λ = h/mv.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.

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Answer Key
Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)
1 c) They travel in straight lines in the absence of electric/magnetic fields
2 a) 4:1
3 a) 12.09 eV
4 c) 2
5 b) √12 h/2π
6 a) n=3, l=1, m=0, s=+1/2
7 a) 1.23 Å
8 b) n=4 to n=1
9 a) 9
10 c) 3:2
11 a) 3 × 10²⁰
12 a) 2s
13 a) 3s < 3p < 4s < 3d
14 c) 12
15 b) 10.2 eV
16 b) 1
17 b) 1:4:9
18 b) [Ar] 3d⁵4s¹
19 c) 3.87 BM
20 a) 1.93 × 10⁻² m

Assertion-Reasoning Answer Key

Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)
21 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
22 d) A is false, but R is true
23 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
24 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
25 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

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 Chapter 3: Classification of Elements and Periodicity in Properties
1. Which element has the highest electron gain enthalpy in the periodic table?
a) Fluorine b) Chlorine c) Oxygen d) Neon
2. The correct order of atomic radii is:
a) N < O < F b) F < O < N c) O < N < F d) F < N < O
3. Which of these elements shows maximum metallic character?
a) Al b) Si c) P d) S
4. The element with the highest ionization energy in the second period is:
a) Lithium b) Beryllium c) Nitrogen d) Neon
5. Which pair shows diagonal relationship?
a) Li-Mg b) Be-Al c) B-Si d) All of these
6. The most electronegative element of the third period is:
a) Sodium b) Aluminium c) Chlorine d) Argon
7. The correct order of increasing electron affinity is:
a) Cl < F < Br b) Br < Cl < F c) F < Cl < Br d) Br < F < Cl
8. Which element has the most negative electron gain enthalpy?
a) F b) Cl c) Br d) I
9. The oxide which is most acidic in nature is:
a) Na₂O b) MgO c) Al₂O₃ d) Cl₂O₇

10. The element with the highest melting point in the third period is:
a) Na b) Mg c) Al d) Si
11. Which of these has the smallest size?
a) Na⁺ b) Mg²⁺ c) Al³⁺ d) Si⁴⁺
12. The element which shows both metallic and non-metallic properties is:
a) Boron b) Aluminium c) Gallium d) Indium

13. The correct order of ionic radii is:

a) F⁻ < O²⁻ < N³⁻ b) N³⁻ < O²⁻ < F⁻ c) O²⁻ < F⁻ < N³⁻ d) F⁻ < N³⁻ < O²⁻
14. Which element has the highest hydration enthalpy?
a) Li⁺ b) Na⁺ c) K⁺ d) Rb⁺
15. The element with the highest second ionization energy is:
a) Lithium b) Beryllium c) Boron d) Carbon

16. Which of these is an amphoteric oxide?

a) Na₂O b) MgO c) Al₂O₃ d) SiO₂
17. The element which forms the most stable hydride is:
a) Carbon b) Nitrogen c) Oxygen d) Fluorine
18. The correct order of electronegativity is:
a) C < N < O < F b) F < O < N < C c) N < C < O < F d) O < N < F < C
19. Which element has the highest electron affinity in Group 16?
a) O b) S c) Se d) Te

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20. The element which shows maximum number of oxidation states is:
a) Scandium b) Titanium c) Vanadium d) Manganese

Assertion-Reasoning (A/R) Questions

21. Assertion (A): Atomic radius decreases across a period.
Reason (R): Effective nuclear charge increases across a period.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
22. Assertion (A): Noble gases have the highest ionization energies in their periods.
Reason (R): Noble gases have stable electronic configurations.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
23. Assertion (A): Electron gain enthalpy of fluorine is less negative than chlorine.
Reason (R): Fluorine has small atomic size leading to electron-electron repulsion.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
24. Assertion (A): Metallic character increases down a group.
Reason (R): Ionization energy decreases down a group.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
25. Assertion (A): Diagonal relationship exists between Li and Mg.
Reason (R): They have similar charge/radius ratio.
a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
b) Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
c) A is true, but R is false.
d) A is false, but R is true.
Answer Key
Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)
1 b) Chlorine
2 b) F < O < N
3 a) Al
4 d) Neon
5 d) All of these
6 c) Chlorine
7 d) Br < F < Cl
8 b) Cl
9 d) Cl₂O₇
10 d) Si

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Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)
11 d) Si⁴⁺
12 a) Boron
13 a) F⁻ < O²⁻ < N³⁻
14 a) Li⁺
15 a) Lithium
16 c) Al₂O₃
17 b) Nitrogen
18 a) C < N < O < F
19 b) S
20 d) Manganese
Assertion-Reasoning Answer Key
Q.No. Correct Option (Letter + Answer)
21 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
22 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
23 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
24 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A
25 a) Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A

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 Chapter: 4 Chemical Bonding
1. Which type of bond is formed by the complete transfer of electrons?
a) Covalent bond b) Ionic bond c) Coordinate bond d) Hydrogen bond
2. The shape of a molecule with sp³ hybridization is:
a) Linear b) Trigonal planar c) Tetrahedral d) Octahedral
3. Which molecule has a linear shape?
a) H₂O b) CO₂ c) NH₃ d) CH₄
4. The bond angle in H₂O is approximately:
a) 180° b) 120° c) 109.5° d) 104.5°
5. Which of the following is a polar molecule?
a) CO₂ b) CCl₄ c) NH₃ d) BF₃
6. The octet rule is not followed in:
a) CO₂ b) PCl₅ c) NH₃ d) H₂O
7. Which hybrid orbital set is used by carbon in C₂H₄ (ethene)?
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d
8. The bond order of O₂ molecule is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
9. Which molecule has the highest dipole moment?
a) CO₂ b) HF c) CH₄ d) N₂
10. The strongest hydrogen bond is observed in:
a) H-F···H b) H-O···H c) H-N···H d) H-Cl···H
11. VSEPR theory explains:
a) Bond strength b) Molecular shape c) Bond length d) Bond energy
12. Which of the following has a coordinate bond?
a) NH₄⁺ b) O₂ c) NaCl d) H₂O
13. The hybridization of nitrogen in NH₃ is:
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d
14. The bond order of N₂ is:
a) 1 b) 2 c) 3 d) 0
15. Which molecule does not obey the octet rule?
a) CO₂ b) BF₃ c) NH₃ d) H₂O
16. The shape of PCl₅ is:
a) Trigonal bipyramidal b) Square planar
c) Tetrahedral d) Octahedral
17. Which bond is the shortest?
a) C-C (single bond) b) C=C (double bond)
c) C≡C (triple bond) d) All have equal length

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 18. The bond angle in NH₃ is:
a) 107° b) 109.5° c) 120° d) 180°

19. Which molecule has zero dipole moment?

a) H₂O b) NH₃ c) CO₂ d) HF
20. The hybridization of carbon in CO₂ is:
a) sp b) sp² c) sp³ d) sp³d
Directions: Choose the correct option:
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
21. Assertion (A): CO₂ is a linear molecule.
Reason (R): Carbon in CO₂ undergoes sp3 hybridization.

22. Assertion (A): NH₃ has a pyramidal shape.

Reason (R): Nitrogen in NH₃ has one lone pair of electrons.
23. Assertion (A): PCl₅ has trigonal bipyramidal geometry.
Reason (R): Phosphorus in PCl₅ undergoes sp³d hybridization.
24. Assertion (A): H₂O has a liner in shape.
Reason (R): Oxygen in H₂O has two lone pairs of electrons.

25. Assertion (A): Ionic compounds have high melting points.

Reason (R): Strong electrostatic forces hold ions together.

Answers
Q.No Correct Answer (Full Option)
1 b) Ionic bond
2 c) Tetrahedral
3 b) CO₂
4 d) 104.5°
5 c) NH₃
6 b) PCl₅
7 b) sp²
8 b) 2
9 b) HF
10 a) H-F···H
11 b) Molecular shape
12 a) NH₄⁺
13 c) sp³
14 c) 3
15 b) BF₃
16 a) Trigonal bipyramidal
17 c) C≡C (triple bond)
18 a) 107°

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Q.No Correct Answer (Full Option)
19 c) CO₂
20 a) sp
21 C
22 A
23 A
24 D
25 A

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 Chapter 5 Thermodynamics
1. Which law of thermodynamics introduces the concept of entropy?
a) Zeroth Law b) First Law c) Second Law d) Third Law
2. In an isothermal process, the internal energy of an ideal gas:
a) Increases b) Decreases c) Remains constant d) First increases then
decreases

3. The work done in an adiabatic process depends on:

a) Change in pressure b) Change in volume
c) Change in temperature d) All of the above

4. For a cyclic process, the change in internal energy (ΔU) is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Depends on the path
5. Which of the following is an extensive property?
a) Pressure b) Temperature c) Volume d) Density
6. A thermodynamical system is said to be in equilibrium if:
a) Only mechanical equilibrium is achieved
b) Only thermal equilibrium is achieved
c) Both mechanical and thermal equilibrium are achieved
d) None of the above
7. The heat capacity of a substance is given by:
a) b) c) d)

8. The efficiency of a Carnot engine depends on:

a) Working substance b) Temperatures of source and sink
c) Heat supplied d) All of the above
9. The work done by a system in an isochoric process is:
a) Zero b) Positive c) Negative d) Infinite
10. Which of the following is not a state function?
a) Internal energy b) Enthalpy c) Work d) Entropy

11. The relation is valid for:

a) Ideal gases b) Real gases c) Liquids d) Solids

12. In a free expansion of an ideal gas, the work done is:

a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Infinite
13. The enthalpy change (ΔH) for an exothermic reaction is:
a) Positive b) Negative c) Zero d) Cannot be determined
14. The entropy of the universe always:
a) Decreases b) Increases c) Remains constant d) First increases then
decreases

15. For an ideal gas, the molar heat capacity at constant pressure ( ) is always:
a) Less than b) Equal to c) Greater than d) None of these

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 16. The first law of thermodynamics is a restatement of:
a) Law of conservation of energy b) Law of conservation of mass
c) Law of entropy d) None of these
17. The work done in a reversible isothermal expansion of an ideal gas is given by:
a) b)
c) d)

18. The Gibbs free energy (G) is defined as:

a) b)
c) d)

19. A process in which no heat enters or leaves the system is called:

a) Isothermal b) Isobaric c) Adiabatic d) Isochoric
20. Which of the following processes is reversible?
a) Free expansion of a gas b) Melting of ice at 0°C and 1 atm
c) Dissolution of salt in water d) None of these
Directions: Choose the correct option:
A. Both Assertion (A) and Reason (R) are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
B. Both A and R are true, but R is not the correct explanation of A.
C. A is true, but R is false.
D. A is false, but R is true.
21. Assertion (A): The efficiency of a Carnot engine is always less than 100%.
Reason (R): Some heat is always lost to the sink in a heat engine.
22. Assertion (A): The enthalpy change (ΔH) for a reaction is equal to the heat absorbed at
constant pressure.
Reason (R): At constant pressure, .

23. Assertion (A): The internal energy of an ideal gas depends only on temperature.
Reason (R): In an ideal gas, intermolecular forces are negligible.
24. Assertion (A): Entropy of a perfect crystal at absolute zero is zero.
Reason (R): At 0 K, all molecular motions cease.
25. Assertion (A): In an adiabatic process, the work done is equal to the change in internal energy.
Reason (R): In an adiabatic process, no heat is exchanged ( ).

Answers
Q.No Correct Answer (Full Option)
1 c) Second Law
2 c) Remains constant
3 b) Change in volume
4 c) Zero
5 c) Volume
6 c) Both mechanical and thermal equilibrium are achieved
7 a) dQ/dT
8 b) Temperatures of source and sink
9 a) Zero

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Q.No Correct Answer (Full Option)
10 c) Work
11 a) Ideal gases
12 c) Zero
13 b) Negative
14 b) Increases
15 c) Greater than Cv
16 a) Law of conservation of energy
17 a) W = nRT ln(V₂/V₁)
18 a) G = H - TS
19 c) Adiabatic
20 b) Melting of ice at 0°C and 1 atm

Assertion-Reasoning Questions
Q.No Correct Answer
21 A
22 A
23 A
24 A
25 A

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 Chapter 6 Chemical Equilibrium
1. For the reaction , the equilibrium constant depends on:
(a) Total pressure (b) Catalyst
(c) Temperature (d) Initial concentrations of and

2. The pH of a 0.01 M NaOH solution is:

(a) 2 (b) 12 (c) 9 (d) 11

3. According to Le Chatelier’s principle, adding more to the equilibrium

will shift the equilibrium:
(a) Towards reactants (b) Towards products
(c) No effect (d) Depends on pressure

4. The solubility product ( ) of is . The solubility of in mol/L is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

5. For a weak acid HA, the degree of dissociation ( ) is related to its dissociation constant ( ) and
concentration ( ) as:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. The conjugate base of is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

7. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is . If the degree of dissociation

is , then in terms of and total pressure is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

8. The pH of a buffer solution containing and is given by:

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

9. The solubility of ( ) in 0.1 M NaF solution is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

10. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is related to as:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

11. Which of the following is a Lewis acid?

(a) (b) (c) (d)

12. The of acetic acid is 4.75. The pH of a 0.01 M acetic acid solution is approximately:
(a) 3.38 (b) 4.75 (c) 5.75 (d) 2.38

13. The equilibrium constant for the reaction is 50 at 25°C. The equilibrium
constant for is:
(a) 50 (b) 0.02 (c) 0.14 (d) 7.07

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14. The hydrolysis constant for a salt of weak acid and strong base is given by:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

15. The pH of a neutral water sample at 25°C is 7. If the temperature increases to 50°C, the pH will:
(a) Increase (b) Decrease (c) Remain 7 (d) First increase then
decrease

16. The solubility of in water is mol/L. Its is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

17. For the reaction , if the degree of dissociation is , then the total
number of moles at equilibrium is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

18. A buffer solution is prepared by mixing:

(a) Strong acid and its salt (b) Weak acid and its salt
(c) Strong base and its salt (d) Weak base and strong acid

19. The of is . Its solubility in 0.1 M is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

20. The of M HCl solution is:

(a) 8 (b) 6 (c) Between 6 and 7 (d) 7
Assertion-Reason (A-R) Type Questions
21. Assertion (A): The pH of a solution containing a weak acid and its conjugate base does not change
significantly on adding small amounts of acid or base.
Reason (R): The solution acts as a buffer.

22. Assertion (A): For the reaction , increasing pressure shifts the
equilibrium towards the product side.
Reason (R): The reaction proceeds in the direction where the number of moles of gas decreases.

23. Assertion (A): The solubility of decreases in the presence of NaCl.

Reason (R): Common ion effect suppresses the dissociation of .

24. Assertion (A): The value of the equilibrium constant ( ) changes with temperature.
Reason (R): Equilibrium constant is independent of concentration but depends on temperature.

25. Assertion (A): Aqueous solutions of are acidic.

Reason (R): ion undergoes hydrolysis to produce ions.

Answers Key
Question No. Correct Option
1. (c) Temperature
2. (b) 12
3. (b) Towards products
4. (b)
5.
(c)
6. (c)

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Question No. Correct Option
7.
(a)
8. (a)
9. (c)
10. (a)
11. (b)
12. (a) 3.38
13. (c) 0.14
14. (a)
15. (b) Decrease
16. (b)
17. (a)
18. (b) Weak acid and its salt
19. (b)
20. (c) Between 6 and 7
21. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
22. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
23. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
24. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.
25. Both A and R are true, and R is the correct explanation of A.

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 Chapter 7 Redox Reactions
1. In the reaction , the oxidizing agent is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

2. The oxidation number of sulfur in is:

(a) +2 (b) +4 (c) +6 (d) +5
3. Which of the following is a disproportionation reaction?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

4. The oxidation state of nitrogen in is:

(a) +1 (b) +3 (c) +5 (d) +7

5. In the reaction , the reducing agent is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

6. The oxidation number of chromium in is:

(a) +3 (b) +6 (c) +4 (d) +5
7. Which of the following reactions involves a change in oxidation state of nitrogen?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

8. The oxidation state of manganese in is:

(a) +2 (b) +4 (c) +6 (d) +7

9. Which of the following is not a redox reaction?

(a) (b)
(c) (d)

10. The oxidation number of oxygen in is:

(a) -2 (b) +2 (c) -1 (d) +1
11. In the reaction , the reducing agent is:
(a) (b) (c) (d)

12. The oxidation state of phosphorus in is:

(a) +3 (b) +5 (c) +1 (d) +7
13. Which of the following is an example of a redox reaction?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

14. The oxidation number of carbon in is:

(a) 0 (b) +2 (c) +4 (d) -4

15. In the reaction , the substance oxidized is:

(a) (b) (c) (d)

16. The oxidation state of chlorine in is:

(a) +1 (b) +3 (c) +5 (d) +7

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17. Which of the following is a redox reaction?
(a) (b)
(c) (d)

18. The oxidation number of sulfur in (peroxymonosulfuric acid) is:

(a) +2 (b) +4 (c) +6 (d) +8

19. In the reaction , the process occurring is:

(a) Oxidation (b) Reduction
(c) Disproportionation (d) Neutralization

20. The oxidation state of iron in is:

(a) +2 (b) +3 (c) +8/3 (d) +4
Assertion-Reason (A-R) Type Questions
21. Assertion (A): In the reaction , sodium is oxidized.
Reason (R): The oxidation number of sodium increases from 0 to +1.

22. Assertion (A): The reaction is a disproportionation reaction.

Reason (R): Oxygen undergoes both oxidation and reduction in the same reaction.
23. Assertion (A): In , chromium is in +6 oxidation state.
Reason (R): The algebraic sum of oxidation numbers of all atoms in a compound is zero.

24. Assertion (A): The oxidation number of oxygen in is +2.

Reason (R): Fluorine is more electronegative than oxygen.

25. Assertion (A): The reaction is a redox reaction.

Reason (R): Zinc is oxidized, and copper is reduced.

Answers Key
Question No. Correct Option
1 (a) Fe³⁺
2 (a) +2
3 (a) 2H₂O₂ → 2H₂O + O₂
4 (c) +5
5 (b) Br⁻
6 (b) +6
7 (c) 2NO + O₂ → 2NO₂
8 (d) +7
9 (b) CaCO₃ → CaO + CO₂
10 (b) +2
11 (a) Al
12 (b) +5
13 (c) Zn + 2HCl → ZnCl₂ + H₂
14 (a) 0
15 (b) HCl
16 (d) +7
17 (a) H₂ + Cl₂ → 2HCl

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Question No. Correct Option
18 (c) +6
19 (c) Disproportionation
20 (c) +8/3
21 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
22 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
23 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
24 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A
25 Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A

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 Chapter 8: Organic Chemistry -Some Basic Principles and techniques
1. Which of the following is the correct IUPAC name for the compound below?
CH₃-CH₂-CH(CH₃)-CH₂-CH₃
(a) 2-Methylpentane (b) 3-Methylpentane (c) Isohexane (d) n-Hexane
2. The hybridization of carbon in ethyne (C₂H₂) is:
(a) sp (b) sp² (c) sp³ (d) dsp²
3. Which of the following shows +I (inductive) effect?
(a) -NO₂ (b) -COOH (c) -CH₃ (d) -CN
4. The most stable carbocation among the following is:
(a) CH₃⁺ (b) (CH₃)₂CH⁺ (c) (CH₃)₃C⁺ (d) C₆H₅⁺
5. Which of the following is an electrophile?
(a) NH₃ (b) H₂O (c) BF₃ (d) OH⁻
6. The number of σ and π bonds in benzene (C₆H₆) are:
(a) 12 σ, 3 π (b) 6 σ, 6 π (c) 9 σ, 3 π (d) 3 σ, 12 π
7. Which of the following is a nucleophile?
(a) AlCl₃ (b) NO₂⁺ (c) CN⁻ (d) SO₃
8. The correct order of decreasing stability of carbocations is:
(a) 3° > 2° > 1° > CH₃⁺ (b) CH₃⁺ > 1° > 2° > 3°
(c) 2° > 3° > 1° > CH₃⁺ (d) 3° > 1° > 2° > CH₃⁺
9. The compound with the highest dipole moment is:
(a) CH₄ (b) CHCl₃ (c) CCl₄ (d) CH₂Cl₂
10. Hyperconjugation occurs in:
(a) Alkenes (b) Alkynes (c) Alkanes (d) Aromatic
compounds
11. Which of the following has the highest bond angle?
(a) H₂O (b) NH₃ (c) CH₄ (d) C₂H₂
12. The correct order of stability of free radicals is:
(a) 3° > 2° > 1° > CH₃• (b) CH₃• > 1° > 2° > 3°
(c) 2° > 3° > 1° > CH₃• (d) 1° > 2° > 3° > CH₃•
13. The number of structural isomers for C₄H₁₀O is:
(a) 4 (b) 5 (c) 6 (d) 7
14. Which of the following is not a resonance structure of CO₃²⁻?
(a) O=C–O⁻ (b) O⁻–C ≡O (c) O–C=O (d) O=C=O

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15. The major product of the reaction between propene and HBr in the presence of peroxide is:
(a) 1-Bromopropane (b) 2-Bromopropane
(c) 3-Bromopropane (d) No reaction
16. Which of the following statements about resonance is INCORRECT?

(a) Resonance structures differ only in the position of electrons

(b) The true structure is an average of all resonance forms
(c) Resonance increases the potential energy of the molecule
(d) All contributing structures must have the same number of unpaired electrons
17. The correct order of -I effect (electron withdrawing nature) is:
(a) -NO₂ > -CN > -COOH > -F (b) -F > -COOH > -CN > -NO₂

(c) -CN > -NO₂ > -COOH > -F (d) -NO₂ > -F > -CN > -COOH
18. In the reaction: CH₃-CH=CH₂ + HBr → ? The major product (following Markovnikov's rule) is:
(a) CH₃-CH₂-CH₂Br (b) CH₃-CHBr-CH₃
(c) CH₂Br-CH=CH₂ (d) CH₃-CH=CH-Br

19. Which of the following exhibits both +M (mesomeric) and -I effects?

(a) -OH (b) -NO₂ (c) -CH₃ (d) -Cl
20. The phenomenon where alkyl groups donate electron density through σ bonds is called:
(a) Inductive effect (b) Electromeric effect
(c) Hyperconjugation (d) Resonance effect
For Assertion-Reason questions (21-25), the answer codes are:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true

21. Assertion (A): Alkanes show chain isomerism.

Reason (R): Carbon can form straight or branched chains with single bonds.
22. Assertion (A): Benzene undergoes substitution reactions rather than addition.
Reason (R): Addition reactions would destroy benzene’s aromaticity.
23. Assertion (A): CH₃-CH=CH₂ shows resonance.
Reason (R): Double bonds in alkenes can delocalize electrons.
24. Assertion (A): Carbocations are electrophiles.
Reason (R): They have an empty p-orbital and seek electrons.
25. Assertion (A): The boiling point of ethanol is higher than dimethyl ether.
Reason (R): Ethanol forms intermolecular hydrogen bonds.
Answer Key

Question Correct Answer

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Question Correct Answer
1 (b) 3-Methylpentane
2 (a) sp
3 (c) -CH₃
4 (c) (CH₃)₃C⁺
5 (c) BF₃
6 (a) 12 σ, 3 π
7 (c) CN⁻
8 (a) 3° > 2° > 1° > CH₃⁺
9 (b) CHCl₃
10 (a) Alkenes
11 (d) C₂H₂
12 (a) 3° > 2° > 1° > CH₃•
13 (d) 7
14 (b) O⁻–C≡O
15 (a) 1-Bromopropane
16 (c) Resonance increases the potential energy of the molecule
17 (a) -NO₂ > -CN > -COOH > -F
18 (b) CH₃-CHBr-CH₃
19 (d) -Cl
20 (c) Hyperconjugation
21 (A-R) (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
22 (A-R) (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
23 (A-R) (d) A is false but R is true
24 (A-R) (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
25 (A-R) (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

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 Chapter 9-Hydrocarbons
1. The major product of ozonolysis of 2,3-dimethylbut-2-ene is:
(a) Acetone (b) Ethanal (c) Propanone + Ethanal (d) 2 moles of
Acetone
2. Which hydrocarbon does NOT decolorize bromine water?
(a) Cyclohexene (b) Benzene (c) But-1-yne (d) Propene
3. The compound that exhibits geometrical isomerism is:
(a) 2-Butene (b) Propyne (c) Cyclopentane (d) 1-Butene

4. In the combustion of alkanes, the product(s) formed is/are:

(a) CO₂ + H₂O (b) CO + H₂O (c) CO₂ + H₂ (d) Only CO₂
5. The reaction of benzene with CH₃Cl in presence of AlCl₃ is called:
(a) Nitration (b) Friedel-Crafts alkylation (c) Halogenation (d) Sulphonation
6. Which of the following is NOT a characteristic of aromatic compounds?
(a) Planarity (b) (4n+2) π-electrons
(c) Sp³ hybridized carbons (d) Resonance stabilization
7. The IUPAC name of the given compound is: CH₃-CH=CH-C≡CH
(a) Pent-3-en-1-yne (b) Pent-2-en-4-yne
(c) Pent-1-yn-3-ene (d) Pent-3-yn-1-ene
8. The catalyst used in Rosenmund reduction of acyl chloride to aldehyde is:
(a) Pd/BaSO₄ (b) Ni (c) Pt (d) FeCl₃
9. Which of the following will NOT react with NaNH₂?
(a) Ethyne (b) Ethene
(c) Propene (d) But-1-yne
10. The product of hydroboration-oxidation of propene is:
(a) Propan-1-ol (b) Propan-2-ol (c) Propane (d) Propanal
11. The number of possible alkynes with molecular formula C₅H₈ is:
(a) 2 (b) 3 (c) 4 (d) 5
12. Which reaction converts an alkyne to a trans-alkene?
(a) Lindlar’s catalyst + H₂ (b) Na/liquid NH₃
(c) BH₃ followed by H₂O₂ (d) Ozonolysis

13. The compound that gives a white precipitate with ammoniacal AgNO₃ is:
(a) But-1-ene (b) But-2-ene (c) But-1-yne (d) But-2-yne
14. The product of the reaction between toluene and Cl₂ in sunlight is:
(a) Benzyl chloride (b) o-Chlorotoluene (c) p-Chlorotoluene (d) Chlorobenzene
15. The intermediate formed during electrophilic substitution in benzene is:
(a) Carbanion (b) Carbocation (c) Free radical (d) Benzyne

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16. The major product of the reaction between but-2-ene and HBr is:
(a) 1-Bromobutane (b) 2-Bromobutane (c) 1,2-Dibromobutane (d) No
reaction
17. The hydrocarbon with the highest boiling point is:
(a) n-Pentane (b) Isobutane (c) Neopentane (d) n-
Hexane
18. The hybridization of carbon in the carbocation (CH₃)₃C⁺ is:
(a) sp (b) sp² (c) sp³ (d) dsp²
19. The reaction of benzene with HNO₃/H₂SO₄ gives:
(a) Nitrobenzene (b) Aniline (c) Benzoic acid (d) Phenol

20. Which of the following is NOT a product of petroleum refining?

(a) Gasoline (b) Kerosene (c) Coal gas (d) Diesel
Questions (21-25) For Assertion-Reason questions (21-25), the answer key is:
(a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
(b) Both A and R are true but R is not correct explanation of A
(c) A is true but R is false
(d) A is false but R is true
21. Assertion (A): Alkenes show cis-trans isomerism.
Reason (R): Rotation around C=C double bond is restricted.
22. Assertion (A): Benzene does not undergo addition reactions easily.
Reason (R): Addition reactions disrupt benzene’s aromaticity.
23. Assertion (A): Alkynes are more acidic than alkenes.
Reason (R): sp-hybridized carbon holds electrons closer to the nucleus.
24. Assertion (A): Methane is a greenhouse gas.
Reason (R): It absorbs infrared radiation.
25. Assertion (A): Cycloalkanes have higher boiling points than corresponding alkanes.
Reason (R): Cycloalkanes have more surface area for van der Waals forces.

Answer Key

Q.No Correct Answer

1 (d) 2 moles of Acetone
2 (b) Benzene
3 (a) 2-Butene
4 (a) CO₂ + H₂O
5 (b) Friedel-Crafts alkylation
6 (c) Sp³ hybridized carbons
7 (a) Pent-3-en-1-yne
8 (a) Pd/BaSO₄
9 (b) Ethene
10 (a) Propan-1-ol
11 (b) 3
12 (b) Na/liquid NH₃

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Q.No Correct Answer
13 (c) But-1-yne
14 (a) Benzyl chloride
15 (b) Carbocation
16 (b) 2-Bromobutane
17 (d) n-Hexane
18 (b) sp²
19 (a) Nitrobenzene
20 (c) Coal gas
21 (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
22 (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
23 (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
24 (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A
25 (a) Both A and R are true and R is correct explanation of A

Page 28 of 28