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 Problem 3. Let M be a metric space. A path γ in M is a continuous function
γ : [a, b] → M for some a, b ∈ R, a < b.
a) Give a path in R2 , γ : [0, 1] → R2 such that γ(0) = v ∈ R2 , γ(1) = w ∈ R2 , and
{γ(t) : t ∈ [0, 1]} is the line segment connecting v to w.
b) Give a formula for a path γ : [0, 2π] → R2 such that {γ(θ) : θ ∈ [0, 2π]} is the unit
circle.
Proof of part a). Let
γ(t) = (1 − t)v + tw
where we add using vector addition. If we let v = (v1 , v2 ) and w = (w1 , w2 ) for v1 , v2 , w1 , w2 ∈
R, we can also write γ(t) = (γ1 (t), γ2 (t)) ∈ R2 , where
γ1 (t) = (1 − t)v1 + tw1 ∈ R
γ2 (t) = (1 − t)v2 + tw2 ∈ R
We need to show
(1) γ(0) = v and γ(1) = w
(2) {γ(t) : t ∈ [0, 1]} is the line segment between v and w.
(3) γ is continuous
For (1), we can plug in 0 and 1 to see that
γ(0) = (1 − 0) · v + 0 · w = 1 · v = v
γ(1) = (1 − 1) · v + 1 · w = 0 · v + 1 · w = w
(2) follows because γ linearly interpolates between z and w. Lastly, γ is continuous because
its components are linear functions, which are always continuous, so (3) is satisfied.
□
Proof of part b). Let
γ(t) = (cos(θ), sin(θ))
which is continuous by continuity of sin and cos, and we can plug in 0 to see that
γ(0) = (cos(0), sin(0)) = (1, 0)
We can see that this γ traces out the unit circle starting from the point (1, 0) from the fact
that for all θ,
q √
ρ(0, γ(θ)) = cos2 (θ) + sin2 (θ) = 1 = 1
so that all for all θ, γ(θ) is in the unit circle. □
Problem 4. A metric space M is said to be pathwise connected if and only if given any
pair of points x, y ∈ M there is a path γ : [0, 1] → M such that γ(0) = x and γ(1) = y.
Prove that if M is pathwise connected, then it is connected.
Proof. Suppose for contradiction that M is not connected. Then we can write
M = O1 ∪ O2
1
where O1 ∩ O2 = ∅ and O1 , O2 are both nonempty and open in M . Then we can pick any
x ∈ O1 and y ∈ O2 . By pathwise connectedness of M , there exists a continuous function

γ : [0, 1] → M

such that γ(0) = x and γ(1) = y. Now we can consider the pre-images γ −1 (O1 ) and γ −1 (O2 ).
By continuity of γ, these are both open subsets of [0, 1].
Next, suppose t ∈ γ −1 (O1 ). Then γ(t) ∈ O1 , which implies γ(t) ∈ / O2 by the fact that
O1 ∩ O2 = ∅. But this means t ∈ / γ −1 (O2 ). Therefore, there exists no t that is both in
γ −1 (O1 ) and in γ −1 (O2 ), so they have empty intersection.
Finally, for all t ∈ [0, 1], γ(t) ∈ M = O1 ∪ O2 , so that t ∈ γ −1 (O1 ) or t ∈ γ −1 (O2 ). Thus
[0, 1] = γ −1 (O1 ) ∪ γ −1 (O2 ).
Therefore, we found two nonempty, disjoint, open sets whose union is equal to [0, 1], which
shows that [0, 1] is not connected. This is a contradiction to the fact that [0, 1] is connected.
By contradiction, we conclude that M must be connected if it is path connected.
□

Problem 5. Consider the differential equation f ′ (x) = f (x) with x ∈ [− 21 , 21 ] and the
initial condition f (0) = 1. Recall in order to prove that a solution exists and is unique on
some subinterval around x = 0, we defined an operator T (f )(x). What would T be in this
particular case? What would T (n) (0) = T ◦ T ◦ T ◦ ... ◦ T (0) (repeated n times) be? Does
T (n) (0) converge uniformly on |x| ≤ 21 to a solution? (Here 0 in T (n) (0) denotes the function
which is identically 0 in |x| ≤ 21 .)

Proof. In this case,

Z x Z x
T (f )(x) = y0 + f (t)dt = 1 + f (t)dt
x0 0

Now we can compute T (n) (0):

Z x
T (0) = 1 + 0dt = 1
0
Z x Z x
(2)
T (0) = T (T (0)) = 1 + T (0)dt = 1 1dt = 1 + x
0 0
Z x
(3) (2) 1
T (0) = T (T (1 + t)dt = 1 + t + t2
(0)) = 1 +
2
Z0 x  
1 1 1
T (4) (0) = T (T (3) (0)) = 1 + 1 + t + t2 dt = 1 + x + x2 + x3
0 2 2 6
..
.
n
1 1 1 X xk
T (n) (0) = 1 + x + x2 + x3 + ... + xn =
2! 3! n! k=0
k!

Notice that this is the n-th partial sum of the Taylor series for the function ex , so we claim
that it converges to the function ex uniformly on [− 12 , 12 ].
2
 P∞ xk
Suppose x ∈ [− 12 , 21 ]. Then we compute, using the fact from calculus that k=1 k! = ex ,
that
n ∞
(n) x
X xk X xk
|T (0)(x) − e | = −
k=0
k! k=0 k!
∞
X xk
=
k=n
k!
∞
X 1
≤
k=n
k!
P∞ 1
Thus, for every ϵ > 0 we just need to find n sufficiently large such that k=n k! < ϵ. Well,
2 1 1
for sufficiently large k, k! > k , so that k! < k2 , meaning for sufficiently large n,
∞ ∞
X 1 X 1
≤
k=n
k! k=n
k2
Because ∞ 1
and since k12 is always positive, it
P
k=1 k2 is a p-series with p > 1, it converges,
P∞ 1
converges absolutely, so by the comparison test, k=1 k! converges, i.e.
∞
X 1
→0
k=n
k!
as n → ∞. Then by the above
∞ ∞
(n) x
X 1 X 1
sup |T (0)(x) − e | ≤ =
x∈[− 12 , 21 ] k=n
k! k=n
k!
so by comparison again, T (n) (0) converges in the sup norm to ex , so the convergence is
uniform on [− 12 , 21 ].
Note that there are many ways to do this part of the problem - you can use many different
series convergence tests, just as long as you are proving uniform convergence in some way. □