s No. CoNTENT PAGE NO.

Radio waves T
Propagation theory 7
Modulation 16
Antennae L9
Doppler radar systems 23
VHF direction finder (VDF) 25
ADS & NDB 30
VOR 4L
rrs 57
Radar principles 66
Ground radar 72
Airborne weather radar (AWR) 75
Radio Altimeter 81
GPWS 84
ssR 90
DME 97
ACAS 105
RNAV 113
GNSS 119

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY

8800320787
 Page I

RADIO WAVES
a When aî NC curent is passed through a wire, at high frequencies
energy starts to travel outwards from the wire in the form of
electromagnetic radiation called radio waves.

a They are made up of two components, an electrical (E) field parallel to

the wire, and amagnetic (H) field perpendicular to the wire.

Y E

Polarisation : Polarisation is defined as the plane of the

electrical field and is similar to f the aerial.

o
€#F_tffiqftent travels in
eiver)
'When
a Horizontally Polarised Wave: the electrical component travels
in the horizontal plane (horizontal transmitter and receiver)

Definitions
. Period: The length of time it takes to generate one cycle of a radio
\ryave is known as the period and measured in microseconds (ps). (1 ps
: 10-6 sec).
o Frequency: It is the number of cycles of a wave in 1 second and its
unit is hertz (Hz).
o Wavelength: It is the distance from one crest to another, or from one
trough to another, of a wave and is represented in meters (m).
. Amplitude: It is the maximum displacement from the mean position.
. Cycle: It is one crest and one trough.
POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787
 Page2

a Speed of a radio wave is represented by ,,c", and is approximately

3x108 m/sec.
a Speed in different units: 162000 nm/sec or 300000 km/sec or 186000
sm/sec.
o If the frequency is known then the wavelength can be determined and
if the wavelength is known then the frequency can be calculated from:
o 'f : c/A"

Wavelength Frequency Frequency Band

1 198 kHz

2 2.7 m

3 5.025 GHz

4 137.5 m

5 137.5 MHz

6 3km
7 329 MHz

I 29 cm

9 500 kHz

10 5cm

> Giga 10e I 000 000 000

ÞMega 10ó I 000 000

ÞKilo 1d 1000
>Milti 10-3 0.001
ÞMicro 10-6 0.000 001
Þ Nano 10-e 0.000 000 001

POETIC PILOT ACADFMY 8800320787

 Page 3

Phase Comparison
a The two signals being compared must have the same frequency, one of
thern would be designated as the reference signal and the other as the
variable signal.
Phase difference is found by identifying the zero phase on each of the
wave.
o "Phase Difference : Reference - Variable"

fl¡lfcrcncq- I /;rve
Variable \Ä/ave

Ffêquency Band Frequencies lÂ/awelengths Civll Aeronaut¡cal Usagê

i Very Lovr¡ Frequency (VLF) 3-30kHz 1OO - 10 km Nil

Low Freguency (LF) 3O - 3OO kHz 10-1km NÞS/ADF

NDB/ADF, long range

Medium Fregueñ<y (MF) 3OO - 3OOO kHz lOoO - 1Oo m corn rn u ni catìo ns

High Frequen(y (HF) 3-30MHz 1OO -'lO rn

Short range
Very H¡gh Frequency comrhunicat¡on, VDF.
(vHF) 30 - 3OO MHz 10 - 1 rn VoR, lL5 localizer. [Link]
beacons

ILS glide path. DME, 55R,

Ultra l-ligh Freguency 3oo - 3OOO MHz 10 cm 5ðtel lite co mm¡J nicätion5,
(UHF) 1OO -
GN55, long range radars

5uper High Frequency 'tO RADALT, AVVR, MLS, short

(sHF) 3-30GHz - '1 cm
range radars

Extremely High 30 - 3OO GHz 10- 1 mrn Nit

Frequency (EHF)
 [)age 4

Questions

1. A radio wave is:

A. an energy wave comprising an electrical field in the same plane as a magnetic fìeld
B. an electrical field alternating with a magnetic field
C. an energy wave where there is an electrical field perpendicular to a magnetic field
D. an energy field with an electrical component

[Link] speed of radio waves is:

A. 300 krn per second
B. 300 rnillion metres per second
C. 162 NM per second
D.162 rnillion NM per second

3. The plane of polarization of an electromagnetic wave is:

A. the plane of the rnagnetic fìeld
B. the plane of the electrical f,reld
C. the plane of the electrical or magnetic field dependent on the plane of the aerial
D. none of the above

4. If the wavelength of a radio wave is 3.75 metres, the frequency is

A. 80 l<Hz
B. 8 MHz
C. 80 MHz
D. 800 kHz

5. The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 125 ll4Hz is.

4.2.4 m
8.24 n
C.24 cn
D.24 nm

6. The frequency which corresponds to a wavelength of 6.98 cm is

4.4298 GHz
B. 4.298 GHz
C.429.8 GHz
D.42.98 GHz

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 Page 5

7 . The frequency band containing the frequency corresponding to 29.1 cm ts

A. FIF
B. VHF
C. SHF
D. [Link]

8. To car-ry out a phase comparison between two electromagnetic waves

A. both waves must have the same amplitude
B. both waves must have the same frequency
C. both waves must have the same amplitude and frequency
D. both waves must have the same phase

9. The phase of the reference wave is 1 10' as the phase of the variable wave is 315'.
What is the phase difference?
4.205"
B. 025"
c. 155'
D.335'

10. Determine the approxirnate phase difference between the reference wave and the
variable wave: (The reference wave is the solid line and the variable wave is the

dashed line)
4.045'
B. 135"
c.225'
D. 315"

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 Page 6

11 The wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 15 625 MHz is:

.
A. 1.92 m
B. 19.2 m
C. 1.92 cm
D. 19.2 cm

12. Which frequency band is a wavelength of 1200 m?

A. UHF
B. LF
C. FIF
D. MF

POETIC PILOT ACADEMV 8800320787

 Pagc 7

PROPAGATION THEORY
Radio waves travel in a straight line (great circle path). Propagating waves
will attenuate, refract, reflect and diffract.
Properties of Radio Waves
. Speed reduces in denser rnedium and increases in rarer medium.
. When transiting through different mediums, the radio wave will bend
towards the denser mediurr.
. Radio waves tend to reflect by objects larger than half of their
wavelength.

Attenuation
. Loss in signal strength.
o An EM signal attenuates as i from the source.

o rng on

droplets, vegetation, the surface of the earth and the ionosphere

. The effect of this absorption increases as fiequency increases.

Inverse Square Law

. The power available is proportional to the inverse of the square of the
range.
o To double the range, the power would have to be increased by a factor
of 4.
Static Interference
. The effect of static interference is greater at lower frequencies.
. The strength of the required signal compared to the amount of
interference is expressed as a signal to noise ratio (S/N).
 Page 8

Fadins
o Transmissions following different paths, can arrive at a receiver
simultaneously.
o In extreme cases the two signals will be in anti-phase and will cancel
each other out, which is known as fading.

Propagation Path

PROPAGAT!ON
NON-IONOSPHERIC IONOSPHERIC

Surface Wave Sky vvave

20 kHz-SO MHz 20 kHz-SO MHz
- (Used 20 k{z-2 MHz) (Used 2-3O MHz
Space \Â/ave SätCornrn
Direct Wave
(uHF, SHF)

Surfa Wave

SU ßFAPE..I/VAV"E
t'
aa

Ix -.. "
i,
1

: EARTH
o It exists between frequencies 20 kHz to about 50 MHz.
o The poftion of the wave in contact with the surface of the eafih is
retarded causing the wave to bend round the surface of the eafih, a
process l<nown as diffraction.
o As the frequency increases, surface attenuation increases and the surface
wave range decreases.
o The losses to attenuation by the surface of the earth are greater over land
than over sea, because the sea has good electrical conductivìty.
 Page 9

o A horizontally polanzedwave will be attenuated very quickly and give

very short ranges; therefore, vertical polarization is used at lower
frequencies.
o This is the primary propagation path used in the LF frequency band and
the lower part of the MF frequency band (i.e. frequencies of 30 kHzto 2
MHz).
o Range over sea: range = 3 x trPowtr.
. Range over land: range =2 x',lPower,
Space \ilave
Rx

Tx
EARTH

w AVE åRx
,,.,€
Tx
hr*
ç
hr*
EARTH
. The space wave is made up of a direct wave andareflected wave.
. At frequencies of VHF and above, the propagation is line of sight.
. The line-of-sight range can be calculated using the formula:

Range (NM) : l'25 + 1'25x{hnx

^{ht*
hrx: Transmitter height in feet
hp¡: Receiver height in feet
POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787
 Page l0

Ionosphere

Sun

The electrons are continually attempting to reunite with the ions, so the
' highest levels of ionization will be found shortly after midday (about
1400) local time, and the lowest just before sunrise (at the surface).
o In summer the ionization levels will be higher than in winter, and
ionization levels will increase as latitude decreases.
o It is formed in three layers:
o D layer (at approx. 75 km).
o E layer (at approx. 125 km).
o F layer (at approx.225 km to 400 km) (It has two
variations fl and f2 during day time).

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY

8800320787
 Page I I

o At night due to the lack of Ions D layer vanishes, E layer is thinner and
lifts up, fl and f2 merge to form F layer and lifts up.
. Around dawn and dusk, radio navigation and communication systems
are subject to excessive interference and disruption.

Sky Wave

ò ô
I
I
I
I ESCAPE RAYS
\

\ I I RST SKY WA
I \
{cRlTlcAL RAY) ER SKY
I

I
I
I
\
I
I
\ WAVES
L I \\
I \
CRITICAL ANGLE \
\
Tx
SKIP DI$TANCE

EARTH
. If a radio wave penetrates the ionized layer at an angle, it will be refracted
away frorn the normal as they enter, then back towards the normal as they
exit the layer.
. The amount of refraction experienced by the radio waves is dependent
on both the frequency and the levels of ionization.
. Higher the ionization density, more attenuation. Lower the frequency
used, greater the attenuation.
. Angle of lncidence: It is the angle between the transmitted radio wave
from the nonnal of transmitter.
 Page I2

o Critical Angle: It is the angle of incidence at which a transmitted radio

wave first refracts and returns back to the earth.
o Critical Ray: The first returning sky wave is known as the critical ray.
. Skip Distance: The distance from the transmitter to the point where the
first returning sky wave appears at the surface is known as the skip
distance.
o Dead Space: From the point where the surface wave is totally attenuated
to the point where the first returning sky wave appears there will be no
detectable signal, this area is known as dead space.
. At smaller critical angles, dead space and skip distance will decrease.
. Decrease in ionization levels will result in an increase in critical angle,
skip distance and dead space.
. As ionization increases, refraction of the radio waves will also increase.
. The frequency required at night ip roughly half that required by day.
. The maximuin range for sky wave will be achieved when the path of the
radio wave is tangential at thè surface of the earth at both the
transmitter, and receiver.
o Multi-Hop Refraction: Multi-hop sky wave occurs when the wave is
refracted at the ionosphere then the sþ wave is reflected back from the
surface of the earth to the ionosphere etc. Multi-hop sky wave can
achieve ranges'ofhalf the diameter of the earth.

Directivity
o If the power output is concentrated into a narrow bearn, then there will
be an increase in range, or a reduction in power required for a given
range. Range will increase with directivity (in the direction of bearn).

Suner- refraction
o At frequencies 30 MHz and above radio waves are bent towards the
earth's surface more than under normal conditions, increasing the range.
o In extreme cases when there is a low level ternperature inversion with a
marked decrease in hurnidity with increasing height (wann dry air above
colder moist air), a low level duct may be formed which traps
 Page 13

radio waves at frequencies above 30 MHz giving extremely long ranges.

o This phenomenon is known as duct propagation or ducting and can
lead to exceptionally long ranges.

Sub-refraction
. Sub-refraction cáuses areduction in signal range by up to20o/o.
. The conditions which give rise to sub-refraction are: :

o An increase in relative,humidity with increasing height.

o Temperature decreasing with increasing height atagreaterrate
than standard.
o Poor weather with lowpressure systems.
o Cold air flowing over a warm surface.

Fp&
P*HTIC PIKOY ÅfrEffiffiMY

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 Page 14

Ouestions

1. The process which causes the reduction in signal strength as range from a transmitter
increases is known as:
A. absorption
B. diffraction
C. attenuation
D. ionisation

2. Which of the following will give the greatest surface wave range?
A. 243 MHz
B. 500 kHz
c.2r82l<hz
D. 15 l|l4}lz

3. It is intended to increase the range of a VHF transmitter from 50 NM to 100 NM. This
will be achieved by increasing the power output by a factor of:
4.2
8.8
c. 16
D.4
4. The maximum range an aircrafÍ at 2500 ft can communicate with a VHF station at 196
ft is:
A. 79 NM
B. 64 NM
C. 52 NM
D.51 NM

5. What is the minimum height for an aircraft at arange of 200 NM to be detected by a

radar at 1700 ft AMSL?
4.25 500 ft
B. l5 000 ft
c. 40 000 ft
D.57 500 ft

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 Page l5

l. O.t..-ine which of the following statements concerning atmospheric ionization are

colÏect:
1. The highest levels of ionization will be experienced in low latitudes
[Link] levels increase linearly with increasing altitude
3. The lowest levels of ionization occur about midnight
4. The E-layer is higher by night than by day because the ionization levels are lower at
night

A. statements I ,2 and 3 are correct

B. statements l, 3 and 4 are correct
C. statements 2 and 4 are correct
D. statements 1 and 4 are correct

7 . The average height of the E-layer is .. . .. . and the maximum range for sky wave will be

4.60 km, 1350 NM

B. 1251<n,2200km
C. 225 km, 2200 km
D.125 km, 1350 NM

8. Concerning HF communications, which of the following is correct?

A. The frequency required in low latitudes is less than the frequency required in high
latitudes
B. At night a higher frequency is required than byday
C. The frequency required is dependent on time of day but not the season
D. The frequency required for short ranges will be less than the frequency required for
long ranges.

Intentionally Left Blank

POEÍIC PILOf ACADEMY 8800320787

 Pagc l 6

MODULATION
Modulation is the process of super imposing information (audio) on a
radio wave.
o The process of cornbining a radio frequency with a current at audio
frequencies is known as heterodyning.

Amnlitude M odulation
In AM the amplitude of the audio frequency (AF) modifies the
amplitude of the radio frequency (RF). (Frequency remains constant).

. When a IS quency, 2
sidebands are created (upper and side-bands )
. SSB - Single side band operati an upper or lower side band is
removed from thç;,radio wavç"
iì ',' :, .. .:. ,.,i; j , j, ir,i,ì ,,
'

o Advantages - better òignál/noisè'ratio, less'intèrference, less power

required, less bandwidth used and double the number of channels
available.

Freouencv Modulation
In Frequency Modulation, the amplitude of the audio frequency modifies
the frequency of the carrier wave. (Amplitude constant).

Freguency
Modutat€d
C¡

t"
I r f>r I t¿?rìi'y

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 Page I7

Phase Modulation
In phase modulation the phase of the carrier wave is modified by the input
signal.

Amplitude Modulation Frequency Modulation Phase Modulation

Kev Modulafion (Kevine)

By arranging the transmissions
transmission wê can send
as telegraphy.

I
- -

,Kt

Pulse Modulation
When the radio signals are transmitted in the forrn of shorl pulses
 Page I8

Questions
1. The bandwidth produced when a radio frequency (RF) of 4716kÍlz is amplitude
modulated with an audio frequency (AF) of 6 kHz is:
4.6 kHz
B. 3 kHz
C. l2kflz
D. 9 kHz

2. Which of the following statements conceming AM is correct?

A. The amplitude of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF
B. The arnplitude of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF
C. The frequency of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF
D. The frequency of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF

3. Which of the following is an advantage of single sideband (SSB) emissions?

A. More frequencies available
B. Reduced power requirement
C. Better signal/noise ratio
D. All of the above

4. Which of the following statements concerning FM is correct?

A. The arnplitude of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF
B. The amplitude of the RF is modified by the amplitude of the AF
C. The frequency of the RF is modified by the frequency of the AF
D. The frequency of the RF is modified by the arnplitude of the AF

POETIC PILOTACÂDEMY 8800320787

 Page l 9

AI{TENNAE
Antennae or aerials are the means by which radio energy is radiated and
received. There are two basic types of aerial used are, the half-wave dipole
and the Marconi or quarter-\ryave aerial.

î ,1

À
4
4
-> ûBsE8ü!rEû8sso!8 üEtgü!Eg!808!08ü8

I
r -.ì
i-/

I 4

With the dipole aerial cen

radiates in all directions aerial
o Because of the better es, Marconi aerials are used
onaircraft' . r; , i '.',"ì:i'
. As the names imply the ideal'lënþth for àn aeiial is half"or quarter of
the wavelength of the frequency being transmitted.

E.g.: 'What is the optirnum length for a Marconi aerial transmitting on a

frequency of 125 MIJ'z?
o A polar diagram is used to show the radiation or reception pattern of
an aerial.

Directivity
Many systems require the directional emission or reception of energy, for
exarnple; radar, ILS, MLS.
. The simplest way to achieve directivity is to add parasitic elements to
the aerial.
 Page 20

o If we place a metal rod 5Yo longer than the aerial at a distance of quarter
of a wavelength from the aerial and in the same plane as the aerial, it will
act as a reflector.
. This process can be improved further by adding other elements in front
of the aerial. These elements are known as directors and are smaller than
the aerial itself.
REFLECTOR DIRECTORS

t---
I

SUPPORTING FOLDED HORIZONTAL

BOOM DIPOLE POLAR PATTERN

Radar
o Radar sys IIF bands;'the transmission of

waveguide is positioned at the focal point of the parabola and directs the
RF energy towards the dish.
P4P.¡q'gOLlG OPEt\l
FIEFL Vì'AVEGUIÞE

HOFIN FEED

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 Page21

Flat Plate Array Antennae

. The Flat Plate Array, Phased Arcay, or Slotted Antenna is a 'flat plate'
with numerous waveguide-size slots cut into it.
. The advantages of phasedlflatplate array over parabolic reflectors are:
o Narrowbeam
o Reduced side lobes
o Less power required for a given range
o Narrower pulse
o Improved resolution

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page22

Ouestions
1. The ideal length for a Marconi aerial for a frequency of 406 MHz is:
A. 36.9 cm
B.35.1 cm
C. 17.5 cm
D. 18.5 cm

2. A disadvantage of directivity is:

A. reduced range
B. side lobes
C. phase distortion
D. ambiguity

3. Which of the following is not an advantage of a slotted antenna (phase arcay)?

A. Reduced side lobes
B. Improved resolution
C. Reduced power
D. Directivity

4. The ideal length of a half-wave dipole for a frequency of 75 MHz is

A. 1.9 m
B. 95 crn
C. 3.8 m
D.47.5 cm

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 Page23

DOPPLER RADAR SYSTEMS

The Doppler Principle
. A received frequency will only be the same as the transmitted frequency
when there is no relative movement between the transmitter and
receiver.
. It can be used to determine the relative speed between moving objects
by measuring the difference between transmitted and received
frequencies.
o A Doppler navigation system uses the Doppler principle to measure an
aircraft's ground speed and drift.
. The Doppler principle is utilized in Radar, Doppler VOR and VDF.
,t
'fo

V is Receiver s m/sec
C

E.g. l:
An aircraft is flying at a speed of 486 knots towards a beacon
transmitting on a frequency of I 5 GHz What will be the Doppler Shift?
(t2.s KHz)

8.g.2: The frequency shift observed at a stationery receiver from an object

transmitting at a frequency of l8 GHz is 2.7 KHz. What is the speed of the
object in rnile/hour?
(45mls or 100MPH)
o Hint: Converl every value to the same unit.
 Page24

Questions
l. Doppler operates on the principle that ...... between a transmitter and receiver will
cause the received frequency to ...... if the transmitter and receiver are moving

A. apparent motion, decrease, together

B. relative motion, decrease, apart
C. the distance, increase, at the same speed
D. relative motion, increase, apart

[Link] to 'Doppler' effect an apparent decrease in the transmitted frequency, which is

proportional to the transmitter's velocity, will occur when:
A. the transmitter and receiver move towards each other
B. the transmitter moves away from the receiver
C. the transmitter moves towards the receiver
D. both transmitter and receiver move away frorn each other

3. The change in frequency measured in an aircraft from a radio transmission

reflected from the ground is used to determine:
A. the drift and ground speed of the aircraft
B. the aircraft's track and speed
C. the across track wind component and heading
D. track error and ground speed

POETIC [Link] ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 25

VHF DIRECTION FINDER (VDF)

It is a means of providing a pilot with the direction to fly towards a ground
station.
. The equipment required on board to obtain a VDF bearing is a VHF
radio.
. Equiprnent required on the ground: a suitable aerial and a display.
. A VHF voice communications radio produces a verlically polarized
signal.
. The ground antenna is vertically polarized and has an array of verlical
elements arranged in a circle.
. Bearings are provided, by voice, on an airclaft's VHF Communications
frequency.
o Th e bearin bû can be True or Magnetic North
( at the
o Th ey MHz (Emission Code

QDM QDM QDM

OXFORD APPROACH
GOLF DELTA SIERRA
REQUEST QDM
GOIF DELTA S/ERRÁ

GOLF DELTA
S/ERRA QDM 205
CL,4SS BRAVO

MULTI-
ELEMENT
DIRECTION
FINDING
AERIAL
ATC VDF DISPLAY
 Page 26

. QDR Aircraft's Magnetic Bearing from the station (Radial); used for
en route navigation.
o QDM Aircraft's Magnetic Heading to steer (no wind) to reach the
station.
. QTE Aircraft's True Bearing frorn the station; used for en route
navigation.
. QUJ Aircraft's True Track to the station; not generally used.
o QDM is the reciprocal of QDR; QUJ is the reciprocal of QTE.
The accuracy of the observation is classifìed as follows:
. Class A - Accurate within + 2o
. - Accurate within + 5"
Class B
o Class C - Accurate within + l0u
. Class D - Accuracy less
Factors Affectins Accuracv
o

being re
Aircraft S
vertical ly polarized ; therefore, on and results will be obtained
when the aircraft flies straight
o Poor accuracy, is lïkely in the [Link] a VDF receiveri
. Synchronous transmissions by two or lrore aircraft will cause
momentary errors in bearings.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page27

VDF Summary

QDl\',l
- Mag T0Station

QDR Mag,FB0M Station

QUJ TrueT0,Station
QTE True FR0M Station

Class:

Ground Iquipment - Direction Finding Aerial

(flT Display

Line of Sight

Power of Transmitters

lntervening lligh Ground

Atmospheric Cond itions (Ducting)

Aauracy: Propagation Enor

Site Error

Aircraft Attitude

Overhead

Fading Due to Multi-path Signals

Position 5ervice; Position Fixing by Autotriangulation

POETIC PILOf ACADEMY 88tr)320787

 Page 28

Questions

1. An aircraft has to communicate with a \fHF station at a range of 300 NM, if the
ground station is situated 2500 ft AMSL which of the following is the lowest altitude
at which contact is likely to be made?
A. 190 fr
B. 1378ft
c.36 100 fr
D. 84 100 ft

2. Class 'B' VHF DF bearings are accurate to within:

A. + 1"
B.+5"
C. +.2"
D. + 100

3. A VDF QDM given without an accuracy classification may be assumed to be accurate

to within:
4.2 degrees
B. 5 degrees
C.7.5 degrees
D. l0 degrees

4. An aircraft at altitude 9000 ft wishes to communicate with a Vltr'/DF station that is

situated at 400 ft AMSL. What is the maximum range at which contact is likely to be
made?
A. I15NM
B. 4OO NM
C. 143 NM
D. 63.5 NM

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 880Ð320787

 Page29

5. An aircraft is passed a true bearing from a VDF station of 353'. If variation is 8oE and
the bearing is classified as 'B' then the:
A. QDM is 345o + 5"
B. QDR is 345" + 2
C. QTE is 353o I 5o
D. QUJ is 353o f 2o

6. An aircraft at 19 000 ft wishes to communicate with a VDF station at 1400 ft AMSL

What is the maximum raîge at which contact is likely ?
A. I75 NM
B. 400.0 NM
c. 62.s NM
D.219 NM

POETIC PILOT ACADËMY 8800320787

 Pagc 30

ADF & NDB

Autornatic Direction Finder (ADF) equipment in the aircraft is used along
with a sirnple low and medium fiequency non-directional beacon (NDB) on
the ground.

. Principle of working: "Bearing by Loop theory".

. The Non-directional Beacon (NDB) is a ground-based transmitter which
transmits vertically polarized radio signals, in all directions (hence the
narne) in the Low Frequency (LF) and Mediurn Frequency (MF) bands.
. 'When an aircraft's Automatic Direction Finder (ADF) is tuned to an
NDB's frequency, the direction of the NDB will be indicated.
. ADF measures relative b frorn the NDB.
. Type of emission is NON A
o A loop aerial is placed in the CY' à
voltage will be generated
a When the plane rncomlng sl EMF is
generated. (Max
. When the plane of loop is perpendicular to the incoming signal, they
receive signal in the same phase causing zero EMF. (No phase
difference).
o Current flows in the opposite direction if the loop aerial is rotated further.
. The polar diagrarn formed is a figure of eight, in which there are two null
positions and by rotating the loop until a null is reached the direction of
the beacon can be determined.
. This gives us two maxima's and two minima's causing 180o ambiguity.
. This ambiguity is resolved by introducing a sense aerial, which has a
polar diagram of circle.
. The currents generated are combined electronically as if the sense aerial
was in the middle of the loop aerial. The resultant polar diagrarn is called
a Cardioid.
. The cardioid has a single null which is ill-defined and would not in itself
provide an accurate bearing.
 Page 3 I

0. J J
I!
0 J
l ! (-
J
l I 0
0
J 2 I z rm

+ve

+Yc a
o O o -VO

,: i

. To improve accuÍacy, the polarity of the sense aerial is reversed

electronically to produce a right hand cardioid.
o Then by rapidly switching (about l20}lz) between the two cardioids,
the null is more precisely defined and hence the accuracy is improved.
CORRECT
NU LL

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page32

o Accuracy is + 5o within beacon protected range during daytime.

o Frequency range Ís 190 - 1750 kHz (upper LF and Lower
MF). Types of NDB
o Locator - used as an outer and middle marker in an ILS (10-25 nm).
o Homing and Holding - used as an approach and holding aid (50 nm).
¡ Enroute and long range-used in airways (about 200 nm)
Note: while plotting an ADF bearing, the bearing is measured at the
aircraft, so the variation is applied at the aircraftto obtain the true bearing.

( \.1

,,/ :. /rì'

/,.'/,i11 \\
r'r rì
rr¡
ii

Beat Freq uencv OscÍllator

A beat frequency oscillator or BFO is a dedicated oscillator used to create
an audio frequency signal from Morse code radiotelegraphy transmissions
to make them audible.
¡ NON signal is unmodulated and the frequency is too high to be audible,
so the BFO produces an offset frequency
within the receiver which when
combined with the received frequency, produces a tone of up to 1 kHz,
making it audible.
o AIA is an unmodulated carrier wave so the BFo must be kept rúoN,' fbr
TUNTNG, rDENT & MONTTORTNG (NON AlA).
o A2d' is an amplitude modulated signal, so the BFo is required to be
úrON" for TUNING but can
be ú.OX'iF" for IDENT & MONITORING
(NON A2A).
o NON A1A has more range than NON Lz1'-as the signal is unmodulated.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 33

Factors Affectin ADF Accuracv

Station Interference
Due to limited frequencies available in the LF and MF band, a needle may
lock itself in between if two stations are at the same frequency.
. During daytime, using an NDB within its published protection range in
the designated operation coverage (DOC) will reduce this error.
. During nighttitne, NDB should always be positively identified.
Nieht Effect
At night D layer fades away, allowing sky wave contamination and the
error is maximum at dawn and dusk. This error can be reduced by:
. Using abeacon closer to the a/c.
. Using a beacon with lower frequency.
. Ijsing a beacon with greater
Static Interference
o to
which the
. This is the
. Precipitation static- Wa ing the a/c cause a
reduction in incorning s y rnask the signal.

Radio waves speed up over water and bencls away from the normal, to
reduce Coastal refraction:
. Fly high.
. Use an NDB 90o to the coast.
. Use the NDB closer to the coast as conìpared to an Inland NDB.

Ouadran tal Error

The incorning NDB signals are refracted from the rnetallic surface of the a/c
and the maximum refraction occurs on quadrantal relative bearings (045, 135,
225, and 315) as it presents the largest surface area of the alc.
 Page 34

Dip error
Loop aerial is designed to use vertically polarized signals and due to an
aircraft banking, some of the horizontal component is also sensed, inducing
an error.

No failure warning flag

As there is no warning flag, it is difficult for a pilot to detect if an error has
occurred.

Misalignment error
Due to the misalignment of the Loop and Sense aerial during installation.
Factors Ranse

. To double the range, transmi be increased by a factor of

4
o Lower gher
the
. Higher
. Range over
. Range over land is 2rlpower in geft..*-
* tvtu + RP -- "Mts:to, rhs, s{qlipn (eOnn¡ (,for a fxgd card ADF and
RMI) 'i
.:. QDM + 180 : eDR
* Apply AIRCRAFT variation to the rnagnetic heading to ger true
heading.
¡lt a¿¿ relative bearing to true heading in order to get true bearing.
* take the reciprocal in order to get the True Bearing to plot nn-ovt
the NDB.
* tne needle always points to the beacon (QDM), tail gives eDR.

PC}ETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 35

ADF-NDB Summary

-,å"¡ Èflêljü lêt$ö\ütr{,çT0-ä5 NÑÌ)

. Nð.$ðld, {50' t.![Link] mÞfê)

:Þ[Link]ôtêf

--. ¡asfiålg¡ con$-oj ultti¡

N0NAJ,A.'FFS:OJ¡I fortsnlng,¡ fd on and morlkoring

,ñilNA2A.. $FO'oN fpr tur.úng, OfF' eÊherwiie

Stêtic intsrPereneê: (prøeipitation [Link] thunde¡storms)

Statiun intêrfajêacs

FlÌght effêdt

Ladk of falturEwanclng
+/- S''[Link],Þ0C

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Pagc 36

Questions

L The phenomenon of coastal refraction which affects the accuracy of ADF bearings:
A. is most marked at night
B. can be minimizedby using beacons situated well inland
C. can be minimizedby taking bearings where the signal crosses the coastline at right
angles
D. is most marked one hour before to one hour after sunrise and sunset

2. An aircraft is intending to track from NDB 'A' to NDB 'B' on a track of 050.(T),
heading 060'(T). If the RBI shows the relative bearing of 'A' to be l80o and the relative
bearing of 'B' to be 330'then the aircraft is:
A. port of track and nearer 'A'
B. port of track and nearer 'B'
C. starboard of track and nearer'A'
D. starboard of track and nearer 'B'

3. ADF quadrantal error is caused by:

A. static build up on the airframe and St. Elmo's Fire
B. the aircraft's major electrical axis, the fuselage, reflecting and re-radiating the
incoming NDB transmissions
C. station interference and/or night effect
D. NDB signals speeding up and bending as they cross from a land to water
propagation path

4. The overall accuracy of ADF bearings by day within the promulgated range (DOC) is
A.+30
B.+50
c.+60
D. + 100

5. In order to Tune, Identify and Monitor NONAIA NDB emissions the BFO should be
used as follows:
A. On On Off
B. On On On
C. On Off Off
D. Off off off

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 880n3?0787

 Page37

6. The magnitude of the effor in position lines derived from ADF bearings that are
affected by coastal refraction may be reduced by:
A. selecting beacons situated well inland
B. only using beacons within the designated operational coverage
C. choosing NONA2A beacons
D. choosing beacons on or near the coast

7. An aircraft is tracking away fromNDB on a track of 023'(T). If the drift is

an 8o port
and variation 10" west, which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the correct
indications?

8. The BFO facility on ADF equipment should be used as follows when an NDB having
N0NA1A type emission is to be used:
A. BFO on for tuning and identification but may be turned off for monitoring
B. BFO on for tuning but can be turned off for monitoring and identification purpose
C. BFO off during tuning, identification and monitoring because this type of ernission
is not modulated
D. BFO should be switched on for tuning, ident and rnonitoring

POETIC PILOf ACADËMY 8800320787

 Page 38

9. The protection ratio of 3:1 that is provided within the promulgated range/designated
operational coverage of an NDB by day cannot be guaranteed at night because of:
A. long range sky wave interference from other transmitters
B. sky wave signals from the NDB to which you are tuned
C. the increased skip distance that occurs at night
D. the possibility of sporadic E returns occurring at night

10. An aircraft has an RMI with two needles. Assume that:

(i) The aircraft is outbound from NDB Y on a track of 126"(M) drift is 14o Port
(ii)A position report is required when crossing a QDR of 022 from NDB Z
Which of the diagrams below represents the RMI at the time of crossing the reporting
point?

11. Each NDB has a range prornulgated in the COMM section of the AIP. Within this
range interference from other NDBs should not cause bearing errors in excess of:
A. day +Jo
B. night +10"
C. day +So
D. night +5"

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 88@320787

 Page 39

[Link] range promulgated in the AIP and flight guides for all NDBs in the tIK is the
fange:
A. within which a protection ratio of 3:1 is guaranteed by day and night
B. up to which bearings can be obtained on95%o of occasions
C. within which bearings obtained by day should be accurate to within 5o
D. within which protection from sky wave protection is guaranteed

13. In order to resolve the I 80' directional ambiguity of a directional LOOP aerial its
polar diagram is combined with that of a SENSE aerial to produce a
whose single null ensures the ADF needle moves the shortest distance to
indicate the correct...............
A. at the aircraft, cardioid, radial
B. at the transmitter, limacon, bearing
C. at the aircraft, limacon, bearing
D. at the aircraft, cardioid, bearing

14. The protection ratio afforded to NDBs in the UK within the promulgated range
(DOC) applies:
[Link] day only
B. by night only
C. both day and night
D. at dawn and dusk

15. The phenomena of coastal refraction affecting ADF bearings is caused by the signal
when it reaches the coastline and bending the normal to the coast
A. accelerating; towards
B. deceler ating; towards
C. accelerating; away from
D. decelerating; away from

16. In an ADF system, night effect is most pronounced

A. during long winter nights
B. when the aircraft is at low altitude
C. when the aircraft is at high altitude
D. at dusk and dawn

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 40

17. When the induced signals from the loop and the sense antenna are combined in an
ADF receiver, the resultant polar diagram is:
A. a limacon
B. a cardioid
C. figure of eight shaped
D. circular

18. When flying over the sea and using an inland NDB to fix position with a series of
position lines, the plotted position in relation to the aircraft's actual position will be:
A. further from the coast
B. closer to the coast
C. co-incident
D. inaccurate due to the transmitted wave front decelerating

An aircraft on a heading of 235"(M) shows an RMI reading of 090" with respect to an

19.
NDB. Any quadrantal error which is affecting the accuracy of this bearing is likely to be:
A. a maximum value
B. a very small value
C. zero, since quadrantal error affects only the RBI
D. zero, since quadrantal error affects only the VOR

[Link] principal propagation path ernployed in an NDB/ADF system is

A. sky wave
B. surface wave
C. direct wave
D. ducted wave

2l . The ADF of an aircraft on a heading of 1 89"(T) will experience the greatest effect
due to quadrantal error if the NDB bears:
4.234"(T)
8.2t9"(T)
c.225"(T)
D. 145'(T)

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320187

 Page 4l

VHF Omni-Directional Ranee IVOR)

MN
O3I' RADIAL
t30 fRotl
1030
(aDR 030,

300 OTO RADIAL

n0 RADNL
voß

2¡II RADIAL I2O RAOIAL

2,IO RADIAL ttlt

t¡0
(r80 fRorl
laDR re0l

VOR is a short-range ves bearing information with

respect to the masnetic
9i
north.

o Omni direotional venieally

. Frequency range- "108 -ll7
. 40 Channels between 10 8;+ [I2,,\fiIz
' 120 Channels between 1 t'2: tf7 .95 MHz
. From 108 -lEi2"MfuiadlrteUiúeåctefu affc* thêðsbfunâ,rá?e assigned for
the localizer and even frequencies are for the VOR (LOVE).
o Emission designatoris "49'Wt'.
. Can be used for Homing, Holding, Airway fix and en-route navigation.
o The ground beacon has2 aerials (fixed and variable).
o The fixed aerial transmits an omni directional reference signal,
producing a polar diagram of a circle.
. The reference signal is FM at 30 Hz, andproduces constant phase
regardless of a receiver's bearing from the VOR.
o The variable signal of 30 Hz is Amplitude modulated and is transmitted
by a clockwise rotating antenna at a rate of 30 cycles/sec.
o The reference and variable signals are phase compared and the
difference in the phase is the resultant radial.
o The Polar diagram of the variable signal is a figure of 8.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 42

o The combined polar diagram of variable and reference signal is a

rotating Limacon (without a null).
. Station identification is a 3 letter morse code transmitted every l0 sec.

Phase Dlfference 000o

w E

Phase Dlfference 270' s Phase Dlfference 090"

Phace Dlffercnce

Limacon vs Cardioid rlijr,'

;,:,t...
o Limacon forms at the beacon, whefeas Oardioid forms in the afucraft.
. At null positlon, Cprdiqid h4s no ræeptrO¡¡ bgt þirnaqo,4 has some
reception.
o Cardioid is fixed, whereas Limacon is rotating.

Equipment Used
. oBS (omni-bearing selector) -used to select the desired radial.
o To/From indicator- It depends on the radial selected on the OBS rather
than the aircraft's heading.
. cDI (course deviation indicator) - Shows the deviation from the
selected OBS radial.
o On a4-dotindicator- each dot is 2.5 deg.
o On a 5-dot indicator- each dot is 2 deg(the first dot is the circle's
edge).
o Max deflection is 10 deg (full scale deflection).
. Anytime the heading and oBS are same, there is no reverse sensing.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 43

Tvnes of Airborne Eouiument

o CDI - Needle point is the QDM with a TO indication and the tail indicates
the radial, whereas the needle point is the QDR with a from indication and the
tail is the QDM.

Selected / Required Course

TO Beacon (Selected)
FROM Beacon (De-selected)
Course Deviation Bar (6" Fly Left)

Aircraft's Heading is NOT Relevant

. RMI - A compass is incorporated with ADF type pointer. The head of the
an
pointer indicates the QDM, whereas the tail would indicate the QDR.

Aircraft Heading 030" (Compass / Magnetic)

QDM - Arrowhead 070o

QDR - Tail of Needle 250'

Aircraft's Heading is NOT Relevant

. HSI (Horizoutal situatio¡r indicator) - { compass,is incorporated with a
rotatable selector.
Aircraft Heading 280" (Compass / Magnetic)
Selected / Required Course
TO Beacon (Selected)
Course Deviation Bar (8'Fly Left)
FROM Beacon (D+selected)

Aircraft's heading will determine

Turn Left / Turn Right lndication

Monitoring
A monitoring unit monitors the ground station and will turn off the
transmitter if:
. Bearing information is not correct to within 1o.
POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787
 Page 44

o If the signal strength is reduced by more thanl5Yo.

. Failure of the monitoring equipment itself.

Warnins Flas (Generallv redl

. No power or low power to the a/c equipment.
. A/C Equipment failure.
o Ground equipment failure.
. Failure of the Indicator.
. If either the reference or variable signal is weak.
o While tuning is in progress.

Course Set O8O"

4
2

VOR I)esisnated operational coverase

. Signal strength is assured within the DOC.
. Accuracy is 15" on9ío/o of the occasion.
. Duct propagation may affec! the accuracy within DOC.
o To calculate range -1.25 (r/trt +r/nr) or l2{flight levet.
o A DOC of 50/25 means there will be no co-frequency interference up to
25000ft within 50 nm.
Errors which affect the VOR accuracv
o Site Error - Uneven terrain or any physical obstacle like buildings,
fences within the vicinity of the transmitter affects its accuracy.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 45

o Propagation error (scatloping) - It is caused by reflection, diffraction

or refraction of the signal due to terrain in propagation path.
. Manufacturing Inaccuracies.
o Beacon alignment - If 000 radial is not aligned with the rnagnetic north
at the transmitter.
. Pilotage error- Difficulty in holding a radial due close vicinity to the
beacon.
. Maximum aggregate error should not be lrore than 5o and max a/c
equipment error should not exceed 3o.
. Cone of Confusion - The transmitter transmits the signal up to an
inclination of 60-80 degrees to the horizontal, the CDI needle fluctuates
a lot when virtually overhead because there is no transmission in this
region, "off flag" will come and "TO/FROM" indicator will flicker.

Tvpes of VOR
oB
and is used for holding

. VOT (VHF omnidirectional te le at cerlain airfields to test

the VOR on a designated fre
" VOR is serviceable if CDI is centered within +4" with the(6T0"obs
selected to 000 with a "FROM" indication or 180 with a
indication.
. Doppler VOR - is used to reduce site enor.
. There is no rotating aerial, instead 50 aerials are installed
encircling the central aerial at a diameter of 44 ft.
" Modulation is reversed.
. The central aerial transmits the reference signal which is 30 Hz
AM.
" The 50 fixed aerials transmit variable signal which is 30 HZ FM.
" f'he apparent transmission of 50 aerials is anticlockn'ise.
" The combined transmission produces a polar diagrarn ol a lotating
I-imacon, so the A/C equipment is same and there is no cliflèrence in
indications to the pilot.
 Page 46

Factors affectins VOR Ranqe

. Transmission power.
. Height of T" and (
. Designated operational covel'age.
VOR Su mmarY

Characteristics; bearings, valid and

Frequency: 108 to 1'17,95 MHz; 160 channels
Uses: Airfield letdowns;Holding points; En route
Principle of Op: Phase of two 30 Hz signals
ldentification: 3 letter aural Morse or Voice every 10 s, continuous tone for VOT
ATIS AM on
Monitoring: Autornatic site monitor +/- 1'
ldent when switched on
Types: CVOR - reference signal is FM; variphase signal is AM
- Limacon polar diagram rotating clockwise
DVOR - more accurate than CVOI due to less site error
- reference signal is AM; variphase signal is FM
- símulated anticlockwise rotation of aerial
TVOR - low power Tx at airfields
VOT - Test VOR giving 180 radial
- aircraft should have < +f - 4" error
Operational range: Transmitter power
Line of sight
DOC valid and n ht
Accuracy affected by: Site error (less with DVOR)
Propagation error
Scalloping (bending due to reflections from terrain)
Airborne error +

Cone of ronfusion: OFF flag FROM and bea fluctuate

Airborne equip: Aerial, Receiver, Display (CDl/RMl)
CDI: 2o per dot; max 10o; relationship between indication and
aircraf,t position
RMI; arrowhead gives QDM; tail gives QDR; Use magnetic
variation at station
ln-flight procedures: Radial interce Track-keepin g; Station passage

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 47

Questions

1. Assuming the maximum likely enor in VOR to be 5.5o, what is the maximum distance
apart that beacons can be situated on the centre line of a UK airway in order that an
aircraft caî guarantee remaining within the airway bounclary?
A. 54.5 NM
B. 109 NM
C. 66 NM
D. I32 NM

[Link] I)esignated Operational Coverage quoted for VOR beacons in the COMM section
of the AIP:
A. is only applicable by day
B. guarantees a protection ratio of at least 3 to 1 by day and night
C. defines the airspace within which an aircraft is assured of protection from
interference from other VORs on the same channel
D. is determined by the type of surface over which the signal will have to travel

3. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 050 radial with l0o starboard drift. An
NDB lies to the east of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the aircraft
when it is obtaining a relative bearing of 100' from the NDB?
 Page 48

4. What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 360 will obtain
from a VOR beacon situated at 900 ft above mean sea level?
A. 274 NM
B. 255 NM
C. 112 NM
D. 224 NM

5. A conventional VOR:
A. has an FM reference signal and an AM variable signal
B. has a 150 Hz reference signal and a 90 Hz variable signal
C. has an AM reference signal and a 150 Hz variable signal
D. has an AM reference signal and an FM variable signal

6. The OBS on a deviation indicator is set to 330o and gives a 3 dots fly right dernand
with FROM indicated. what is the QDM of the aircraft to the station?
4.144
8.324
c. 336
D. 156

7 An ailcraft is homing towards a VOR which marks the centre line of an airway. The
.
beacon is 100 NM distant. If the pilot had the airway QDM set on the OBS what
deflection of the deviation indicator would be given if the aircraft was on the boundary of
the airway? Assume that one dot equals 2 degrees.
A.3 dots
B. 2 dots
C. 2.5 dots
D. 1.5 dots

8. 'What is the theoretical maximum range that an aircraft at flight level 420 will obtain
fronr a VOR beacon situated al400 ft above mean sea level?
A. 225 NM
B. 256 NM
C.28I NM
D. 257 NM

POEIIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 49

9. Concerning conventional and Doppler VORs (DVOR), which of the following is

correct?
A. There is no way of knowing from the instrumentation display which type is being
used
B. The DVOR will always have a((D)) in the ident
C. The DVOR has a higher pitch ident than the standard VOR
D. The conventional VOR has less site error

10. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VOR on the 064 radial. The CDI shows 4 dots
fly right with a TO indication. At the same time the co-located DME shows arange of 45
NM. Where is the aircraft in relation to the required track?
A. 6 NM right of track
B. 3 NM right of track
C. 6 NM left of track
D. 3 NM left of track

11.A VOR beacon ceases to transmit its normal identification which is substituted by
'TST'. This means that:
A. the beacon may be used providing that extreme caution is used
B. the beacon is undergoing maintenance or calibration and should not be used
C. this is a temporary short range transmission and will have approximately half its
normal raîge
D. the beacon is under test and pilots using it should report its accuracy to air traffic
control

12. What is the approximate maximum range fhat an aircraft flying at 25 000 ft would
expect to obtain from a VOR beacon situated 900 ft above mean sea level?
A. 220 NM
B. NM
IOO
C. 235 NM
D. I98 NM

13. An aircraft is on the airway boundary range 100 NM from a VOR rnarking the airway
centre line. Assuming that each dot equates to 2o how many dots deviation will be shown
on the deviation indicator?
4.3.0 dots
B. 2.5 dots
C. 2.0 dots
D. 1.5 dots
POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787
 Page 50

14. An aircraft is required to intercept and home to a VOR along the 064 radial. The OBS
should be set to:
4.064 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication
8.244 to get correct needle sense and a TO indication
C. 064 to get corect needle sense and a FROM indication
D. 244 to get coruect needle sense and a FROM indication

15. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on the 150 radial with l0o starboard drift.
An NDB lies to the south of the VOR. Which of the RMIs illustrated below shows the
aircraft when it is obtaining a relative bearing of 100' from the NDB?

c id)
16. Assuming the maximum likely effor in VOR to be 5o, what is the maximum distance
apart that beacons can be situated on the centre line of a UK airway in order that an
aircraft can guarantee remaining within the airway boundary?
A.60 NM
B. lOO NM
C. 120 NM
D. I50 NM

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800?20787

 Page 5 I

17. AN aircraft, heading 150o, is 100 NM north of a VOR, the pilot intends to home to
the VOR on the 030 radial. The pilot should set . . ... on the OBS and on reaching the 030
radial should turn ..... onto a heading of ....., assumingzero wind.
A.210 left 030
B. 030 right2l}
C.210 right 210
D. 150 left 210

18. The type of emission radiated by a VOR beacon is:

A. a double channel VHF carrier with one channel being amplitude modulated and the
second channel being frequency modulated
B. a single channel VHF carrier wave amplitude modulated at30 Hz with a sub carrier
being frequency modulated at 30 Hz
C. a VHF carrier wave with a 90IHz frequency modulation and a 150 Hz amplitude
modulation
D. a VHF pulse modulated emission with a pulse repetition frequency of 30 pps

19. An aircraft wishes to track towards a VOR along the274 radial. If variation is l0oW
what should be set on the OBS?
4.274
8.264
c. 094
D.084

20. An aircraft is tracking away from a VOR on a heading of 287'(M) with 14' starboard
drift. If the variation is 6o\ù/ what is the phase difference between the reference and
variable phase components of the VOR transmission?
A.l2l'
8.295"
c.301"
D.315'

21. What is the theoretical maximum range that a pilot would obtain from a VOR situated
900 ft above mean sea level in an aircraft flying at 18 000 ft?
A. 168 NM
B. 188 NM
C. 205 NM
D. 250 NM

POETIC PILOf ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 52

22. An aircraft is attempting to home to a VoR beacon. The pilot has set 329 onthe OBS
of the deviation indicator. If the aircraft is situated on the 152 radial then the deviation
indicator will show:
A. one and a half dots fly right
B. one and a half dots fly left
C. three dots fly right
D. three dots fly left

23. A VOR receiver in an aircraft measures the phase difference from a DVOR as
220'.Which radial is the aircraft on?
A. 140
8.040
c.320
D.220

[Link] RMI indicates the aircraft magnetic heading. To convert the RMI bearings of
NDBs and VORs to true bearings, the correct combination for the application ofmagnetic
variation is:
NDB VOR
A Beacon position Aircraft position
B
Beacon position Beacon position
C Aircraft position Beacon position
D
Aircraft position Aircraft position

25. Both the VOR and the ADF in an aircraft are correctly tuned and identified. The
indications from both are shown on the RMI illustrated. Use the information to answer
the following: The inforrnation given on the RMI indicates:
A. that the aircraft is heading 033"(M), is on the 3l0o radial from the VOR, and bears
050"(M) fi'om the NDB
B. that the aircraft is heading 330'(M), is on the 310o radial from the VOR, and bears
050o frorn the NDB
C. that the aircraft is heading 330'(M), is on the l30o radial from the VOR, and bears
050"(M) fì'orn the NDB
D. that the aircraft is heading 330"(M), is on the l30o radial from the VOR, and bears
230'(M) frorn the NDB

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 53

[Link] VOR in an aircraft is correctly tuned and set to define the centre line of an airway
within UK airspace which you intend to fly. The indication received on the VOR/ILS
deviation indicator is shown to the right. At the same time the DME gave a range of 90
NM from the facility. At the tirne of the observation, the aircraft's radial and distance
from the airway centre line were:
A.062 radial 9 NM
8.074 radial 6 NM
C.242 radial 6 NM
D.254 radial 9 NM

[Link] normal maximum enor which might be expected with a VOR bearing obtained
within the DOC is:
A. plus or minus 1"
B. plus or minus 2o
C. plus or minus 5"
D. plus or minus l0o
POEIIC PILOT ACADEMY 8WO320787
 Page 54

28. An aircraft is tracking away from VOR "4" on the 3l0o radial with 8" starboard drift'
NDB "X" is north of "4". Which diagram below illustrates the RMI when the aircraft is
on its present track with a QDR from "X" of 270"?

[Link] VOR indications on an RMI whose deviation is not zero

A. are rnagnetic
B. are compass 0
lr,J
C. are relative
D. must have deviation applied before
k-. ()
being used v
j\'

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 88@320787

 Page 55

30. An aircraft bears 175'(M) from a VOR. If the aircraft OBS is set to 002 and its
heading is 359"(M) which diagram below represents the aircraft VOR/ILS deviation
indicator? (assume I dot :2")

31. Using Annex A.

An aircraft is flying on the 170 radial with a heading of 315'(M).
The course on the HSI is set to 180'. Which HSI shows the correct indications?

A.A
B.B
C.C
D.D
B

c D

32. Using Annex B.

An aircraft is flying on the 050 radial with a heading of 250'(M).
The course on the HSI is set to 060'. 'Which HSI shows the correct indications?
A.A Ánnex I
B.B
C.C .''\l ;'
D.D ¡' ì
.1- ' I
\
,, ., T

c D

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 56

33. Using Annex C.

An aircraft is flying on the 245 radial with a heading of 250"(M).
The course on the HSI is set to 060".
Which HSI shows the correct indications?
A.A
Annex C
B.B
C.C
D.D

A B

c D

POETIC PILOI ACADEMY 88cn320787

 Page 57

InstrumentLan@
ILS provides the pilot with visual instructions in the cockpit to enable him to
fly the aircraft down a predetermined glide path and extended runway centre
line (localizer) to his Decision Height (DH). ILS is a precision approach
system because it gives guidance in both the horizontal and the vertical plane.

ILS Comnonents
Localizer
. Principle used - "Difference in depth of modulation".
. The transmitter is located 300m from the upwind end of the runway.
. Freq allocated - 108 - II2 MHz (VHF Band) (odd first digits after the
decimal).
o Transmits two overlapping lobes on the same frequency but
modulated differently along the runway approach direction
(QDM).
. Right lobe is modulated at 150h2 and is called the blue sector.
" Left Lobe is modulated at 90hz and is called the yellow sector.
" Difference in depth of modulation will bezero on runway
centreline.
o The coverage is valid vertically up to 7 degrees out to arange of 25nm at
an altitude of 6250ft along the course line
. 25 NM (46.3 km) within + 10o from the centreline.
. 17 NM (3 1 .5 km) between 10o and 35o from the centreline.
. 10 NM (18.5 km) outsids + 35o from the centreline.

LOCALIZER
AERIAL

ODULATED AT 150 H z
NORMAL
APPROACH
DIRECTION
ilODULATED AT 90 Hz

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 58

Þ
25"
17NM 7
Centre of V I
Localizer 25 NM tY 1 oo
Course
Antenna A 10" Line
System v
A
25"
,
Glidepath
o The transmitter is located 200m from the centreline and 300m upwind.
o Signal is transmitted on UHF band between 329.15 and 335 MHz to
provide 40 complementary channels and is frequency paired with the
localizer.
o Transmission is the same as the localizer except it is done in the vertical
plane and the upper lobe has 90112 modulation and lower lobe has 150h2
modulation.
. DDM will be zero on the selected glide path for thatparticular runway
(mostly it is 3deg but may vary due terrain).
. Glidepath coverage -18" up to 10NM horizontally and vertical
coverage is 0.45" x glideslope angle up to 1,75o x GS angle.
. Thealccrosses the runway threshold at 50ft.
. Horizontal coverage is up to 1ONM from the touchdown point.
. The flrrst False Glide Slope occurs at approximately twice the glide
path angle, (6" above ground for a standard 3" glide path).
o Normal flying practice is to establish on thelocalizer and intercept the
glide slope from below.

Runway Touchdown Point

1.75 x 0 /\
A
0
V 0.45 x 0 \/

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 59

Marker Beacons
c 2 or.3 marker beacons are installed on the extended centreline, which
allows the pilot to cross check the altitude and the distance from the
touchdownpoint.
. All markers transmit on 75 MHz and radiate a fan pattem upward to
height of approx. 3000ft.
. Markers have different audio and visual signals in the cockpit with a
varying intensity of the transmission pitch.
o Outer Marker - 3.5 to 6 nm from touchdown, modulated by 400H2,
gl ving2low pitched dashes per second, flashing blue light in the
cockpit
o Midd
cocþit.
o Inner Ma 3000h2,
6 high pitched dots per second, fl white light in the cockpit.
,o DME has replaced the marker is adjusted to read zero atthe
threshold
""#
r Cockpit Light Plrch
Freqrrency

IM (r dots/sec Hish 75 - 45O rn

(25Ð',- lsoo'.)

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 60

ILS Transm Monitor

o If the localizer shifts more than 35ft for a cat I approach.
. Glideslope angle changes by 0.075 times the glideslope angle.
o Reduction of the power output of any of the transmitter by more than
50%.

*Any of the above may cause the ILS to stop all transmissions, remove
ident or may permit its usage to a lower category.

Localizer and glide path indications

o Localizer - Max deviation frorn the centerline is 2.5o, so a 5-dot
indicator would give a 0.5" deflection per dot and a -dot indicator
would give a 0.6" deflection per dot.
o Glideslope - Max deflection is 0.7" above or below the glidepath, so on
a 5-dot indicator, each dot represents 0.14'.
a The maximum deviation a is 0.35" (Half-Scale

ILS Cat

NOT DRAWN TO SCAL E)

\t

I 20,8',- a+
q
LrJ
I
z
I
U)
õ
[Link]
o

I
I

M 20b M

RUNWAY VISUAL RANGE (RVR)+

 Page 6l

Errors
. False Glidepath - Due to the presence of metallic structures near the
transmitter and due to propagation characteristics, multiple lobes rnay be
created at6or go or 12". They are less dangerous because:
. A glide slope captured at 6o would be easily identified with very
high rate of descent.
" Norrnally on an ILS after intercepting the localizer, the Glide Slope
is captured from below and all the false lobes are above.
" Signals would be weak as they are outside the rated coverage.
. Bends in localizer and Glideslope beams.
. Permanent fixture (cannot be moved around or used for other runways).
. To nlinirnize interference, the landing rate has to be kept low and
vehicles are not perrnitted within the ILS critical area.
. ILS sensitive area should be guarded during cat II and Cat III operations.

* If using the HSI for ILS, the should be set on TOP

Components & Frequencies:

Localizer HF - 108 to I I 1.975 M (4 channels). Aerial at upwind end.

Glide Path UHF - frequerrcy pai A am touchdown

Mall<ers 1 MHz. F vertt IM

Back Beam Fronr localizer. Norr-precision approach.

Locator Low power NDB at OM

DME Fleq pailecl. Possibly in place of lnarkers. Zero-l'eferenced to threshold.

ldent 2 or' 3 lettels. 7 groups/nrin. Strppressed when ILS u/s. Contint¡oustone dLrring
nl a rntcnance.

Ma rl<ers OM: BlLre.2 dashes/s, 400 H2,6.-5 - | l.l knr.

MM: Orange, 3 characters per second, alternate dots and dashes, 1300
l-Jz. l0-50 nr.
ìM:White, ó dots/s, 3000 llz, 75 - 450 nr.

G round [Link] within 35 lt (Cat I) at lef daturn. GP withirr 0.07-5 ' glide path angle.
Monitoring Power rvithin 507o.
Othelu,ise: Cease radiation, reluove ident ol lower categoly.

ILS Ll,z: 25 NM + 10". I 7 NM + 35".

Coveragc GP: l0 NM + 8'. 0.45 to 1.7-5 x elicle path anele
 Page 62

Principle of Operation:
Localizer LH lobe - 90 Hz, RH lobe -150 Hz; DoM increases away
from the runway centre line.
DDM is zero on the runway centre line.
Back Ifapproved use for non-precision approach. Reverse readings
Course on CDL HSI can operate in correct sense if front course QDM
set.

Glide Path Upper lobe - 90 Hz,lower lobe - 150 Hz. DoM increases away
frôm the glide path centre line. DDM is zero on the glide path
centre line.

False GP at multiples of glide path angle. Be aware

Ref Datum height of GP over threshold

Indicators CDI: 0.5'ldot; max 2.5". Reverse indication on back course

HSI: set course selector to front QDM for correct
indications. GP: 0.14"ldoT; max 0.7o. max safe dev -2.5
dots fly up (0.35').

ILS Facility Category I II III

Guidance
<200 <50 0ft
Limits
ft ft
Opcra tional
Category I il IIIA ur III
B C
DH > 200 > 100 >50 0ft
fi ft 100 ft
ft or or0
0 ft
ft
RVR > 550 > 300 > 200 >75 0m
llì tl] ITì m

Errors Beam bends, scalloping. beam noise, restricted vehicle

movements during low vis ops. checl< failure fìags, monitor
ident.

Range and Critical area - aircraft and vehicles exclLlded for all ILS ops.
Accuracy Sensitive area - exclLrded area during low vis ops, Cat llllll
holds. weather, FM broadcasts.
 Page 63

Ouestions

1. The coverage of an ILS localizer extends to either side of the on-course line
out to arange of ............... NM.
A. 10o,35
B. 350, 10
c. 35",17
D. 25" ,25
[Link] upper and lower lirnits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.5o glide slope
are:
A. 6.125" - 1.575"
8.7.700" - 1.225"
c. 5.250' - 1.350"
D. 3.850' - 3.150'

3. The minimum angle at which a false glide path is likely to be encountered on a 3o

glide path is:
A. a. 6 degrees
B. 5.35 degrees
C. normal glide slope timcs 1.75
D. normal glide slope times 0.70

4. The visual and aural indications obtained when overflying an ILS middle marker are:
A. continuous low pitched dashes with synchronized blue light
B. continuous high pitched dots with synchronized amber light
C. alternating rnediurn pitch dots and dashes with amber light
D. one letter in Morse with synchro4ized white light

5. An aircraft carrying out an ILS approach is receiving stronger 150 Hz signals than 90
Hz signals. The correct actions to be taken to place the aircraft on the centre line and on
the glide path are to fly:
A. DOWN and LEFT
B. UP and LEFT
C. UP and RIGHT
D. DOWN and RIGHT

6. In elevation the upper and lower lirnits of an ILS glide path transmitter having a 3.0
degree glide slope are:
A.0.35'0.70'
B. 3.00" at least 6o
c. 5.25" 1.35'
D. 10.0" 35.0"

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 64

7. Acategory II ILS installation encountered in the UK:

A. provides_accurate guidance down to 50' above the horizontal plane containing the
runway threshold
B. has a steep glide path, normally 7.5o
C. provides accurate guidance down to the runway and along the runway after
landing
D. has a false glide path that is exactly twice the true glide path angle

S. Whi¿h of these ILS indicators shows an aircraft on final approach left of the centre
line and at maximum safe deviation below the glide path?

9. An aircraft tracking to intercept the ILS localizer inbound on the approach side but
outside the published coverage angle:
A. will receive false on-course or reverse sense signals
B. will not normally receive signals
C. will receive sig als without coding
D. can expect signals to give correct indications

10. The outer marker of an ILS installation has a visual identification of:
A. alternating dots and dashes on a blue light
B. continuous dots atarate of 3 per second, blue light
C. continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, arnber light
D. continuous dashes at a rate of 2 per second, blue light
 Page 65

l1 . The specifîed maximum safe fly up indication on a 5 dot CDI is:

A. half full scale needle deflection above the centre line
B. 2.5 dots fly up
C. just before full scale deflection
D. 1.3 dots fly up

[Link] aircraft is attempting to use an ILS approach outside the coverage sectors of an
ICAO standard system:
A. from the glide slope needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse
sense indications and from the localizer needle intermittent and incorrect
. indications
B. the aircraft's receiver is not detecting any transmissions and the ILS needle OFF
flags are visible
C. from the localizer needle the captain may be receiving false course and
intermittent indications and from the glide slope needle reverse sense and incorrect
indications
D. from the localizer needle the captain may be receiving false course and reverse
sense indications and from the glide slope needle intermittent and incorrect
indications

13. The coverage of the ILS glide slope in azimuth is:

A. + 8o out to 10 NM
B. + 10" out to 8 NM
C. + 12o out to l7 NM
D. + 35o out to 25 NM

14. An aircraft's Instrument Landing System glide slope and localizer receivers are
receiving predominant 90 Hz modulated signals. If the aircraft is within the coverage of
the ILS, QDM of 264", it is
A. north of the localizer and below the glide slope
B. south of the localizer and above the glide slope
C. north of the localizer and above the glide slope
D. south of the localizer and below the glide slope

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 66

RADAR CIPLES

Radar stands for RÂdio Detection And Ranging, the radio wave is
transmitted in the forrn of pulses.
Pulse Technique
The transmission of radio energy in very shorl bursts is called a pulse
+

o TIME

>i' k WIDTH

o TIME

PULSE PULSE RECU RRENCE I NTERVAL(PRt )

RECURRENCE c)r
PULSE REcURRENCË. PERt,OD(PRP)

o The duration of the pulse is eq (tirne elapsed

between starl and end f icroseconds).
a PRP/PRI/PRT * Pu is the time
interval between two pulses (star1 of one pulse till starl of another pulse).
o PRF/PRR - Pulse recurrence frequency/Rate is the number of pulses per
sec and it is inversely proporlional to PRI.
o In order to distinguish between individual targets that are located close to
each other, the beam width must be sufficiently narrow to strike only one
target aT a tirne. This lreans that beam width determines target
discrimination in azirnuth.
. To double the range, power must be increased by l6 times.
"PRF : I /PRI"
"Theoretical Maximum Range : C/2PRF"
'oTheoretical Minimum Range : Pulse length (in second s) x Cl2"
 Page 67

Êçf
R

Examples
1) If the of
2) If the , what is the PRF (PRR)?
3) 'What is the maximum PRR for a,rada.r required to nreasure up to 200
NM?
4) Maximum range for q radar, is to be., 170 km. What is the maximum
PRR?
5) An AWR has a 400 pps PRR. Calculate the max range in nautical rniles.
6) A radar has a range of 500 m. What is the pulse width?
Answers
1) 4000 ps,2) 802 pps,3) 405 pps,4) 882 pps, 5)203 NM,6) 3.3 pts.

Radar F uencies
. Radar works in VHF and above frequency bands.
. These frequency bands are free from external noise/static and
ionospheric scatter.
. Shorler wavelengths produce narrow and efficient beams for easy target
discrimination and bearing measurement.
. Shofter wavelengths are reflected more effìciently.
 Page 68

Tvnes of Pu lsed Radar

o A Primary Radar uses pulses of radio energy reflected from a target
i.e. it uses one frequency throughout. It uses the echo principle to
determine the range and the searchlight principle to deterrnine the
bearing of the target.
. A Secondary Radar transmits pulses on one fi'equency, but receives on
a different frequency i.e. the object transmits its own energy. It is a
system utilizing an interrogator and transponder; the transponder can
be located in the aircraft or on the ground.

Primary radar
o Transmission technique used are - Pulse and Continuous 'Wave.
. No information is transmitted by the target.
. T* and R* are at the same place.
. Exchange of information takes place in a single pulse (new pulse will not
be dispatched until the previous one is fully received by the receiver).
. Prone io external disturbance that's why MTI (rnoving targetìndicator) is
used.
. MTI radars remove second üace returns of the preceding pulse by
changing the PRI between consecutive pulses, a technique known as
'jittering the PRF'.
. The radial resolution is dependent upon half the pulse length.
. The azimu dependent upon the full beam width,
produced S increasing the aerial size.
 Page 69

Questions

1. The factor which determines the maximum range of a radar is

A. pulse repetition rate
B. pulse width
C. power
D. beamwidtg

[Link] main advantage of continuous wave radars is:

A. no maximum range limitation
B. better range resolution
C. no minimum range limitation
D. better range resolution

3. If the PRF of a primary radar is 500 pulses per second, the maximum range will be:
A. 324 NM
B. 3OO NM
C. 162 NM
D. 600 NM

4. To double the range of a primary radar would require the power to be increased by
a factor of
A.2
8.4
c.8
D. 16

5. The time between the transmission of a pulse and the reception of the echo from a
target is Il20 microseconds. V/hat is the range of the tatget?
A. 139 km
8.258 lan
C. 2lSkrrl
D. 516 km

6. A radar is required to have a maximum range of 100 NM. 'What is the maximum
PRF that will achieve this?
A. 1620 pulses per second (pps)
B. 1234 pps
C. 617 pps
D. 810 ppt
POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 88@320787
 Page 70

7. If the PRI of aradar is 2100 microseconds, the maximum range of the radar is:
A. 170 NM
B. 3I5 NM
C. 340 NM
D. 630 NM

8. To improve the resolution of aradar display requires:

A. a narrow pulse width and a narrow beamwidth
B. a high frequency and a large reflector
C. a wide beamwidth and a wide pulse width
D. a low frequency and a narrow pulse width

9. An advantage of a phased array (slotted antenna) is:

A. better resolution
B. less power required
C. reduced side lobes and clutter
D. all of the above

10. An echo is received from a target 900 microseconds after the pulse was transmitted.
The range to the target is:
4.73 NM
B. 270 NM
C. 135 NM
D. 146 NM

I 1. The factor which limits the minimum detection range of a radar isr
A. pulse repetition interval
B. transmitter power
C. pulse width
D. pulse repetition frequency

12. The use of Doppler techniques to discriminate between aircraft and fixed objects
results in second trace returns being generated. These are removed by:
A. using a different frequency for transmission and reception
B. jittering the PRF
C. making regular changes in pulsewidth
D. lirniting the power output of the radar
 Page71

13. A
radar is designed to have a maximum range of 12 km. The maximum PRF that
would permit this is:
4.25 000 pps
B. 6700 pps
C. 12 500 pps
D. 13 400 pps

14. The bearing of a primary radar is measured by

A. phase comparison
B. searchlight principle
C. lobe comparison
D. DF techniques

POITIC PILOT ACADEMY 88æ72Ô787

 Page72

GROUND RADAR
Ground Radar is a type of Prirnary Radar and is used to detect aircraft not
equipped with a Secondary Radar Transponder. The services offered by ATC
are Information, Surveillance or Guidance.

Tvoe of Pri mary Radar

o Area Surveillance Radar (ASR)
. Tenninal Area Surveillance Radar (TAR)
. Aerodrome Suryeillance Radar
o Precision Approach Radar (PAR)
. Airporl Surface Movement Radar (ASMR)
nce Radar ASR
. Used for airway surveillance and bearing of aircraft.
o Long range radars 200
. Wavele_ngth:
. Pulse
o PRF:
o Antenna
I Area Surv
. Used fbr controlling traffic in

Aerodrome Surveillance Radar

. Used for providing positional inforrnation during approach
o Shofi range radars up to 25 NM.
. Wavelength: 3 - 10 cm.
. Pulse length: 0.5 - 1 ¡rs.

Precision A h Radar (PAR)

. It is a runway approach aid available at rnilitary airfields.
. Talk down services are provided to Íhe alc until 0.5 NM frorn the
runway.
. Frequency: 10 GHz.
. Wavelength: 3 cm.
 Page73

Airnort Surface Move ment Radar IASMR)

o Also known as AIRFIELD SURFACE MOVEMENT INDICATOR
(ASMI).
. ASMI radar is dto bri and flicker-free
display
. Very short-
. Wavelength:
. Frequency:

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 88{Ð320787

 Page74

Ouestions

1 . A prirnary raclar has a pulse repetition frequency of 27 5 pps. The time interval
between the leading edges of successive pulses is:
A. 3.64 milliseconds
8.36.4 milliseconds
C.3.64 microseconds
D.36.4 microseconds

2. A primary radar system has a pulse repetition frequency of 450 pps. Ignoring pulse
width and flyback at the cRT, the maximum range of the radar would be:
A. 333 NM
B. 180 NM
C. 666 NM
D. 360 NM

3. The frequency band and rate of scan of Airfield Surface Movement radars are:
A. SHF; 60 rprn
B. SHF; 200 rpm
C. EHF; 100 rpm
D. EHF; 10 rprn

4. A ground based radar with a scanner rotation of 60 {pÍt, a beamwidth in the order
of 0.5'and a PRF of 10 000 pps would be:
A. an Airfield Surface Movement Indicator with a theoretical range of 8 NM
B. a Precision Approach Radar
C. an Airfield Surface Movement Indicator with a theoretical range of l6 NM
D. a high resolution Surveillance Approach Radar
 Page 75

Airborne \üeather Radar (A\ryR)

It provides pilots with info regarding weather ahead as well as navigation.
Info on cloud formations or terrain is displayed on the indicator's screen as a
range from the aircraft and a bearing relative to its heading.

Equipment
o Transmitter/receiver.
¡ Antenna is stabilized in pitch and roll.
o Indicator.
o Control unit.
A\ilR Functions
o Detects the size of water droplets.
o Determines the height of cloud tops
o Maps the terrain below the aircraft.
¡ Provides a position fix ( bearing) from a prominent feature.

o AV/R is primary radar,

a
a to relative bearing of the targets.
. Frequency: 9375 t 30 MIL.,
r"'
. V/avelength:
:a, : -

3.2 cm.

Radar Beam ': '

o The pencil shaped beam is used for weather depiction.

. Beam width of 3o and 5o is used.
o To produce narrower beams, it is essential to use shorter wavelengths.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 76

Colour Codins

Colour Radar returns Precipitation

Bla<;k Very light or no returns Less than 0.7 mm/h

Green Light returns 0.7 - 4 mmlh

Medium returns 4 - 12 mm/h
Red Strong returns Greaterthan l2mm/h
Magenta Turbulence Due to rainfall intensity

Areas to Avoid
The areas of greatest potential turbulence occur where the colour zones
are closest together i.e. the steepest rainfall gradient. Turbulence is
associated with U-shapes, Fingers, Scalloped edges and Hooks on the
display.
Control Unit
POVì,ER PLAATEGK PLAATECK MARKÊR
awlfcH Lt(¡HTlNo LIOHTING BRILLIANCE
8Y8TEU 8Y8TEM

qt
ffin UPrõ ìLI
.l lo
d
.fA¡
ow
¡

.TA¡æY o
æ€ Goì.lu'T
raO
ta lo
llo I æn r.-l-:,

TìMEBASE CG)NTRAST SANUAL

(¡AIN FUNCTION
RANOE CC,NTRG,L twttcH
awtTcH CONTROL

Tilt
o Radar beam can be tilted 15o UP and 15" DOWN.
o The antenna sweeps up to 90o either side of the nose.
o%.

1 €t
 Page 77

MAP
o In the MAP position the radar produces a mapping beam.
o Cosecant2 beam or úúfan-shaped" beam is used to map 60 to 70 NM.
o Fan shaped beam maps the terrain from 15 NM to a max of 60 to 70
NM.
o To map beyond 70 NM the conical pencil beam should be used by
selecting the MANUAL position.
PENCIL BEAM FOR WEATHER
OR LONG RANGE MAPPING

MAN
o This is used for cloud detection and mapping between about 70 and 150
NM and selects the conical pencil shaped beam.
o MANUAL GAIN for signal amplification is operative with this
selection.
\ryEA
. This selects the conical pencil beam.
. MANUAL GAIN control is now INOPERATIVE.
. Swept Gain, Sensitive Time Control or Automatic Gain Control
(AGC) is automatically available in this mode.
o It operates up to about 25
NM. CONT

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 78

Pre-flisht Checks
Electromagnetic radiation is a serious hazard to personnel, and the
equipment. Following precautions should be taken to ensure safety:
o Ensurc thc aircraft is clear of personnel, other aircraft,vehicles and
buildings.
o Prior to take off, select conical beam with maximum up tilt, then switch
radar on, check you have a picture, then go back to standby.

AWR Summarv
Components Tx / Rx, antenna, indicator, control unit.

tunctions Turbu lence, navigation

Principle of Operation Echo for range, sweep for relative bearing.

Pencil beam for weather and long range (> 60 NM) mapping.
Cosecant' beam for short range. Antenna attitude stabilized.
Beam width dependent on antenna size.
Effect of beamwidth on resolution.
Frequency of 9375 MHz best for large water droplets/hail.

Weather Turbulence where rainfall gradient is steepest.

Few returns from wavelength of >10 cm.
Colours in order: black, green, yellow, red, magenta,
Beware U's, fingers, scallops and hooks.

Mono ControlUnit Power/Stab 0n - antenna attitude stabilised in pitch and roll,

Off
Stab - antenna locked to aircraft axes.

Range - Standby, selections up to about 150 NM.

Tilt -t 15'. Tilt up for increased range or lower ahitude.
MAP - fan*haped beam. Use up to 60 NM,
MAN - Manual gain with pencil beam to map > 60 NM.
WEA - Pencil beam with AGC.

C0NT - Black holes indicate turbulence.

Mapping Tilt down for best target presentation. Beware hill shadows,

Weather Operation Adjust tilt for best weather picture.

Too high tilt will miss T5.
Beware shadow area.

ßolourAWR llseof controls-Wx WxtT WxlVarl,VJxA [Link] TotAlert,

 Page 79

Ouestions
l. A frequency used by airborne weather radar is
A. 8800 MHz
B. 9.315 G}lz
C. 93.75 GHz
D.1213 MHz

2. An airborne weather radar is required to detect targets up to a maximum range of 200

NM. Ignoring pulse length and flyback in the CRT calculate the maximum PRR.
4.405 pps
B, 810 pps
C. 1500 pps
D. 750 pps

3. Using airborne weather radar the weather beam should be used in preference to the
fan-shaped bearn for rnapping in excess of ................ NM:
A.20 to 25
B. 60 to 70
C. 100 to 150
D. 150 to 200

4. Airborne Weather Radar is an example of radar operating on a frequency of

in the band.
A. primary 8800 MHz SHF
B. second ary 9.37 5 ll4Hz UHF
C. secondary 9375 MHz SFIF
D. primary 9375 MHz SHF

5. The corect sequence of colours of a colour Airborne Weather Radar as returns get
stronger is:
A. red yellow green
B. yellow green red
C. green yellow red
D. red green yellow

6. A false indication of water rnay be given by the AWR display when:

A. flying over land with the Land/Sea switch in the Sea position
B. flying over mountainous terrain
C. there is cloud and precipitation between the aircraft and a cloud target
D. attempting to use the rnapping beam for nrapping in excess of 50 NM
 Page 80

7. Airborne weather radar operates on a frequency of:

A. 8 800 MHz because gives the best returns from all types of precipitation
B. 13 300 MHz
C. 9 375 MHz because it gives the best returns fiom rainfall associated with Cb
D.9.375 GHz because this frequency is best for detecting aircraft in flight

8. The rnapping mode of Airborne Weather Radal utilizes:

A. a pencil/weather beam from 70 NM to 150 NM
B. a cosecant2lfan-shaped beam which is effective to 150 NM
C. a pencil/weather beam with a maximum range of 70 NM
D. a cosecant2/fan-shaped beam effective 50 NM to 70 NM

9. An Airborne Weather Radar system uses a frequency of 9 GHz becausc:

A. it has a short wavelength so producing higher frequency returns
B. the short wavelength allows signals to be reflected from cloud water droplets of all
sizes
C. the wavelength is such that reflections are obtained only from the larger water
droplets
D. the frequency penetrates clouds quite easily enabling good mapping of ground
features in the rnapping mode

10. The antenna of an Airborne \üeather Radar is stabilized:

A. in pitch, roll and yaw
B. in pitch and roll
C. in pitch and roll whether the stabilizalion is on or off
D. in pitch and roll but only when 0" tilt has been selected

1 l.
The colours used to denote variations in rainfall rate on an Airborne Weather Radar
screen are ........... for very light or no returns . f'or light returns, ........... for
medium returns and ............ for strong returns.
A. black yellow green magenta
B. black green yellow magenta
C. grey green yellow red
D. black green yellow red
 Page 81

Radio Altimeter
A Radio Altimeter measure and display the vertical distance between the
airqaft and the surface directly beneath it.
o Principle used Frequency Modulated Continuous Wave
o Frequency range 4200 MHz to 4400 MHz (SHF Band).
1600 MHz to 1700 l|l4Hz (UHF Band).
. It continuously transmits a variable frequency signal in a narrow beam
vertically downward.
o The signal is reflected from the surface below the aircraft and received at
the radio altimeter receiver (separate from the transmitter).
o During this time the transmitted frequency changes at a known rate from
its start level to +50 MHz and back again to complete a "cycle".
o The received frequency will differ from the transmitted frequency.
o The frequency difference becomes a measure of the time taken for the
radio wave to travel to and from the surface.
. This frequency difference is used to determine the aircraft's radio height.
. It provides height infblmation and rate of change of height to the Grouncl
Proximity Warning System (GPWS).
. It supplies the automatic flight system for affect automatic landings
when used in with the ILS / MLS.
¡ The total sweep of the carrier frequency is automatically varied + 50
MHz 300 times a second.
o Max pitch angle t30o.
o Max Roll angle +600.
. The accuracy of the radio altimeter is given as ft or +3o/o of the tl
indicated height, whichever is the greaÍer.

Jo a
a
a
I
I
\
RECEIVED
UENCY
zul a
a
a
a
a
a

I
a FREQUENCY
a I
M DIFFERENCE
c,
= a I
\I a
a

t¡J 1 t
É, TRANSMITTED I
I¡. FREQUENCY I I
I
ì
a

-t _ -,,:ì¡l

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 82

Basic Indicator
LC'VI' ALTITL'E E
r,YAR,N¡NG K
LIG¡HT PotNTEFt BEIINE llAsr<
(D (E
ET
x lOO
1

2
20
RAtr¡IO ALT
3
PRESS
10 TO TEST'
HEIGHT
4 SELECT
5 E¡I'TTON

FLAG¡ LCtl^'
AL.A'FIlu ALTITL'E E
INE'Ex'

o The height scale is logarithmic, from zero to 500 feet, and at a reduced
non-linear scale from 500 to 2500 feet.
o The height pointer disappears behind a mask whenever:
o altitude exceeds 2500 feet.
o there is any fault in the transmitted signal.
o the altimeter is switched off.
o The warning flag appears when:
o there is too much radio noise which will comrpt the returning
signal.
o if local reflections are received from the airframe itself
o in the event of a loss of power to the equipment.
o The low height warning light illuminates if the aircraft is flown below
any pre-selected height set by the pilot.
Aircraft Installation Delav
o The radio altimeter is required to indicate zero height AGL as the main
wheels touch down on the runway.
o The height difference between the antennas and the bottom of the trailing
wheels on the main landing gear bogeys, on the approach to a touchdown,
is known as the Residual Height.
o The compensation for cable length is also catered for in the larger
aircraft as this would also generate an effor.
 Page 83

. The aircraft installation delay is therefore adjusted to compensate for

residual height and cable length.
. This is done to ensure that at touchdown with the main bogeys trailing
the radio altimeter reads zeÍo.

Dieital Read - Out

. On a Boeing aîarc appears atthe top right corner of the digital display
as the height reduces below 1000 ft AGL.
. A digital read-out in the form of a pictorial image of an altimeter dial is
drawn on some EFIS displays.
o The colour of the dial changes from white to'flashing amber as decision
height is approached.
o This arc reduces in size as the radio height decreases.
o On Airbus displays, the indication of height is given at the base of the
EADI / PFD attitude display.
o This height indication changes colour from Green to Amber and the
numbers also grow in size as Decision Height is passed.

Altilude

j illl
I

7¿tl

,l
RADIO
grô6n ebovc DH, emb.r belo!ìr DH end bigger numbcrô

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 84

GroundProximi@
The aim of the system is to give visual and audible warning signals to a
pilot when the aircraft's proximity to the terrain poses a potential threat
to its safefy.
OUTPUTS

HaGlmaiat
mõLr
Alr E'.ta lnd¡crtol
G¡æÞuta"
Otld Èl'r
DaYl üor¡
ì'laual
Unalæar?laga [Link]Âg
Fó¡úon
Fl.p. Poanloñ
Audlo
Nrvlgúlon Wartrlñg
ayro¡n

o ALERT: "A caution generated by the GPWS".

o WARNIING: *A command generated by the GPV/S"

Modes of GIWS
MODE Barometric Desce¡t R¿te
1 - Exçessive
. This mode gets activated if the aircraft descents excessively.
o It is independent of aircraft configuration.
. AURAL ALERT - SINK RATE, SINK RATE (repeated each 1.5
seconds)
o AURAL WARNING - 'WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP'.
o VISUAL. PULL UP.
AUFIAL ALERT - SIN}< RATE. SINK RATE
AIJRAL WARNING -'WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP'
VISIJAL -

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 85

MODE 2 - Excessive Terrain Closure Rate

o Mode 2 monitors Mach number, radio altitude rate of change,
barometric altitude and aircraft configuration.
. This mode gets activated if the aircraft gets dangerously close to the
terrain even when in level flight.
. As Mach number increases from 0.35 to 0.45 with gear up, the highest
radio altitude at which Mode 2 alert warning will occur is increased to
2450 feet.
. AURAL ALERT - 'TERRAIN, TERRAIN' (repeated each 1.5 seconds).
. AIIRAL WARNING - 'WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP'.
. VISUAL - PULL UP.
AURAL ALERT - 'TERR IN, TERRTAIN'
AIJRAL WARNING -'WHOOP WHOOP PULL UF'
VISUAL -

t I
e -

MODE 3 - Altitude Loss after Take-off or Go-around

o Activated if a descent is made during initial climb or go-around.
. Mode 3 is effective between 50 - 700 feet radio altitude.
. An alerl is generated when the height loss equals approxirnately l0o/o of
the existing barornetric altitude.
. Mode 3 does not arm during the descent until below 200 feet radio
altitude.
. AURAL ALERT -" DON'T SINK".
o VISUAL - PULL UP.
 Page l'ì6

MODE 4A - Unsafe Terrain Clearance with Landins Gear Not down

. Armed after take-off upon climbing through 700 feet radio altitude.
o At less than Mach 0.35. the aulal aleft "TOO LO\ry GEAR" is
sounded.
o at more than Mach 0.35, the aural alert "TOO LOW TERRAIN" is
sounded. (1000 ft AGL or below).
o AIIRAL ALERT - "TOO LOW GEAR" or "TOO LOW TERRAIN"
(repeated each 1.5 seconds).
. VISIJAL - PULL UP.
MODE 48 - Unsafe Terrain C rance with Flans Not in Landins
Configuration
. Gives alert when the gear is down and the flaps are not in the landing
position.
. At less than Mach 0.28 with the flaps not in the landing position, the
aural alert of "TOO LOW FLAPS'is sounded.
o At more than Mach 0.28, the aural alert of "TOO LOW TERRAIN"
is sounded (1000 ft AGL or below).
. The "TOO LO\ry GEAR" alert takes priority over the "TOO LOW
FLAPS''.
. AIIRAL ALERT - "TOO LOW FLAPS" or "TOO LOW TERRAIN"
(repeatêd each L5 seconds).
. VISUAL - PULL UP.
MODE 5 - Below Glide Slope Deviation Alert
. This mode alerts the flight crew of a descent of more than 1 .3 dots below
an ILS glide slope.
. The mode is arrned when a valid signal is being received by the glide
slopereceiver, gear is down and theradio altitude is 1000 feet orless.
. The voice message repetition rate is increased as the glide slope
deviation increases and the radio altitude decreases.
. The mode rnay be cancelled or inhibited by pressing either pilot's
BELOW G/S li_eht while below 1000 feet radio altitude.
. The mode will re-an¡ when climbing above 1000 feet radio altitude.
o Mode I to 4 aural alerts and warnings have priority over mode 5
aural alerts.
. AURAL ALERT - "[Link] SLOPE".
 Page 87

G/S
'l-.r¡¡¡r

o Mode A rtl low the

fiunlllulr
This mode operates between 50 ân 1000 feet of radio altitude.
a This alert is aural only and con sists of f MINIMUMS, MINIMUMS"
sounded ont*a,.u... ,.x,:^:.. ..
i,. ,,. ,..¡.,
. ,.,.
The mode isliè'armeä iiihen the radio altitude becomti3lgieater than that
selected DH.

MODE 6B Altitude Call-outs and Bank Ansle Alert

. This mode alerts the flight crew of excessive bank angles when below
DH.
. Aural alert generated is "BANK ANGLE".
MODE 7 Windshear Alertine
. In this mode, Visual and aural windshear warnings are given.
. Parameters monitored include ground speed, airspeed, barometric height,
rate of descent and radio altitude.
. Unlike the AWR display, there is no scanning beam looking ahead.
. The pilot to initiate the windshear go-around procedure earlier.
. Mode 7 warnings take priority over all other modes.

POTTIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 88

^^f ¿

o The re be positive and immediate.

o The irnrnediate response to a be to level the wings and to
initiate a maximum grad until the aircraft attains the
minimum safe altitude. .j \.
.
¿

Establishing the cause of GPWS âctivation should take second place.

. Circumstances when a climb to this altitude may þediscontinued are
when:
o The cause of the warning has been positively identified and the
warning has ceased.
o The aircraft is operated by day in clear visual conditions.
o lt is imrllediately obvious to the commander that the aircraft is not in
a dangerous situation.

Inhibition of GPWS Modes

. The EGPWS must not be de-activated.
. lnhibition may be required when the gear or flap position inputs ale
known to be non-standard.
. Inhibition of the glide slope mode rnay be required when the aircraft
is deliberately being flown without reference to the glide slope signal
 Page 89

Enhanced Ground Proximitv \üarning Svstem (EGPWSI

. GPWS does not "look ahead" and any Mode 2 warning when flight is
towards high ground will be dependent upon the steepness of the terrain.
. This limitation has been overcome by Enhanced GPWS with the
Terrain Threat Display.
. This uses an electronic map of the world (giving ground elevation) and
information from the aircraft's navigational system.
o Given the location of the aircraft, its course and height, a display can be
created showing the locations of terrain that could threaten the safety of
the aircraft.
¡ Using this system EGPWS can warn of approaching high terrain even
when that terrain is not in close enough proximity to initiate amode 2
warning.
o AURAL ALERT - ,,Caution Terrain" or "Terrain Ahead".
. AURAL WARNING. 'WHOOP WHOOP PULL UP'.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 90

Secondarv Surveillance Radar ISSRI

TRANSPOI{DER RECENER
(ATRBoRNE) 1030 ¡t 1090 ìlHz

II¡ÏERROGATOR' RESPOi¡SOR
l BASED)

at 1030 MHz 1090ltlÞ

Secondary radar receives pulses transmitted by the target in response to

interrogation pulses. Primary radar lacks in individual aircraft identification
positively, in crowded airspace. To gain the advantages of both the systems,
SSR is used in along with prirnary rada\ and they are usually co-located.
. SSR requires an aircraft to be fitted with a transmitter/receiver, called a
transponder.
o The transponder will transmit information automatically to the
interrogator.
o Transmissions are only one way from transmitter to receiver.
Advantaees of SSR
o Aircrafts are positively identified by displaying its code and call sign
alongside.
o Not dependent on an aircraft's echoing area or aspect.
o Requires less transmitting power to provide coverage up to 200 to 250
NM.
o An aircraft's track history, speed, altitude and destination are displayed
on the controller's screen among other info.
o A controller can identiff if an aircrafthas an emergency, like loss of
radio communication or a hi-jack.
o Clutter free responses.
o Information from the primary as well as the secondary radar is displayed
in combination on the same screen.

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 91

RAÞIO êIGN

ElAr r3l5
FLteHT LEVEL 42 (12OO Ff) 42L DE€¡T¡NATIO N LONDC
[Link]\^, (LL)
GROUND SPEED
(KNoTs) s266
ATF..RAFT posrrroN
*

AIRCRAFT TRACK

THE CALL S'GN, FL'GHT LEVEL AND DESTTNATION OF AN A'RCRAFTAS THEY APPEAR ON THE
RADAR D'SPLAY.

SSR Operation
. The ground station transmits on 1.030 MHz and receives on 1090 MIIz.
o The airqaftreceives on 1030 MHz and transmits on 1090 MHz after a
delay of 50 microseconds.
o The SSR ground antenna transmits a narow beam in the horizontal
plane.
o The aircraft transmits omni-directionally.
. The radiation pattern is circular around the aircraft.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 92

Modes
o Mode A-only aircraftidentification is obtained.
. Mode C - automatic height read out is also received (referenced to
1013 hPa) al with aircraft's track history, speed, and destination.

P1 P2 P3

2ps Mode
deîerrnined by
s¡>aclrr9

o The spacing between P1 and P2 is fixed at2 ps. The spacing between Pl
and P3 is 8 ps for a Mode A and 21 ps for a Mode C interrogation.
o On request from the ATC, when the "ident" button is pressed, a Special
Position Identification (SPI) pulse is transmitted for 20 seconds.
o Mode C provides Automatic Altitude Telemetering up to 128000 ft.
with an output change every 100 ft and provides the controller with the
aircraft's Flight Level or Altitude.
*Note: If there is a height discrepancy of more than 300 ft between the
ATC read-out and the reported level, the pilot will be instructed to
switch off Mode C or select a squawk eode 0000.
Special Codes
o 7700 Emergency condition.
o 7600 Communication failure.
. 7500 Unlawful interferences.
o 2000 No code allotted.
o 0000 Transponder failure.

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 93

Disadvantases of Mo -A&Mode-CSSR
Garbling
. This is caused by overlapping replies from two or more aircrafts on
nearly the same bearing from the ground station and within a distance of
1.7 NM apart.
Fruiting
. This is interference at one interrogator caused by replies from a
transponder responding to interrogations from another.

Code Availability
. Only 4096 Codes are available.
Mode S
. Introduced in order to overcome the limitations of Mode A & C.
o 16 700 000 discrete codes
. Can de arr-to

.Me ft's
CDU,
. Fleight and m an aircraft's

o Improved Integrity of Surveillance Data.

. eliminate synchronous garble.
. ATC gets a better current air picture and irnproved horizontal and
verlical tracking due to unarnbiguous aircraft identification.
. Alleviation of Modes A/C Code Shortage.
o Reduction of R/T Workload.
. Improvements to Short Tenn Conflict Alert.
 Page 94

Requires Transponder in aircreft and lnterrogator at ground

station,
Advantages over primary radar.
Aerial on top of primary radar.
call altítude or FL,
Frequencies Ground station transmits narrow beam at 1030 MHz and receives at
1090 MHz.
Aircraft [Link] at 1030 MHz and transmits omni-directionally at

ModeslReplies Mode A For identity (8 ps lnterrogation pulse spacing) 12 reply

pulses Eive 4096 cornbinations (20.3 ¡-rs spacing between
frarning pulses). Extra pulse (SPl) for squawk ldent (for
20 s).
Mode C For automatic pressurealtitude (21 ps interrogation
spacing). Transmitted and displayed every 100 ft (r 50 ft
from given level). Switch off if difference > 300 ft (200 ft
UK).
Specialcodes 7700 - emergency
7600 - radio failure
7500 - unlawful interference
Disadvantages of 55R Garblíng - overlapping replies if aircraft < 1.7 NM apart
Fruiting - interference caused by replies to other interrogation.
Limited codes 4096).
Mode S Features Selective addressing. Nearly 17 millíon codes from 24-bit address
Data lin k a ir-tegrou nd, grou nd-to-a ir, a i [Link]-air.
ht read-out in increments of 25 ft.
lnterrogation modes All Call- mode 5.
Broadcast (no reply),
Selective calling (unique aircraft address).
lnterrnode - Allcall.
Benefits of mode 5 Unambiguous aircraft identif ication.
I mproved su rveil la nce (e lim inates ga rble, resolves over- interrogation

and reflections).
lmproved situation awareness for radar controller,
No code shortage.
Reduced R/T.
short term conflict alert.
 Page 95

Questions

1. The special SSR codes are as follows: emergency ............... , radio failure
unlawful interference with the conduct of the flight
A. 7700 7600 7s00
B. 7700 7600 7s00
c. 7600 7500 7700
D. 7s00 76001700
2. Secondary Surveillance Radar is a form of radar with ..............type
emissions operating in the band
A. primary pulse SFIF
B. primary pulse UHF
C. secondary FM SIIF
D. secondary pulse UHF

3. If the SSR transponder IDENT button is pressed:

A. it causes a momentary distinctive display to appear on the controller's screen
B. an identihcation pulse is automatically and continuously transmitted for 20
seconds, 4.35 ps before the last frarning pulse
C. an identification pulse is automatically and continuously transrnitted for l0
seconds, 4.35 ¡rs after the last frarning pulse
D. an identification pulse is autornatically and continuously transmitted for 20
seconds, 4.35 ps after the last framing pulse

4. V/hen using SSR the ground controller will ask the pilot to cancel mode C if there is a
discrepancy of more than between the altitude detected by the radar from the
reply pulses and the altitude reported by the pilot read from an altitude with the subscale
set to
A. 100 ft Regional QNH
B. 300 ft 1013 HPa
C. 50 ft 1013 HPa
D. 300 ft Regional QNH

POETIC PILOT ACADEI\¡Y 88cp320787

 Page96

5. Secondary radars require:

A. atarget which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be an
aircraft
B. atarget which will respond to the interrogation, and this target will always be
ground based
C. a target which will respond to the interrogation, and this target may be either an
aircraft or a ground based transponder
D. a quiescent target
 Page97

Distance Measurins Equipment (DME)

It is a secondary tadar system the slant range of an alc

from
statlon rs
. DME pulses) in
all
. Ground s n recelve SC retransmrt after a time
interval of 50 ps on a freque +63 l|l4Hz from the received
frequency (to avoid locking transmission).
. The aircraft T4¿¡Ëfrhi it into slant
range.
. A 3 letter call sign is transrnitted every 30 seconds.
. used
Principle Secondary Radar random PRF
. Frequencyrange 962-l2l3MHZ
. Frequency Band tlHF
. Type of emission PON

Airborne Bquipment
. During the search phase, the interrogator transmits at a high rate of 150
pulse pair per second (ppps) for 100 seconds to achieve a quick lock-on
with the ground station. (Total 15000 ppps).
. If lock-on is not achieved, it will then reduce the rate to 60 ppps and
maintains this rate until there is a range lock-on.
. At lock-on the system operates at a random PRF of 27 ppps.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 98

23 t ¡--

PAI UPS

-$s|
sTATloN d.lõ!Æ ¡¡gh.l 5()
mlcroroønd¡ túrcn ralr.ôrnrl¡a 63 MH¿
ABOVE or BELOw E<c¡v.d [Link]
ATTHE SME RANrcM SPACIN6

VOF / ÞMÈ GRÞÙNÞ 3IAIION

Beacon Saturation
o A ground station can only transmit amaximumof 2700 ppps.
o Theoretically, a max of 100 aircraft can lock - on to a DME station at
any given time.
o The beacon is termed as saturated once 100 aircrafts are locked on to it.
o When more than 100 aircraft try to lock on to the DME station, the
ground equipment will reply t 100 signals by

''
Ground Siteêd CälðäiätTöö
o By calcu D ground
speed is
o Slant range distance and is highest when close to and
overhead the ground station. 3 times the height)
. Only calcu when trav,eJþ Po- the DME
. \ù/hen over h
- DME will Sfio of the airqaft
as range from the station

Range and Coverage

. DME transrnissions obey the 'line of sight' rule.
. The higher the aircraft, and the ground beacon, the greater the range.
o In case of a bank. the aircrafÌ's receiving antenna will be hidden but the
aircraft equiprnent has a l0 second memory circuit, and will to continue
displaying the range obtained.
o The DOC is specified as a range and height.
o Echo Protection Circuit is installed in the receiver to eliminate errors
arising from reflections.
 l)agc t)t)

Slant Range/Gl'ounrl R¿rnge Accrlracy

o The difference bet\À/een computed slant Íange and actr¡al grouncl distance

increases the higher an(l closer an aircraft gets in relation to the DME,.
a When the aircraft is directly over the DME (0 NM ground distance). it

will indicate the aircraft's height in nautical miles.

a An aircraft circling a DME beacor-r at a constant range will have an

indicated cornputed grouncl speed of zero knots.

B N M (2x4)

DME Rallqe Measurentent lbr ll-S

. When DME is pailecl with ILS. thc transponder is acljursted to gìve range
to the threshold.
. This is achieved by reciLrcing tlre time clelay at the transponcler.
. The tiure taken f'or the interrclgalion signal to travel from the runway
threshold to the transponcler. plr-rs the clelay at the transponder, plus the
time taken for the reply to travel fì'orr the trarrspc-rnder to the runway
thresholcl is 50 ¡-rs.

Accuracy
l-he total syste¡t errol' shgr-rlcl ltol cxceeci +l- 0.25 NM or +l-1.25%o g1-
range. 95% o[-tllc tinlcs.
 Page 100

UFIF band; 962 to 1213 MHz; 1 MHz spacing; 252 channels

+/- 63 MHz difference between transrnitted And received frequencies,
Selection by paired VHF frequency ( VOR or ILS ).
DME paired with ILS gives range zero referenced to lLS runway
threshold.
Uses Círcular position line; ground speed and time to/from station.
DME arcs.
Range and height checks during letdowns.
Accurate ränges to threshold,
RNAV.
Principle of Op Aircraft interrogator and receiver: transmits pairs of pulses at random
intervals, omni-directionally.
Ground station trañsponder: re-transmits all pulses at +/- 63 MHz
after a delay of 50 ps.
Slant Range Aircraft receiver identifies own pulses and determines range from
time interval between transmitted and received Þulses ( minus 50 ps ).
Pulse Characteristics Twin pulse used to avoid interference,
Jittered pulses are used to identify own pulses.
uçr rLy L aircraft locki on to reflections.
Range Search Pulse rate - initially 150 ppps.
- reduced to 60 pppsafter 15000 ppps.
-further reduced to about 25 at lock-on.
Beacon Saturation Occurs at 2700 ppps (approx 100 aircraft interrogating)
receiver gain reduced to respond only to strong pulses.
Station ldent 3 letter ídentifier; range info not available during ident period
VOR E Frequency Pairing:
Associated - if co-located or within 100 ft in TMA or 2000 ft outside TMA.
- call s are the same; uenctes red.
Not associated - if serving same location then call sign of DME third letter is 'Z'
- frequencies paired.
5eparated - íf > 6 NM apart; callsígns dífferent.
Coverage: Line of sight range; reduced by intervening high ground and bank
angle DOC gives protected range; echo protection circuit eliminates
ref lections.
Accu racy; +l-0.25 ¡¡¡¡ +l:1"25% of range (+l-0.2 NM for precision systems).
Slant range error significant when aircraft range < 3 * height.
Ground speed error increases as aircraft goes higher and closer to
statron,
 Page 101

Ouestions

1. Airborne DME equipment is able to discriminate between pulses intended for itself
and pulses intended for other aircraft because:
A. aircraft transmit and receive on different frequencies
B. aircraft will only accept unique twin pulses
C. aircraft reject pulses not synchronized with its own random pulse recurrence rate
D. each aircraft has its own frequency allocation

2. A DME beacon having a transmit frequency of 962 MHz would have a recelve
frequency of:
A. 1030 Mhz
B.902NIhz
C. 1025 }l4hz
D.962Mhz

3.A VOR/DME share the same first two letters of their respective identifiers; the last
identiffing letter of the DME is aZ. This rneans that:
A. they are co-located
B. they are more than 600 m apart but serve the same location
C. they are widely separated and do not serve the same location
D. they are a lraximum distance of 30 rn aparl

4. Distance Measuring Equipment is an example of radar operating on a

the
frequency of ............... in band.
A. primary 8800 MHz SHF
B. secondary 1030 Il;[Link] UHF
C. secondary 962 MHz UHF
D. primary 9375 MHz SHF

5. A DME transponder does not respond to pulses received from radars other than DME
because:
A. each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate
B. DME transmits and receives on different frequencies
C. it will only accept the unique twin DME pulses
D. DME only responds to the strongest 100 interrogators

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 88@320787

 Page 102

6. The range indicated by DME is considered to be accurate to within

A.3% of range
B. 1.25 o/o of range
C. 0.5 NM
D. +l-0.25 NM +l-l.25Yo of range

7. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogations and
replies to other aircraft because:
A. DME is secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a differen
frequency
B. DME transponders reply to interrogations with twin pulses and the airborne
equipment ejects all other pulses
C. each aircraft transmits pulses at a random rate and will only accept synchronized
replies
D. when DME is in the search mode it will only accept pulses giving the corect range

8. rWhen a DME transponder becomes saturated:

A. it revefts to standby
B. It increases the number of pulse pairs to meet the dernand
C. it increases the receiver threshold to remove weaker signals
D. it goes into a selective response mode of operation

9. An aircraft flying atFL250 wishes to intenogate a DME beacon situated 400 ft AMSL
What is the maximum range likely to be achieved?
4.210 NM
B. 198 NM
C. 175 NM
D. 222 NM

10. For a DME and a VOR to be said to be associated it is necessary for:

A. the DME to transmit on the saûìe VHF frequency as the VOR
B. the aerial separation not to exceed 100 ft in a TMA or 2000 ft outside a TMA
C. the aerial separation not to exceed 100 m in a TMA or 2000 m outside a TMA
D. both beacons to have the same first two letters for their ident but tl-re last letter of
the DME Í.obe a'7.'
 Page 103

I 1. The transmission frequency of a DME beacon is 63 MHz removed from the aircraft
interrogator frequency to prevent :
A. interference from other radars
B. the airbome receiver locking on to primary returns from its own transmissions
C. static interference
D. receiver accepting replies intended for other interrogators

[Link] accuracy associated with DME is:

A. + or - 3o/o of range, or 0.5 NM, whichever is greater
B. I or - 1.25% of range
C. + or - 3%o of range
D. +l-0.25 NM +/-1 .25% of range

13. For aVOR and a DME beacon to be said to be associated the aerial separation must
not exceed ............... in a terminal area and outside a terminal area.
A. 100 m 2000 m
B. 50 ft 200 fr
C.30m600m
D.50m200m

14. DME is a radar operating in the band and uses in order

to obtain range information. The correct words to complete the above statement are:
A. prirnary SHF CW signals
B. secondary UHF
twin pulse
C. secondary SHF 'Jittered pulses"
D. primary UHF
pulse pairs

15. The receiver of airborne DME equipment is able to "lock on" to its own "reply
pulses" because:
A. each aircraft has its own unique transmitter frequency and the receiver only accepts
reply pulses having this frequency
B. the reply pulses from the ground transmitter have the same frequency as the
incorning interrogation pulses fi'orn the aircraft
C. the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which have the same time interval
between successive pulses as the pulses being transmitted by its own transmitter
D. the aircraft receiver only accepts reply pulses which arrive at a constant time
interval

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 880Ð320787

 Page I 04

16. DME operates in the frequency band, it transmits which give it

the emission dcsignator of
A. SHF double size pulses P01
B. UHF twin pulses PON
C. EHF twin pulses A9F
D. UHF double pulses J3E

17. Referring to DME during the initial stage of the "search" pattem before "lock-on":
A. the airborne receiver checks 150 pulses each second
B. the airbome transrnitter transmits 150 pulses each second
C. the ground receiver maintains the ground transrritter pulse transmission rate at no
more than 150 per second
D. the aircraft transmits 24 pulses per second and the receiver checks a maximum of
I 50 pulses per second

DME and VOR are "fì'equency paired" because:

18.
A. the same receiver can be used for both aids
B. the VOR transrnitter is easily convefied to the required DME frequency
C. cockpit workload is reduced
D. both ground transmitter aerials can be placed on the salre site if required

19. A DME receiver is able to distinguish between replies to its own interrogation pulses
and those intended for other aircraft using the same transponder because:
A. DME is a secondary radar and each aircraft transmits and receives on a different
frequency
B. DME transponders reply to interrogations by means of twin pulses and the airborne
equiprnent rejects all single pulses
C. each aircraft transmits pulses at a randorn rate('Jittering") and will only accept
replies that match this randomization
D. when DME is in the range search mode it will accept only pulses separated by + or
- 63 MHz frorn the interrogation frequency
 Page 105

AIRBORNE COLLISION AI\D AVOIDANCE SYSTEM (ACASI

The system is designed to keep commercial aircraft clear of conflict,
independently of Air Traffic Control. An aircraft must carry a transponder
and have the facility to interrogate other airctaft transponders.

Principle
o Operates on the secondary radar principle.
. SSR frequencies of 1030 MHz and 1090 MHz are used (air to
air mode).
o TCAS system creates two protective three dimensional bubbles around
the TCAS equipped aircraft.

TA

TCAS I
. Simply warns the crew of other traffic in the vicinity of their aircraft.
. Detect and display range and approximate relative bearing.
. If the TCAS display aircraft and the intruder are carrying Mode C,
relative altitude will also be displayed.
. It generates visual and aural warnings - TRAFFIC ADVISORIES
(TAs) : "Traffic, Traffic".
. It does not give any resolution advisory information, i.e. a course of
action to follow.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 106

TCAS II
. TCAS II detects intruders in the TCAS aircraft's vicinity.
o Calculates the collision risk and presents warnings to the crew in the
form of TAs and Resolution Advisories (RAs).
o RAs offer manoeuvring advice in the vertical plane only.
o If your aitcraft and the intruder both have Mode S data link transponders
the system will co-ordinate the RAs to provide complementary vertical
avoidance instructions.
Aircraft Equipment
. Must have a minimum of a Mode ,,4" Transponder.
¡ If the transponder is switched off, or is unserviceable, the intruding aircraft
are invisible to the TCAS equipment.
o Mode A transponders transmit no height informatÍon and therefore
the information available to the TCAS equipment is two dimensional
only (only TAs).
o Mode "C" Transponder equipped intruders broadcast height information
to the TCAS equipment and the system becomes three dimensional (TAs
& RAs).
o Mode "S" Transponder TCAS equipped intruders allow a discrete data
link to be established between them.
o This allow avoidance manoeuvres to be mutually resolved.

a Traffic As) exl st when an ln penetrates the outer

bubble and is between 45 and 35 seconds from the collision area.
o TAs appear as solid amber circles on the TCAS display.
o The symbol is accompanied by the synthetic voice saying ,,Traffic,
Traffic". Thisis a potential collision threat.
o Resolution Advisories (RAs) exist when an intruder penetrates the inner
bubble warning area and is between 35 and 15 seconds from the collision
area.
o RAs appear as solid red rectangles on the TCAS display.
o The symbol is accompanied by the synthetic voice warnings (*Climb"
róIncrease Climbtt ttDescendtt ttfncrease t,Moniior Vertical
Descenttt
Speedtt ttDecrease Climbtt,,Decrease l)escenttt).
o RAs indicate a serious collision threat.

POETIC PILOTACADEMY
8800320787
 Page 107

CAUT¡ON AREA

TA
35-45
SECONDS

a S1 \ry StS

unless a
o The 1S Speed", ,

. Corrective
a -a

vlsorles are sr w a collísion risk exists and a

manoeuvre is necessary to avert
o The synthetic voiceproduces thê ate command.

o The range of an intruder is determined by measuring the time lapse

between transmission of an interrogation, and receiving the response
(Radar Principle).
. Normal detection range is approximately 30 NM, reducing to 5 NM when
operating reduced surveillance.
o The bearing of an intruder is determined by a directional antenna.
o Bearing resolution is the least accurate parameter.
o TCAS II
never offers collision avoidance commands in
the
horizontal plane; only in the form of climb or descend.
. The relative height of an intruder is found by comparing its Mode "C"
height with the TCAS equipped aircraft's height.
o The TCAS upper and lower antennas are directional while the Mode "S"
antennas are omnidirectional.

POETIC PITOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page 108

o The TCAS also has feeds from the radio altimeter to modify the RAs
received when in close proximity to the ground.
o No instructions given atallwhen the aircraft is below 400 ft AGL.
. No descent RAs are given below 1000 ft AGL.
. No increase rate of descent commands below 1450 ft AGL.
o V/hen the aircraft has gear andlor flap deployed its climb performance
will be poor so TCAS will avoid giving climbing demandi for an RA.
¡ At high altitudes, it will not give a climbing RA if the aircraftis close to
its performance ceiling.
Svnthetic Voice Prioritization
The synthetic voice is prioritized as follows:
o Stall Identification/Stall Prevention. (Stick-shake/Stick-push). The
synthetic voice is inhibited during stick shake/stick push operation.
o Windshear. The detection of performance decreasing windshear takes
first priority with the synthetic voice, inhibiting both GPV/S and TCAS
warnings.
o Ground Proximity Warning System (GpwS). Detection of approach
to terrain takes priority over TCAS announcements.
TCAS Disr¡lavs
Dedicated Plan Position Indícator
8ELÊCIED [Link]
INTRUDER OISPLAY
SYtBOt

10
NM

TD FAL [Link],
REI¡TIVE
ATTNUDE
cour¡ SHow
'TCAS OFF'

,0¡ r rì FAlt-
VERÏICAL

t
ARROYV
R ïEtg
rltAl{ 600
It mln.l
2NM
RANSE RINO

OWN AIRCRAFT
SYMBOL
OFF 1^
scAt f ONLY
NO BI:ARING

OFF 9CALE
TESSAOE 1A ONLY
MEgSAGE

NO EEAR¡NO
INTRUDER

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY

8800320787
 Page 109

Electroníc Veftical Speed Indícator

Superimposed on Navigation Dísplay of EFIS Equipped Aircraft

te Traffic/Other Traffic
o Proximate traffic appears as a Solid Cyan diamond and represents
transponder equipped aircraft within 6 NM and within+l-1200 feet.
o TCAS does not consider this traffic as a threat.
o Other traffic appears as a Hollow Cyan Diamond and represents
transponder equipped aircraft within range of display and +/- 2700 feet.

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320787

 Page I l0

o The predicted flight paths of proximate and other Traffic do not

penetrate the Collision Area of the TCAS aircraft.
. A + sign indicates the intruder is above, - sign below your aircraft.
o A trend arrow 1 or J appears alongside the symbol when the intruder's
vertical rate is 500 feet per minute or greater.
o No altitude number or trend affow will appear beside an intruder that is
non-altitude reporting. (No Mode C/S transponder).
Action Be Taken on TAs RAs
Action on Receiving a TA
o TAs alert flight crews to the possibility that an RA may follow.
' If visibility permits, flight crews should start a visual search of that part
of the sky.
o They should also prepare to respond to an RA if the situation worsens.
o If the potential threat cannot be seen and continues to give cause for
concern, flight crews should seek advice from ATC.
Action on Receiving an RA
o Pilots are to initiate the required manoeuvre immediately.
They are to inform ATC as soon as possible of any deviation from an
' ATC clearance.
¡ Manoeuvres should never be made in a direction opposite to that
given in an RA.
Disregarding RAs
. RAs may be disregarded only when pitots visually identify the
potentially conflicting traffïc and decÍde no deviation from the
current flight path is needed.
o If pilots receive simultaneously an instruction to manoeuvre from ATC
and an RA, and both conflicts, the advice given by TCAS should be
followed.

POETIC PILOTACADEMY
8800320787
 Pagelll

Ouestions

1. On receipt of a TCAS RA your action is to:

A. initiate the required manoeuvre immediately
B. make a note of the details
C. request a flight clearance deviation from ATC
D. do nothing until a TA is received

2. Which of the following statements concerning TCAS is corect:

A. TCAS II provides avoidance instructions in the vertical and horizontal planes
B. TCAS II cannot provide information on non-SSR equipped intruders
C. TCAS II requires Mode S to be fitted to other aircraft
D. TCAS II provides advice on which way to turn

3. With reference to Tra)c Collision Avoidance Systems. The difference between

TCAS I and II is that:
A. TCAS II can provide Trao/oc Advisories and Resolution Advisories whilst
TCAS I can only provideTrao/oc Advisories
B. TCAS II can only be fitted to large aircraft which carry more than 30
passengers whilst TCAS I can be fitted to any aircraft
C. TCAS I can be fitted to aircraft which carry transponders with Mode A only
whilst TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft whose transponders include
either Mode C or Mode S
D. TCAS II can only be fitted to aircraft which are equipped with EFIS

4. The aural messages provided by TCAS II are:

A. Threat, Clirnb; Threat, Descend
B. Climb left; Climb right; Descend left; Descend right
C. Clirnb; Descend; Increase Climb; Increase Descent
D. Turn Left, Turn Right, Increase Turn, Decrease Turn
 Page l'12

5. With reference to Tra)c Collision Avoidance Systems:

A. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the
potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and
has the clearance confirmed by ATC
B. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifîes the
potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary and
has advised ATC of the other aircraft's proximity
C. RAs must never be disregarded
D. RAs may be disregarded only when the pilot visually identifies the
potentially conflicting traffic and decides that no deviation is necessary
 Page I 13

AREA NAVIGATION SYSTEM IRNAV)

RNAV is a method of instrument flight rules (IFR) navigation that allows an
aircraft to choose any course within a network of navigation beacons, rather
than navigate directly to and from the beacons. Area navigation used to be
called "random navigation", hence the acronym RNAV.
tional Performance
o A ceftain level of accuracy must be met when RNAV is used, called
RNP.
o RNP must be met 95Yo of the flying time in both lateral and longitudinal
directions.
. The required accuracy is achieved by using some or all of the following
inputs.

Inputs required
o VOR/DME
a
a
a

O ADC
a Time

NEVì' 114-25

lñfa¡rpolnt 3 GATEFT
i¡ls
ssۍJz-q

POLí 12-1 F¡NAV

FìOL'TE

AIFIVì|AYS -¿z
FÈOIJTE sdreJaíarirs
Vìfaypolnt I
DTY 1',6-4

LAfvl I ls-6
!EÈf\¡t::¡ aarâ-Ê
 Page I 14

Benefits of RNAV
. RNAV allows aircraft to take a more direct flight path.
o Reduction in distance, flight timc and fuel consumption.
o Greater flexibility and choice of routes.
. An increase in the present route capacity by rnaking full use of the
available airspace.
. Parallel or dual routes and bypass routes for overflying aircraft in high
density terminal areas.
o Reduction in vertical and horizontal separation criteria.
Tvnes and of R|IAV
. Basic RNAV (B-RNAÐ is required to give a position accuracy to
within NM on at least95Yo of the occasions.
5
. Precision RNAV (P-RNAV) must be accurate to within 1.0 NM on at
least95o/o of the occasions (Terminal airspaces).

o2D o pl
. 3DRN ve
. 4DRNA
A Simnle 2I) RNAV Svstem
Simple 2D RNAV system includes tñe following components:
. Navigation Cgr-rpgte¡ Unit.
o Control and Display Unit (CDU).
. Indicator in the forrn of a:
o Course Deviation Indicator (CDI) or
o Horizontal Situation Indicator (HSI)
o It uses Rho/Theta (Range/Bearing) to define position.
. This is derived from range and bearing infonnation from voR/DME.
. The pilot defines waypoints along the route to be flown as range and
bearing from suitably located VOR/DME (Phantom stations).
Limitations of 2D RNAV
. Dependent upon line of sight.
. Can only be used within the DOC.
o DME ranges are slant.
. Info entered in the CDU must be correct
 Page I 15

4D RNAV
o The equipment used for 4D RNAV is much more sophisticated (FMS).
o Most accurate position is calculated by using DME/DME as VOR is less
accurate (VOR accuracy is +/- 5").
. To calculate actual W/V, 4D RNAV computer receives TAS from ADC
and heading input from INR/IRS.
. Can perform Great Circle navigation when receiving VOR/DME station.
o If out of range from VOR/DME station, the system revefts to Dead
Reckoning (DR) mode, where it updates the position by rìeans of last
cornputed position, wind, TAS and heading info.

Kalman Filtering
. Kalman filtering is the process used within a navigation computer to
combine the short-term accuracy of the IRS with the long-term accuracy
of the external reference.
. It is a sophisticated of measurements observed
over of the
aircraft
. Initially bùt as the IRS
erïors pro w the most
accurate.
. The position inforrnation will when the aircraft is on final

*Note: The FMS position calculated by the INS/IRS is least accurate

at the TOD.
*es the flight progresses the IRS position degrades at around 1 NM/h.
.1. Since the DME eror is constant, the DME fixing will be significantly
more accurate than the IRS.
.1. et 100 NM the eror will a maxìmum of 1 .5 NM.
 Page I 16

Questions

1. The accuracy required of a precision area navigation system is

4.0.25 NM
B.2NM
[Link]
D. 0.5 NM

2. A basic 2D RNAV system will determine tracking information frorn:

A. twin DME
B. VOR/DME
C. twin VOR
D. any of the above

3. An aircraft using a basic 2D RNAV system is on a section between WPI and WP2,
a distance of 45 NM. The aircraft is 20 NM frorn the phantorn station, which is
270" 130 NM from the VOR/DME. The aircraft is I 5 NM frorn the VOR/DME.
The range read- out will show:
A. 15 NM
B. 20 NM
C. 25 NM
D. 30 NM

4. The sequence of displays accessed on initialization is

A. POS INIT, IDENT, RTE
B. IDENT, RTE, POS INIT
C. IDENT, POS INIT, RTE
D. POS INIT, RTE, IDENT

5. The IRS position can be updated:

A. on the ground only
B. at designated positions en route and on the ground
C. on the ground and overhead VOR/DME
D. at selected waypoints and on the ground
 Page 117

6. Refer to Appendix A. What are the correct selections to insert the most accurate
position into the IRS?
A. 3R then 4R
B. 2R then 4R
C. 4R then 3R
D. 3L then 4R

7. The position used by the FMC in the B737-400 is:

A. an average of the two IRS positions
B. an average of the two IRS positions, smoothed by the Kalman filtering process
C. taken from the selected IRS, smoothed by Kalman filtering and updated to the
extemal reference
D. generated from the external reference and updated by the IRS as part of the
Kalman filtering process

8. The FMC position will be at its most inaccurate:

A. on take-off
B. at TOC
C. at TOD
D. on final approach

9. Which positions can be input to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?

A. SIDS & STARS, reporting points and airways designators
B. Navigation facilities, reporting points and airways designators
C. SIDS & STARS and latitude and longitude
D. Latitude and longitude, reporting points and airways designators

10. The FMC navigational database can be accessed by the pilots

A. to update the database
B. to read information only
C. to change information between the 28 day updates
D. to change the infonnation to meet the sector requirements

I 1. Above latitudes of 84o a twin FMS/triple IRS system will go to de-coupled

operations. The reason for this is:
A. to prevent error messages as the IRS longitudes show large differences
B. to ease the pilot's workload
C. to improve the system accuracy
D. because the rnagnetic variation changes rapidly in high latitudes

POETIC PILOTACADEMY 8æ0320787

 Page ll8

[Link] maximum range at which VOR bearing information will be used by the
8737-400 FMC for fixing is:
A. 10 NM
B. 25 NM
C. 50 NM
D. 60 NM

13. Concerning FMC operation, which of the following is true:

A. the FMC combines the long term accuracy of the IRS with the short term
accuracy ofthe external reference
B. the FMC combines the long term accuracy of the IRS with the long term
accuracy ofthe external reference
C. the FMC combines the short term accuracy of the IRS with the shorl term
accuracy ofthe external reference
D. the FMC combines the short term accuracy of the IRS with the long term
accuracy ofthe external reference

14. The correct format for the input of position 50N 005278to the CDU is:
A. 5000.0N00527.0E
B. N50E00527
c. N5000.0E00527.0
D. N5000800527

15. The period of validity of the navigational database is:

4.28 days
B. 1 month
C. 9l days
D. determined by the national authority and may be from 28 days to 91 days

Appendix A

),r21 rg
f8f rr¿1 ro
iì 21 rtzï te
DO0Ð0 .0000 "[Link]
la32.z t 59t2a
<¡IIDET n0ulE >
 Page I 19

Global Navieation Satellite Systems (GNSS)

At present S.

. The NA by the
USA.
. The Global Orbiting Navigation Satellite System (GLONASS)
operated by Russia.
. The satellites
',spacevehîclgs
(SVs) calculate their positions at all points
in their orbits. The SVs' orbital position is known as "ephemeris".
. GNSS use an earth referenced three-dirnensional Carlesian coordinate
system with its origin at the centre of the earth.
. The World Geodetic Survey of 1984 (WGS84) is used a model.
. WGS84 is the ICAO standard for aeronautical positions.
The GPS Sesments
GPS comprises three segments:
o The Space Segrnent
. The Control Segrnent and
. The User Segment
o GPS tirne is referenced to UTC
 Page 120

The Soace Se gment

o No. of SVs Originally 24 satellites (currently 3l ).
. orbitalheight 10898NM(20 180krn).
. Orbital period 12 hours.
. Inclination plane 55" (equally spaced around the equator).
o An observer on or close to the surface of the earth will have between five
and eight SVs in view, at least 5o above the horizon.
. The SVs have 3 or 4 atomic clocks of caesium or rubidium.
. An SV will be masked (not selected for navigation use) if its elevation is
less than 5o above the horizon.
. The SVs broadcast pseudo-random noise (PRN) codes of lrns duration
on 2 frequencies in the UHF band and a NAV and SYSTEM data message.
. Each SV has its own unique code (PRN).
Frequencies
. Ll Frequency: 1575.42 MHz transinits the coarse acquiSition (C/A) code
repeated"eVëry milliseCond with amo¿lulation of 1.023 MÈ{z;the precision
(P) code, modulation 10.23 MFIz repeáts every seven iïàys and the
navigation and system data message at 50}{2.
. The navigation and systern data message is used by both the P and C/A
codes.
. L2 Frequency: 1227.6 ltl4Jlz transmitting the P code. The second
frequency is used to determine ionospheric delays.
. L3 Frequency: 1381.05 MHz has been allocated as a second frequency
for non-authorized users and its use is the same as the L2 frequency.
. Only the C/A code is available to civilian users.
. The P code is provided lor the US rnilitary.
. The PRN codes provide SV identification and a tirning function for the
receiver to measure SV range.
. The information contained in the nav and system data message is:
o SV position
o SV clock time
o SV clock error
o Inforn-ration on ionospheric conditions.
 Page 121

o Supplementary information, including the almanac (orbital parameters

for the SVs), SV health (P-code only), correlation of GPS time with
llTC and other command and control functions.

The Control Segment

0s
I [Link] CONTROT STAIION

a. o
I n¡¡sr¡n coNTRoL srATtoN Þ
MONITOR STATION

A CROUND ÂNTEil¡NA

tl È"
¿)

A
t

^ ^
DIEGO
6ARCIA

I-'
,,)b
t

The GPS control segment comprises:

o A Master Control Station.
. A Back-up Control Station.
. 5 Monitoring Stations.
. SV orbits are affected by the gravitational influences of the sun, tnoon and
planets and are also affected by solar radiation, resulting in errors between
cornputed position and actual position.
. The monitoring stations check the SV's internally cornputed position and
clock time at least once every 12 hours.
. When a positional error is detected by the ground station, it is sent to the
SV for the SV to update its knowled-se of position.
 l)age 122

The User Sesment

INITIAL LATITUDE UTC DATE UTC TIiIE IN|TNL LONGITUDE

NEARESTAIRPORT BEARING AND RANGE FROM AIRPORT

The user segment is all the GPS receivers.

. Sequential receivers use one or two channels and scan the SVs
sequentially.
. Multiplex receivers may be single or twin channel and are able to move
quickly between SVs, and hence have a faster time to first f,rx than the
sequential receivers.
. Multi-channel receivers rnonitor several SVs simultaneously to give
instant positional information.
. Because the orbits are nrathematically defined, an almanac of their
predicted positions oan be and is maintained within the receivers.
. When the receiver is switched on, provided it knows its posìtion and tilne.
it will l<now which SVs to expect and can conìlrence position update
imrnediately.
. The first fix, on initialization. will be obtained within about 30 seconds.
. If the altnanac is corrupted it, the leceiver will clownload the ahranac
data frorn the SVs.
. The alnranac data takes 12.5 minurtes to downloacl.
. The receiver will now carry out a skysearch.
. Thìs tal<es a least a firther 2.5 ntinutes.
o Hence the time to first fix will be at least l5 minutes.
. The receiver Llses fbur SVs ancl constructs a three-dimensional fix using
the pseudo-ranges fiont the 4 SVs.
 Page 123

GPS Errors
Ephemeris Enors
. These are errors in the SVs calculation of position caused by the
gravitational effects of the sun, moon, planets and solar radiation.
. The maximum error will be 2.5 m.
SV Clock Eryor
o As with SV ephemeris, the SV clock is checked at least every l2 houls
and any error is passed to the SV to be included in the broadcast.
. Maximum error 1.5 rn.
I onosp her ic Prop agøtio n E rr o r
. Radio energy slows down as it travels through the ionosphere, this is
known as the ionospheric delay.
. The higher the frequency, luy
. The higherthe levels of
. This the S.

o As2 di the
rlifference in [Link] thc total delay is,calculated.
o This is the most significant of errors in SV navigation systems.
o Maximum error for single frequen

Receiver Noise Emor

. All radio receivers generate internal noise.
. It can cause errors in measurement of the time difference.
Multipath Reception
o Happens due to reflectious from the gror-rnd atrd parts of the aircraft.
. Can be rninimized by calefil siting of the aerial and by internal
processing techniques.

Effect of Aircraft Manoeuvre

o Aircraft manoeuvre may result in parl of the ailcraft shadowing one or
ûìore of the in-use SVs.
. When the SV is shadowed, the signal may be lost resulting in less
accuracy.
 Page 124

o Or the receiver may lock onto reflections from other parts of the aircraft
again with a reduction in accuracy.
. The optimum position for the antenna is on top of the fuselage close to
the aircraft's centre of gravity.

System Accuracv
The ICAO specification requires an accuracy of 95%o:
Horizontal: + 13 rn
Vertical: + 22 m
Time: 40 nanoseconds (10-9)

ilution of Prec n
The SV geometry that will provide the most accurate fixing infonnation is
one SV directly overhead the receiver and the other three SVs close to the
horizon and spaced 120" apart.

Better GDOP Worse GDOP

I I ia a

Differential GPS IDGPS)

. DGPS is a means of irnproving the accuracy of GPS by rnonitoring the
integrity of the SV data and warning the user of any errors which occul'.
. DGPS systems will provide warning of failure in the SV data and prevent
or tninimize the effect of such errors, or provide failure warning and
improve the accuracy of the deduced position.
 Page 125

There are three kinds of DGPS currently in use or under development

. Airbased augmentation systems (ABAS).
. Ground based augmentation systems (GBAS).
. Satellite based augmentation systems (SBAS).

Air Based Ausmentation Systems (ABAÐ

o By comparing positions generated by the combinations of the 5 SVs, it is
possible to detect effors in the data, and hence which SV is in error.
. The faulty SV can then be deselected. However, once the system is back
to 4 SVs the monitoring facility is lost.
o It is recommended to have a minimum of 6 SVs available, so that if a SV
is deselected the integrity monitoring continues to be available.
. The GPS term for this is "receiver autonomous integrity monitoring"
(RAII\[).

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Questions

1. NAVSTAR/GPS operates in the ....... band the receiver determines position by

A. UHF range position lines
B. UHF secondary radar principles
C. SHF secondary radar principles
D. SHF range position lines

[Link] NAVSTAR/ GPS control segment comprises:

A. the space segment, the user segment and the ground segment
B. a ground segrnent and the INMARSAT geostationary satellites
C. a master control station, a back-up control station and five monitoring stations
D. a master control station, a back-up control station, five monitoring stations and the
INMARSAT geostationary satellites

3. The orbital height and inclination of the NAVSTAR/GPS consrellation are

4.20 180 km, 65'
8.20 180 lcn, 55o
C. l9 099 km, 65o
D. 19 099 km, 55'

4. The model of the earth used for NAVSTAR/GPS is:

A. WGSgO
B. PZgO
C. WGS84
D. PZ84

5. The mìnimum number of satellites required for a 3D fix is:

4.3
8.4
c.5
D.6

6. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises how n'ìany satellites?

A .12
B .21
C '24
D 30
 Page 127

7. The most accurate f,rxing information will be obtained from:

A. four satellites spaced 90" apart at 30o above the visual horizon
B. one satellite close to the horizon and 3 equally at 60" above the horizon
C. one satellite directly overhead and 3 equally spaced at 60o above the horizon
D. one satellite directly overhead and 3 spaced 120" apart close to the horizon

8. The most significant effor of GNSS is

A. PDOP
B. receiver clock
C. ionospheric propagation
D. ephemeris

9. The frequency available to non-authorized users ofNAVSTAR/GPS is

A. 1227 .6 }¡4Hz
B. 1575.42MH2
C. 1602 MHz
D. 1246 l¿4Hz

10. The purpose of the pseudo-random noise codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

A. identiff the satellites
B. pass the almanac dafa
C. pass the navigation and system data
D. pass the ephemeris and time information

1 The minimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity

1.
monitoring is:
4.3
8.4
c.5
D.6

[Link] rninimum number of satellites required for receiver autonomous integrity

monitoring is:
A.2.5 minutes
B. 12.5 minutes
C.25 minutes
D. 15 minutes

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13. The use of LAAS and V/AAS remove the errors caused by:
A. propagation, selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock
B. selective availability, satellite ephemeris and clock
C. PDOP, selective availability and propagation
D. receiver clock, PDOP, satellite ephemeris and clock

14. The most accurate satellite fixing infonnation will be obtained from
A. NAVSTAR/GPS & GLONASS
B. TRANSIT & NAVSTAR/GPS
C. COSPAS/SARSAT & GLONASS
D. NAVSTAR/GPS & COSPASiSARSAT

15. A LAAS requires:

A. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT
geostationary satellites to pass conections to X, Y & Z coordinates to aircraft
B. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a link through the INMARSAT
geostationary satellites to pass satellite range comections to aircraft
C. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and a system known as a pseudolite
to pass satellite range corrections to aircraft
D. an accurately surveyed site on the aerodrome and system known as a pseudolite to
pass corrections to X, Y &. Z coordinates to aircraft

16. The position derived from NAVSTAR/GPS satellites may be subject to the following
errors:
A. selective availability, sky wave interference, PDOP
B. propagation, selective availability, ephemeris
C. PDOP, static interference, instrument
D. epherneris, PDOP, siting

17. EGNOS is:

A. the proposed European satellite navigation systern
B. a LAAS
C. a WAAS
D. a systenr to remove errors caused by the difference between the model of the earth
and the actual shape of the earth
 Page 129

18. The PRN codes are used to:

A. determine the time interval between the satellite transmission and receipt of the
signal at the receiver
B. pass ephemeris and clock data to the receivers
C. synchronize the receiver clocks with the satellites clocks
D. determine the range of the satellites from the receiver

19. The availability of two frequencies in GNSS:

A. removes SV ephemeris and clock etrors
B. reduces propagation errors
C. reduces enors caused by PDOP
D. removes receiver clock effors

20. The NAVSTAR/GPS reference system is:

A. A geo-centred 3D Cartesian coordinate system fixed with reference to the sun
. B. A geo-centred 3D Cartesian coordinate system fixed with reference to the prime
meridian, equator and pole
C. A geo-centred 3D Cartesian coordinate system fixed with reference to space
D. A geo-centred 3D system based on latitude, longitude and altitude

2l . The initial range calculation at the receiver is known as a pseudo-range, because it is

not yet corrected for:
A. receiver clock errors
B. receiver and satellite clock effors
C. receiver and satellite clock errors and propagation errors
D. receiver and satellite clock errors and epherneris errors

22.'[he navigation and system data message is transmitted through the:

A. 50 Hz modulation
B. the CIA and P PRN codes
C. the C/A code
D. the P code

23. An all in view recelver:

A. informs the operator that all the satellites required for fixing and RAIM are in
available
B. checks all the satellites in view and selects the 4 with the best geornetry for fixing
C. requires 5 satellites to produce a 4D fix
D. uses all the satellites in view for fixing

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[Link] using GNSS to carry out a non-precision approach the MDA will be
determined using:
A. barometric altitude
B. GPS altitude
C. radio altimeter height
D. either barometric or radio altimeter altitude

[Link] an aircraft manoeuvre puts a satellite being used for fixing into the wing shadow
then:
A. the accuracy will be unaffected
B. the accuracy will be temporarily downgraded
C. the receiver will autornatically select another satellite with no degradation in
positional accuracy
D. the parts of the
ti

26. Which of S time is correct?

A. Satellite
B. The satellite runs its own tirne'[Link] on seconds and weeks which is independent of
UTC :

C. The satellitolqrl'q$tsptv¡ time,based on seconds and weeks which is correlated

with UTC
D. Satellite time is based on sidereal tirne
 Page 131

RADIO NAVIGATION

Questions
1. When would VDF be used for a position fix?
a. When an aircraft declares an emergency on any frequency
b. When first talking to an FIR on crossing an international boundary
c. When joining controlled airspace from uncontrolled airspace
d, When declaring an emergency on 121.500 MHz

2. What equipment does an aircraft need when carrying out a VDF let-down?
a. VHF radio
b. VOR
c. VOR/DME
d. None

3. Which of the following is an advantage of a VDF let-down?

a. No equipment required in the aircraft
b. No special equipment required in the aircraft oron the ground
c, Only a VHF radio is needed in the aircraft
d. lt ¡s pilot interpreted, so ATC is not required

4. What is raft at
FLOSO?
a.134 NM
b.107 NM
c. 91 NM
d. 11-4 NM

5. Which of the following statements rega n finding (VDF) is most accurate?

a. lt is simple and only requires a VHF radi
req
b. lt is simple and t r^ ;\ b.i.,'
requirin
c. lt is simple d {.". $1'g Y
d. lt uses line of sight propagation

6. What is the wavelength corresponding to a frequency of 375 kHz?

a.8m
b.80 m
c.800 m
d. 8000 m

7. An NDB transmlts a signal pattern which is:

a. a 30 Hz polar diagram
b. omní-directional
c. a bi-lobal pattern
d. a beam rotat¡ng at 30 Hz

8. The accuracy of ADF within the DOC by day is:

a. +/- I"
b. +l- 2"
c. +/- 5"
d. +l- r0"

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9, Given that the compass heading is 270", the deviation is 2'W, the variation is 30'E and the relative
bearing of a beacon is 3L6", determine the QDR:
a.044
b. 048
c. O74
d.224

L0, Two NDBs, one 20 NM from the coast and the other 50 NM further inland. Assuming coastal error is
the same for each, from which NDB will an aircraft flying over the sea receive the greatest error?
a. The NDB at 20 NM
b. The NDB at 50 NM
c. Same when the relative bearing is090/270
d. Same when the relative bearing is 180/360

1L. Which of the follow¡ng is likely to have the greatest effect on the accuracy of ADF bearings?
a. lnterference from other NDBs particularly by day
b. lnterference between aircraft aerials
c. lnterference from other NDBs, particularly at nlght
d. Frequency drift at the ground station

12. Which of the following are all errors

a. Selective
b. Night
c. Mountain
d. Selective avail

13. What action m

a. BFO on
b. Select the loop positlon
c. Both the loop and sense aerials must receiv
nopjp
ffiT*{" ¡ L. 'r &{, Å
d' serectthe Looe
ffi flvly
14. When is coastal error at its worst for an aircraft at low level?
a. Beacon inland at an acute angle to the coast
b. Beacon inland at 90" to the coast
c. Beacon close to the coast at an acute angle to the coast
d. Beacon close to the coast at 90'to the coast

15. L5. A radio beacon has a range of 10 NM. By what factor should the power be increased to achieve a
range of 20 NM?
a. 16
b.2
c.4
d.8

16. Which of the following is the most significant error in ADF?

a. Quadrantal error
b. Coastal refraction
c. Precipitation static
d. Stat¡c from Cb

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L7. Which of the following may cause inaccuracies in ADF bearings?

a. Static interference, he¡ght effect, lack of failure warning
b. Station interference, mountain effect, selective availability
c. Coastal refraction, slant range, night effect
d. Lack of failure warning, station interference, static interference

18. The allocated frequency coverage of NDBs is:

a. 250 - 450 kHz
b. 190 - 1750 kHz
c. L08 - 117.95 MHz
d. 200 - 500 kHz

1-9. The principle used to measure VOR bearings is:

a. phase comparison
b. switched cardioids
c. difference in depth of modulation
d. pulse technique
20. When converting VOR and ADF bearings to true, the variation at the ...... should be used for VOR and
at the ...... for ADF.
a. aircraft aircraft
b. aircraft station
c. station
d. station

2L. An aircraft fli 13W and the

variation at the
a. 01-3
b. 00s
c. 193
d. 187

22.22.1n a convent¡ I ðf#. æ;'.l ¡L"å M Hz modulation. The

variable signal modulation is produced byl
a. adding 30 Hz to the transmitted signal
b. a 30 Hz rotat¡on producing a 30 Hz modulation
c. varying the amplitude up and down at +/-30 Hz
d. using Doppler techniques to produce a 30 Hz amplitude modulation

23. lf the VOR accuracy has a limit of 1-.0", what is the maximum cross-track error at 200 NM?
a. 3.0 NM
b. 2.s NM
c. 2.0 NM
d.3.s NM

24. What is the maximum distance apart a VOR and TACAN can be located and have the same
identification?
a. 2000 m
b.60 m
c. 600 m
d.6 m

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25. What is the maximum distance between VOR beacons designating the centre line of an airway (10
NM wide), if the expected VOR bearing error is 5.5"?
a. 120 NM
b. 109 NM
c.60 NM
d. s4 NM

26' ln a certain VORTAC installation the VOR is coding STN and the DME is coding STZ. This means that
the distance between the two beacons is in excess of:
4.600 m
b.100 m
c. 2000 m
d. 300 m

27. Usîng a 5 dot CDl, how many dots would show for an aircraft on the edge of an airway at 100 NM
from the VOR beacon?
a.5
b.2.s
c. 1.5
d.3

28, The ft is
a.275 NM
b.200 NM
c.243 NM
d.220 NM

29. When tracking a VOR radial inbound the flv:

a. a constant track
b. a great circle track

;;;ffi;;;;il'P fr'-ä-f {" p*t-

re
c. a rhumb line track 'T
Af,ADffiMY
30. Which of the following is a valid frequency (MHz) for a VOR?
a.1,07.75
b. 109.90
c. L18.35
d. 1t2.20

31. Using a VOR beyond the limits of the DOC may result in:
a. loss of signal due to line of sight limitations
b, interference from other VORs operating on the same frequency
c. sky wave contamination of the VOR signal
d. scalloping errors

32. An aircraft is flying a heading of 090'along the equator, homing to a VOR. lf variation at the aircraft is
10"E and 15"E at the VOR, what is the inbound radial?
a.075
b. 105
c. 255
d. 28s

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33. When identifying a co-located VOR/DME the following signals are heard in the Morse code every 30
seconds:
a. 4 identifications in the same tone
b. 4 identifications with the DME at a higher tone
c. 4 identifications with the DME at a lower tone
d. no DME identification, but if the VOR identification is present and a range is indicated then this shows
that both are serviceable

34. What is the maximum range a transmission from a VOR beacon at 169 ft can be received by an
aircraft at F1012?
a.60 NM
b.80 NM
c. 1-20 NM
d.220 NM

35. An aircraft is tracking inbound to a VOR beacon on the 105 radial. The setting the pilot should put on
the OBS and the CDI indlcations are
a. 285, TO
b. 105, TO
c. 285, FROM
d. 105, FROM

36. When tra

a. a straight lin
b. a rhumb line
c. a great circle
d. a constant true

37. The frequency band of VOR is:

a. VHF

ii'
b. UHF
i p ffi-råf, Flf * Y é. t ffi v
[Link]&MF

38. On which radial from a voR at 61N025E (vAR 13"E) is an aircraft at 59N025E (VAR 20"E)?
a. 160
b.341
c. L93
d. 167

39. What is the minimum height an aircraft must be to receive signals from a VOR at 196 ft AMSL at a

range of 175 NM?

a. 26 000 ft
b. 16 000 ft
c. 24 000 ft
d. 20 000 ft

40. For a conventional VOR a phase difference of 090" would be achieved by flying from the
beacon:
a. west
b. north
c. east
d. south

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41' At a range of 200 NM from a VOR, ¡f there is an error of L', how far off the centre line is the aircraft?
a.3.5 NM
b. 1.75 NM
cTNM
d.1NM

[Link] quoted accuracy of VOR is valid

a. at all times
b. by day only
c. at alltimes except night
d. at all times except dawn and dusk

43. Which of the following provides distance information?

a. DME
b. VOR
c. ADF
d. VDF

44. Which of the following would give the best indication of speed?
a. A VOR on the fl¡ght plan route
b. A VOR off
c. A DME on
d. A DME off

45. What happens

a. lt stays in the seconds
b. lt stays in the search mode, but reduces to 60 after 15 000 pulse pairs
c. lt stays in the search mode at i.50 ppps l^f
d. lt alternates between search and r"rory rtf. 0 seconds

46. rhe most accurat 6å, ffirHJÅ"ffirf'A#AhffitVåM' be when the aircrart

ts:
a. tracking towards the beacon at 10 NM
b. overhead the beacon
c. tracking away from the beacon at 100 NM
d. passing abeam the beacon at 5 NM

47. A DME beacon will become saturated when more than about aircraft are interrogating the
transponder.
a. 10
b. s0
c. 100
d,200

48. A typical DME frequency is:

a. 1000 MHz
b. i300 MHz
c.1000 kHz
d. 1575 MHz

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49. The DME in an aircraft, cruising at F1210, fails to achieve lock-on a DME at MSL at a range of 210 NM
The reason for this is:
a. the beacon is saturated
b. the aircraft is beyond the maximum usable range for DME
c, the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d. the aircraft signal is too weak at that range to trigger a response

50. The aircraft DME receiver accepts replies to its own transmissions but rejects replies to other aircraft
transmissions because:
a. the PRF of the interrogations is unique to each aircraft
b. the pulse pairsfrom each aircraft have a unique amplitude modulation
c. the interrogation frequencies are 63 MHz different for each aircraft
d. the interrogation and reply frequencies are separated by 63 MHz

51. When an aircraft at F[360 is [Link] above a DME, at mean sea level, the range displayed will be:
a.5 NM
b,9 NM
c.0
d. 12 NM

52. A DME frequency could be:

a. 10 MHz
b. 100 MHz
c. 1000 MHz
d. L0 000 MHz

53. An aircraft at will be:

a.8NM
b. 11.7 NM
c. 1-0 NM ffiffiÄ
d. 13.6 NM
ffi{-}å'"?-&fl" F:þiã, T ÅCÅ
54. A DME transceiver does not lock onto its own reflections because
ffi Y
a. the PRF of the pulse pairs is jittered
b. it uses MTI
c. the interrogation and reply frequencies differ
d. the reflections will all fall within the flyback period

55. What information does military TACAN provide for civil aviation users?
a. Magnetic bearing
b. DME
c. Nothing
d. DME and magnetic bearing

56. The DME in an aircraft flying at F[430 shows a range of 15 NM from a beacon at an elevation of 167
ft. The plan range is:
a. L3.5 NM
b. 16.5 NM
c. 15 NM
d. 17.6 NM

57. What are the DME frequencies?

a. 1030 & 1090 MHz

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b. 1030 - 1090 MHz

c. 960 &L215 MHz
d. 960 - 1215 MFlz

58. The time from the transmission of the interrogat¡on pulse to the receipt of the reply from the DME
ground station is 2000 microseconds (ignore the delay at the DME). The slant range is:
a. 330 NM
b. 185 NM
c. 165 NM
d. 370 NM

59, The DME counters are rotating continuously. This indicates that:
a. the DME is unserviceable
b. the DME trying to lock onto range
¡s
c. the DME ¡s trying to lock onto frequency
d. the DME is receiving no response from the ground station

60. On a DME presentation the counters are continuously rotating. This indicates:
a, the DME is in the search mode
b. the DME is unserviceable
c. the DME is receiving no response from
d. The

61. An aircraft on to the

DME. This is
a. DME is limited
b. the aircraft is too
c. the aircraft is too low to receive the signal
d. the beacon is saturated p
:i,:l;JJï::iJ HTfï"F'TL'#T"H
a. fly left and up
ff#3v'"du'!a'iion'rhe
b. fly left and down
c. fly right and up
d. fly right and down

63, The errors of an ILS localizer (LtZ) beam are due to:
a. emission side lobes
b. ground reflections
c. spurious signals from objects near the runway
d. interference from other systems operating on the same frequency

64. The amplitude modulation of the ILS outer marker is ........,....,, and it illuminates the ,......,....,...¡ight
in the cockpit.
a.400 Hz blue
b. 1300 Hz amber
c.400 Hz amber
d. 1300 Hz blue

65' The principle of operation of the ltS localizer transmitter is that it transm¡ts two overlapping lobes
on:
a. different frequencies with different phases

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b. the same frequency with different phases

c. the same frequency with different amplitude modulations
d. different frequencies with different amplitude modulations

66. The ILS glide slope transmitter generates false glide paths because of:
a. ground returns from the vicinity of the transmitter
b. back scattering of the signals
c. multiple lobes in the radiation pattern
d. reflections from obstacles in the vicinity of the transmitter

67. A category lll ILS system provides accurate guidance down to

a. the surface of the runway
b. less than 50 ft
c. less than 100 ft
d. less than 200 ft

68. A HSI compass rose is stuck on 200". When the aircraft is lined up on the centre line of the ILS

localizer for runway 25, the localizer needle will be:

a. left of the centre
b. centred
c. right ofthe centre
d. centred

69. The
a. +/-10" to 8
b. +/-10" to 25
c. +/-8" to 10 NM
d. +/-35'to L7 NM

70, The middle marker is usually located at a r .........., with an audio frequency of

;äîil,'åi'll:i'ftïåT'ytrT"Ë{:
b. 1 km 400 Hz white
FfL r ÅtrA ffi V
c. 1 km 1300 Hz amber
d. 1 km 400 Hz amber

71. The seguence of marker colours when flying an ILS approach is:
a. white, blue, amber
b. blue, white, ambei
c. blue, amber, white
d. amber, blue, white

72,fhe sensitive area of an ILS is the area aircraft may not enter when:
a. ILS operations are in progress
b. category I ILS operations are in progress
c, category ll/lll ILS operat¡ons are in progress
d. the ILS is undergoing calibration

73. The ILS localizer is normally positioned:

a. 300 m from the downwind end ofthe runway
b. 300 m from the threshold
c. 300 m from the upwind end of the runway
d. 200 m abeam the threshold

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74. The audio frequency of the outer marker is:

a. 3000 Hz
b. 400 Hz
c.1300 Hz
d. 1000 Hz

75. An aircraft is flying downwind outslde the coverage of the lLS. The CDI indications will be:
a. unreliable in azimuth and elevation
b. reliable in azimuth, unreliable in elevation
c. no indications will be shown
d, reliable in azimuth and elevation

76. The frequency band of the ILS glíde path is:

a. UHF
b. VHF
c. SHF
d. VLF

77. ln which band does the ILS glide path operate?

a. metric
b. centimetric
c.
d.

78. The
a. 40" 40 NM
b.40" 20 NM
c. 20'20 NM
d. 20'40 NM
PPA
:Ïii:""'"1i;i:,iffi1ffi Hnn'ff ''ÞTtffi T A fl A ffi tr &4 V
b. pulse technique
c. phase comparison
d. continuous wave emission

83. The definition of a radar display will be best with:

a. narrow beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth
b. narrow beamwidth and wide pulsewidth
c. wide beamwidth and narrow pulsewidth
d. wide beamwidth and wide pulsewidth

84. The main advantagé of a continuous wave radar over a pulsed radar is:
a. more complex equipment but better resolution and accuracy
b. removes the minimum range restriction
c. smaller more compact equipment
d. permits measurement of Doppler in addition to improved range and bearing

85. Which of the following systems use pulse technique?

1. secondary surveillance radar
2. airborne weather radar
3. distance measuring equipment
4. primary radar

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 Page l4l

a. all the above

b.2and4only
c. 2 only
d. land3only

86. To double the range of a primary radar, the power must be increased by a factor of:
a.2
b.4
c.8
d. 16

87. ln a primary pulsed radar the ability to discriminate in azimuth is a factor of I

a. pulse width
b. beamwidth
c. pulse recurrence rate
d. rate of rotation

88, The maximum range of a ground radar is limited by:

a. pulse width
b. peak power
c. average power
d. pulse

89. What does

a. the number
b. the number of
c. the ratio of pulse
d. the delay known as flyback or dead time

90. The maximum PRF required for a range of

i ?33fii"'oersecg9
c. 1620 pps
äëffi It T" ÅflA v
d. 3280 pps

91. The best radar for measuring very short ranges is:
a. a continuous wave primary radar
b. a pulsed secondary radar
c. a pulsed primary radar
d. a continuous wave secondary radar

'92. Which is the most suitable radar for measuring short ranges?
a. Millimetrìc pulse
b. Continuous wave primary
c. Centimetrlc pulse
d. Continuous wave secondary

93. The main advantage of a slotted scanner is:

a. reduces side lobes and directs more energy into the main beam
b. removes the need for azimuth slaving
c. side lobe suppression
d. can produòe simultaneous map and weather information

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94. The maximum unamblguous (theoretical) range for a PRF of 1200 pps is:
a. 134 NM
b. 180 NM
c.67 NM
d. 360 NM

95. The PRF of a radar is 450 pps. lf the speed of light is 3OO OO0 km/s, what is the maximum range of
the radar?
a. 150 km
b.333 km
c. 666 km
d. 1326 km

96. The best picture on a primary radar will be obtained using:

a. low frequency, narrow beam
b. short wavelength, narrow beam
c. high frequency, wide beam
d. long wavelength, wide beam

97. Which of the following ¡s a pr¡mary radar system?

a. SSR
b. DME
c. GPS
d. AWR

98. On what
a. Pulse technique
b. Pulse comparison

l?ili,iäilTåilrrogation ppA
[Link]'".[Link]ï¡,ñ"ffi&håTl
a, snow
Ae.,& V
b. moderate rain
c. dry hail
d. wet hail

100. The frequency of AWR is:

a.9375 Mllz
b. 937.5 MHz
c. 93.75 GHz
d. 9375 GHz

101. 101. The use ofthe AWR on the ground is:

a. not permitted
b. permitted provided reduced power is used
c. permitted þrovided speciàl precautions are taken to safeguar{ personnel and equipment
d. only permitted to assist movement in low visibility conditions

102. Which type of cloud does the AWR detect?

a. Cirrocumulus
b. Altostratus
c. Cumulus

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d. Stratus

103. The AWR uses the cosecant squared beam in the .."...'.'..... mode'
a. WEA
b. CONT
c. MAP
d. MAN

L04. On the AWR display the most severe turbulence will be shown
a. in flashing red
b. by a black hole
c. by a steep colour gradient
d. alternating red and white

105. On an AWR colour display, the sequence of colours indicating increasirÍg water
droplet size is:
a. blue, green, red
b, green, yellow, red
c. black, amber, red
d. blue, amber, green

106. ln an A
from clouds
a. 0" tilt
b. 2.5" uptilt
c. 2.5" downtilt
d. 5" uptilt

107. The ISO-ECHO c¡rcu¡t ¡s incorporated in th

a. to allow ground mapping

i.ï;i:f,j,j':l:i::? l,ffir*n r Åc*ffiffi

d. to allow simultaneous mqpping and cloud detection
Y

108. The main factors which affect whether an AWR will detect a cloud are:
a. the size of the water droplets and the diameter of the antenna reflector
b. the scanner rotation rate and the frequency/wavelength
c. the size of the water droplets and the wavelength/frequency
d. the size of the water droplets and the range of the cloud

109. ln an AWR with a colour CRT, areas of greatest turbulence are indicated by:
a. iso-echo areas coloured black
b. large areas of flashing red
c. iso-echo areas with no colour
d. most rapid change of colour

110. As a storm intensifies, the colour sequence on the AWR display will change:
a. black, yellow, amber
b. green, yellow, red
c. blue, green, orange
d. green, yellow, amber
111. The cosecant squared beam is used for mapping in the AWR because:
a. a greater range can be achieved

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b. a wider beam is produced in azimuth to give a greater coverage

c. a larger area of ground is illuminated by the beam
d. it allows cloud detection to be effected whilst mapping

L12. The AWR can be used on the ground provided:

1. the aircraft is clear of personnel, buildings and vehicles
2, conical beam is selected
3. maximum uptilt is selected
4. the AWR must never be operated on the ground
a,4
b.1and3
c.1,2and3
d.2and3

L13. Doppler navigation systems use ............... to determine the aircraft ground speed
and drift.
a. DVOR
b. phase comparison of signals from ground stations
c. frequency shift in signals reflected from the ground
d. DME range measurement

L14. Which
a. Pitch, roll
b. Roll and
c. Pitch and roll
d. Pitch only

115. With normal SSR mode C altitude coding tü* plies by sending back a train
of up to L2 pulses contained between 2 framinffiu
prk r Åc
:

i;12;[Link]ïil1i1ffi,*ffiT'c
c. 4096 codes in 3 blocks
r: v
d.2048 codes in 4 blocks

L16. Why is the effect of returns from storms not a problem with SSR?
a. The frequency is too high
b, SSR does not use the echo principle
c. The PRF is jittered
d. By the use of MTI to remove stationary and slow moving returns

1L7. The advantages of SSR mode S are:

a. improved resolution, TCAS
b. data link, reduced voice communications
c. TCAS, no RT communications
d. better resolution, selective interrogat¡on

118. The accuracy of ssR mode c altitude as displayed to the air traffic controller ls
a. +/-2517
b. +/-s0 ft
c. +/-75Ít
d. +/-L00 ft

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119. The SSR ground transceiver interrogates on ................ and receives responses on

a. 1030 MHz 1030 MHz

b. 1030 MHz 1090 MHz
c. 1090 MHz 1030 MHz
d. 1090 MHz 1090 MHz

120. The vertical position provided by SSR mode C is referenced to:

a. QNH unless QFE is in use
b. 1013.25 hPa
c. QNH
d. WGS84 datum

1,21. Why is a seconday'y radar display free from weather clutter?

a. The frequencies are too low to detect water droplets
b. The frequencies are too high to detect water droplets
c. Moving target ind¡cation is used to suppress the static generated by water droplets
d. The principle of the return of echoes is not used

I22. fhe availability of 4096 codes in SSR is applicable to mode:

a.A
b.c
c.5
d. all

123. With referen

a.9999
b.0000
c.40e6 ffiþffi)
d' 7600 & Ìñ

i.24. rn NAVSTAR/GPS
'ffiffi"åffi
fu T Åfl Y
a. reduce ionospheric and tropospheric errors
b. determine satellite range
c. eliminate satellite clock and ephemeris errors
d. remove receiver clock error

L25. The MDAfor a non-precision approach using NAVSTAR/GPS is based on:

a. barometric altitude
b. radio altimeter
c. GPS altitude
d. GPS or barometric altltude

126. lf, during a manoeuvre, a satellite being used for position fixing is shadowed by the
wing, the effect on position will be:
a. none
b. the position will degiade
c. another satellite will be selected, so there will be no degradation of position
d. the GPS will maintain lock using reflections of the signa,ls from the fuselage

[Link] time required for a GNSS receiver to download the satellite almanac for the
NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a. 12.5 minutes

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I Page 146
I

I
I

i
b. L2 hours
c. 30 seconds
l
I d. 15 minutes

I 128. The effect of the ionosphere on NAVSTAR/GpS accuracy is:

a. only significant for satellites close to the horizon
b. minimized by averaging the signals
c. minimized by the receivers using a model of the ionosphere to correct the signals
d. negligible

129. The height derived by a receiver from the NAVSTAR/GpS is

a. above mean sea level
b. above ground level
c. above the WGS84 ellipsoid
d. pressure altitude

130. The NAVSTAR/cPS constellattôn comprises:

a. 24 satellites in 6 orbits
b. 24 satellites in 4 orbits
c. 24 satellites in 3 orbits
d. 24 satellites in 8 orbits

131. Sel
position. This
a. introducing an
b. random ditheri
c. random dithering
d. introducing an offset in the broadcast satellites X, Z coordinates

132. The positioning of a GNSS aeriat on .n .¡[Link]

#,ffiÅ 'l ê1f,, îzY" Y
a. in the fin
o ä''iiïü*'.r",,m,ßm
c. on top of the fuselage close to the centre of gravity
d. under the fuselage

133. The NAVSTAR/GPS space segment:

a. provides X, Y & Z coordinates and monitoring of the accuracy of the satellite
data
b. provides X, Y, Z & T coordinates and the constellation data
c. monitors the accuracy of the satellite data and provides system time
d. provides geographic pos¡t¡on and UTC

134. Concerning NAVSTAR/GPS orbits, which of the following statements is correct?

a. The inclination of the orbits is 55" with an orbital period of 12 hours
b. The inclination of the orbits ¡s 55" with an orbital period of 24 hours
c. The orbits are geostationary to provide global coverage
d. The orbits are inclined at 65'with an orbital period of 1i- hours L5 minutes

135. NAVSTAR GPS receiver clock error is removed by:

a. regular auto-synchronization w¡th the satellite clocks
b. adjusting the pseudo-ranges to determine the error
c. synchronization with the satellite clocks on initialization
d. having an appropriate atom¡c time standard within the receiver

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136. The contents ofthe navigation and systems message from NAVSTAR/GPS SVs
include:
a. satellite clock error, almanac data, ionospheric propagation information
b. satellite clock error, almanac data, satellite position error
c. position accuracy verification, satellite clock time and clock error
d. ionospheric propagation information, X, Y & Z coordinates and corrections, satellite clock time and
error

L37. The NAVSTAR/GPS segments are:

a. space, control, user
b. space, control, ground
c. space, control, air
d. space, ground, air

138. The preferred GNSS receiver for airborne application is

a. multiplex
b. multi-channel
c. sequential
d. fast mu

139. The o
a. 19330 km
b.35800 km
c. 10898 NM
d. r.0313 NM

L40. The best accuracyfrom satellite systems ed by:

*fl pää-#ä Åf,-e"ffiffi*:ø?Y

a. NAVSTAR/GPS and
[Link]
c. GLONASS and TNSS transit
d. NAVSTAR/GPS and GLONASS

141. The azlmuth and elevation of the satellites is:

a. determined by the satellite and transmitted to the receiver
b. determined by the receiver from the satellite almanac data
c. transmitted by the satellite as part of the almanac
d. determined by the receiver from the broadcast satellite X, Y, Z & T data

1,[Link] skysearch carried out by a GNSS receiver:

a. is done prior to each fix
b. is done when the receiver position is in error
c. involves the receiver downloading the almanac from each satellite before determining which satellites
are tn vtew
d. is the procedure carried out by the monitoring stat¡ons to check the accuracy of the satellite data

143. An aircraft GNSS receiver is using 5 satellites for RAIM. lf the receiver deselects one
satellite then the flight should be continued:
a. using 4 satellites with the pilot monitoring thè receiver output
b. using alternative navigation systems
c. using alternative radio navigation systems only

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d. using inertial reference systems only

144. The WGS84 model of the earth is

a, a geoid
b. a sphere
c. an exact model ofthe earth
d. an ellipse

145. The frequency band ofthe NAVSTAR/GpS L1 and L2 frequencies is:

a. VHF
b. UHF
c. EHF
d. SHF

146. The number of satellites required to produce a 4D fix is

a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6

1,47. How many satellites are needed for a 2

a.4
b.2
c.3
d.s

l-48. Which of the fo

true?
a. They are significantly reduced by the use of
b. They are eliminated using differential techn
c. They are signifi r*pncçjspu #e ãn
d. rransm¡ttins th "il;ffi,{;
^ Y
ffi"M
reduced to less than one metre

149. Using differential GNSS for a non-precision approach, the height reference is:
a. barometric
b. GNSS
c. radio
d. radio or GNSS

150. The number of satellites required to provide a 3D fix without RAIM is:
a,4
b.s
c.6
d.3

151. The number of satellites required for a fully operational NAVSTAR/GPS is:
a.21
b. 18
c.24
d. 30

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152.'Unauthorized' civilian users of NAVSTAR/GPS can access:

a. the P and Y codes
b. the P code
c. the C/A and P codes
d. the C/A code

L53. When using GPS to fly airways, what is the vertical reference used?
a. Barometr¡c
b, GPS height
c. Radio altitude
d. Average of barometric and GPS

L54.I54. The nav/system message from GLONASS and NAVSTAR/GPS is found in the ...............
band.
a. SHF
b. UHF
c. VHF
d. EHF

155. Which GNSS system can be used for IFR flights in Europe?
a, NAVSTAR/GPS
b. GLONASS
c. COS
d. TNSS transit

156. During flight

large error between
t5:
a. continue the flight in vMC
b. continue using the conventional systems

lli^iläi,i-lllii tu#,,ffii nåå.¡ìs W"WY

L57. What information can a GPS fix using four satellites give you?
a. Latitude and longitude
b. Latitude, longitude, altitude and time
c. Latltude, longitude and altitude
d. Latitude, longitude and time

158. What are the basic elements transmitted by NAVSTAR/GPS satellites?

L. offset of the satellite clock from GMT
2. ephemeris data
3. health data
4. ionospheric delays
5. solar activity
a. L,2,3,4 and 5
b.L,2and3
c, t,2 and 4
d.2,3and4

[Link] is the purpose of the GPS control segment?

a. To control the use ofthe satellites by unauthorized users
b. To monitor the satellites in orbit

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c. To maintain the satellites in orbit

d. Degrade the accuracy of satellites for unauthorized users

160. ln GNSS a fix is obtained by:

a. measuring the t¡me taken for signals from a minimum number of satellites to reach the aircraft
b. measuring the tirne taken for the aircraft transmissions to travel to a number of satellites in known
posit¡ons and return to the aircraft
c. measuringthe pulse lengths of the sequential signals from a number of satellites in known pos¡t¡ons
d. measuringthe phase angle of the signals from a numberof satellites in known positions

161. The inclination of a satellite is:

a. the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
b. the anile between the SV orbit and the polar plane
c. 90' minus the angle between the SV orbit and the equator
d. 90" minus the angle between the SV orbit and the polar plane

L62. How is the distance between the NAVSTAR/GPS SV ànd the receiver determined?
a. By referencing the SV and receiver positions to WGS84
b. By synchronizing the receiver clock with the 5V clock
c. By measuring the time from transmiss¡on to recept¡on and multiplying bythe speed of light
d. By measuring the time from transmission g by the speed of light

163. The use:

a. it is measu
b. it includes
c. satellite and
d. it is measured

g\
164. The task of the control segment is to:
a. determine availability
ep
b. monitor the SV
to users
Én{eþdG r-n .
r
[Link] m $ tr{* ft{ å,üT ÅCAffiffiMY
d. all ofthe above

165. To provide 3D fixing with RAIM and allowing for the loss of one satellite requires
............... SVs:
a.4
b.5
c.6
d.7

166. ln NAVSTAR/GPS the PRN codes are used to:

a. differentiate between satellites
b. pass satellite ephemer¡s information
c. pass satellite time and ephemeris information
d. pass satellite time, ephemeris and other information

16'1 . An'all in view' satellite navigation receiver is one which:

a. monitors all 24 satellites
b. tracks selected satellites
c. selects and tracks all (in view) satellites and selects the best four
d. tracks the closest satellites

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L68. Which GPS frequencies arê available for commercial air transport?
a. t227.6 MHz only
b.L575.42 MHz only
c. 1227.6 MHzand 1575.42MH2
d. L227.6 MHz or 1575.42 MHz
169. Which GNSS is authorized for use on European airways?
a. GLONASS
b. NAVSTAR/GPS
c. Galileo
d. cosPAs/sARsAT

170. ln GPS on which frequencies are both the C/A and P codes transmitted?
a. Both frequencies
b. The higher frequency
c. Neither frequency
d. The lower frequency

17L. The orbits of the NAVSTAR GPS satellites are inclined at:
a. 55' to the earth's axis
b. 55" to the plane of the equator
c. 99" to the earth's axis
d. 99'to the

L72. RAIM ¡s a
a. by ground mo to rocclvorû vio
ge0-st¿{ tluilil ry s¿r
b. by ground usrng
pseudolites
c. within the receiver
d. any ofthe above

173. rhe function of t €å' $r$*ì L ffi"" il V

a. interrogate the satellites to determine range
b. track the satellites to calculate time
c. track the satellites to calculate range
d. determine position and assess the accuracy of that position

174. ln which frequency band are the L1 and L2 frequencies of GNSS?

a. SHF
b. VHF
c, UHF
d. EHF

175. Which of the following statements concerning differential GPS (DGPS) istrue?
a. Local area DGPS gives the same improvement In accuracy regardless of distance
from the station
b. DGPS removes SV ephemeris and clock errors and propagation errors
c. DGPS can improve the accuracy of SA affected position information
d. Wide area DGPS accuracy improves the closer the aircraft is to a ground station

176. The visibility of GPS satellites is:

a. dependent on the location of the user
b. greatest at the equator

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c. greatest at the poles

d. the same at all po¡nts on and close to the surface ofthe earth

177 . ln an RNAV approach phase with a two dot lateral deviation HSI display, a one dot
deviation from track would represent:
a.5 NM
b.0.s NM.
c. 50.
d. 0.s".

L78. The required accuracy of a precision RNAV (P-RNAV) system is

a. 0.25 NM standard deviation or better
b. 0.5 NM standard deviation or better
c. 1 NM standard deviation or better
d. L.5 NM standard deviation or better

179. I he ETA generated by the FMS will be most accurate:

a. when the forecast W/V equals the actual W/V and the FMS calculated Mach
No. equals the actual Mach No.
b. if the ground speed and position are accurate
c. if the forecast WV at take-off is entered
d. if the

180. When is
a. TOD
b. TOC
c. Just after take-off
d. On final approach

181. For position fixingthe 8737-SOOFVIC usesff

a. DME/DME
b. voR/DME
c. DME/DME oT VOR/DME
d. any combination of VOR, DME and ADF

1.82. When using a two dot HSl, a deviation of one dot from the computed track represents
approximately:
a.2"
b. 5"
c.5NM
d.2 NM

184. The FMC position is:

a. the average of the IRS positions
b. the average of the IRS and radio navigation posit¡ons
c. computer generated from the IRS and radio navigation pos¡tions
d. computer generated from the radio navigation positions

185. When midway between two waypoints, how can the pilot best check the progress
of the aircraft?
a. By using the ATD at the previous waypoint
b. By using the computed ETA for the next waypoint

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c. By using the ATA at the previous waypoint

d. By using the ETA at the dest¡natlon

L86. Which of the following can be input manually to the FMC using a maximum of 5 alphanumerics?
a. Waypoints, latitude and longitude, SlDs and STARs
b. ICAO aerodrome designators, navigation facilities, SlDs and STARs
c. Waypoints, airways designators, latitude and longitude
d. Navigation facilities, reporting points, airways designators

187. The inputs to the EHSI display during automatic flight include
a. auto-throttle, IRS and FMC
b. FCC, FMC and ADC
c, lRS, FMC and radio navigation facilities
d. lRS, ADC and FCC

188. The inputs the pilot will make to the FMC during the pre-flight initialization will
include:
a. ETD, aircraft position, and planned route
b, planned route, aircraft position, and departure runway
c. navigation data base, aircraft position and
d. departure

200. The na
a. rnay be mod
b. is read only
c. may be modified by the operations staff to meet requirements
d. may be modified by national aviation author national requirements

::lñyn''northerorr
b. Direct reading magnetic compass
'Ë:'rf[TTst 'f" Å ffi y
c. VOR/DME
d. ADF

208. ln an RNAV system which combination of external reference will give the most
accurate position?
a. GPS/rho
b. Rho/theta
c. Rho/rho
d. GPS/theta

2I7 . the NAVSTAR/GPS constellation comprises:

a. 6 SVs each in 4 orbits
b. 4 SVs each in 6 orbits
c. 8 SVs each in 3 orbits
d. 3 SVs each in 8 orbits

218. Comparing the L1 and L2 signals helps with the reduction of which GNSS error?
a. Tropospheric propagation
b. SV ephemeris
c. SV clock

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d. lonospheric propagation

[Link] normal maximum range for an ATC surveillance radar is:

a. 50 NM,
b.150 NM
c.250 NM
d.350 NM

220. The cause of a RNAV giving erratic readlngs would be:

a. the aircraft is in the cone ofconfusion ofthe phantom station
b. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range ofthe phantom stat¡on
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range of the reference station
d. the aircraft is outside the DOC of the reference station

221,.tlyingan ILS approach with a 3'glide slope referenced to 50 ft abovè the threshold,
an aircraft at 4.6 NM should be at an approximate height of:
a. 1400 ft
b. 1380 ft
c. 1500 ft
d.1450ft

[Link]
a. 19300 km
b. 20200 km
c. 10900 km
d. 35800 km

[Link] accuracy required of a basi c area nav¡gatio NAV) system is:

, PPA
i.lí;i^Ti"iieo%oroccasions
c. +/-5 ol
NM on95o/o
d +/-sNM on75%o1 Tlc pf LÕT AcA#ffi Y
[Link] emissions from a non-directional beacon (NDB) are:
a. a cardioid with a 30 Hz rotation rate
b. omni-directional
c. a phase-compared signal
d. a frequency modulated continuous wave (FMCW)

227. How does night effect affect ADF?

a. Causes false bearings as the goniometer locks onto the sky wave
b. Sky wave interference which affects the null and is worst at dawn and dusk
c. lnterference from other NDBs which is Worst at dusk and when due east of the station
d. Phase shift in the received signal giving random bearing errors

228. What is an ADC input to the FMC?

a. Heading
b. VOR/DME position
c. TAS
d. Ground speed and drift

229. A typical frequency for DME would be:

a. 300 MHz

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 Page 155

b.600 MHz
c. 900 MHz
d. 1200 MHz

232, What is the maximum PRF that allows detection of targets to a range of 50 km? (ignore any
flyback time).
a. 330 pulses per second (pps)
b. 617 pps
c. 3000 pps
d. 1620 pps

233. ln NAVSTAR/GPS the space segment:

a. provides the positional information to the receiver
b. the receiver interrogates the satellite and the satellite provides positional information
c. sends information for receiver to determine latitude, longitude and time
d. relays positional data from the control segment

234. The almanac in the receiver:

a. determines selective availability
b. assigns the PRN codes to the satellites
c. is used to determine receiver clock error
d. is used to

237.|n
a. the time diffe
b, the time taken
c. tlie'-sync
d. the time taken for a signal to travel from the to the satellite and return to the rece¡ver

238. Quadrantal error in the ADF is caused by:

llliiå.l,ili;[Link]#bä fffffi",mr ;ä,..çåflÅmffiMV

[Link] electrical wiring running through the aircraft
d. multipath reception

1. Which wavelength corresponds to a frequency of 5035 MHz?

a. 5.96 mm
b. 5.96 cm
c. 59.6 cm
d. 5.96 m

2. The VDF term meaning 'true bearing from the station' is:
a. QDM
b. QDR
c. QTE
d. QUJ

3. A class B VDF bearing will have an accuracy of

a.!2"
b. 1 10"
c.+1"
d.i5"

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5. The maximum range an ATC facility at 1369 ft AMSL can provide a service to an aircraft at F1350 is:
a.276 NM
b.200 NM
c. 224 NM
d.238 NM

6. The Doppler effect isl

a, the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter and receiver
b. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a receiver
c. the change in frequency caused by the movement of a transmitter
d. the change in frequency caused by the relatíve movement between a transmitter and receiver

7. The least accurate bearing information taken by an aircraft over the sea from a NDB will be from:
a. a coastal beacon at an acute angle
b. an inland beacon at an acute angle
c. a coastal beacon perpendicular to the coast
d. an inland beacon perpendicular to the coast

8. The accuracy of ADF may be affected byl

a. night
b. static
c. angle of ban
d. angle of bank,

9. The ADF error bearíng) is:

a. night effect

3,11.ìlT'å.",,.,"".. P
d'coastarrerraction
poHTlc plLüT' A{"Å ffi$dy
10. The accuracy of ADF by day and excluding compass error is:
a. +/-1'
b. +/-2"
c. +/-s'
d. +/-I0'

11. A NDB has emission designator NONAlA this will require the use of the BFO for:
a. tuning
b. identification
c. identification and monitoring
d. tuning, identification and monitoring

12. The principle of operation of VOR is:

a: bearing by lobe Òoinparison
b. bearing by frequency comparison
c. bearing by searchlight principle
d. bearing by phase comparison

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13. The pilot of an aircraft flying at F1240 is 250 NM from a VOR at 16 ft AMSL which he selects. He
receives no signal from the VOR. This is because:
a. the VOR is unserviceable
b. the range of VoR is limited to 200 NM
c. the aircraft is beyond line of sight range
d. there are abnormal atmospheric conditions

14, The phase difference measured at the aircraft from a VOR is 235". The bearing of the beacon from
'
the aircraft is:
a. 0550
b. 235"
c. 1-45'
d.325"

15. A pilot ¡ntends to home to a VOR on the 147 radial. The setting he should put on the OBS and the
CDI indications will be:
a. t47,TO
b. 147, FROM
c. 327, FROM
d.327,TO

16. An the 210

radial. The s
a. 030, TO, Fly
b. 030, To, Fly
c. 210, FROM Fly
d. 210, FROM, Fly Left

:ïilt1i:i:il;ï'' HtrX'ff"ñT ¡
17. Flying an ILS approach the equipment sen 0 Hz modulation predominates on both the

b. fly left and fly down

ä]$ 'r
c. fly right andfly up
d. fly right and fly down

18. On an ILS approach, using a 3" glide path, the height of an aircraft, ground speed 160 kt, at 3.5 NM
from touchdown should be:
a. 800 ft
b. 1050 ft
c. 900 ft
d. 1500 ft

19. A category ll ILS facility is required to provide guidance to:

a. below 50 ft
b. below 200 ft
c. the surface
d. below 100 ft

20. When flying downwind abeam the upwind end of the runway the indications from thê ILS on the
CDI will be:
a. in the correct sense for the localizer and no glide path signal
b. erratic on both localizer and glide path

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c. erratic on the localizer and in the correct sense on the glide path
d. no localizer signal and in the correct sense for glide path

21. The azímuth coverage of a 3'glide path is:

a, +/-35'to 17 NM
b. +/-10'to 25 NM
c. +/-8'to 10 NM
d. +/-10'to 8 NM

25. The type of radar which has no minimum range restriction is:
a. pr¡mary CW radar
b. primary pulsed radar
c. secondary'CW radar
d. secondary pulsed radar

26. The maximum theoretical range of a radar is determined by:

a. power
b. PW
c. beamwidth
d. PRF

27. The time is 925.5

a.37.5 NM
b.75 NM
c. 150 NM
d. 300

28. An advantage of a slotted antenna (planar a parabolic reflector are:

a. side lobes removed

3:å::;:i:,i:lÏtip#ffirtï'"$v$'Ï"
d. higher data rate possible
r ÅcÂffi äMy
will be achieved on a radar display with
29, The best resolution
a. high poweroutpui and large parabolic reflector
b. narrow beamwldth and narrow pulse width
c, low frequency and small parabolic reflector
d. wide beamwidth and large pulsewidth

30. A radar transmitt¡ng on 600 MHz has a PRF of 300 pps and an aerial rotation rate of 5 rpm. This
radar will be:
a. an area surveillance radar
b. an aerodrome surface movement radar
c. an aerodrome surveillance radar
d. a terminal area radar

31. The AWR operating frequency isl

a.9375 MHz
b. 9375 GHz
c. 937.5 MHz
d. 93.75 GHz

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32. The AWR frequency is selected because it gives:

a, good returns from water droplets
b. good returns from turbulence
c. good penetration of cloud
d. good returns from wâter vapour

33. On a colour AWR display, the heaviest precipitation will be displayed in:
a. amber
b. red
c. yellow
d. blue

34. The SSR code to select when the aircraft is being unlawfully interfered with is:
a. 7600
b.7700
c. 7500
d.7400
35. ln SSR the ground stat¡on interrogates the aircraft on .............. MHz and receives replies from the
aircraft on ,,........,,..... MHz
a. 1030 1090
b. 1090 1030
c. 1030 1030
d. 1090 L090

36. The altitude raft altitude

within:
a. 300 ft
b. 100 ft
c. 500 ft
d. 50 ft

37. lf the aircraft DM ffi LË",ffit#. "dä'i;'å"h Hz, it wirr rook ror
replies on:
a. 1262 MHz
b. L030 MHz
c. 1090 MHz
d. 1136 MHz

38. A DME recognizes replies to ¡ts own interrogating pulses because:

a. each pulse pair has its own unique modulation which is replicated by the transponder
b. the PRF of the interrogating pulses is jittered
c. each aircraft has a different time interval within the pulses pairs which is replicated by the transponder
d. the transponder uses a selective reply system to respond to the aircraft interrogation,pulses

39. The DME in an aircraft at F1630 measures a slant range of 16 NM from a ground stat¡on at 1225 ft
AMSL. The plan range ¡s:
a. 12.5 NM
b. 19 NM
c. l-6 NM
d. 10.5 NM

40. lf the identification of a VOR is FKL and the paired DME identification is FKZ, then;
a. the transm¡tters are co-located

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b. the beacons are between 600 m and 6 NM apart

c. the transmitters are within 600 m
d. the transmitters are in excess of 6 NM apart

41. The NAVSTAR/GPS operational constellation comprises

a. 21- satellites in 6 orbits
b. 24 satellites in 6 orbits
c. 24 satellites in 3 orbits
d. 30 satellites in 6 orbits

42. The model of the earth used for GPS is:

a. WGS90
b.PZ84
c. PZ90
d. wcs84

43. The maior limitation in the use of GPS for precision approaches using wide area augmentat¡on
systems (WAAS) is:
a. lack of failure warning
b. the height difference between the ellipsoid and the earth
c. global coverage of WAAS is not available
d. degrad

44. The
a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6

45. EGNos provides a wAAS by determining t , and broadcasting these errors to

lliiii'.äl?;ffi&?#ffiffiårJ'ffi"å
b. X, Y & Z coordinates pseudolites
L -r"
ÅeAüHfvly
c. SV range geostat¡onary satellites
d. SV range pseudolites

46. The principle error in GNSS is:

a. ionospheric propagat¡on
b. GDOP
c. receiver clock error
d. 5V ephemeris error

47. lf the signal from an SV is lost during an aircraft manoeuvre:

a. the receiver will select another SV with no loss in accuracy
b. the receiver will go into a DR mode w¡th no loss of accuracy
c. the receiver will compensate by using the last calculated altitude to maintain positional accuracy
d. the reeeiver position will degrade regardless of the action taken

48. The purpose of the PRN codes in NAVSTAR/GPS is to:

a. identify the satellites
b. synchronize the receiver clocks with the 5V clocks
c. pass navigation and system data to the receiver
d. all ofthe above

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49, lf the receiver almanac becomes corrupted it will download the almanac from the constellation.
This download will take:
a. L5 m¡nutes
b. 2.5 minutes
c. 12.5 minutes
d. 25 minutes

50. The provision of RAIM requires a minimum of .,........,..,.. SVs,

a.3
b.4
c.5
d.6

51. The best position on an aircraft for the GNSS aerial is:
a. in the cockpit as close as possible to the receiver
b, on the fuselage close to the centre of grav¡ty
c. on the aircraft as far as possible from other aerials to reduce reflections
d. close to each wing tip to compensate for manoeuvre errors
52. The NAVSTAR/GPS constellation is inclined at ................ to the equator with an orbital period of

a. 55" 11 h
b. 6s' 11 h
c. 65" 12 h
d. ss" 12 h

53. The NAVST

a.1227.6 MHz
b. 1575.42 MHz F'3 FT, "&
vÅ-&d{
ã f;-ry\& î
c. 1215.0 MHz
d. 1090.0 MHz
PÛHTHÇ PåL i {- fl V
54. The NAV and system data message is contained in the ..........'..... signal.
a. 50 Hz
b. C/A PRN code
c. P PRN code
d. C/A & P PRN code

55. A 2D RNAV system takes fixing inputs from:

a. co-located VOR/DME
b. twin DME
c. VOR and/or DME
d. any of the above

55. The accuracy required of a basic RNAV system is:

a.5 NM
b. s"
c. 1- NM
d. L"

58. The navigation database in an FMC:

a. can be modified by the flight crew to meet the route requirements
b. can be modified every 28 days

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c. can only be read by the flight crew

d. cannot be accessed by the flight crew

60. The most accurate external reference pos¡tion will be provided by:
a. VOR/DME
b. Twin DME
c. Twin VOR
d. Suitable combination of VOR and DME

POETIC PILOT ACADEMY 8800320187