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t LEGALEDGE TEST SERIES

I MOCK COMMON LAW ADMISSION TEST 20.25-26
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6 LEGALEDGE
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INSTRUCTIONS TO CANDIDATES
I
Duratlon of Test : 2 Hours (120 Mlnutes) Maximum Marks : 120
1 Separate carbonised Optical Mark Reader 10. Use BLACK/BLUE BALL POINT PEN onlyfor
(OMR) Response Sheet is supplied along with writing the roll No. and other details on OMR
this Questions Booklet and the carbon copy response Sheet.
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ln case of any discrepancy in the question
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I carefully. duly Signed by the invigilator, as the same has
Answer all questions. No clarification can be to be produced at the time of Admission.

t: sought on the Questions Paper

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The test Pap€r for Five Year integrated Law
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I' Programme is for 120 marks containing 120

multiple Choice Questions.
There will be Negative marking for multiple
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CONTENT OF QUESTION PAPER

Subject Q. No. Page No.

English Language 01-24 a

Current Affairs and General Knowledge 25-52 I

Legal Reasoning 5344 13
Logical Reasoning 85-108 21
Quantitative Techniques 109-120 28

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SE('TION-A : EN(;l,lSII LAN(;tlA(;E
Directions (Q.l{.24): Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.
Passage (Q.l-Q.6): Nestled amids the dense greenery of the Westem Ghats lies the quiet village of
Agasthyakoodam, shrouded in mist and legend. Accessible only by a winding footpath duough the forests, this
secluded haven is renowned for its diverse flora and faun4 some ofwhich are found nowhere else on Earth. It
is here, in this remote comer of Keral4 that the great botanist and explorer Dr. Vrkram Nair chose to retreat in
the 1960s, seeking both solitude and inspiration for his gtoundbreaking work on indigenous medicinal plants.
The Westem Ghats have always cast a spell on nature lovers and scholars alike, with their verdant hills, cascading
waterfalls, and ethereal serenity. For Dr. Nair, however, this region offered more than just a picturesque escape.
It was a living laboratory a repository of ancient knowledge presewed in the leaves, roots, and flowers of its
countless species. His fascination with traditional Ayurvedic practices and his quest to bridge ancient wisdom
with modem science drove him to set up a modest field station here, far removed from the bustling cities and
academic circles he once frequented.

Dr Nai/s days in Agasthyakoodam were anything but idyllic. The tropical monsoons, treacherous terrain, and
encounters with wildlife tested his resilience. Yet, he found solace in the rhythm ofnature - the rustle ofbamboo,
the murmur of streams, and the calls of exotic birds. This isolation not only fueled his scientific endeavors but
also allowed him to reflect deeply on the ecological consequences of rapid industrialization.

In his joumals, Nair often lamented the vanishing foress and the erosion of indigenous knowledge. He wrote of
his longing for a world u,here humanity lived in harmony with nature, and his work became a testament to this
vision. Much like the forest itself, his life in Agasthyakoodam was a testament to resilience, adaptation, and quiet
perseverance. The wildemess, with all its challenges, minored the fragility and strength ofthe ecosystems he so
passionately studied

While modemity continues to encroach upon the edges of these once-pristine landscapes, the legacy of Dr.
Mkram Nair and his solitary pursuit of knowledge endures, a poignant reminder of the profound insights that
can emerge from embracing the silence and wisdom of the natural world.
(fictional crcation inspircd by the style and smtcnrc of desciptive rcflective mrutives.)
In the passage, what primarily motivated Dr. Mkram Nair to retreat to Agasthyakoodam?
(a) To escape the chaos of city life.
(b) To study the region's flora and fauna for medicinal purposes.
(c) To establish a sanctuary for endangered species.
(d) To write about the local legends and my6s.
2 What does the passage suggest about the role ofAgasthyakoodam in Dr. Nails research?
(a) A remote location that hindered his work.
(b) A vibrant ecosystem that served as his field station.
(c) A serene spot drat distracted him from his studies.
(d) A tourist destination that inspired his writings.
How does the passage describe Dr. Nair's experience in the Westem Ghats?
(a) Completely harmonious and untroubled.
(b) Challenging but deeply tulfilling.
(c) Marked by frequent social interactions.
(d) Focused on building urban infrastructure.

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4 What does lhe term "living laboratory" in the passage most likely refer to?
(a) A place wtrere sciantific equipment was installed.
(b) A setting where nature itself was a source of study and discovery
(c) An advanced research facility in Agasthyakoodam.
(d) A place for testing new industrial processes.
5 How does the passage portray the Westem Ghats?
(a) As a dying ecosystem overwhelmed by industrialization.
(b) As a serene yet fragile hub ofbiodiversity.
(c) As a harsh and inhospitable wildemess.
(d) As an unimportant and overlooked region.
6 What is the main theme discussed in the passage?
(a) The conflia between modemity and traditional knowledge.
(b) The unimportance of ecological preservation.
(c) The necessity of industrial development in remote areas.
(d) The ease of adapting to life in the wildemess.
Pessege (Q.7-Q.12): In Anton ChekhoVs "Ward No. Six," the narrative transcends mere storytelling to engage
in a profound dialectic on the interplay between existential despair and institutional apathy. Dr Andrei Yefimich
Rabin, initially characterized by his eamest dedication, devohes into a paragon of existential ennui, epitomrzng
the moral vacuity that often pervades medical institutions. His philosophical rationalizations serve as a veneer,
obscuring the ethical malaise that underpins his indifference toward the asylum's inmates. Herein lies the crux
of Chekhov's critique: Rabin's retreat into intellectualism sigrifies a broader societal malaise, wherein the
individual succumbs to complacenry, anesthetizing their conscience against the suffering of others.
The juxtaposition of Rabin with Ivan Gromov, the imprisoned intellectual, illuminates the tension between
passive rationalization and active resistance. Gromov's derisive mockery of Rabin's stoicism serves as a stark
reminder ofthe inherent absurdity ofthe human condition; it beckons readers to confront the unsettling truth that
mere philosophical speculation often results in moral paralysis. As Rabin's disillusionment c"lminates in his
forced incarceration, Chekhov subverts the very structure ofthe asylum-a microcosm of smiety--by revealing
it as a crucible for existential awakening, a.lbeit through tragic irony.
The narrative encapsulates the paradox of institutional existence: a place ostensibly designed for care devolves
into a den of suffering. Chekhov deftly employs sensory details-the pervasive smell of smoked fish and the ill-
fitting garments-to evoke a visceral understanding ofRabin's degradation, underscoring the inescapable reality
of human suffering that transcends rational discourse. Thus, "Ward No. Six" becomes a philosophical meditation
on the consequences of detachment and the ugent necessity for empathy, urging readers to grapple with the
implications oftheir own moral indifference within the labyrinthine structures of societal autrority.
(Book of - Anlon Chekhovts 'Ward Na Six)
7 What is the central thesis ofthe passage?
(a) The futility of institutional reforms in alleviating human suff:ring.
(b) The conflict between philosophical detachment and moral responsibility.
(c) The inevitability ofhuman suffering in societal structrres.
(d) The imporance of intellectualism in confronting existential despair.
8 What does the author suqgest by the "microcosm of society" in fie passage?
(a) The asylum mirrors broader societal indifference to suffering.
(b) The asylum is a rmique institution disconnected from societal norms.
(c) The asylum demonstrates the success of institutions in offering care.
(d) The asytum symbolizes individual rebellion against societal norms.
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9 How does the passage portray Dr Rabin's reteat into intellectualism?
(a) As a method of coping with institutional challenges.
(b) As a sigrr of moral courage in the face of suffering.
(c) As an act of complacency that masks ethical indiference.
(d) As an intellectual triumph over societal norms.
10. Which ofthe following best describes the contrast between Rabin and Gromov?
(a) Rabin represents intellectual paralysis, while Gromov embodies active rebellion.
(b) Rabin symbolizes institutional success, while Gromov critiques it.
(c) Rabin is indifferent to human sulfering u,hile Gromov rationalizes it.
(d) Rabin's stoicism inspires Gromov's mockery ofphilosophy.
I l. What does the passage imply about Chekhov's critique of institutions?
(a) Institutions are inherently flawed but necessary.
(b) Institutions often prioritize care over suffering.
(c) Institutions create environments that perpetuate moral detachment.
(d) Institutions empower individuals to resist existential despair.
t2 What is the role ofsensory details in the narrative, as highlighted in the passage?
(a) They emphasize the futility of intellectualism in understanding human sufering.
(b) Ihey higNight dle physical suffering ofindividuals in the asylum.
(c) They demonstrate the asylum's effcienry in providing care.
(d) They are used to evoke empathy for Rabin's transformation.
Passage (Q.llQ.l8): Everything she needed was here, at Mstara, a secluded cabin on the edge of the valley.
Here, amidst the cedar forest and the u,hisper ofthe river far below, she had formd a world that demanded nothing
of her This was the life she had envisioned for years, a solitary existence wirere the weight of expectattons
dissolved like mist over the hills. On her first moming at Mstara" she had felt an overwtrelming sense of calm-
like finally reaching a harbor after a long and stormy voyage.
The postrnan arrived every few days, his arrival arurounced by the crunch of gravel under his wom boots. She
always greeted him with a polite no{ although she barely glanced at his sun-weathered face. Once his figure
had disappeared down the winding trail, she would close the wooden gate and retreat into her thoughts.
Sometimes she stood still among the fir trees, imagining herself as one of them-rooted, silen! unyielding.

Mstara's charm lay in its simplicity. The cabin was weathered and unassuming, with a slanted roof that barely
held off the rain. It had no grandeur to speak of-just a few bare essentials: a wood-buming stove, a faded
armchair, and windows that opened onto a breathtaking view ofthe valley below To the west, the dense forest
stretched endlessly, its shadows alive with rustling and fleeting glimpses ofwildlife. To the eas, the river curved
through the plains, shimmering under the sun like liquid silver.

Occasionally, a hawk would circte high above, its cry piercing the stillness. These moments reminded her that
life here was raw and unfiltered, govemed by nature's whims. And she relished this rawness. It was as though
she had peeled away the artifice ofthe world and stepped into something elemental and pure.

Outside, clusters of wildflowen-bi.ight puple and yellow---*wayed in the wind. A solitary oak tree, ancient
and gnarled stood watch over the clearing its branches creaking with age. The garden, if it could be called that,
was more wild than tended. She preferred it tha way. She fou,d comfort in its nntamed beauty, in the way it
mirrored her desire for freedom.
Mstara was not a place of stories or histories. It simply existed untouched by time. It was this timelessness that
drew her in, making her feel like she had stepped out ofthe world and into a sanctury where she could truly
breatre.
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13. \Vhat does the protagonist's preference for Mstara's simplicity suggest about her personality?
(a) She seeks constant social interaction and vibrant company.
(b) She values solitude and finds comfort in minimalism.
(c) She desires a luxurious and extravagant lifestyle.
(d) She enjoys the challenge of creating order from chaos.
14. What do you get to know about the protagonist's state of mind from her reaction toward the postman?
(a) She feels a strong connection to him and eagerly awaits his visits.
(b) She views his visits as an unnecessary intrusion into her solitude.
(c) She appreciates his presence but prefers to keep their interactron minimal.
(d) She finds his visits unsettling and intimidatrng.
15. What does the protagonist imagining herselfas a fir tree reveal about her mindset?
(a) She feels disconnected from the natural world and craves human connection.
(b) She admires the resilience and stillness of nature and wrshes to embody them.
(c) She struggles with a sense of inferiority and seeks validanon from her surroundings.
(d) She longs for the past and feels nostalgic about her prevrous life.
16. The description of the wrldflowers and untamed garden symbolizes the protagonist's:
(a) Frustration with the disorganization ofher surroundings.
(b) Desire for control over her environment.
(c) Acceptance of imperfection and love for untamed freedom.
(d) Detachment from beauty and indifference to nature.
17. Which ofthe following statements are true about the protagonist's overall experience at Mstara?
Statement I: She finds a sense ofpeace and fiifillment in the solitude ofMstara.
Statement II: She stmggles with the harshness and unpredrctabilrty of nature.
Statement III: She feels confined and longs for the vibrancy ofthe city.
(a) Statement I and II (b) Statement tr and III
(c) Only Statement I (d) Onlv Statement III
18. What role does nature play in the protagonist's life at Vtstara?
(a) It serves as a source ofchaos and unease.
(b) It provides her with solace, clarity, and a sense ofbelonging.
(c) It reminds her ofthe burdens of life she has left behind.
(d) It highlights her struggle to adapt to isolation and simplicity.
Passage (Q.19-Q.24): The world of literature is a rich tapestry ofstones, ideas, and philosophies that transcend
time and place. From the timeless epics of Homer's 1/iad and Odyssey to the introspective musings of Rumi's
poetry, literature has continually reflected the human condition. Ancient texts, such as The Epic of Gilgamesh,
offer a glimpse into the earliest cinlizations, grappling with themes of mortality, friendship, and the quest for
meaning. These foundational works laid the groundwork for storgelling traditions that have shaped cultures for
centudes.

ln the Renarssance penod, authors such as Dante Alighieri and Geo{ftey Chaucer revolutionized the art of
writing. Dante's Divine C'omedy delved into the realms of the afterlife, blending theology wrth personal
experience, while Chaucer's The ('anterbury lales captured the humor and humanity of medieval England.
Together, these works marked a tuming point in literature, emphasizrng individuality and the exploration ofthe
human spirit.

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The Enlightenment brought forward a new wave of thinkers and'writers. Figures like Voltaire and Mary
Wollstonecraft championed ideas of reason, equality, and progress. Wollstonecraft's seminal work, A Vittdication
of the Rights of Woman, remains a comerstone of feminist literature, chdlenging societal norms and a&ocating
for gender equality.
By the lgth century, literature entered an age of realism and introspection. Charles Dickens' novels, such as
Grcal Exryctations md Oliver ?lyisl, shed light on the struggles of the uban poor in industrialized England.
Simultaneously, Russian writers like I-eo Tolstoy and Fyodor Dostoevsky examined the complexities of human
morality and spiritual conflict in masterpieces like War and Peace and Cime od Punishment.

In the 20th century, literature expanded its horizons, embracing experimenal forms and diverse voices.
Modemist works like James Joyce's LtTysses and Mrginia Woolf s To the Lighthouse broke traditional narrative
structues, wiile post-colonial audrors such as Chinua Achebe and Gabriel Garcia M6rquez explored the
intersection of history culture, and idenlity in Things Fall AWt aldone Hutdred Years of Soliude, respectively.
Today, literature continues to wolve, reflecting dre complexities of a globalized world. Authors like
Chimamanda Ngozi Adichie and llaruki Murakami captivate readers with their ability to bridge cultures and
illuminate universal tnr6s. Literafi[e, in its myriad forms, remains a powerful force-shaping perceptions,
challenging ideologies, and celebrating the boundless creativity ofthe human mind.
[Extmcted, u,ith editi] and ,evisions, Jrom a cmfied pssage inspitzd by classic otd modem litemry tditions.l
19. Which ancient text is considered a formdational work that explores themes ofmortality, friendship, and the quest
for meaning?
(a) The Iliad (b) The Epic of Gilgamesh
(c) Dvine Comefr (d) The Cante6ury Tales
20. Which literary period is associated with works like Dante's Dvine Comedy and Chaucer's The Cutterbury
Tales?
(a) The Enlightenment @) The Renaissance
(c) The l9tr Centr:ry (d) The Modemist Era
21. Which Enlighte'nmemt writer is knowo for advocating gender equslity Grough 6eir seminal work?
(a) Voltaire (b) Mary Wollstonecraft
(c) Charles Dckens (d) Geoftey Chaucer
)'t Which Russian writers are highlighted in the passage for exploring human morality and spiritusl conflict?
(a) Fyodor Dostoernky and Leo Tolstoy
(b) Charles Dickens and James Joyce
(c) Chinua Achebe and Gabriel Garcia Marquez
(d) Dante Alighieri and Geoftey Chaucer
23. Idemtifi the modemist vorts memtioned in rhe passage that broke traditional narrative stuctures.
(a) Thines Fall Apart and One Hrndred Years of Solitude
(b) War and Peace and Crime and Pmishment
(c) lllysses and To the Lighthouse
(d) The Epic of Gilgamesh and The Iliad
24 What does the passage highlight as a continuing strength of literature in today's world?
(a) Ib focus on taditional narrative forms
O) Its ability to reflect the complexities ofa globalized uorld
(c) Its emphasis on the struggles ofthe industrial poor
(Q Its exchsive celebration of ancient srorytelling traditions

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SECTION -B : CIlRRENT AFFAIRS, TNCLL)DtNG GENER{L KNO\I,LEDG|
Directions (Q.25{.52): Read the information carefully and answer the quesrions.
Passage (Q.25-Q.30): Henley Passport Index, 2025
The global passport ranking system underscores the disparities in intemational travel freedom, reflecting the
broader diplomatic and economic dlmamics between nations. Passports play a critical role in facilitating mobility,
with stronger passports enabling greater global access and weaker ones often restricting opportunities. Nations
at the top ofthe list benefit from strong diplomatic relations and stable govemance, atlowing their citizens to
travel to numerous destinations visa-free. Conversely, countries at the lower end face challenges like political
instability, economic constraints, and strained intemational relations, *trich hinder their citizens' global mobility.
While many European and Asian countries lead the rankings, others continue to experience fluctuating positions
due to changing global travel policies and diplomatic engagements. A country's passport strength is often a
reflection of its intemational standing and efforts to foster cooperation on a global scale. For countries with lower
rankings, restricted travel access serves as a reminder of the importance of stability and stronger intemational
partnerships. Addressing underlying issues, such as economic development and diplomatic outreach, could pave
the way for improved mobility and better global integration.

The passport index is not just a measure of travel convenience but a broader indicator ofa nation's global
influence and its ability to provide opportunrties for its citizens to engage with the world. It emphasizes the need
for collaboration ald progress in intemational relations for mutual benefit.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://indianexpress.com

25. As per the Henley Passport tndex 2025, wtrat is India's current rank, marking a decline compared to its position
in 2024?
(a) 7l't (b) 85" (c) 80ft (d) 90,h

26 What is the basis for ranking passports in the Henley Passport Index 2025?
(a) The economic stability ofthe tssuing country
(b) The number ofdestinations their holders can travel to without a visa
(c) The global GDP contributron of the passport-issuing country
(d) The number of consulates and embassies established by the issuing counrry
27 As per the UK-based online platform "Compare the Market," wtrich country was listed as hawng one of the most
expensive passpoas in 2024?
(a) UAE (b) Hungary (c) Mexico (d) Monaco
28. From which organization does the Henley Passport Index source its data for ranking passports in 2025?
(a) United Nations World Tounsm Organization ([JNWTO)
(b) Intemational Air Transport Association (IATA)
(c) World Economic Forum (WEF)
(d) Intemational Civil Aviation Organization (ICAO)
29 Who is the CEO ofHenley & Partners, the firm that compiles and publishes the Henley Passport Index?
(a) Juerg Steffen
(b) John Henley
(c) Alex Vanuatu (d) Mark peterson
30. The UAE has made remarkable progress in global mobility rankings over the past decade, becoming the first
Arab state to enter the top I 0. As ofthe latest rankings, the UAE offers visa-free access to how many destinations
worldwide?
(a) l7s (b) l8s (c) le5 (d) l6s

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Passage (Q3l{36): l62nd Ilirtt Annivcrsery of Srvmi Vivckrnude
India celebrates January 12 as Ncional Youth Day, marking the birth anniversary of Swami Mvekananda, a
spiritual leader whose teachings continue to inspire the nation's youdr. Swami Vrvekananda bom in 1863 as
Naren&anath Datta, was a key figure in introducing Hindu philosophy to the global stage through his iconic
speech in Chicago. His vision of a strong and self-reliant India remains a guldinc light for the country's
development. Paying tribute to Swarni Vivekananda Prime Mnister Narendra Modi highlighted his enduring
influence on young minds. "An etemal inspiration for youdq he continues to igrite passion and purpose," the
Prime Minister shared emphasizing the govemment's commitment to fulfilling Vvekananda's vision of a
developed India

On this occasion, dre Prime Minister participated in the 'Vrksit Bharat Young Leaders Dialogue,' a program aimed
at empowering the youth. This initiative aligns with his call to engage one lakh politically rmaffiliated youth in
shaping the future of the nation. Through cultural performances,.competitions, and lhematic discussions led by
mentors and expers, yormg leaders are being equipped to conrribute to fie vision ofa developed India A merit-
based selection process brought together 3,000 dynamic voices from across the coutry for this dialogue. The
program not only showcased India's rich cultural heritage but also symbolized is modem advancements. It is a
step towards involving the youth in national progress, resonating with Swami Vrvekanurda's dream ofa strong
vibrant, and progressive India
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://www.indiatvnews.com

3l As per the National Youth Policy 2021, how is "youth" defined in India?
(a) Persons in the age grorp of 15-29.(b) Persons in the age group of 18-35.
(c) Persons in the age grorp of 15-24 (d) Persons in the age groq of 16-30.
32. What name did Swami Mvekananda use before adopting dre name 'Mvekananda' in 1893 Won the request of
Maharaja Ajit Singh of Khetri State?
(a) Paramananda (b) Narendra Nath (c) Ramakrishna (d) Sachid"n""d"
33 Which pathway to attaining moksha, as emphasized by Swami Mvekanand4 focuses on the pursuit ofknowledge
utd wisdorq alongside R4ia-yoga, Karma-yoga, and Bhakti-yoga?
(a) Jnana-yoga (b) Rqia-yoga (c) Karma-yoga (d) Bhahi-yoga
34 Which establishment, founded by Swami Vrvekananda in 1899, became his permanent abode and is associated
with his spiritual legacy?
(a) Ramakrishna Mssion (b) Vivekananda Rock Memorial
(c) Belur Math (d) Kanyakumari Ashram
35 Which of the following is NOT one of the five main focus areas outlined in the draft National Youth Policy
(NvP) 2024?
(a) Education (b) Youflr leadership (c) Social justice (d) Environmental conservation
36 Who referred to Swami Mvekananda as the "spiritual father of the modem nationalist movement" in Bengal?
(a) Mahatma Gandhi (b) Subash Chandra Bose
(c) Jawaharlal Nehru (d) Rabindranath Tagore
Passagc (Q37{.40): Emcrgcocy Declertd in Trinided end Tobago
Trinidad and Tobago recemdy declared a state of emergency following a surge in violent crimes that has alamed
the nation. With a populuion of 1.5 million, the country already has one of the highest murder rates in the
Caribbean, and the recent spike in violence has pushed the amual dea6 toll to 623, lhe highest since 2013. The
decision to declare an emergenry was driven by escalating gang violence, marked by rhe use of high-caliber
firearms in retaliatory atacks. The govemment has identified this trend as a sigrrificant ifueat to public safety.

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Acting Attome.y-General Stuart Young stated that tre measures are necessary to curt criminat activities and
prevent large-scale reprisals, which could further destabilize the regron.

Under emergency regulations, law enforcement agencies have been granted enhanced powers to search
individuals and premises without warrants, aiming to control the possession of illegal firearms and ammunition.
Additionally, a tribunal has been fomred to oversee the legal framework for detentions during this period. While
these measures are significant, public activities, including New Year's celebrations and the coutry's renowned
Camival, remain largely unaffected. The emergency declaration serves as a critical step to resore public order
and address the root causes ofviolence in the nation.

This is not the first time the country has taken such measures, with similar actions implemented in 20ll and
2014 to combat spikes in crime. The govemment's approach reflects the urgency of the situation and its
commitment to ensuring the safety and security of its citizens.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://indianexpress.com

37. Trinidad and Tobago holds the distinction ofbeing the first Caribbean country to adopt wtrich of the following
Indian digital platforms?
(a) Digilocker (b) Unified Payments Interface
(c) Bharar Interface for Money (d) Aadhaar
38. What is the capital city ofTrinidad and Tobago?
(a) Georgetown (b) Port ofSpain (c) Kingston (d) Bridgetown
39 In the context of India's engagement wilh CARICOIV! what does 'O' represent in the acronym CARICOM?
(a) Oceur Economy and Maritime Security
O) Outreach and Collaboration
(c) Orgmic Farming Initiatives
(d) Operational Excellence
40 Which of the following is NOT one of the four main pillars of CARICOMs integration?
(a) Emnomic Integration (b) Foreign Policy Coordination
(c) Environmental Sustainability (d) Human and Social Development
Passage (Q.41-Q.46): India's Metro Rail Network Surpesses l,fiD km, Becoming World's Third Largest
India's metro network stands as a qymbol ofprogress, transforming urban travel and enhancing the quality of life
for millions. What began as a modest vision decades ago has grown into a vast and efficient system, reshaping
how cities connect and thrive. The development of metro systems reflects India's commitment to modemizing
infrastructure and improving mobility. These systems are more than just a mode of transport; thery are lifelines
for urban centers, enabling faster, safer, and more rcliable travel. The continuous eryansion of metro networks
is a testament to India's drive toward innovation and sustainability in urban development. Beyond easing daily
commutes, metos play a sigrrificant role in shaping the future of cities. They reduce traffic congestion, lower
pollution levels, and create opportunities for economic growth. India s efforts in adopting advanced technologies,
such as automated trains and unique infrastructure designs, demonstrate its vision for a smarter, more connected
future.

This transformation is not only about numbers or achievements; it represents the spirit ofa nation striving for
progress. The metro network has become a reflection oflndia's determination to create inclusive and sustainable
urban spaces, ensuring that development benefits everyone. As India continues to expand its metro systems, it
paves the way for a brighter future, where innovation meets convenience, and modem cities become hubs of
opportunity and growth. This joumey oftransformation inspires notjust the nation but also the world.
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4t. As of January 2025, which country ranks second in the world in terms of the largest metro rail network, with
India securing the third position?
(a) China (b) United Kingdom
(c) United States (d) GermanY
42 tn which year did India's metro rail joumey begin with the initiation of the Kolkata Metro, marking the muntry's
firs urban rapid transit system?
(a) t975 (b) le84 (c) leeo (d) 2oo2

43. Who inaugurated India's modem metro system in Delhi in 2002, marking a sigrificant milestone in the country's
urban transit history?
(a) P. V. Narasimha Rao O) Jagmohan
(c) Pranab Mukherjee (d) Atal Bihari Vajpayee
44 As of2025, in how many states across India are metro services operational, making the network the third-largest
in dre world?
(a) e (b) t0 (c) ll (d) 12

45. India's first underwater metro service, part of the. East-Wes Meho Conidor project, will connect Howrah to
uihich of the following locations via Kolkata?
(a) Sealdah (b) Salt Lake (c) Esplanade (d) Pa* Strcet
46 Where was the first Vande Bharat train manufactured under the 'Make in India' programme?
(a) Bengaluru (b) Kolkata (c) Chennai (d) Mumbai

Pessage (Q.47-Q 52lz 24tn BIMSTEC Senior OIficials Meeting (SOM)

The 24th BIMSTEC Senior 0fficials' Meeting (SOM) marks another milestone in regional cooperation,
reflecting the organization's growing importance in South and Southeast Asia Held virtually, the meeting
brought together member states to review progress and deliberate on key areas of mllaboration. BMSTEC,
wtrich rmites countries across South and Southeast Asia" has made significant strides in recent years. With an
emphasis on sustainable development, enhanced connectivity, and security cooperation, the organization is
playing a pivotal role in addressing shared regional challenges. Discussions during the meeting highlighted
efforts to promote economic integration, cultural exchange, and innovative solutions for regional development.
The rrymming 6th BIMSTEC Summit stands as a testanent to the organization's commitment to fostering unity
and growth. Preparations are underway to finalize the agend4 focusing on strenglhening cooperation across
various sectors. Indi4 as an active participant, reaffrrmed its dedication to the BIMSTEC vision, emphasizing
initiatives that align wifr its broader strategic policies.

BIMSTEC's progress is underscored by is adoption of a formal charter and the establishment of specialized
mechanisms to address emerging challenges. Member states continue to work on finalizing trade frameworks
and enhancing infrastructure connectivity, aiming to boost intra-regional collaboration. As BIMSTEC moves
forward it represents abeacon ofregional solidarity, paving the way for a more connected and prosperous future.
With its emphasis on collective strengfi and innovation, the organization is poised to shape the narrative of
regional cooperation for years to come.
Extracted with edits and revisions from https://wwwaninews.in

47. Which BMSTEC member state initiated the proposal to create the BIMSTEC Enerry Centre to coordinate
enerry-related activities?
(a) Thailand (b) India (c) Bangladesh (d) Sri Lanka

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48. Whar is the significance of the BIMSTEC Maser Plan for Trans?ort Connectivity, adoped in 2022?
(a) It integrates member states'national transport policies into a rmified regional fruneurorl-
(b) Ir outlines the credion of a regional airline exclusively for BIMSTEC member states.
(c) It focuses solely on dweloping maritime trade routes within fhe Bay of Bengal.
(d) It establishes the blueprint for cross-border energy grid interconnection.
49. which of the following countries is Nor a member of BIMSTEC @ay of Bengal Initiuive for Multi-sectoral
Technical and Economic Cooperation)?
(a) I\thldives (b) Thailand (c) Bhutan (d) Sri Ianka
50. In which ofthe following year BIIVISTEC was established?
(a) lees O) leeT (c) 20oo (d) 2003
51. Which BIMSTEC document oudines the principles of cooperation and the legal framenork for its member
states?
(a) The Kdrmandu Declaration (b) The Bangkok Declaration
(c) The Dhaka Roadmap (d) The BIMSTEC Charter
52. Where is the BIMSTEC SecreAria located?
(a) Bangkok, Thailand (b) Yangon, Myanmar
(c) Dhaka, Bangladesh (d) New Delhi, India

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SECTION _ C: LEGAL REASO\I\G
Directions (Q.53Q.Ea): Read the comprehension carefully and answer the questions.
Pessege (Q.53Q.5t): CoULD TUD POSH Acr Appr,y ro poL[rcAL pARTrEs?
The Supreme Court recently heard a PIL on an issue stating whether the Sexual Harassment of Women at
Workplace (Prevention, Prohibition and Redressal) Act, 2013 (POSH Act), should apply to political parties.
The POSH Act requires both public and private workplaces to set up an Int€rnal Complaints Committee (ICC)
to hear complaints ofsexual harassment.

Wlo does the POSH Act apply to?

Section 3(1) ofthe POSH Act states that'T.Io woman shall be sutrjected to sexual harassment at any workplace".
This immediately tells us how the POSH Act will apply at the workplace, and only when the aggrieved party
is a woman.
-
The definition of"workplace" in the POSH Act is expansive. It includes organisationq institutions, and so on in
the public sector which are "establishe4 owne4 controlled or wholly or substantially financed by frmds provided
directly or indirectly by the appropriate Crovemment", as well as organisations in the private sector, hospitals,
nursing hor.nes, sports venues, houses, and even covers locations visited by an employee "during the course of
erpployment".
Before the current PIL was filed at the SC, a court has only ever addressed this question once when the Kerala
High Court decided the case ofCentre for Constitutional Righb Research and Advocacy v State of Kerala & Ors
where on the subject ofpolitical parties, the court held that there is no "employer-employee relationship with its
members" and political parties do not carry out "any private venture, rmdertaking enterprises, institution,
establishment, etc. in contemplation ofa 'workplace' (under the FOSH d.ct|'.

The issue with applying the POSH Act to political parties is defining the "worlelace," as many party workers
have little interaction with highJevel officials and often work in temporary, field-based roles without a fixed
workplace. If the court or ECI applies the Act, it will need to clari$ who the "employer" is, as they are
responsible for establishing an ICC to address harassment. ltrowever, lhe FOSH Act's definition of"uorkplace"
includes locations visited during the course of employment, which could ext€nd protectioDs to field worters.
The Act's broad definition of 'employee" also covers temporary, contrac! or volunteer *orkers, and party
hierarchies could help identi! the "ernployer."
[Extucre4 with edits and revisions from "Could the POSH Act apply to political parties?", by Ajoy Sinha
Karpuram, Damini Nath, The Indian Express I Explainedl.
53. Kavya, who worts as a res€8rch assistatrt for a promhent political party, is subjected to inappropriate comments
and unwelcome advances from a senior party leader. When she attempts lo r€port the behavior, she discovers
there is no formal intemal complaints mechanism within the party, leaving her feeling vulnerable and
unsupported. Kavya decides to ake a stand and files a fonnal complaint under the POSH Act,20l3, arguing that
political parties, as workplaces, fall within the purview ofthe law. Howeyer, the defense argued that they are not
a formal "workplace" as defined under the POSH Act. Decide, in accordance to Kerala High Court, whether
PoSH applies to political party or not
(a) The POSH Acl 2013 applies to Political Parties because the Act requires both public and private worlrylaces
to set up an Intemal Complaints Committee (ICC) to hear complaints of s€xual harassment.
(b) The POSH Act, 2013 do€s not apply to Political Padies because they are not a formal {workplace" as defined
under ttre POSH Act.
(c) The POSH Act, 2013 applies to Political Parties because political parties, as worlcplaces, fall within the
puwiew of the law.
(d) The POSH Act 2013 does not apply to Political Parties because there is no "employer-employee relationship
with its members" and are not a formal "workplace".
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54. what is the expansion of the rcrm PIL?
(a) Public Interest Litigation (b) Personal Interest Litigation
(c) Private Interest Law (d) Public Initiative Law
55. In which of the following situation, POSH Act will not apply?
(a) A marketing executive, Riya, working in a corporate office, faces repeated unwelcome advances from her
team leader. Despite her protests, he sends inappropriat€ messages after work hours.
(b) Dr. Anjali, a resident doctor, exp€riences verbal harassment and offensive jokes from a senior consultant
during her rounds in the hospital.
(c) Deepali, a nurse working in a hospital, starts receiving unsolicited inappropriarc messages from a stranger
on her social media account.
(d) Meera, a pmfessor assisting in a university research projecg is harassed by a professor who makes
unwelcome remarks about her appearance.

56. Ananya works as a senior designer at a privately owned design firm. One of the senior partners, Vilcam,
repeatedly makes unwanted advances towards her, sending inappropriate messages and making suggestive
comments during meetings. Ananya" feeling uncomfortable and unsafe, tries to avoid Vilram, but the harassment
continues, including after office hours when they meet at a company event. Ananya discovers that the company
does not have an Intemal Complaints Committee (ICC) in place. Ananya tries to address the issue informally
with the firm's HR departsnent, but they dismiss her concems. Finally, Ananya decides to file a suit against the
company for failing to comply with the FOSH Act's provisions. Decide uihether the company can be held liable
for failing to comply with the POSH Act's provisions or not.
(a) The company cur be held liable for failing to comply with the POSH Act's provisions because the company's
negligence in setting up an ICC, which is matrdated under thc Act.
ft) The company cannot be held liable for failing to comply wifi dre POSH Act's provisions because private
workplaces need not set up an Inrcrnal Complaints Commitrce (ICC).
(c) The company can be held liable for failing to comply with the PTOSH Act's provisions because the company
should conduct sensitization wortshops and implement proper grievance redressal mechanisms.
(d) The company camot be held liable for failing to comply with the POSH Act's provisions because the
company is too small to have an ICC.

57 . Which of the following statement cannot be inferred from the passage?

(a) The party hierarchy has no role in determining accountability for sexual harassment. If the law is applied,
the leadership who oversee workers in the field can't be held responsible for establi$ing an ICC or emuring
the implementation of the POSH Act's provisions.
ft) In traditional workplaces, the workplacc is well-defined (like an office or fsctory), but for political parties,
it's more complicated since uorkers operate in different locations.
(c) The Act's broad definition of "employee" also covers temporary, contract, or volunteer workers, and party
hierarchies could help identi! the "employer.
(d) All of the above.
58. Which ofthe following would not be considered a "workplace" as per the definitions provided under POSH Act?
(a) Maya works as a clerk in a goyernment departnent During an official training session at a govemment-
financed conference center, a senior officer makes inappropriate commenB and touches her uncomfortably.
(b) Aditi, a project manager at a tech company, attends a wedding rcception of a family friend. During the event,
one ofthe other guesB, who works at a different company, makes inappropriat€ comments towards her.
(c) Sunita is a sales executive for a bwerage company. While on an official visit to a client's factory, a client
representative harasses her by making lewd jokes.
(d) Dr. Sneha is a surgeon at a private hospital. During her duty hours in the operation theater, a male colleague
makes unwelcome remarks about her appearance.
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Passage (Q.59-Q.64): The Supreme Court on Wednesday (January l5) criticised the Enforcement Directorrte
for rrguing that the rigorous bail conditions in money laundering cases will apply to women even though the
Prevention of Money Laundering Act, 2002 (PMLA), provides an exception to this bail standard.
A bench of Justices Abhay S Oka and Augustine George Masih was hearing the case of Shashi Bala, a
government school teacher who has been accused of aiding the Shine City Group of Companies in a money
laundering scam.
"We will not tolerate conduct on the part of Union oflndia to make submissions contrary to statute," a bench of
Justice A S Oka and Ujjal Bhuyan said while hearing the bail plea. The court proceeded to grant bail in the
matter.

Section 45 of the PMLA provides for bail on money laundering charges. This provision in the law, like the
stringent bail standard in the Unlawful Activities @revention) Acq 1967 (UAPA), puts the onus on the accused
to prove that there is no prima facie case against them wtr116 ss€king bail.
Section 45(l) reads: "No person accused of an offence under this Act shall be released on bail or on his own
bond unless (i) the Public Prosecutor has been given an opportunity to oppose the application for such release;
and (ii) where the Public Prosecutor opposes the applicatio4 the Court is satisfied that there are reasonable
grounds for believing that he is not guilty ofsuch offence and that he is not likely to commit any offence while
on bail."

However, there is a crucial exception to fie bail standard. "Provided that a person" who is under the age ofsixteen
years or is a woman or is sick or infirm, may be released on bail, if the Special Court so direcB," the law says.
This exception is similar to exemptions under the Indian Penal Code for women and minors.

59. Which of the following statements best erylains the Supreme Court's criticism of the Enforcement Directorate?
(a) The Enforcement Dfuectorate misapplied the bail conditions in a case.
(b) The Enforcement Directorate argued against granting bail to minors.
(c) The Enforcement Dircctorate failed to oppose a bail application.
(d) The Enforcement Directorate argued contary to the provisions ofthe Constitution.
60. Under Section 45( l) of the PMLA, which of the following conditions must the Court be satisfied before granting
bail to an accused person?
(a) The accused must prove that they are innocent beyond a reasonable doubt.
(b) The Court must believe the accused is trot guilty and will not re-offend while on bail.
(c) The accused must prove their sickness or infirrnity.
(d) The Coun must reject any opposition from the Public Prosccutor.
6I . What is the primary exception to the stringent bail conditions under Section 45 of the PMLA?
(a) Bail can be granted ifthe Public Prosecutor oonsents to the application.
(b) Women, minors, and individuals who are sick or infirm may be granted bail if the Special Coun so dirccts.
(c) Only individuals under the age of 16 are exempt from stringent bail conditions.
(d) The exception applies only to persons who have no prior criminal record.
62. In the context of the passage, how does the bail standard under the PMLA compare to the Unlawfirl Activities
(Prevention) Act (UAPA)?
(a) Both Acts place the burdm ofproofon the Public Pros€cutor.
(b) Both AcS impose saingent bail conditions requiring the accuscd to prove innocence.
(c) Only the PMLA includes exceptions for women and minors.
(d) The PMLA is stricter than the UAPA in terms of bail conditions.

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63. Why did the Supreme Court grant bail to Shashi Bala in this case?
(a) She proved her innocence beyond a reasonable doubt.
(b) The evidence against her was found to be inadmissible
(c) The Public Prosecutor did not oppose the bail application.
(d) She fell under the exception provided for women under Section 45 ofthe PML(a)
U. What does the phrase "contrary to statute" in the passage irnply in legal terms?
(a) Actions that go beyond the Constitution.
(b) Conduct that disregards judicial precedent.
(c) Actions that are inconsistent with or violate the provisions of a law.
(d) Conduct that violates the rights ofan individual.
Pessage (Q.65-Q.69): The Indian Supreme Court is regarded as powerful due to its wide powers ofjudicial
review. It has three kinds ofjurisdictions original, appellate and advisory. While the President has the power
to seek an opinion fiom the top court und€r advisory jurisdiction, the court can hear appeals fiom lower courts
under appellate jurisdiction. Original jurisdiction, meanwhile, is the power of a court to hear and adjudicate
disputes fiom the beginning.
A citizen can approach the High Court or the Supreme Court under Article 226 and Article 32, respectively, in
case there is a violation of fundamental rights. A State can, meanwhile, invoke Article 13l to approach the
Supreme Court in case it feels that its legal rights are under threat or have been violated by another State or the
Central goYernment.
Under Article l3l, the dispute may be:
. between the Govemment of lndia and one or more States, or
. between the Government of India and any State or States on one side and one or more other States on the
other, or
. between two or more States.
Under Article l3l,
original jurisprudence doesn't extend to a dispute arising out of a treaty, agreement,
covenant, or engagement which continues to be in operation and excludes such jurisdiction. Also, the inclusion
of the phrase "subject to the provisions of this Constrtution" imphes that the exclusive original jurisdiction of
the SC is not applicable to cases where another body hasjurisdiction under other provisions ofthe Constitution
or that ofthe SC is excluded. Examples of this include Articles 262 (inter-State water disputes), 280 (matters
referred to Finance Commission) and 290 (adjustment ofcertain expenses and pensions between the Union and
the States).
(Source- Article I 3l and Centre-State disputes - The Hindu)

65. Which ofthe following jurisdictions allows the Supreme Court to hear disputes from the beginning?
(a) Advisory jurisdiction (b) Appellate jurisdiction
(c) Original jurisdiction (d) Concurrent jurisdiction
66- Ifa dispute arises between two States regarding the apportionment ofwater from a river, under which Article of
the Constitution would this matter be addressed?
(a) Article l3l (b) Article 262 (c) Article 280 (d) Article 226

67. Under Article 13l of the lndian Constitution, which of the following is excluded from the Supreme Court's
original jurisdiction?
(a) Disputes involving treaties, agreem€nts, or covenants in operation
(b) Disputes between two States regarding a border conflict
(c) Disputes between a State and the Union Govemment over legislative powers
(d) Both (b) and (c)

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68. A citizen believes their fundamental rights have been violated by the government. Which of the following legal
remedies is correct?
(a) The citizen must approach the High Court under Article 280.
(b) The citizen can approach either the High Court under Article 226 or the Supreme Court under Article 32.
(c) The citizen must directly approach the Supreme Court under Article 131.
(d) The citizen has no remedy unless permitted by the President under advisory jurisdiction.
69. Which ofthe following statements is true about the advisory jurisdiction ofthe Supreme Court?
(a) It allows the court to hear disputes from lower courts on appeal.
(b) It is invoked only when the Prime Minister seeks the opinion of the Supreme Court.
(c) It is exercised when the President seeks the court's opinion on a matter of law or fact.
(d) It is applicable ortly to inter-State water disputes.
P$srge (Q.70-Q.74)! Altemative Dispute Resolution (ADR) mechanistns, strch as aftihation, mediation, and
conciliation, ate typically used to tesolve civil disputes in an informal manner. Artitmtion refers to the resolution
of disputes between two or inore parties by a third party (the a$itrator) appoilted based on their knowledge in
a paticular field. Arbihation is a formal process, though less rigid thair litigation, and it results in a binding
decision. The Artitration and Conciliation Act, 1996, was enacted to give statutory recogtition to a6itratlon. In
2015, it was amended to impose I time limit of 12 months for completing arbitmtion pfoceedih$s and delivering
an award. It can also be challenged if the abovementioned time limit is not complied. Atbitratiotl is preferred in
commercial disputes, particularly intemational disputes.
Conciliation, on the other hand, is a voluntary process where a neutral third party assists the disputing parties in
reaching a settlement. Unlike arbitration, conciliation is non-binding, meaning the parties are free to accept or
reject the coneiliator's proposal. Conciliation is generally used in personal disputes, urd under Section 89 ofthe
Civil Procedure Code (CPC), 1908, courts can refer sub judice matters to conciliation with the consent of the
parties.
Mediation is another form of ADR where parties actively participate in rceolving thek dispute with the help of
a neutral mediator. Like conciliation, mediation is non-binding, and the focus is on fa€ilitating communication
between the parties to reach a tnuttial agrcerheht. Mediatioh rcceived statrltofy recoglition ih 1947 under the
Industtiai Disputes Act and is increasingly used in commercial disputes.

70. A famous jewellery brand, Star Gems, entered into a contrsct in the year 2016 with a renowned fashion house to
supply custom-desigtred necklaces for en upcoming fashion show. Due to unforeseen delays in production, Star
Gems was unable to deliver the products on time, leading to a dispute with the fashion house over breach of
contract. Both parties, unwilling to engsge in a lengthy coult battle, agreed to resolve the matter through
artitation. The ertiitretor was appoirited, arld a dechiotl lvas mdde after 16 mohths. Can Stat Getns challenge
the utilhal dward in cdutt?
(a) Yes, beca{se the award was delivered aftet the tinre lfu1l it of 12 hibnths.
(b) No, because arbiti[tibh is final and binding.
(c) Yes, because arbitration is not applicable in commercial disprrtes.
(d) No, because the delay was acceptable as the parties continued with stbi@tion.
71. A married couple, John and Emily, were going through a difficult petiod in theif rcldtionship and decided to
sepdrate. They wanted to avoid court proceedings and apptoached a prcfessiolr{l conciliatot to help them resolve
their issues amicably. Despite the conciliator's pfoposal, they could ttot teach s thutual ageerflent. Wliat can be
concluded about the outcome of their conciliation process?
(a) The proposal is binding, and they must follow it.
(b) The proposal is non-binding, and they are free to reject it.
(c) The court will enforce the conciliator's decision.
(d) They must approach arbitration for a final decision
Pe€,e 17 ol 32
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72 A software developm€nt company, TechBuild, and a marketing firm, GlobalAds, entered into a contract for the
desip ofa marketing platform. A dispute arose regarding the completion ofthe projec! and both parties decided
to refer the matter to mediation. After several sessions, a settlement was reached. However, TechBuild later
decided they were dissatisfied with the settlement and wanted to go to court for its re-evaluation. Can TechBuild
challenge tle mediated settlement?
(a) Yes, because mediation is binding, and the court can re-evaluate th€ matter.
(b) No, because once a settlement is reached in mediation, it is final.
(c) Yes, because mediation cannot be used in commercial disputes.
(d) Camot be decided.
73 A construction compani from Country A and a supplier from Coutry B were involved in a dispute regarding
the delivery of materials for a major international project. The contract stipulated that any disputes would be
resolved through ADR, but the parties were unsure which method to choose. Wlat would be the most appropriate
method based on the natue ofthe dispute and the passage?
(a) Conciliation, because it allows flexibility and non-binding proposals.
(b) Mediation, because it promotes discussion without binding decisions.
(c) Arbitration, because it involves parties from different counaies.
(d) Negotiation, because the parties need to reach a voluntary agreement.
74 A property dispute aros€ between two neighbors, Mr. Green and Mr. Blue, concerning the boundary line between
their properties. Mr. Green filed a case in court, but both parties agreed to an out-of-court settlement. The court
refened the matter to conciliation, and a settlement was proposed. However, Mr. Blue rejected the proposal. Can
the court force Mr. Blue to accept the conciliator,s proposal?
(a) Yes, because once referred to conciliation, the parties must accept the outcome.
(b) No, because conciliation is voluntary, and the proposal is non-binding.
(c) Yes, because conciliation is legally binding in property disputes.
(d) No, because the court should have referred the case to arbitration.
Passegc (Q.7$Q.79): Res judicete is a Latin term meaning "a matter adjudged." It refers to a legal principle
that prevents the same case from being tried again once a decision has been made by a competent court. In other
words' ifa court has already decided on a matter, the same parties cannot bring a lawsuit on that matter again.
This principle promotes justice by ensuring that legal issues are settled conclusively and do not waste judicial
resources. Res judicata applies to both civil and criminal cases, meaning that no cas€, which has already been
tried either directly or indirectly in a previous suit, can be retried.
The doctrine ofres judicrtr is designed to uphold the integrity of the legal system by preventing unnecessary
retrials. It applies when a litigant tries to bring a new lawsuit on the same issue after receiving a judgrnent in a
previous case involving the same parties. This also covers claims that could have been raised in the earlier suit
but were not. Similarly, the double ieoperdy principle, protects individuals from being tried twice for the same
offense. Both doctrines aim to safeguard against unnecessary and repetitive trials. Scctior ll
of the Civil
Procedure Code incorporates this doctrine, often referred to as the "rule of conclusiveness ofjudpent."
Additionally, the doctrines of res Judicrtl and res sub judtce differ in certain aspects. Res sub judice refers to
matters that are currently under trial, whereas res judicata deals with maners that have already been a judicated
or arbitrated. While res sub judice prevents the trial of a matter that is still pending res judicata prohibits the
trial of a matter that has aheady been decided.

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75 Which ofthe following statements is incorrec! given your understanding ofthe aforementioned passage?
(a) Res judicata prevents the trial of matters that have already been decided in a previous case involving the
same parties.
(b) The principle of res judicata applies to both civil and criminal cases and prevents redundant lawsuits.
(c) Res judicata and res sub judice both r€late to cases that are under trial.
(d) The doctrine of res judicata is designed to prevent abuse of the legal system by avoiding repeated lawsuits
on the same issue.

76 A person, P, was accused ofdefrauding After an internal investigation, P

a company by misappropriating funds.
was terminated from his position. However, P claims that he cannot face trial again because he has already faced
punishment (termination). Is this claim valid?
ia) p's claim is valid, as the termination from the job is considered punishment and no further trial is required.
jeopardy does not apply in this context.
@) P's claim is invalid because the principle of double
(c) The claim is invalid because the termination does not qualifi as a legal punishment under the law.
(d) P's claim is valid as they cannot face a trial for the same offense twice.

77. Z and X had a contract in which Z agreed to provide services in exchange for payment. Z failed to provide the
services, and X sued Z in court. The court ruled in favor ofX. Z then decided to file a new lawsuit in a different
court, claiming that the first decision was unfair. What should Z expecfl
(a) Z has the right to file a new lawsuit in another court, as no final decision was made in the first case.
(b) Z's action is barred uader the principle ofres judicatr, as the matter has already been decided by the court.
previous court was biased.
ic1 z can file a o"w case in another court if they believe the
(d) Z is entitled to a fresh trial in another court since they are dissatisfied with the outcome.
L was charged with the criminal misappropriation of property offense. The
judge experienced a heart attack
78.
while the trial was still going on, and he passed away instantaneously. As a result, the case was dismissed' The
victim N brought a new lawsuit against L. L used the double jeopardy defence to avoid taking culpability, arguirg
that he could not undergo another trial. What do you think of L's claim?
(a) According to the principle of double jeopardy, no one may be punished Wice for the same offense; hence
L's claims are tue.
(b) The claims made by L are untrue since the circumstances ofthis case do not fall under the threshold ofdouble
jeopardy.
(c) Because the lawsuit is meant to be dismissed when a standing judge passes away, L's claims are true.
(d) Since N is free to file the complaint as many times as he wants, L's claims are unfounded. L ha-s no influence
over this.

79 X was charged with robbing his employer P's house. Upon discovering this, P lodged a complaint against him.
After a detailed investigation that substantiated P's claims, the court ruled in his favor. Now, P has filed another
complaint seeking higher punishment, as he was dissatisfied with the tenure ofpu:rishment the accused received.
Do you think P's request will be approved?
(a) p's request will not be approved, as the court has the authority to decide the tenure ofpunishment.
(b) p's request will be approved because the victim can appeal to the same High Court if they are dissatisfied
with the outcome
(c) p's request will not be approved, as he should have filed an appeal in a different High Court if he found the
decision ofone High Court unfair.
(d) p's request will not be approved because a new lawsuit cannot be filed against the same Pady in same matter
once a decision has been made.

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Pusege (Q.80-Q.E4): Copyrights are indeed one of the oldest forms of intellectual property which calls for
originality and creativity. Copy.rights will be protected whether the work is registered or not. Even when the
work is done by an anonymous or pseudonymous aftisq it is protected as copyrights. According to WIPO, a
copyright (or author's right) is a legal term used to describe the rights that creators have over their literary and
artistic works. Works covered by copyrights range from books, music, paintings, sculpture, &nd filrns to computer
programs, databases, advertisements, maps and tech.nical drawings. Copyright protection exists not only during
the lifetime of the author but also beyond it. WIPO's Beme Convenfion for protection of Literary and artistic
works which goes back to 1886 provides a time limit for copyright to subsist. It is 60 years after the death ofthe
creator and after the expiration ofthe period the work would fall in public domain. There are various dimensions
of the copyrighs: (a) Economic rights is a right in which author can authorize others to use a work in various
ways like distribution rights, broadcasting rights, adaptation rights etc. Creators arc usually interested in
commercializing their creations and they transfer these rights to professionally equipped entities which
commercialize these products efficiently and effectively. (b) Moral rights are integral to the creator that require
recognition and respect for the integrity ofhis work. The author who exercises these rights can choose to restrict
any mixing or modification of his right or even restrict sharing ofa work. (c) Neighbouring rights are the
rights
in which work done by certain persons or organization is being covered. While Copy.ights
frotict the work done
by authors, neighbouring rights protected the work done by all others associated with the work ofcreation.
(Source:htEs://www.legalserviceindia.com/legauarticle-247g-intellectual-property-rights-a-legal-
p€rspective.htrnl )
80 If a painter ip india, who used a pseudonym for their works, creates a painting in 2000, and the painter passes
away in 2020, when will the copyright of the painting expire according to Indian law?
(a) 2080 (b) 2085 (c) 2070 (d) 2060
81. Based on the pa*sage, which of the following statements is most likely true regarding moral righ6
under
copyright law?
(a) Moral righs can be transferred to others without the author's consent.
(b) Moral rights are primarily focused on the commercial use of the work.
(c) The author can restrict modific4tion or mixing oftheir wort under moral rights.
(d) Moral rights are automatically forfeircd once the creator's work is commercialized.
82 An artist creates a piece of music in 2005 and passes away in 2040. Can the artist's heirs sell the rights to the
music in the year 2 I 0 I , even though the copyright is no longer valid?
(a) No, because the copyright expired 20 yean after the artist's death.
(b) Yes, because the work will always remain under copyright.
(c) No, because the work would have entered the public domain.
(d) Yes, as the heirs hold the copyright for 100 years after the artist's death.
83 What can be infened about "neighboring rights" fiom the passage?
(a) They protect only the work ofthe creator and not the individuals associated with the creation.
(b) They extend protection to the work of people involvsd in the creation process, such as performers.
(c) They are only applicable to literary and artistic works, excluding music or films.
(d) They are more focused on the creator's economic righr than their moral rights.
84 A writer, who died in 1950, authored a novel that is now considered a classic. ln 2025, a publisher wishes to
produce a new edition ofthe book. what will the publisher need to do to use the work legally?
(a) The publisher does not need any permission as the work is in public domain.
(b) The publisher must pay a royalty to the writer's heirs until 2060.
(c) The publisher must obtain the original author's consent, as they are still alive.
(d) The publisher must only secure broadcasting rights to the work.
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SECTION D: LOGICAL REASONING
Directions (Q.t5Q.108): Read the passage carefully and answer the questiom'
passage (Q.85-Q.90): Cigarette manufacturers' substantial investment in advertising, despite suweys indicating
minimal brand-switching among smokers, presents an economic contmdrum. Surveys reveal that only l0 percent
of smokers switch brands annually, yet these companies allocate a significant l0 percent oftheir gross receipts
to advertising. This raises doubts about whether such expenditures provide proportional economic benefits.
Smokers rarely alter their brand choice, gurded by strong preferences or loyalty. This entrenched consumer
behavior suggests that advertising serves more to maintain brand visibility than to gain market share. If cigarette
companies ceased advertising altogether, the market dynamics would likely remain stable, as brand-switching
would still be rare, and consumer habits largely unchanged.

Redirecting advertising budgets could offer better financial outcomes. For instance, investing in supply chain
efficienry or other operational enhalcements might yield tangible cost savings. Companies could also explore
strategies to innovate products or streamline processes, resulting in improved profitability without the need for
heary promotional spending.
Critics argue that advertising sustains brand awareness and discourages new entranls. However, barriers like
strict regulations and high capital requirements alreqdy limit cqmpetition. Established brands, wrth their long-
sandinj marka presence, would likely retain recognition even in the absence of adver-tising campagns
In summary, the negligible impact of advertising on brand-switching suggests its economic redundanry for
cigarette companies. By reallocating advertising budgets, these firms could potentially achieve similar or better
financial results. The evidence challenges the necessity of such expenditures in a market defined by deeply
entrenched consumer loyalty.

85 Which of the following is the primary argument of lhe author?

(a) The awareness of the cigarette brands that their ma*et share will remain intact should force them to rethink
and redesign their investment strateges.
ft) Cigarette companies can drop advertisement without sufiering economically and can redirect advertisement
budge{s to achieve better financial results.
(c) The minimal impact of advertising on brand-switching demonstrates that smokers are highly influenced by
promotional campaigps.
(d) Advertisin8 plays a vrtal role in sustainrng brand awareness and preventing new competitors from entering
the cigarette market.

86. Which ofthe following cast mos doubt on the author's conclusion?
(a) Cigarette advertisements provide a major proportion of total advertising revenue for numerous magazines.
(b) There e;1ists no researrh conclusively demonstrating that increases in cigarette advertising are related to
increases in smokiJtg.
(c) Advertising is so firmly established as a mqjor business activity of cigarette manufacturers that they would
be unlikely to drop it.
(d) Cigarette promotion serves to attract first-time smokers to replace those pmple uiho have stopped smoking.
87 The argument of lhe author cannot be true unless which of the following is tnte?
(a) In markets with strict advertising bans, cigarette companies experience a significant decline in revenue due
to reduced visibility.
(b) Cigarette companies rely more on operational efficiency than advertising to maintain their market share.
(c) l07o smokers switching brands arurually do not contribute substantially to the revenue of cigarette
companies.
(d) Brand loyalty is typically not very strong among those wtro do not consume cigarettes, but consume alcohol
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88 Which ofthe following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?
(a) The majority ofsmokers display a strong loyalty to their preferred cigarette brands, limiting the effectiveness
of advertising in driving brand-switching.
(b) Cigarette companies allocate a higher percentage oftheir gross receipts to advertising than other consumer
goods industries.
(c) Regulatory barriers have little impact on competition in the cigarette industry compared to advertising
expenditures.
(d) Cigarette companies' substantial advertising budgets are necessary to retain their existing market share.
89 According to the passage, *{rat does the minimal brand-switching behavior of smokers suggest about the
economic utility of advertising for cigarette companies?
(a) Advertising is economically beneficial because it ensures that smokers remain loyal to their prefened
brands
despite market competition.
(b) Advertising is economically redundant because entrenched consumer loyalty limits its ability to
drive
signifi cant brand-switching.
(c) Advertising creates brand visibility, wtrich is essential for cigarette companies to sustain their
market
presence and long-term profi tability.
(d) Advertising is necessary for discouraging new entrants, even though it has little impact on influencing
smokers to switch brands.
90. Answer to which one of the following questions would be most usefrrl to know in order to evaluate
author,s
reasoning?
(a) Whether smokers who switch cigarette brand annually make the swrtch due to advertisement
by cigarette
company.
(b) Whether the financial performance of cigarette companies in markets wrth restricted advertising matches
that ofcompanies in markets with no restrictions.
(c) Whether cigarette companies' advertising budgets are larger or smaller compared to those ofother industries
with loyal customer bases.
(d) Whether consumers' entrenched loyalty to cigarette brands would decrease in the absence of vari
ety of
products.

Passage (Q.91-Q.96): Tax evasion is often viewed as a form of individual financial gain, allowing people
to
keep a larger share oftheir income by avoiding the payment oftaxes. However, the consequences ofwidespread
tax evasion go far beyond the individuals involved, creating significant ripple effects that impact the larger
economy. The practice of evading taxes may not only be unethical but can also set in motion a series
of
unintended urd damaging outcomes that worsen the problem over time.

At first glance, tax evasion might seem like a harmless act ofevading excessive govemment control or an unfairly
high tax burden. Many individuals feeljustified in hiding taxable income when they perceive the tax system as
inefficient or the govemment's use of frmds as wastefi:l. [n some instances, people argue that the tax system is
too complex or that the penalties for evasion are minimal compared to the potential savings, making it an
attractive option. For these individuals, tax evasion may appear to be a practical solution to an unfair system.

However, this view overlooks the broader impact of such behavior on the economy. As more people evade taxes,
the govemment's ability to collect the necessary revenue to fimd'public services diminishes. In response,
lawmalers often raise tax rates on those who continue to pay taxes-typically law-abiding citizens. This heavier
burden on compliant taxpayers can create a sense of injustice, leading some of them to consider evading taxes
themselves.

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rising rates, the
This rycle becomes self-perpetuating. As more individuals begin to evade taxes in response to
for the
overall tax base shrinks. In tum, lawmakers may feel the need to raise rates even higher to compensate
lost revenue, fi.uther burdening compliant taxpayers and increasing the temptation to evade taxes.
This cycle of
potentially
rising rates and increasing evasion can destabilize the tax systenl reducing its effectiveness and
harming the economy by discouraging legitimate economic activity'

Examples from hisbry show that countries with high levels of tax evasion often see negative economic
aon."qu"r,"".. For instance, nations that rely heavily on indirect taxation, such as value-added taxes' frequently
become more
face issues with compliance, which can lead to inefficient tax collection systems. As these systems
the problem.
burdensome, they may prompt even more citizens to avoid paying their fair share, exacerbating
lJltimately, while tax evasion may offer short-term gains to individuals, it can create a toxic cycle
that harms
oftax evasion, including
bofh the economy and the faimess ofthe tax system. Without addressing the root causes
grow, making the tax system
the perceptions of unfaimess and inefrcienry, these rycles will likely continue to
even more difficult to sustain.

91. The vicious rycle described above could not result rmless which ofthe following were true?
(a) No one who routinely hides some taxable income can hide income when tar( rates are increased by the
govemment.
pretax incomes.
(b) L increase in tax rates tends to fimction as an incentive for taxpayers to try to increase their
do not allow
1ci Wtren taw-4 ers establish income tax rates in order to generate a certain level of revenue, thery
adequately for revenue that will be lost through evasion.
(d) Taxpayers do not differ from each other with respect to the rate of taxation that will cause them to evade

taxes.

92 Which of the following most accuately expresses the main idea of the article?
(a) Higher taxes imposed to cormteract tax evasion ultimarely results in a worsened tax systerl harming the
cormtry's financial v$
,rr,r".r.f tax
(b) Higher taxes imposed to counteract necessa
frx evasion is a necessary response to mamtaln govemnrent spending,
which would not happen if people honesdy pard taxes.
(c) Tax evasion u ,ri"io* rycle in u,hich increasing tax rates lead to higher evasion, exacerbating the
problem and ".""t".
burdening law-abiding taxpayers.
'Imposition
(d) ofhigher taxation to counteract tax evasion would not be needed iftax rates were generally lower
than uihat they are.

93 what evidence does the passage provide to suggest that tax evasion negatively impacts compliant taxpayers?
(a) Tax evasion encourages lawmakers to increases taxes that are bomed equally by compliant and non-
compliant taxPaYers.
(b) Tax evasion creates a perception of widespread dishonesty, which erodes public truS in the faimess of the
tax system.
(c) Tax evasion leads to economic instability, indirectly affecting the purchasing power of all taxpayers,
including those uiho comply with tax laws.
(d) Tax evasion reduces the total tax revenue collected, rryhich forces lawmakers to increase tax rates' leading to
a heavier tax burden on compliant taxpayers.

94 EachofthefollowingalignswiththelineofreasoninginthepassageEXCEPT&at
(a) Increasing taxes becomes a necessity for the govemment when people evade taxes'
(b) Perception of an rmfair tax system influences taqayers' behavror'
(c) The long+erm sustainability of a tax system is heavily affected by tax evasion'
(d) Higher tax rates lead to increased tax evasion among taxpayers'

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95 Which ofthe following can be most reasonably inferred from the passage?
(a) If tax evasion were eliminated entirely, the need for raising income tax rates would not arise.
(b) Tax evasion occurs primarily because ta4)ayers lack undeistanding ofthe complexities of
the tax system-
(c) Lawmakers are unable to prevent tax evasion due to inadequate enforcement mechanisrns.
(d) Tax evasion contributes to a rycle that ultimately burdens compliant taxpayers with higher taxes.
96 Which ofthe following hypothetical scenarios is most closely aligned with the main idea stated in
the passage?
(a) A public transportation system raises fares to firnd other transpotation projects, leading passengers
avoiding
ticket payments which results in reduced revenues.
(b) A software company increases subscription fees to offset losses caused by users illegally sharing
accounts.
However, the higher fees lead to an increase in accormt-sharing worsening the company,s financial situation.
(c) A sheaming platform reduces prices to reduce pirary. The reduced pricei, however, did not reduce piracy,
further reducing the plaform's revenue.
(d) A fitness club raises membership fees to compensate for losses due to a high dropout rate among
members.
The increased fees lead even more members to cancel their memberships, exacerlating the financial
strain.
Passage (Q.97-Q.102): At the inauguration of the l8th edition of the Pravasi Bharatiya
Divas @BD) Iast week,
Prime Minister Narendra Modi described the Indian diaspora as India's "ambassadors to
the world-, haqng
"seamlessly assimilated" into the local socieSr, served the community, and
contributed to India's growth and
prosperity. The strength of the India-origin community worldwide of over 35 million
about 15.85 million
NRIs and 19.57 million PIOs, **ro are foreign nationals -
is their ability to adapt and thrive in different fields,
-
including in politics, wtrere Indian-origin people have become Ieaders of more ihan 30
other countries. Where
they retain their Indian passports, the diaspora is known for its distinguished services in many professional
spheres. The PBD's purpose is to celebrate this success and discuss issues of importance; president
Droupadi
Murmu handed out about 27 Pravasi Bharatiya Samman awards. The event, whi-ch was first held
in 20oir, is
organised around January 9, when Mahatrra Gandhi retumed to India from South Africa
in 1915. The latest
event, held in Bhubaneswar, Odish4 brought more dran 3,000 delegates from across 70 countries,
with much of
the focus on how the diaspora can help in developing India (Mksit Bharat progamme).
The achievements ofthe tndian diaspora are, no doubt, a matter ofpride for all Indians, but
it is important that
the event is not limited to a simple self-congrahrlatory or laudatory exercise. The issues for
the diaspor4
panicularly for those who are still Indian nationals, fie more acute no\ The increase
in far-right po;ulist
govemments' particularly in the West, is making visa and entry conditions for
Indians more difficult, and it is
important for the govemment to address such issues. Intractable global conflicts, especially
in West Asia where
more than nine million lndians live and work, are also putting la-khs oflndians in peril,
and the pBD engagement
would benefit fiom discussions between the community on how best to increase awareness and
enhance
safeguards for them. Given the broad spread of the diaspor4 it is necessary to ensure that India's
ties with its
diaspora be inclusive, and non-partisan on political issuei. Recent actions by the govemment
to deny or revoke
oCI cards for those perceived to be critical of the govemment bely this rr"""ssitf Above
all, it is imponant to
acknowledge that one of the biggest drivers of Indians migrating is the lack of economic
opportunities within
India. while there are no easy fixes for this, the loss to Indiaof some of its most talented peopie
mus be munted,
even as the country celebrates their incredible success and impact on the global stage.
97. Which of the following is the primary argument of the author?
(a) The achievements of the Indian diaspora shoutd be acknowledged, but the govemment's primary
focus
should be on encouraging more skilled individuals to migrate for India,s econolmic growth.
,(b) While it is important to celebrate the Indian diaspora's achievements, their primary rile in enhancing
India's
global image should be the main focus ofthe Indian govemment.
(c) while the achievements ofthe Indian diaspora are a source of pride and should be celebrated,
it is essential
to address critical issues faced by the diaspora.
(d) The govemment should focus on enhancing the privileges of Indian nationals
abroad, regardless of the
challenges they face, to maintain their global influence.
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98. The argument of the author cannot be true unless which ofthe following is true?
(a) Celebration of the diaspora's achievements through events like the PBD ensures that economic mrgration
will decrease over time.
(b) The success of the Indian diaspora is entirely dependent of India's domestic policies and economic
opportunities.
(c) The success and well-being of the Indian diaspora are significantly influenced by India's policies and its
efforts to address their concems.
(d) Restrictive visa policies and global conflicts are the only significant challenges faced by the Indian diaspora

99. Each passage EXCEPT that:

ofthe followrng is true according to the
(a) The pravasi Bharatiya Divas commemorates the contributions of the Indian draspora and fosters discussions
on issues important to them.
(b) A significant number of Indian-origin individuals have attained leadership positions in over 30 countries
globally.
(c) The increase in far-right populist govemments globally has contributed to more stringent visa and entry
requirements for Indians.
(d) The Indian govemment has successfully addressed the migration of talent by creating suffrcient economic
opportunities within the country.
100. The author would disagree with each ofthe following EXCEPT that
(a) lncreasing challenges faced by Indian nationals abroad highlight that the efforts of the Indian govemment
are not enough.
(b) When a country's diaspora achieves global influence, they start facing challenges such as stricter
immrgration policies and geopolitical conflicts
(c) The Indian diaspora's economic success abroad has significantly alleviated lndia's domestic economic
challenges.
(d) The Indian diaspora's success in leadership roles abroad directly reduces the economic opportunities for
people remaining in India.

l0l. Which ofthe following can be inferred from the passage?

(a) The ability ofthe Indian diaspora to integrate seamlessly into local societies is the reason r"+ry Indian-origin
indiuduals were successful in leadership roles globally.
(b) the govemment's focus on celebrating their achievements oflndian diaspora doesn't automahcally solve the
issues that they face.
(c) Migration of Indian natronals abroad is solely driven by the lack ofeconomic opportunities in lndia
(d) The Indian diaspora's success in various sectors abroad has resolved the economic issues faced by lndia.
102. Which of the following most closely aligns with the author's perspective on the relationship between the success
ofthe Indian diaspora and the challenges they face?
(a) The success of the tndian diaspora leads to a reduction in challenges faced by the community, as their
influence helps address issues such as stricter immigration policies
(b) The diaspora's success globally automatically ensures that the lndian govemment will provide all the
necessary safeguards to protect their interests abroad.
(c) The success ofthe Indian diaspora in leadership roles worldwide means that India no longer needs to address
issues like visa restrictions or politrcal tensions afecting its citizens abroad'
(d) While the Indian diaspora's success is a matter ofpride, the growrng challenges they face require increased
attention from the Indian govemment.

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Passage (Q.f0&Q.108): Words and pictures are not adequate to convey the range of what is mfolding across
the country with the protests against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act. The coverage needed data visualization
maps for different points of time to captue the breadth of the movement as it spreads across states and cities.
And to deepen our rmderstanding ofits geography and timeline. But ourjoumalists are not reE)onding with these
techniques as yet. At the tum ofthe decade the media are in transition across the world. The pithiest description
of the change came from the editor-in-chief of Bloomberg News when he described news as 'an indrstry in
transition, not in decline. It is re-emerging as something more digital, more personalized" more automated, and
more paid for'.

The last decade in India has been one ofdigital proliferation and the growth ofboth altemative and niche media"
But as the number of news sites burgeoned, technology use became more about being found on Croogle and
Facebook and less about tech-enhanced joumalism. It became about recommendation technolory on websites
using bos to both figure out consumer behaviour and direct them to other stories they might want to see. Not so
much about machine leaming and artificial intelligence producing data-heavy stories at one end ofthe spectmm.
Or about combing vast datasets or combining a range of digital sources to produce an investigative outcome, at
the other end.

103. What is the main cntique of how joumalists have responded to covering dre protests against dre Citizenship
(Amendment) Act?
(a) Joumaliss have not adequately used technolory to enhance the investigative depth and accuracy of their
stori€s about the protests.
(b) Joumaliss have misrepresented the protests by focusing solely on the digital proliferation of news sites.
(c) Jorrnaliss have prioritized gtobal coverage over local issues, neglecting rhe sipificance of the protests in
India.
(d) Journalists have failed to use data visualization tools to illustrate the breadth and timeline of the protests
effectively.
104. Which of $e following is dre author trying to argue?
(a) Indian media has become overly focused on optimizing content for pladorms like Google and Facebook at
the eryense of innovative joumalism.
(b) Indian jowndism has not effectively leverage.d advanced digial tools to onhance storytelling and
invesi gative joumalism.
(c) Daa visualizaion and mapping techniques are necessary for covering large-scale movements like the
Citizenship (Amendment) Act protess.
(d) The growth of digital media in India has made traditional forms ofjoumalism obsolete.
105. Which of die following can we infer from the given passage?
(a) The protosts against the Citizenship (Amendment) Act are not srpported by fie media actively.
(b) Google and Facebook are two plaforms that use the best of the technologies available in the market.
(c) Indian journalisB are a conservative group that believes newer techniques will jeopardize the essence of
joumalism.
(d) The digital modia industry did not enjoy such a rampant attention in eartier decades in India as it does now
106. Which of the following is an assumption made in the passage?
(a) The optimization of content for Google and Facebook is detrimarat to the use of advanced technological
tools in joumalism.
(b) Joumalists have become increasingly resistant to adirpting new technologies for fear of compromising
tradifi onal joumalistic practices.
(c) Being found on Google and Facebook does not contribute to tech.crf,tdrodfjunndtgn,
(d) The growth of altemative media in India has led to the decline of tradtkfid, riol|B outlets.
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107. In the passage above, the author mentions the editor-in-chief of Bloomberg News in order to:
(a) To give an example of an authority who believes that dre media are in transition across the world.
(b) To suegest that data visualization maps is the most common technique used at Bloomberg News.
(c) To point out the differences between the fimctioning of intemational media in general and Bloomberg.
(d) To criticize Indian joumalists while appreciating joumaliss at Bloomberg News'
108. The statement "wift digital proliferation, the media industry hasn't entered the declining phase, though it mey
seem so" is
(a) Probably true (b) Definitely False (c) Probably False (d) Data Inadequate

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Passage (Q.109-Q.ll4): A survey of 600 people was conducted to analyze the usage
of different streaming
platforms: Netflix, Amazon Pnme Mdeo, and Disney+. It was found that 65yo
of thJparticipants use Netflia
50oZ use Amazon Pnme Vdeo, and 42o/o use Disney* Among these, 18% of the paiicipants
actively use all
three platforms. Additionally, 12% ofthe participants use both Netflix and Amazon prime
Vrdeo but not Disney+,
while l0% use both Netflix and Disney+ but not Amazon prime Video. Similarly, 9% ofthe participants
use both
Amazon Prime Mdeo and Disney+ but not Netflix. Moreover, l0% of the total participanis
do not use any of
these platforms.
Based on the above information, answer the following questions:

109. How many people use only Netflix?

(a) 120 O) lso (c) lao (d) 130
I 10. What is the total number of people who use Amazon pnme Mdeo?
(a) 300 O) 320 (c) 3s0 (d) 400
II l. How many people use both Netflix and Amazon prime Mdeo?
(a) 180 (b) 172 (c) lso (d) le6
I 12. What is the percentage of people uto use at least two platforms?
(a) 45o/o (b) 36% (c) 4To/o (d') 49%
I 13. Find the ratio of the number of people who use only Disney+ to the number
of people who do not use any
platform.
(a)7:2 (b)Z:1 (c)3:8 (d)1:1
I 14. Which of the following statements is true based on the survey data?
(a) The number of participants who use only Disney+ is greater than those who
use both Netllix and Disney+
but not Amazon Prime Mdeo.
(b) The number of participants using all three platforms is t t 0.
(c) 72 participants use both Amazon Prime Video and Netflix but not Disneyt vvhich
is l2% of the total.
(d) The tota.l number of participants who do not use any of the platforms is 50,
which is 15% of the tota.l
participants.

Passage (Q.115-Q.120): QuickEats, a food delivery company, operates in

three cities: City A, City B, urd City
C, with significant variations in revenue contributions. In City A, the rotal revenue
*". <ig,oo,ooo, with 60%
from regular customers and 40olo from new customers. City B recorded a revenue
of{22,50,000, where regular
customers contributed 40% more than new customers. City C had the highest
revenue of{25,00,000, with 70%
from subscription-based customers and the rest equally split between occasional
and new customers.
Retention rates varied across cities. In City A,75%o of re,gular customers
were retained, while in City B, 60% of
the previous year's new customers converted into regular customers. In City
C, 90o% of subscnption customers
renewed their plans. Expenses accounted for 30Yo,35Yo, and 40%o
of the total revenue in Crties A, B, and C,
respectively.
Based on the above information, answer the following questrons:

I 15. What percentage of total revenue in City C came from new customers?
(a) l5o/o O) 30% (c) Z0o/o (d) l0%
I 16. What was the total revenue from regular customers in City A?
(a) t10,80.000 (b) {12,00,000 (c) {7,20,000 (d) {9.60.000

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l17. What is the combined profit of the company from all three cities?
(a) <30,2s,000 (b\ <42,22,5@ (c) <46,85,000 (d) <4s,75,000

l18. Which of the following statements is tnre based on the survey data for QuickEats?
(a) The revenue from regular customers in City B is t12,00,000.
(b) The number of regular customers retained in City A contributed t9,00,000 this year.
(c) In City C, the revenue generated from new customers is t3,75,000.
(d) The total epenses across all cities amormt to {17,25,000.
I 19. In City C, u/hat is the revenue came from subscription-based customers?
(a) t10,80,000 (b) <17,50,000 (c) {7,20,000 (d) {15,60'000
120. In City C, the total revenue was {25,00,000, wift 707o from subscription-based cuSomers. What is the ratio of
rwenue from occasional customers to new customers?
(a) l:1 (b)2:l (c) 3:2 (d) l:2

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Mock Objection Form (MOF)

I I
a I
a
a a
I

I T

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SELF.ASSESSMENT PAGE
1. My sequence in today's Mock [write 1-5 in the boxJ:

English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs

l Quantitative Techniques

L-
2. Approx time devoted to each section:

English Language Logical Reasoning Legal Reasoning

General Knowledge and Current Affairs Quantitative Techniques

;AL
3. I:
E was too distracted during the Mock today
tr think I used the wrong sequence
E wrote today's Mock without any defined strateS/ around sequence, attempts etc in mind
. spent a lot oftime on _ section.
. spent insumcient time on section.
. couldn't understand the passage properly ofthese genres
Write a quick explanation of your mistakes.

That's it! Now go through this page before you write your next Mock ond ensure we don't repeat the same
mistakes.

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