Q.

1) In the questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of
the given word.
Ameliorate
[A] Improve
[B] Degrade
[C] Motivate
[D] Agree

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The word Ameliorate (Verb) means: to make better; improve.

Q.2) In the questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which best expresses the meaning of
the given word.
Wily
[A] Angry
[B] Wise
[C] Stupid
[D] Cunning

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Wily (Adjective) means cunning which also skillful or clever.

Q.3) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Instinctive
[A] Innate
[B] Rational
[C] Inherent
[D] Inborn

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The word Instinctive (Adjective) means: natural; based on instinct not thought or
training. The word Rational (Adjective) means: reasonable.

Q.4) In the following questions, choose the word opposite in meaning to the given word.
Venial
[A] Minor
[B] Pardonable
[C] Unpardonable
[D] Clean

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The word Venial (Adjective): means pardonable; minor, not very serious and hence
to be forgiven.

Q.5) In the following Five Questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in
the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Their attempt to get back the stolen necklace proved to be a wild goose chase.
[A] wise decision
[B] useless search
[C] timely action
[D] delayed action

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The idiom 'Wild-goose chase' means a worthless hunt or chase; a futile pursuit.
Q.6) In the following Five Questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in
the sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
The day the new product was launched, people made a beeline to purchase it.
[A] rushed
[B] were doubtful
[C] refused
[D] went online

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: make a beeline : to go straight towards something as quickly as you can; rush.
● As soon as she arrived at the party, she made a beeline for the food. The best option rushed

Q.7) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Unless you make amends for the loss, nobody is prepared to excuse you.
[A] improve
[B] pay debt
[C] confess
[D] compensate

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The phrase 'Make amends for' means make payment to; compensate

Q.8) In the following questions, four alternatives are given for the Idiom/Phrase underlined in the
sentence. Choose the alternative which best expresses the meaning of the Idiom/Phrase.
Instead of keeping his promise of helping me with office work, he just left me high and dry.
[A] left me feeling like a fool
[B] left me in a state of anger
[C] left me without a drop of water
[D] left me alone to do the work

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The idiom 'Leave somebody high and dry' means to leave someone alone in problem

Q.9) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/sentence.
The act of producing beautiful handwriting using a brush or a special pen
[A] Hieroglyphics
[B] Calligraphy
[C] Stencilling
[D] Graphics

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Calligraphy

Q.10) In these questions, out of the four alternatives, choose the one which can be substituted for the
given words/sentence.
A word composed of the first letters of the words in a phrase.
[A] Acronym
[B] Abridgement
[C] Almanac
[D] Anachronism

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Acronym
Q.11) Don't toilet ______ the corridor.
[A] around
[B] off
[C] of
[D] at

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: around

Q.12) I will scold him when______.

[A] he will come
[B] he comes
[C] he would come
[D] he had come

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: he comes

Q.13) Keith has _______ with a failure in English examination thrice.

[A] caught
[B] gone
[C] got
[D] met

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: met

Q.14) The manager was _______ an explanation of his conduct.

[A] called for
[B] called off
[C] called to
[D] called up

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: called for

Q.15) In the following question, the sentence given with blank is to be filled in with an
appropriate word. Select the correct alternative out of the four and indicate it by selecting the
appropriate option.
Arun's financial _______ has helped him earn a fortune on the stock market.
[A] dexterity
[B] readiness
[C] expertise
[D] knack

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ‗Expertise‘ refers to expert knowledge or skill in a context, particular subject or
activity. ‗Financial expertise‘ is the correct usage in the given context.

Q.16) . . . . . . does sir ask a question than clever students give an answer.
[A] When
[B] Hardly had
[C] As soon as
[D] No sooner
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: No sooner does sir ask a question than clever students give an answer.

Q.17) . . . . . dogs can make friendship with cats.

[A] Few
[B] A few
[C] Little
[D] A little

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Few dogs can make friendship with cats.

Q.18) . . . . . . dogs seldom bite.

[A] Barking
[B] To bark
[C] Bark
[D] Barked

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Barking dogs seldom bite. is an idiom.

Q.19) . . . . . . Gandhiji . . . . . . in Rajkot?

[A] When , studied
[B] Did , study
[C] Was , study
[D] Does , studied

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Did Gandhiji study in Rajkot?

Q.20) . . . . . . god bless you!

[A] How
[B] May be
[C] May
[D] When

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: May god bless you!

Q.21) . . . . . . goods were carried on the truck.

[A] A little
[B] A few
[C] Many
[D] Several

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Few is a quantifier used with plural countable nouns. Little is used with singular
uncountable nouns. Goods are singular uncountable nouns. "A little" means small in amount. Option
A is correct.
A little goods were carried on the truck.
Q.22) . . . . . . he complains, the police will take action.
[A] If
[B] Unless
[C] When
[D] No sooner did

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: If he complains, the police will take action.

Q.23) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active / Passive Voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active
Voice and mark.
Many cities had been destroyed by the invaders in those
[A] The invaders destroy many cities in these days.
[B] Many cities were destroyed in those days by invaders
[C] Many invaders destroyed cities in those days
[D] In those days, the invaders had destroyed many cities

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In those days, the invaders had destroyed many cities

Q.24) In the following questions, a sentence has been given in Active / Passive Voice. Out of the four
alternatives suggested, select the one which best expresses the same sentence in Passive / Active
Voice and mark.
The Police victimize the innocent
[A] The police are victimizedby the innocent commoners
[B] The Innocent victimized the police
[C] The Innocent commoners are victimized by' the police
[D] No victimization of the innocent commoners

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Innocent commoners are victimized by' the police

Q.25) Narration Change

Dinesh asked, "Are you going to the party tomorrow, Rani ?"
[A] Dinesh asked whether Rani was going to the party the next day
[B] Dinesh asked Rani whether you are going to the party the next day
[C] Dinesh asked Rani whether she was going to the party the next day
[D] Dinesh asked Rani are you going to the party tomorrow.

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Dinesh asked Rani whether she was going to the party the next day.

Q.26) Dogs were buried in human burials at

[A] Gufkral
[B] Burzahom
[C] Martand
[D] Mehargarh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Burzahom was the first Neolithic site to be discovered in Kashmir. After the
excavation, many burials of this place were discovered, usually under house floors or in the
compounds. Apart from human burials, animals were sometimes buried along with humans or in
separate graves. The buried animals are domesticated animals like dogs, sheep and goats.
Q.27) Ash mounds are related to the Neolithic culture of
[A] Eastern India
[B] South India
[C] Northern Vindhyas
[D] Kashmir Valley

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In South India, in the central part of Deccan Plateaus, archaeologists has discovered
ash mounds of varying sizes and shapes with uneven surface either covered with soil or grass.

Q.28) The temple of Angkorwat in Combodia was dedicated to

[A] Buddha
[B] Tara
[C] Shiva
[D] Vishnu

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The temple of Angkorwat in Cambodia was dedicated to Vishnu, the supreme god of
Hinduism. The temple was built by the Khmer king Suryavarman II in the early 12th century.

Q.29) Ayodhya temples are located on the banks of which of the following rivers ?
[A] Sarayu
[B] Ganga
[C] Yamuna
[D] Gomti

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Sarayu is a river that flows through the Indian states of Uttarakhand and Uttar
Pradesh. Ayodhya temple is located on its bank.

Q.30) Extensive burning of the forest marks which of the following era?
[A] Copper Phase
[B] Early Vedic Era
[C] Later Vedic Era
[D] Chalcolithic Era

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: During the Later Vedic Age (1000-600 B.C.) the Aryans thoroughly subdued the
fertile plains watered by Rivers like: Yamuna, Ganges and Sadanira. It marked extensive burning of
forests.

Q.31) Who among the following was the first Tirthankar of Jainism?
[A] Rishabh dev
[B] Parshwanath
[C] Neminath
[D] Sambhavanath

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Lord Rishabhdev was the first Tirthankara of Jainism. He was born at Ayodhya in the
Ikshwaku Kula or clan. In Hinduism he is known to be an avatara or incarnation of Vishnu. The name
of Rishabh‘s parents has been mentioned in the Bhagvata Purana.
Q.32) Which of the following rulers were contemporary of Buddha?
[A] Bimbisar of Magadha
[B] Prasenjit (Pansedi) of Kosala
[C] Udayan of Avanti
[D] All of Above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: All of the mentioned rulers were contemporary of Buddha. In Magadha, both Bimbisar
and Ajatsatru ruled during Buddha‘s time

Q.33) The Ashoka‘s Bairut inscription was brought to Allahabad by ?

[A] Cunningham
[B] James Princep
[C] Feroj Shah Tughlaq
[D] Jahangir

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Ashoka‘s Bairut inscription was brought to Allahabad by Cunningham. On the
other hand, Pillars from Topra and Meerut were brought to Delhi by the Firoz Shah Tughlaq. The
Kaushambi Pillar was brought to Allahabad by the Mughal Emperor Jehangir.

Q.34) In which inscription, the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka refers himself as Piyadassi laja Magadhe
(Piyadassi, King of Magadha)?
[A] Junagarh Inscription
[B] Kandhar Inscription
[C] Dipavamsa Inscription
[D] Babhru Inscription

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: In Babhru edict, the Mauryan Emperor Ashoka refers himself as Piyadassi laja
Magadhe (Piyadassi, King of Magadha). In this edict he states his faith in the Buddha, the Dhamma
and the Sangha.

Q.35) Allahabad Pillar Inscription gives a detailed account of the reign of which of the following?
[A] Kanishka
[B] Samudra gupta
[C] Kumaragupta
[D] Ashoka

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Samudragupta court poet and minister Harisena composed the Allahabad pillar
Inscription or Prayag Prasasti. The Pillar was an Asokan Pillar erected by Asoka six century before
him.
This Inscription is a eulogy of Samudragupta and mentions about the conquests of Samudragupta an
d boundaries of the Gupta Empire. As per this inscription, Samudragupta defeated 9 kings in North,
12 Kings in South, reduced all the Atavika states to vassalage.

Q.36) The age of Guptas in the Indian History is described as Golden Age of Indian History. Which
among the following options is not a valid reason behind this?
[A] The age is known for extensive achievements in science, technology, engineering, art, dialectic,
literature, logic, mathematics, astronomy, religion and philosophy
[B] This age crystallized the common elements of Hindu Culture
[C] The age gave birth to eminent people like Kalidasa, Varahmihira,
Vatsyana, Arya Bhatta, Vishnu sharma, Gautama, Patanjali etc.
[D] All are valid reasons
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Correct Answer: D [All are valid reasons]

Q.37) Which river was the lifeline of Pandya state?

[A] Godavari
[B] Krishna
[C] Tungabhadra
[D] vaigai

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Madurai, the largest city in the Pandya Nadu region and its ancient capital, lies on the
Vaigai.

Q.38) Kirti-Srambha‟ of Chittor was constructed during the rule of

[A] Rana Kumbha
[B] Rana Hammir
[C] Rana Ratan Singh
[D] Rana Sangram Singh

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kirti Stambha is a 12th-century tower situated at Chittor Fort in Chittorgarh town of
Rajasthan, India. The 22 metres (72 ft) tower was built by a Jain merchant Jeeja Bhagerwala during
the reign of Rawal Kumar Singh(Rana Kumbha) in c. 1179–1191 CE.

Q.39) Hadis is
[A] Islamic Law
[B] Settlement Law
[C] Tax of Sultanate period
[D] Mansabdar

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Hadis is Islamic Law.

Q.40) The main reason of Babur's victory in the battle of Panipat was
[A] His horse riding force
[B] His skilled warfare
[C] Tulghuma system
[D] Internal disputes among Afghans

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: It is generally held that Babur's guns proved decisive in battle, firstly because Ibrahim
Lodi lacked any field artillery, but also because the sound of the cannon frightened Lodi's elephants,
causing them to trample Lodi's own men.

Q.41) At which of the following battles was artillery used for the first time by one of the two
armies?
[A] First Battle of Panipat
[B] Battle of Khanwa
[C] Battle of Plassey
[D] Third Battle of Panipat

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Artillary was used for the first time in the First Battle of Panipat. It was fought
between the invading forces of Babur and the Lodi Empire.
Q.42) The Maratha dominion of Shivaji was known as
[A] Swaraj
[B] Mulk-i-qadim
[C] Maharajya
[D] Maratha Rastra

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Shivaji (1627-1680) was a Maratha aristocrat of the Bhosle clan who is considered to
be the founder of the Maratha empire. Shivaji led a resistance to free the Marathi people from the
Sultanate of Bijapur from 1645 and establish Hindavi Swarajya (self-rule of Hindu people).

Q.43) The Sati Pratha was abolished under the Governor- Generalship of:
[A] Lord Ellenborough
[B] Lord Auckland
[C] Lord Metcalfe
[D] Lord William Bentinck

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Sati pratha was banned by the then Governor General Lord William Bentinck. In
[Link] was said that the Sati System which is burning alive the widows of Hindus is revolting to the
feelings of human nature. It was declared illegal and punishable by the criminal courts.

Q.44) The revolt of 1857 at Lucknow was led by

[A] Begum Hazarat Mahal
[B] Tantia Tope
[C] Rani Laxmi Bai
[D] Nana Sahib

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The revolt of 1857 at Lucknow was led by Begum Hazarat Mahal.

Q.45) Which one of the following is connected with the Blue Water policy?
[A] De Almeida
[B] Albuquerque
[C] Dupleix
[D] Robert Clive

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Blue Water Policy was initiated by Francisco De Almeida who
asappointedasagovernorin Indiaby theking of Portugal to strengthen the Portuguese position in India.
According tothis policy, Almeida's vision was to make the Portuguese the Master
ofIndianOceansratherbuilding fortresses.

Q.46) The Secret of success of East India Company in India was -

[A] Absence of Nationalism in India
[B] The company army received western training and they had modern arms.
[C] Indian soldiers lacked fidelity consequently whosoever paid them sufficiently could have them on
his services.
[D] All of the above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Success Of the East Company in India became possible because of the following
reason-
1. Superior Arms and Military strategy
2. Lack of National pride and unity
 3. Lack of Fidelty among Indian soldiers
4. Strong Financial backup
5. Naval superiority/strength
Technological and Military superiority etc.

Q.47) Which of the following British companies got the first charter permitting them to trade in India
through searoute?
[A] Levant Company
[B] East India Company
[C] The English Company trading to the East Indies
[D] Ostend company

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Queen Elizabeth-l issued a charter on December 31, 1600 with rights of exclusive
trading company named Governor and Company of Merchants of London (English East India
Company) trading into East Indie

Q.48) India‘s first newspaper was started by

[A] Bal Gangadhar Tilak
[B] James Augustus Hicky
[C] Raja Rammohan Roy
[D] Gopal Krishna Gokhale

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Hicky's Bengal Gazette was the first English-language newspaper published on the
Indian subcontinent. It was founded in Calcutta, capital of British India at the time, by Irishman
James Augustus Hicky in 1779.

Q.49) Who founded the newspaper titled 'Kesari' in the year 1881?
[A] Gopal Krishna Gokhale
[B] Bipin Chandra Pal
[C] Bal Gangadhar Tilak
[D] Lala Lajpat Rai

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Kesari (Marathi: केसरी Sanskrit for lion) is a Marathi newspaper which was founded
on 4 January 1881 by Lokmanya Bal Gangadhar Tilak, a prominent leader of the Indian
Independence movement.

Q.50) Who pennned the following lines "Sarfaroshi ki tamanna ab ahamare dil me hai/dekhna
hai zor kitna baju-e-qatil me hai"?
[A] Bismil
[B] Rajguru
[C] Bhagat Singh
[D] Azad

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Bismil.
 Bismil Azimabadi was an Urdu poet from Patna, Bihar.
 In 1921 he wrote the patriotic poem 'Sarfaroshi ki Tamanna'.
 The poem was immortalized by Ram Prasad Bismil, an Indian freedom fighter, as a war
cry during the British Raj period in India.
 The poem was written as an ode to young freedom fighters of the Indian independence
movement.
  It has also been associated with the younger generation of inter-war freedom fighters such
as Ashfaqullah Khan, Shaheed Bhagat Singh, and Chandrashekhar Azad.

Q.51) Who among the following was the socialist leader, who ran away from the Hazaribagh Prison
and joined the Quit India Movement?
[A] Ram Manohar Lohia
[B] Minoo Masani
[C] Jayprakash Narayan
[D] Achyut Patwardhan

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: JP had successfully escaped from Hazaribagh central jail in 1942 and then along with
Mrs Aruna Asaf Ali and other socialists, he organized an underground movement to harass the
British.

Q.52) Who among the following was placed on the throne of Nawab of Bengal after the Battle of
Buxar?
[A] Shiraj-ud-daula
[B] Mir Kasim
[C] Mir Jafar
[D] Najimuddin Ali Khan

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Battle of Buxar took place in the year 1764. Mir Jafar became the new Nawab of
Bengal after Battle of Buxar.

Q.53) Who among the following established Swadesh Bandhab Samiti ?

[A] Ashwini Kumar Datta
[B] Bagha Jatin
[C] Bhavabhushan Mitra
[D] Narendranath Bhattacharya

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Swadesh Bandhab Samiti was founded by Ashwini Kumar Dutta. It aimed to promote
the consumption of indigenous products and boycott foreign goods.

Q.54) Swaraj ha maza janmasidha adhikar aahe ani to mi milavinach‖.

The word Swaraj was first of all used by Balgangadhar Tilak. Where did Balgangadhar Tilak made
the above declaration in Marathi?
[A] In Pune Jail
[B] In Yavarda Jail
[C] In Court
[D] In Mandalay Jail

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: In Court, Tilak declared Swaraj ha maza janmasidha adhikar aahe ani to mi
milavinach‖ in court when he was given 7 years rigorous imprisonment in sedition case against him.
Later Tilak was sent to Mandalay jail for six years.

Q.55) Bhagat Singh, Rajguru and Sukhdev along with Jaigopal were involved in which among the
following conspiracy case?
[A] kanpur Conspiracy Case
[B] Lahore Conspiracy Case
[C] Bhagalapur Conspiracy Case
[D] Alipore Bomb case
Correct Answer: B
Explanation: To avenge the killing of Lal Lajpat Rai, Bhagat Singh, Raj guru, Jai Gopal and Sukh
Dev conspired to kill the police chief, Scott. But they shot on the DSP – J. P. Saunders, who was
killed on the spot. Bhagat Singh immediately fled from Lahore and to avoid recognition, he cut his
beard and hair. Later he was trailed in this Lahore Conspiracy Case when he was captured after
throwing bomb in Delhi Assembly.

Q.56) Azad Hind Fauz was formed in which among the following countries?
[A] India
[B] Singapore
[C] Japan
[D] Germany

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Subhash Chandra Bose and Rash Behari Bose launched the Indian Independence
League and the Indian National Army (INA), also called Azad Hind Fauj, at Singapore in 1943.

Q.57) Which among the following Sikh Gurus introduced the Gurmukhi Script?
[A] Guru Angad
[B] Guru Gobind Singh
[C] Guru Arjun Singh
[D] Guru Harrai

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Guru Nanak was the founder of Sikhism. Guru Nanak appointed Guru Angad (Lehna)
as his successor and he was the second Guru of sikhs. Guru Angad compiled the compositions of
Guru Nanak, to which he added his own in a new script known as Gurmukhi.

Q.58) The name of Barindra Ghosh is associated with which among the following newspapers?
[A] Indian Opinion
[B] Jugantar
[C] Ghadar
[D] Maharatta

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Jugantar was a Bengali revolutionary paper founded in 1906 by Barindra kumar
Ghosh, Abinash Bhattacharya and Bhupendranath Dutta.

Q.59) The ‗Tebhega‘ movement of 1946 is associated with which among the following current states
of India?
[A] Andhra Pradesh
[B] West Bengal
[C] Bihar
[D] Odishna

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Tebhaga movement was led by the share croppers of the Bengal region against the
oppressive jotedars in 1946-47. The uprising was due to the share cropping system that prevailed in
the Bengal
Q.60) At which among the following places, Indian National Congress adopted the resolution of
‗Poorna Swaraj‘?
[A] Calcutta
[B] Lahore
[C] Delhi
[D] Karachi

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: In Lahore session of 1929, Congress passed the Poorna Swaraj resolution. It was the
same session in which Jawaharlal Nehru was elected as president of the Congress.
Congress passed the Poorna Swaraj Resolution in December 1929, it was a month later on January 26,
1930, when a Pledge of Indian Independence also known as Declaration of Independence was taken.
You must note here that while the Poorna Swaraj Resolution was drafted by Jawaharlal Lal Nehru, the
―Declaration of Independence‖ pledge was drafted by Mahatma Gandhi in 1930 and it echoed the
essence of American Declaration of Independence. After this pledge January 26, 1930 was declared as
Independence Day by Indian National Congress.

Q.61) The name of P Mitra (Pramathanath Mitra) is associated with the foundation of which among
the following revolutionary organizations?
[A] Anushilan Samiti
[B] India House
[C] Jugantar
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: First proper revolutionary secret society known as Anushilan Samiti (Calcutta) was
founded on 24 March 1902 by Pramath Nath Mitra better known as P. Mitra.
The people associated with this samiti were Sri Aurobindo , Deshabandhu Chittaranjan Das,
Surendranath Tagore, Jatindranath Banerjee, Bagha Jatin, Bhupendra Natha Datta, Barindra Ghosh
etc. Out of them Bhupendra Nath Datta was brother of Swami Vivekananda. Barindra Ghosh was sent
to Paris to learn the science of Bomb Making and here he came in touch were Madam Kama. Madam
Kama was already associated with the India House and the Paris India Society.

Q.62) Which among the following was the first state in India in the pre-independence times, when the
compulsory primary education was launched for the first time?
[A] Baroda
[B] Arcot
[C] Coorg
[D] Hyderabad

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The first law on compulsory education was introduced by the State of Baroda in 1906.
This law provided for compulsory education for boys and girls in the age groups of 7–12 years and 7–
10 years respectively

Q.63) The 1896 session of Indian National Congress is best known for which among the following?
[A] India‘s national song was sung for the first time
[B] India‘s national anthem was sung for the first time
[C] India‘s tricolor flag was hoisted for the first time
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The song Vande Mataram, composed in Sanskrit by Bankimchandra Chatterji, was
incorporated in his famous novel Ananda Math (1882). It has an equal status with the National
Anthem.
Later the song was set to tune by Rabindranath Tagore and sung for the first time before the gathering
at the 12TH annual session of the Indian National Congress held in 1896 in Calcutta. It was declared
as the National Song in 1937 through a resolution. The English translation of the stanza was rendered
by Sri Aurobindo.

Q.64) Which among the following was the correct title of National Anthem of India, when it was
originally penned by Rabindranath Tagore?
[A] Jana Gana Mana
[B] Bharat Bhagya
[C] Bharat Bhagya Vidhata
[D] Bharat Vidhata

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The song Jana-gana-mana, composed originally in Bengali by Rabindranath Tagore,
was adopted in its Hindi version by the Constituent Assembly as the national anthem of India on
Tuesday, 24 January 1950. National Anthem Jana Gana Mana was first sung in Calcutta Session of
the Indian National Congress on 27 December 1911.

Q.65) The famous Vidyasagar Setu is located in which among the following cities?
[A] Patna
[B] Kolkata
[C] Lucknow
[D] Chennai

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Vidyasagar Setu is also known as Second Hooghly Brdige. It is named after
Ishwarchandra Vidyasagar

Q.66) ―Go Back to Vedas―. Who among the following gave this motto?
[A] Swami Vivekananda
[B] Swami Dayananda Saraswati
[C] Ramkrishna Paramahansa
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Swami Dayanand‘s greatest asset was his mastery over the Sanskrit language and the
Vedas. In 1875, he founded the Arya Samaj. Its main aim was to propagate the true knowledge of the
Vedas and discard all evils that had crept into the Hindu society later in its name. He opposed
untouchability. He was similarly opposed to polytheism, avataravada and ritualism. His slogan was
‗go back to the Vedas‘ whose authority he accepted. For the first time in the history of India, the
Vedas were printed in India under his patronage. Personally, his most important work was Satyartha
Prakasha (The Light of Truth).
His followers started a Dayanand Anglo-Vedic (DAV) School and College in Lahore (now in
Pakistan) in 1886.

Q.67) Simon Commission had visited India during the times of which among the following
Viceroys?
[A] Lord Irwin
[B] Lord Chelmsford
[C] Lord Willingdon
[D] Lord Wood

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: On April 3, 1926 Lord Irwin was appointed 30th Viceroy and Governor-General of
India. In 1927, British government appointed a commission under the chairmanship of Sir John
Simon. The Commission was appointed to study the reforms of 1919 and suggest further measures for
Constitutional reforms. The Commission had no Indian member in it. The Indians boycotted this all-
White commission

Q.68) At which among the following sessions, the All India Muslim league passed the Pakistan
Resolution on 23 March 1940?
[A] Karachi
[B] Hyderabad
[C] Lahore
[D] Lucknow

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Pakistan demand was formalised gradually. On 23 March 1940, the League moved
a resolution demanding a measure of autonomy for the Muslim majority areas of the subcontinent.
This ambiguous resolution never mentioned partition or Pakistan
The name Pakistan or Pak-stan (from Punjab, Afghan, Kashmir, Sind and Baluchistan) was coined by
a Punjabi Muslim student at Cambridge, Choudhry Rehmat Ali, who, in pamphlets written in 1933
and 1935, desired a separate national status for this new entity.

Q.69) In which among the following years, Sabarmati Ashram was established by Mahatma Gandhi?
[A] 1910
[B] 1912
[C] 1915
[D] 1917

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Sabarmati Ashram is located in the Sabarmati suburb of Ahmedabad, Gujarat.
Gandhiji‘s India ashram was originally established at the Kocharab Bungalow of Jivanlal Desai, a
barrister and friend of Gandhi, on 25 May 1915. At that time the ashram was called the Satyagraha
Ashram. But Gandhi wanted to carry out various activities such as farming and animal husbandry, in
addition to other pursuits which called for the need of a much larger area of usable land. So two years
later, on 17 June 1917, the ashram was relocated to an area of thirty-six acres on the banks of the river
Sabarmati, and it came to be known as the Sabarmati Ashram.

Q.70) Which among the following towns / cities of Karnataka is most famous for monuments of
Vijayanagar Empire?
[A] Gulbarga
[B] Belgaum
[C] Gadag
[D] Hampi

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The most important temples of Vijaynagar Empire include Vitthalaswamy and the
Hazara Ramaswamy temples at Hampi. The Tadapatri and Parvati temples at Chidambaram,
Varadaraja and Ekambaranatha temples at Kanchipuram.

Q.71) The Chauri Chaura Incident paved the way for end of which among the following movements?
[A] Civil Disobedience Movement
[B] Non-Cooperation Movement
[C] Quit India Movement
[D] Kheda Satyagraha

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
On 12 February 1922, the Indian National Congress halted the non-cooperation movement on the
national level as a direct result of the Chauri Chaura tragedy.

Q.72) The birth name of which among the following famous mystics was Gadadhar Chattopadhyay?
[A] Swami Vivekananda
[B] Ram Krishna Paramhansa
[C] Sri Aurobindo
[D] Swami Prabhupada

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The original name of Ramakrishna Paramhansa was Gadadhar Chattopadhyay

Q.73) Which among the following was the ONLY session of Indian National Congress that was
presided by Mahatma Gandhi?
[A] Amaravati
[B] Belgaum
[C] Nagpur
[D] Karachi

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Gandhiji became the president of Indian National Congress in 1924 at the Belgaum
session of Indian National Congress.

Q.74) During the times of Governor-General Lord Ellenborough, which among the following acts
declared slavery as illegal?
[A] Act VI
[B] Act V
[C] Act III
[D] Act VIII

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Act V of 1843 declared slavery as illegal during the tenure of Governor-General
Lord Ellenborough.

Q.75) The first meeting of Indian National Congress was held in Bombay in 1885 A.D. under the
leadership of :
[A] Dadabhai Naoroji
[B] Sir C. Sankaran Nair
[C] Woomesh Chandra Banerjee
[D] Badruddin Tyabji

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Under the Presidentship of woomesh Chandra Banerjee, the first meeting of Indian
National Congress was held in Bombay in 1885. The meeting was attended by 72 English-educated
people that included advocates, traders and zamindars.

Q.76) The scientific discipline concerned with the description of rock successions and their
interpretations in terms of a general time scale is called:
[A] Paleontology
[B] Stratigraphy
[C] Mineralogy
[D] Geodesy

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Stratigraphy, scientific discipline concerned with the description of rock successions
and their interpretation in terms of a general time scale. It provides a basis for historical geology, and
its principles and methods have found application in such fields as petroleum geology and
archaeology.

Q.77) _________ is a metamorphicrock form characterized by banding caused by segregation of

different types of rock, typically light and dark silicates.
[A] Gneiss
[B] Quartzite
[C] Slate
[D] Marble

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Gneiss is a metamorphic rock form characterized by banding caused by segregation of
different types of rock, typically light and dark silicates. Rather than an indication of specific mineral
composition, the term is an indication of texture. ... Gneiss can also form from gabbro or shale.

Q.78) The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, lies towards the western margins of
hills.
[A] Udgalakal
[B] Aravali
[C] Shevroy
[D] Javadi

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Thar Desert, also known as the Great Indian Desert, lies towards the western
margins of Aravali hills.

Q.79) River Sutlej enters India through whichpass?

[A] Shipki la
[B] Lipulekh
[C] Zoji la
[D] Nathula

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: River Satluj enters India near Shipki La Pass from where it traverses through the many
Himalayan valleys before it merges with Chenab in Pakistan before landing into Indus.

Q.80) Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India, is situated on ________

[A] Palni hills
[B] Anaimalai mountain
[C] Nilgiri mountain
[D] Cardamon hills

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Kodaikanal, the famous hill-station of South India, is situated on Palni hills. Its name
in the Tamil language means "The Gift of the Forest". Kodaikanal is referred to as the "Princess of
Hill stations" and has a long history as a retreat and popular tourist destination.

Q.81) At the location of which city in Assam, the river Brahmaputra goes south bound breaking away
from its westward course and enters into Bangladesh?
[A] Bongaigaon
[B] Tezpur
[C] Dhubri
[D] Barpeta
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The River Brahmaputra flows westward, till the city of Dhubri and thereafter turns
southward in the Garo hills region and enters into Bangladesh near Goalpara.

Q.82) Which of the following rivers has its origin in Mahabaleshwar?

[A] Kaveri
[B] Narmada
[C] Tapti
[D] Krishna

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Krishna river's source is at Mahabaleshwar near theJor village in the extreme
north of Wai Taluka, Satara District, Maharashtra in the west and empties into the Bay of Bengal at
Hamsaladeevi (near Koduru) in Andhra Pradesh, on the east coast.

Q.83) The Netravati River flows through which of the following cities?
[A] Karwar
[B] Mangaluru
[C] Bengaluru
[D] Shivamogga

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Netravati river : - origin-kudremukh,Karnataka Flows through the Mangalore city of
Karnataka It joins the Kumaradhara river at uppinangady before flowing to The Arabian sea.

Q.84) On which river is Mata Tila Dam built?

[A] Betwa
[B] Ken
[C] Tapti
[D] Narmada

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Matatila Dam is a dam in district Lalitpur, Uttar Pradesh, India, that was built in
1958 on the Betwa River.

Q.85) Kanha National Park is located in :

[A] Bihar
[B] Madhya Pradesh
[C] Andhra Pradesh
[D] Tamil Nadu

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Kanha National Park is the largest national park of Madhya Pradesh. Also known as
Kanha Tiger Reserve, it is one of the tiger reserves of India. It was created on 1 June 1955. Kanha
provided inspiration to Rudyard Kipling for his famous novel ―Jungle Book.‖

Q.86) Which of the following species are critically endangered?

[A] Gangetic Dolphin
[B] Forest Owlet
[C] White-bellied heron
[D] The gyps Vulture

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Union Ministry of Environment, Forest and Climate Change lists Forest Owlet
(Heteroglaux blewitti) as one of the ―critically endangered species‖ of India under the bird category. It
is found in the dry deciduous forest of South Madhya Pradesh, in northwest Maharashtra and north-
central Maharashtra. It has been endangered due to logging operations, burning and cutting of trees.

Q.87) The first Bio-sphere Reserve in India has been established in :

[A] Kanha
[B] Nilgiri
[C] Nanda Devi
[D] Hazaribagh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Nilgiris Biosphere Reserve, established in 1986, is India's first and foremost biosphere
reserve. It is situated in the Western Ghats and Nilgiri Hills ranges of South India. The reserve
encompasses 5,520 km² in the states of Tamil Nadu (2537.6 km²), Karnataka (1527.4 km²) and Kerala
(1455.4 km²). It forms an almost complete ring around the Nilgiri Plateau.

Q.88) The ________ river with its tributaries drains the state of Sikkim.
[A] Gandak
[B] Kosi
[C] Tista
[D] Brahmaputra

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Tista river with its tributaries drains the state of Sikkim. The Tista River is famous
for its emerald green waters. Prior to meeting the Brahmaputra River in Bangladesh as a tributary, the
Tista River forms the boundary between West Bengal and Sikkim.

Q.89) Which of the following rivers existed before the uplift of the Himalaya ?
1. Brahamaputra
2. Sutlej
3. Indus
4. Bhagirathi
[A] 1 and 3
[B] 2 and 3
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] 1, 2, 3 and 4

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Brahamaputra, Sutlej and Indus rivers existed before the uplift of the Himalaya.

Q.90) Which one of the following shows the correct sequence of places in descending order of
the average summer rainfall ?
[A] Jaisalmer, Pune, Allahabad, Cherapunji
[B] Cherapunji, Jaisalmer, Pune, Allahabad
[C] Allahabad, Pune, Jaisalmer, Cherapunji
[D] Cherapunji, Allahabad, Pune, Jaisalmer

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The following that shows the correct sequence of places in descending order of the
average summer rainfall are Cherapunji, Allahabad, Pune and Jaisalmer.
Q.91) Robert has sandy soil in his fields. The ideal crop for his field is:
[A] Gram
[B] Corn
[C] Cabbage
[D] Wheat

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The correct answer is Corn. Sandy Soil is light, warm, dry and tends to be acidic and
low in nutrients. Sandy soils are often known as light soils due to their high proportion of sand and
little clay.

Q.92) The transfer of minerals from top soil to subsoil through soil water is called ________
[A] Percolation
[B] Conduction
[C] Leaching
[D] Transpiration

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Leaching is the process by which the loss (or) extraction of essential material (like
micro & macro nutrients) of soil occurs. It may be done through water, wind (or) other agents.

Q.93) Iron ore mines are located in

[A] Salem Bhadravati Raniganj
[B] Hazaribagh Jharia Kudremukh
[C] Monghyr Balaghat Hazaribagh
[D] Singhbhum Mayurbhanj Bastar

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Iron ore mines are located in Singhbhum, Mayurbhanj and Bastar

Q.94) Where is the headquarters of South-Central Railway located?

[A] Itarsi
[B] Mumbai
[C] Secunderabad
[D] Vijayawada

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The headquarters of South-Central Railway is located at Secunderabad. Secunderabad
Railway Division is one of the six divisions of South Central Railway zone (SCR) of the Indian
Railways. It is one of the top five divisions of Indian Railways and its divisional and zonal
headquarters are at Secunderabad.

Q.95) As per 2011 Census report, which among the following pairs is/are not correctly matched ?
[A] Hindus - 80.5%
[B] Muslims - 13.4%
[C] Christians - 2.3%
[D] Sikhs - 1.5%

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Answer D is correct.
Q.96) East Kolkata wetlands have been declared as
[A] Biodiversity site
[B] Tourist site
[C] World Heritage site
[D] Ramsar site

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is the Ramsar site. East Kolkata Wetlands is recognized as 'The
Wetland of International importance under the Ramsar Convention on 19th August 2002. They
include salt marshes, agricultural fields, sewage farms, and settling ponds.

Q.97) Which one of the following towns is closest to Bangladesh border ?

[A] Krishnanagar
[B] Maldaha
[C] Raiganj
[D] Balurghat

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Answer D is correct.

Q.98) Which one is the smallest district of West Bengal in area ?

[A] Hooghly
[B] Howrah
[C] South Dinajpur
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Answer B is correct.

Q.99) 'Atrai' is a Tributary of river :

[A] Ganga
[B] Bhagirathi
[C] Padma
[D] Jamuna

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: 'Atrai' is a Tributary of river Jamuna.

Q.100) Which one of the following district of West Bengal has got muslim people in majority :
[A] Maldaha
[B] Nadia
[C] Murshidabad
[D] North Dinajpur

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Majority in Murshidabad with 66.3%, Maldah with 51.3%, Uttar dinajpur with 50%.
Significant minority in Birbhum with 37.1%, South 24 Parganas with 35.6%, Howrah with 26.20%.
Q.101) Article 3 of Indian Constitution authorizes the Parliament to:
(1) Increase the area of any state
(2) Diminish the area of any state
(3) Alter the boundaries of any state
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] None

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Article 3 of Indian Constitution authorizes the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts
of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
(b) Increase the area of any state;
(c) Diminish the area of any state;
(d) Alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) Alter the name of any state.
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above
changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and
two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature
concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.

Q.102) The genes which confer antibiotic resistance to bacteria are located in
[A] plasmid
[B] nucleoid DNA
[C] RNA
[D] cell wall

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: resistance elements found in producer organisms are embedded in the biosynthesis
gene clusters, while in clinical strains they are most often located on plasmids and transposons.

Q.103) Select the incorrect sentence

[A] Blood has matrix containing proteins, salts and hormones
[B] Two bones are connected with ligament
[C] Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile
[D] Cartilage is a form of connective tissue

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The answer is Tendons are non-fibrous tissue and fragile. Explanation: Tendons are
fibrous tissues that are highly elastic and strong.

Q.104) In human body, the hormone which is secreted into blood and which controls the rate of heart
beat is?
[A] Adrenaline
[B] Thyroxine
[C] Insulin
[D] Testosterone

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Also called adrenaline, epinephrine increases blood pressure and heart rate when the
body is under stress.
Q.105) How many valves does a human heart have
[A] Four
[B] Three
[C] Two
[D] one

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Roles of Your Four Heart Valves. To better understand your valve condition and what
your health care provider will discuss, it helps to know the role each heart valve plays in healthy
blood circulation.

Q.106) The process of intake of macromolecules and breaking them into simpler forms by
digestive enzymes is
[A] parasitic
[B] saprophytic
[C] holozoic
[D] autotrophic

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The process of intake of macromolecules and breaking them into simpler forms by
digestive enzymes is holozoic

Q.107) Which of the following food sources has the highest levels of vitamin C?
[A] Parsley
[B] Broccoli
[C] Black bens
[D] Orange juice

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Vegetables with the highest sources of vitamin C include: Broccoli, Brussels sprouts,
and cauliflower. Green and red peppers. Spinach, cabbage, turnip greens, and other leafy greens.

Q.108) Characters transmitted from parents to offspring are present in

[A] cytoplasm
[B] ribosome
[C] Golgi bodies
[D] genes

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Genes are the hereditary units of the body in living organisms. Chromosomes in the
nucleus of a cell contain information for the inheritance of features from parents in the form of DNA
(Deoxyribo Nucleic Acid). This DNA contains genes.

Q.109) ______ is a chromosomal disorder that causes undeveloped feminine character and
sterile
[A] Turner's Syndrome
[B] Klinefelter Syndrome
[C] Down's Syndrome
[D] Phenylketonuria

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is Turner's Syndrome. Turner's syndrome is a chromosomal
disorder that causes undeveloped feminine character and sterile female.
Q.110) Sweating is important for
[A] improvement of normal health
[B] to open the pore of skin
[C] to control the temperature of body
[D] to excrete the smell of body

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Its main function is to control body temperature. As the water in the sweat evaporates,
the surface of the skin cools. An additional function of sweat is to help with gripping, by slightly
moistening the palms.

Q.111) P of an instrument is the smallest value that can be measured by a measuring

instrument. Here P refers to
[A] Approximation
[B] error
[C] least count
[D] none of these

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The smallest value that can be measured by the measuring instrument is called its least
count. Measured values are good only up to this value. The least count error is the error associated
with the resolution of the instrument.

Q.112) Barometer is used to

[A] measure the density of a liquid
[B] measure the atmospheric pressure
[C] measure the purity of milk
[D] measure the viscosity of a fluid

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: A barometer is a scientific instrument used to measure atmospheric pressure, also
called barometric pressure. The atmosphere is the layers of air wrapped around the Earth. That air has
a weight and presses against everything it touches as gravity pulls it to Earth. Barometers measure this
pressure.

Q.113) A particle dropped from the top of a tower uniformly falls on ground at a distance which
is equal to the height of tower. Which of the following paths will be transversed by the particle?
[A] Circle
[B] Parabolic
[C] Great circle
[D] Hyper-parabolic

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: If a particle dropped from the top of a tower uniformly falls on ground at a distance
which is equal to the height of tower then a parabolic path will be traversed by a particle because
when the particle is dropped that point is called the point of projection.

Q.114) Conversion of sound energy into electrical energy is done by

[A] solar cell
[B] gramophone
[C] microphone
[D] loudspeaker

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Microphones are a type of transducer - a device which converts energy from one
form to another. Microphones convert acoustical energy (sound waves) into electrical energy (the
audio signal). Different types of microphone have different ways of converting energy but they all
share one thing in common: The diaphragm.

Q.115) When a ship enters the sea from a river

[A] it rises a little
[B] it sinks a little
[C] it remains at the same level
[D] it rises or sinks depending on the material it is made of

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The correct answer is It rises a little. A ship rises a little when enters the sea from a
river. Because of salinity, seawater has more density than river water. In the sea, the more buoyant
force is exerted upon the ship than in the river.

Q.116) 'Mirage‟ is an example of

[A] refraction of light only
[B] total internal reflection of light only
[C] refraction and total internal reflection of light
[D] dispersion of light only

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: So the mirage is an example of refraction of light and total internal reflection.

Q.117) The sound produced by a bat is

[A] Audible
[B] Subsonic
[C] Infrasonic
[D] Ultrasonic

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Bats send out sound waves using their mouth or nose. When the sound hits an object an echo
comes back. The bat can identify an object by the sound of the echo. They can even tell the size, shape and
texture of a tiny insect from its echo. Most bats use echolocation to navigate in the dark and find food.
The sound waves produced by the bats are ultrasonic waves.

Q.118) Which one of the following is not a conductor of electricity?

[A] Vinegar
[B] Lime juice
[C] Salt water
[D] Distilled water

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Distilled water. Distilled water is a pure form of water that does
not contain ions. Therefore, it does not conduct electricity.

Q.119) UN series is known as

[A] uranium series
[B] actinium series
[C] thorium series
[D] neptunium series

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The 4n chain of Th-232 is commonly called the "thorium series" or "thorium
cascade". Beginning with naturally occurring thorium-232, this series includes the following
elements: actinium, bismuth, lead, polonium, radium, radon and thallium.

Q.120) When caustic soda is manufactured from sea water, one of its important by-products is
[A] potash
[B] chlorine
[C] chromium
[D] fertilizer

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Solid sodium hydroxide is obtained from this solution by the evaporation of sea water. Principle
— In castner-kellner method NaOH is prepared by the electrolysis of aqueous solution of NaCl (Brine).Chlorine
gas is also produced in this process.
Hence option B is correct answer.

Q.121) The pair of elements which exhibit the property of catenation is

[A] sodium and silicon
[B] chlorine and carbon
[C] carbon and sodium
[D] silicon and carbon

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Silicon and carbon are the pair of elements that exhibit the property of catenation.

Q.122) Acetylene is used as an anaesthetic under the name of

[A] naracylene
[B] pyrene
[C] neoprene
[D] pyroline

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Acetylene is used as an anaesthetic under the name of narcylene.
CH≡CH

Q.123) Compound having tetrahedral structure is

[A] C2H4
[B] C2H2
[C] CH4
[D] CH6

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The compound having tetrahedral molecular geometry is methane.
In tetrahedral molecular geometry a central atom is located at the center with four substituents which
are located at the corners of a tetrahedron. Examples of tetrahedral molecular geometry are methane,
sulphate and phosphate.

Q.124) Radioactive disintegration of Tritium gives-

[A] α particles
[B] β particles
[C] Neutrons
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation:
Tritium is a rarer isotope of hydrogen.
 It radiates β-particle.
 Its atomic number is 1, and its mass number is 3. Represented by 1H .
3

 The half-life of Tritium is 12.4 years.

1H3 → 2He3 + -1β0

So, Radioactive disintegration of Tritium gives β particles.

Q.125) Which of the following properties does not depend on period icity?
[A] Atomic weight
[B] Electron affinity
[C] lonisation energy
[D] Electronegativity

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Atomic weight is not a function of periodicity

Q.126) Which of the two terms were inserted by 42nd Amendment to Preamble of Constitution?
[A] Secular, Democratic
[B] Sovereign, Democratic
[C] Socialist, Secular
[D] Secular, Republic

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Forty-2nd Amendment of Constitution of India, enacted in 1976, declared India to
be a socialist & Secular republic, & as securing fraternity assuring unity "and integrity" of Nation, by
adding these words to Preamble of Constitution of India.

Q.127) Article 3 of Indian Constitution authorizes the Parliament to:

(1) Increase the area of any state
(2) Diminish the area of any state
(3) Alter the boundaries of any state
Choose the correct answer using the code given below
[A] 1 and 2 only
[B] 2 only
[C] 1, 2 and 3
[D] None

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Article 3 of Indian Constitution authorizes the Parliament to:
(a) form a new state by separation of territory from any state or by uniting two or more states or parts
of states or by uniting any territory to a part of any state;
(b) Increase the area of any state;
(c) Diminish the area of any state;
(d) Alter the boundaries of any state; and
(e) Alter the name of any state.
However, Article 3 lays down two conditions in this regard: one, a bill contemplating the above
changes can be introduced in the Parliament only with the prior recommendation of the President; and
two, before recommending the bill, the President has to refer the same to the state legislature
concerned for expressing its views within a specified period.
Q.128) Birth anniversary of which Prime Minister is observed as Sadbhawna Diwas?
[A] Lal Bahadur Shastri
[B] Indira Gandhi
[C] Rajiv Gandhi
[D] PV Narasimha Rao

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Rajiv Gandhi National Sadbhavana Award (English: Rajiv Gandhi National
Communal Harmony Award) is an Indian award given for outstanding contribution towards
promotion of communal harmony, national integration and peace.

Q.129) Which Act is associated with “courts can interpret the rules and regulations”.
[A] Regulating Act of 1773
[B] Pitts India Act of 1784
[C] Charter Act of 1793
[D] Charter Act of 1893

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A ‗Regular code‘ of all regulations that could be enacted for the internal
Government of British territory in Bengal was framed. The regulation was applied to the
rights, persons and property of the Indian people and bound the courts to regulate their
decisions by the code itself.

Q.130) Consider the following statements about changes brought in the constitution by 73rd
constitutional amendment act:
(1) It added a new Part-IX to the Constitution titled as 'The Panchayats'.
(2) It added Twelfth Schedule to the Constitution which contains functional items of the panchayats.
Which of the above statement's is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: This act has added a new Part-IX to the Constitution of India. This part is entitled as
'The Panchayats' and consists of provisions from Articles 243 to 243 0. In addition, the act has also
added a new Eleventh Schedule to the Constitution. Hence, statement 2 is incorrect. This schedule
contains 29 functional items of the panchayats. It deals with Article 243-G.

Q.131) Which among the following statements is/are NOT true about the 'Leader of the House'
[A] In Lok Sabha, generally, the 'Leader of the House' is the Prime Minister
[B] The same functionary in USA is known as the 'majority leader'
[C] In USA, the analogous title given for this post is 'majority leader'
[D] The President nominates the 'Leader of the House' for the Rajya Sabha

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: It is the Prime Minister who nominates the 'Leader of the House' for the Rajya Sabha

Q.132) What is the present salary of Chief Justice of India?

[A] Rs. 3 lakh
[B] Rs. 2.80 lakh
[C] Rs. 2.50 lakh
[D] Rs. 2.25 lakh

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The salaries, allowances, privileges, leave and pension of the judges of the Supreme
Court are determined from time to time by Parliament. They cannot be varied to their disadvantage
after their appointment except during a financial emergency. In 2018, the salary of the chief justice
was increased from Rs. 1 lakh to Rs. 2.80 lakh per month and that of a judge from Rs. 90,000 to Rs.
2.50 lakh per month.

Q.133) Consider the following statements about NO double Jeopardy:

(1) It means no person shall be witness of his own case.
(2) Article 20 of the India Constitution has the provision of No double Jeopardy.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: No double Jeopardy means no person shall be prosecuted and punished for the same
offense twice. Hence statement 1 is incorrect. Article 20 of the India Constitution has the provision of
No double Jeopardy. Hence statement 2 is correct. It is available only for proceedings before a court
of law or judicial tribunal not before departmental and administrative authorities.

Q.134) Which Article empower an individual to move to the Supreme Court in case of violation
of his/her Fundamental Rights?
[A] Article 13
[B] Article 14
[C] Article 32
[D] Article 34

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The Supreme Court has said that it wished to discourage petitions under Article 32 in
the court and said that citizens should instead approach high courts for appropriate relief under Article
226. The Constitution empowers citizens to move the top court for enforcement of Fundamental
Rights under Article 32.

Q.135) Which of the following Article of the Indian Constitution guarantees 'Equality Before
the Law and Equal Protection of Law within the Territory of India'?
[A]15
[B]14
[C]17
[D] 18

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Article 14 of the Indian Constitution guarantees equality before the law or the equal
protection of the laws within the territory of India.

Q.136) Which Article of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability?

[A] Article 18
[B] Article 15
[C] Article 14
[D] Article 17

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Article 17 of the Indian Constitution abolishes Untouchability. It states:
―Untouchability‖ is abolished and its practice in any form is forbidden. The enforcement of any
disability arising out of ―Untouchability‖ shall be an offence punishable in accordance with the law.
Q.137) All union territories are under the President of India. This comes under which of the following
powers of President ?
[A] Executive and Administrative Powers
[B] Legislative Powers
[C] Emergency Powers
[D] Judicial powers

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Correct Answer: A [Executive and Administrative Powers]

Q.138) Consider the following statements about Directive Principles of State Policy (DPSP)
(1) DPSPs are ideals which are not legally enforceable by the courts for their violation.
(2) They seek to establish political, economic and social democracy in the country.
Which of the above statement/s is/are correct?
[A] 1 only
[B] 2 only
[C] Both
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: DPSP are ideals which are meant to be kept in mind by the state when it formulates
policies and enacts laws. Article 37 mentions that DPSPs are not legally enforceable by the courts for
their violation. Fundamental Rights establishes political democracy in the country not DPSP. DPSPs
seek to establish only economic and social democracy in the country Hence Statement 2 is wrong.

Q.139) Who releases data of national income in India?

[A] NSSO
[B] CSO
[C] NITI Aayog
[D] None of the following

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The GDP figures in India are released by the Central Statistics Office (CSO), which
comes under the Ministry of Statistics and Program Implementation (MOSPI).

Q.140) GDP Deflator is used to

[A] Measure the relative reduction in GDP growth rate of a country.
[B] Measure the Inflation of a country
[C] Compare the GDP of a country vis a vis other countries of the world.
[D] Estimate the purchasing power of the citizen of a country.

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: GDP Deflator is an Economic Metric that accounts for Inflation by converting output
measured at current prices into constant under GDP. The GDP Deflator shows how much a change in
the base GDP relies upon changes in the price level.

Q.141) ______ compared inflation with robbers.

[A] Amartya Sen
[B] Professor Brahmand and Wakeel
[C] Professor Jagdish Bhagwati
[D] Professor Key

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Professor Brahmand and Wakeel compared the inflation with the robbers.
Q.142) Which of the following is not a union tax?
[A] Taxes on railway freights and fares
[B] Stamp duties on financial documents
[C] Tolls
[D] A and b only

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Taxes levied by the state government include Sales tax, VAT, tax of land &
buildings, tax of agricultural income, stamp duty, luxury tax, dividend distribution tax and
entertainment tax.

Q.143) Which of the following is not a reason for inflation?

[A] Increase in administered prices
[B] Increase in cost of capital
[C] More dependence on indirect taxes for revenue
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Inflation refers to rise in the general price level in the economy. Various demand
and supply side factors cause inflation.

Q.144) Which one of the Five Year Plans had a high priority to bring Inflation under control and to
achieve stability in the Economic Situation?
[A] Fourth Plan (1969-74)
[B] Fifth Plan (1974-79)
[C] Sixth Plan (1980-85)
[D] Seventh Plan (1985-90)

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: The Fifth Five Year Plan (1974-79) had a high priority to bring Inflation under control
and to achieve stability in the Economic situation.

Q.145) Which of the following tax is not included in Goods and Services Tax (GST)?
[A] Excise Duty
[B] Custom Duty
[C] Value Added Tax
[D] Service Tax

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The correct answer is Custom Duty.
 Custom Duty tax is not included in Goods and Services Tax (GST).
 Customs duty refers to the tax imposed on goods when they are transported across
international borders.
o In simple terms, it is the tax that is levied on the import and export of goods.
 The government uses this duty to raise its revenues, safeguard domestic industries, and
regulate the movement of goods.
o Customs duty is a form of indirect tax which is imposed at the time of both import
and export of goods and services.
o The tax which is imposed on the import of goods and services are is known as Import
duty and for export of goods and services are known as Export duty.
Hence, option 2 is correct.
 Q.146) Which of the following terms indicates a mechanism used by commercial banks for
providing credit to the government?
[A] Cash Credit Ratio
[B] Debt Service Obligation
[C] Liquidity Adjustment Facility
[D] Statutory Liquidity Ratio

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The correct answer is Statutory Liquidity Ratio. Commercial banks provide long-
term credit to the government by investing their funds in government securities and short-term finance
by purchasing Treasury Bills. This comes under SLR.

Q.147) Which one of the following rules is not determined by the Reserve Bank of India?
[A] CRR
[B] SLR
[C] Repo Rate
[D] Prime Lending Rate

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The prime lending rate is the primary determiner of most of the interest
rates charged by the lending institution; it is a component of the rate charged to the
customer. Interest rates are the compensation the banks get against the risk taken by the bank and are
based on the credit history of the borrower.

Q.148) 'Planned Economy for India" — The book was written by

[A] Sir M. Visvesvarayya
[B] J. L. Nehru
[C] S. N. Agarwal
[D] M. N. Roy

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Every year India celebrates Engineer's Day on September 15, the birth anniversary of
[Link].
 He was an engineering pioneer of India whose genius reflected in harnessing of water resources
and building and consolidation of dams across the country.
 He was the chief engineer responsible for the construction of the Krishna Raja Sagara Dam in
Mysore.
 He was knighted as a Knight Commander of the British Indian Empire by King George V for his
contributions to the public good in 1915.
 The design and patent of the automatic weir floodgates is also attributed to Sir [Link].
He was conferred India's highest honour, the Bharat Ratna in 1955.

Q.149) National Horticulture Mission was launched in which of following Five year plans?
[A] Ninth five year plan
[B] Tenth five year plan
[C] Eleventh five year plan
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Natonal Horticulture Mission is an Indian horticulture scheme launched in 2005-06
under the 10th Five year plan. The key object is to develop horticulture to the maximum protencial
available in the State and to augment production of all horticculture products.
Q.150) India signed a loan with World Bank for which project in Assam on June 5, 2017?
[A] Citizen Centric Service Delivery Project
[B] Social Centric Service Delivery Project
[C] Media Centric Service Delivery Project
[D] Society Centric Service Delivery Project

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: India on 5 June 2017 signed a USD 39.2 million loan agreement with the World
Bank for the Assam Citizen Centric Service Delivery project.
The loan will be provided by the International Bank for Reconstruction and Development
(IBRD), an international financial institution under the World Bank that offers loans to
middle-income developing countries.
The loan agreement was signed by Raj Kumar, Joint Secretary under Department of Economic
Affairs, Ministry of Finance on behalf of India and Hisham Abdo, Manager Operations (India)
on behalf of the World Bank.
The Implementing Entity Agreement was signed by the Additional Chief Secretary, Assam
Government and the Country Director (India) on behalf of t he World Bank.
The total estimated cost of the Citizen Centric Service Delivery project is USD 49 million, out
of which USD 39.2 million will be financed by the World Bank.
The remaining funds will be utilised from the Assam Budget. The objective of the p roject is to
improve access in the delivery of selected public services in Assam.
The Project seeks to enable citizens to access services under the Assam Right To Public
Services Act, 2012 in a timely, efficient, and accountable manner.
The Project adopts an integrated approach to improve access and accountability. The
programme duration is of 5 years.

Q.151) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: : ) and one word is given on another side (: : ) while another word is to be found from
the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear.
Choose the correct alternative.
Visitor : Invitation : : Witness : ?
[A] Subpoena
[B] Permission
[C] Assent
[D] Document

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: 'Visitor' requires 'Invitation' to appear and likewise 'Witness' requires 'Subpoena' to
appear.

Q.152) In each of the following questions, there is a certain relationship between two given words on
one side of (: : ) and one word is given on another side (: : ) while another word is to be found from
the given alternatives, having the same relation with this word as the word of the given pair bear.
Choose the correct alternative.
Poet : Poem : : Tailor : ?
[A] Book
[B] Author
[C] Crop
[D] Clothes

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A 'Poet' writes 'Poem' and in the same way a 'Tailor' stitches 'Clothes'.
Q.153) Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
[A] Deck
[B] Quay
[C] Bow
[D] Mast

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Rest are parts of a ship.

Q.154) Choose the word which is least like the other words in the group.
[A] King
[B] Queen
[C] Bishop
[D] Minister

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: All are chessmen, except minister.

Q.155) Introducing a man, a woman said, ―His wife is the only daughter of my mother.‖ How is the
woman related to that man?
[A] Aunt
[B] Wife
[C] Mother-in-low
[D] Maternal Aunt

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Clearly, only daughter of her mother is woman herself. So, that woman is the wife of
man.

Q.156) A man pointing to a photograph says, ―The lady in the photograph is my nephew‘s maternal
grandmother.‖ How is the lady in the photograph related to the man‘s sister who has no other sister?
[A] Cousin
[B] Sister-in-law
[C] Mother
[D] Mother-in-law

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Clearly, the lady is the grandmother of man‘s sister‘s son i.e., the mother of the mother
of man‘s sister‘s son i.e., the mother of man‘s sister.
So, the lady is man‘s mother.

Q.157) From her home Prerna wishes to go to school. From home she goes toward North and then
turns left and then turns right, and finally she turns left and reaches school. In which direction her
school is situated with respect to her home?
[A] North – East
[B] North– West
[C] South – East
[D] South – West

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Draw a figure as per given instruction in the question. We can see that according to
graph It is clear from the diagram that school is in North-West direction with respect to home.
Q.158) Read the following information carefully and answer the questions that follow.
Sunita is taller than Seeema and Renu, Renu is shorter than Radha and Gauri. Bina is taller than
Radha and shorter than Sunita. Sunita is not the tallest and Renu is not the shortest.
Which of the following statements is definitely correct?
[A] Bina occupies the third position from the top
[B] Seema is taller than Renu
[C] Gauri is shorter than Radha
[D] None of the above

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: According to the question,
Sunita is taller than Seema and Renu.
1. Sunita > Seema/Renu.
Renu is shorter than Radha and Gauri
2. Renu < Radha/Gauri.
Bina is taller than Radha.
3. Bina > Radha.
Bina shorter than Sunita.
4. Bina < Sunita.
Sunita is not the tallest and Renu is not the shortest.
5. Sunita (not tallest)
6. Renu (not Shortest)
On arranging the above data, we get
from 3 and 4,
7. Sunita > Bina > Radha
from 7 and 1,
8. Sunita > Bina > Radha > Renu/Seema.
from 8 , 5 and 6.
? Gauri > Sunita > Bina > Radha > Renu > Seema.

Bina occupies the third position from the top

Q.159) Which number will replace the question mark (?) in the following series?
3, 5, 10, 18, 29, ?, 60
[A] 46
[B] 37
[C]45
[D] 43

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: According to the question3,5,10,18,29..??..60
There is a gap 5-3 =2
10-5=5
18-10=8
29-18=11
Now, the result will be 2, 5, 8, 11 in
which we can notice that there is a gap of 3 between two consecutive terms, so thenext term
will be 14 and we add 29+14=43

Q.160)Which of the following interchanges of signs and numbers would make the given
equation correct?
12 ×18 ÷3-6+4=5
[A] ÷ and× , 6 and 3
[B] ÷ and× , 4 and 3
[C] ÷ and + , 3 and 4
[D] × and + , 3 and 6

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: In the given question, 12 ×18 ÷3-6+4=5
We will interchange as well as ÷ and × integer 6 and 3.
After interchanging, the equation will be satisfactory.

12 ×18 ÷3-6+4=5 Hence proved.

Q.161) Five boys J, K, L, M and T are standing in a queue one after the other (not necessarily in the
same order). There is only one boy between K and J. There is only one boy between K and L. There
are four boys behind J. T is three places ahead of L. How many boys are ahead of M?
[A] 3
[B]0
[C]2
[D] 1

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: As per given directions, following arrangement is obtained:
Top J - T - K - M - L Bottom
Hence, 3 boys (namely K, T and J) are ahead of M.

Q.162) Six cameras G, H, P, S, K and I are placed in a row facing towards north (Not necessarily in
the same order). S is placed second to the left of I. H is placed second to the right of G. K is placed
third to the left of G. Which of the following statements is correct about camera I?
[A] I is not the immediate neighbour of H
[B] I is between G and S
[C] P is third to left of I
[D] I is to the immediate left of G

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: As per given directions, following arrangement is obtained:

Hence, P is third to the left of I.

Q.163) Six players C, E, G, I, K and M are standing in a row facing towards north
(Not necessarily in the same order). Two players are standing between C and M. I is standing to the
immediate left of C. E is standing second to the left of G. K is third to the right of G. Who is standing
second to the right of I?
[A]E
[B]M
[C]K
[D] C
Correct Answer: C
Explanation: As per given directions, following arrangement is obtained:

Hence, K is standing second to the right of I.

Q.164) Select from the given diagram the one that illustrates the relationship among the given 3
classes: children below 18, persons in the electoral list, those who have voted.
[A]

[B]

[C]

[D]

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: According to above given question , we can say that
children below 18 are different from persons in the electoral list and those who have voted.
From above it is clear that option ( A ) represents the best relationship between children below
18, persons in the electoral list and those who have voted . As shown in given venn - diagram

Q.165) From the given answer figures, select the one in which the question figure is hidden/embedded
in the same direction.

[A]1
[B]2
[C]3
[D] 4
Correct Answer: D
Explanation:

Q.166) The respective ages of father and his son are 41 and 16 years. In how many years will the
father be twice as old as his son ?
[A] 19 years
[B] 9 years
[C] 10 years
[D] 15 years

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Suppose x years later the father will be twice as old as his son.
∵ x + 41 = 2 (x + 16)
⇒ x = 41 - 32 = 9 years

Q.167) The average of five results is 46 and that of the first four is 45. the fifth result is ?
[A] 51
[B] 50
[C] 49.5
[D] 49

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Fifth result = sum of all five result - sum of first four result.
= 5 x 46 - 4 x 45
= 230 -180
=50

Q.168) If a boy takes as much time in running 10 m as a car takes in covering 25 m, the distance
covered by the boy during the time the car covers 1 km, is ?
[A] 400 m.
[B] 40 m.
[C] 250 m.
[D] 650 m.

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let distance covered by boy is Y.
Then, 25 : 10 : : 1000 : Y
⇒ Y = (10 x 1000)/25 = 400 m

Q.169) If A : B = 2 : 3, B : C = 4 : 5 and C : D = 6 : 7, then A : D is equal to ?

[A] 2 : 7
[B] 7 : 8
[C] 16 : 35
[D] 4 : 13

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: ∵ A/D = (A/B) x (B/C) x (C/D) = (2/3) x (4/5) x (6/7) = 16/35
∴ A : D = 16 : 35

Q.170) 8% of 96 = ? of 1/25
[A] 19.2
[B] 7.68
[C] 1.92
[D] None of these

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Let 8% of 96 = y of 1/25
⇒ (8 x 96)/100 = y/25
∴ y = (8 x 96 x 25)/100 = 192

Q.171) A trader mixes 25% kerosene to his petrol and then he sells the whole mixture at the price of
petrol. if the cost price of kerosene be 50 % of the cost price of petrol, what is the net profit
percentage ?
[A] 11 1/9 %
[B] 12 1/9 %
[C] 9 1/11 %
[D] 20 %

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: K = 1 litre, price of K = 1
P = 4 litre price of P = 2

price of total (new) mixture = 1 X 1 + 4 X 2 = Rs. 9

price of pure petrol of same quantity = 5 X 2 = Rs. 10
Percentage profit = [(10-9) / 9] x 100 = 111/9 %

Q.172) Rs. 4200 amounts to Rs. 5712 in 4 years. If rate of interest is increased by 3%. What will be
the amount ?
[A] Rs. 6372
[B] Rs. 4000
[C] Rs. 6216
[D] Rs. 3000

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: S.I = Principal x Rate x Time / 100
∴ Amount - Principal = Principal x Rate x Time / 100
⇒ 5712 - 4200 = (4200 x Rate x 4) /100
⇒ 1512 = 42 x 4 x Rate
Rate = 1512 / (42 x 4) = 9%
On increasing 3%, new rate of interest = 9 + 3 = 12%

Simple interest on new rate = (4200 x 12 x 4) / 100 =Rs. 2016

Amount = Principal + Interest = 4200 + 2016 = Rs. 6216

Q.173) A sum of money was lent at 10% per annum, compounded annually, for 2 years. If the interest
was compounded half-yearly, he would have received Rs. 220.25 more. Find the sum.
[A] Rs. 40000
[B] Rs. 45000
[C] Rs. 48000
[D] Rs. 50000
Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Let the sum be Rs. P.
Here , R = 10% per annum , Time = 2 years
When compounded yearly,
10 2 121
amount = P 1 + = P
100 100

When compounded half-yearly,

5 4 194481
amount = P 1 + = P
100 160000

So, Given difference = Rs. 220.25

194481 121
⇒ − P = 220.25
160000 100

194481 − 193600
⇒ P = 220.25
160000

881
⇒ P = 220.25
160000

160000
⇒ P= × 220.25 = Rs. 40,000.
881

Q.174) If there number are 2a, 5a, and 7a, what will be their LCM?
[A] 70a
[B] 65a
[C] 75a
[D] 70a3

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Required LCM = a x 2 x 5 x 7 = 70a

Q.175) Which of the following number always divides the difference between the square of two
consecutive odd numbers ?
[A] 7
[B] 3
[C] 8
[D] 6

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Let the two consecutive odd numbers be 2x+1 and 2x + 3 .
∴ Difference = ( 2x + 3 )2 - ( 2x + 1 )2
= ( 2x + 3 + 2x + 1 )( 2x + 3 - 2x - 1 )
=( 4x + 4 ) x 2
= 8 (x + 1)
whis is exactly divisible by 8.
Q.176) Finance Ministry has retained the Interest rates of all______________ Small Savings
Schemes for the 2nd quarter(Q2) of FY22 same as Q1, making it the 5th consecutive quarter
with unchanged interest rates
[A] 8
[B] 15
[C] 6
[D] 12

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Ministry of Finance, Government of India (GoI) had retained the Interest
Rate of Small Savings Scheme for the 2nd quarter(Q2) for the Financial Year 2021-22 (FY22)
same as Q1 FY22 due to COVID- 19.
 It is the 5th consecutive quarter that GoI had unchanged the Interest Rates of the
small saving schemes (unchanged since April 1, 2020).
The small savings schemes consist of 12 schemes

Q.177) Which organisation will implement the 1st of its kind virtual cyber museum to honour the war
heroes of India by the Defence Ministry?
[A] Society of Indian Defence Manufacturers
[B] Confederation of Indian Industries
[C] Ordnance Factory Board
[D] Only 1 & 2

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As part of the 75th Anniversary of India‘s Independence, the Ministry of
Defence has initiated a project to create the 1st of its kind cyber museum which will honour
the war heroes of India. It will be an interactive virtual museum of India‘s Gallantry award
winners and will be hosted by the Gallantry awards portal.
The project will be implemented in partnership with Society of Indian Defence Manufacturers
(SIDM) and Confederation of Indian Industries (CII).

Q.178) Name the organisation that launched the 1st of its kind Global Mobility Aids Action Group to
provide mobility aids to disabled travellers:
[A] International Disability Alliance
[B] World Tourism Organization
[C] International Air Transport Association
[D] National Organization on Disabilit

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: The International Air Transport Association (IATA) launched the 1st of
kind Global Mobility Aids Action Group to tackle the issues around safe and secure transport of
mobility aids, with an objective of handling the vital equipment for travelers with disabilities.
IATA is headquartered at Montreal, Canada

Q.179) Which Indian Airport was inducted (in July‘21) into the Airports Council International‘s
(ACI) Roll of Excellence for the year 2020?
[A] Chennai International Airport
[B] Indira Gandhi International Airport
[C] Kempegowda International Airport
[D] Chhatrapati Shivaji International Airport

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: Bengaluru‘s Kempegowda International Airport has been inducted
into the Airports Council International (ACI) Director General(DG)‘s Roll of
Excellence for the year 2020.
[Link] is the 6th Airport in the World to be award for 2020 & the 2nd in India
Note - Cochin International Airport was awarded the ACI Roll of Excellence in June 2021

Q.180) Who directed ‗Decoding Shankar‘, a documentary on singer Shankar Mahadevan, which won
‗Best Biographical Film Award‘ at 2021‘s Toronto International Women Film Festival?
[A] Deepti Pillay Sivan
[B] Anand Patwardhan
[C] Aarti Shrivastava
[D] Sanjay Kak

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: A documentary on singer Shankar Mahadevan titled „Decoding Shankar‟ has
won Best Biographical Film Award at the Toronto International Women Film Festival, [Link]
documentary was directed by Kochi-based filmmaker Deepti Pillay Sivan. This documentary also
won a Special Jury Award at the Indo French International Film Festival.

Q.181) Global GDP lost an estimated $4 trillion due to International Travel restrictions, as per the
‗COVID-19 and Tourism: An Update‘, report. Which organisation released the report?
[A] UN Conference on Trade and Development
[B] International Organization for Migration
[C] World Tourism Organisation
[D] Both 1 & 3

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: As per the joint report released by the UN (United Nations) Conference
on Trade and Development (UNCTAD) and the UN World Tourism Organisation
(UNWTO) named „COVID-19 and Tourism: An Update‟, India has experienced a 54
percent drop in tourist arrivals in 2020 due to COVID-19.
The report has estimated a loss of $4 trillion in terms of global GDP in 2020-21 due to the fall down
of international tourism.

Q.182) Select the country that developed ―Space Data Integrator (SDI)‖ a tool to track rocket launch
& its return to earth
[A] India
[B] China
[C] Australia
[D] USA

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: USA‟s Federal Aviation Administration (FAA) has developed a new tool called
‗Space Data Integrator (SDI)‘ which will help in better tracking of rocket launches and space
vehicles returning to Earth, it will help in shortening the time that airspaces are closed.

Q.183) Which telescope was used by Indian Researchers for mapping the very rare SuperLuminous
Supernova (SLSNe)?
[A] Devasthal Optical Telescope
[B] Sampurnanand Telescope
[C] Himalayan Chandra Telescope
[D] All 1, 2 & 3

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A Team of Indian Researchers spotted the very rare SuperLuminous Supernova
(SLSNe) using the special arrangements at India‘s Devasthal Optical Telescope (DOT-3.6 m),
Nainital, Uttarakhand along with 2 other Indian telescopes – Sampurnanand Telescope (1.04 m),
Nainital & Himalayan Chandra Telescope (2.0 m) in Ladakh.
Q.184) In July 2021, _____________ driver Max Verstappen from_________ won the Austrian
Grand Prix 2021, making his 3rd consecutive win & 5th win in 2021
[A] Red Bull Racing; England
[B] Mercedes; England
[C] Red Bull Racing; France
[D] Red Bull Racing; Belgium

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Red Bull Racing driver Max Verstappen (Belgium) won the Austrian Grand Prix 2021,
making his 3rd consecutive win and 5th win in 2021. He was quickly followed by Mercedes driver
Valtteri Bottas and McLaren‘s Lando Norris in 2nd & 3rd positions respectively.

Q.185) Who authored the book, ―Operation Khukri: The true story behind the Indian Army‘s most
successful mission as a part of the United Nations‖?
[A] Rajpal Punia
[B] Damini Punia
[C] Havildar Krishan Kumar
[D] Both 1 & 2

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Major General Rajpal Punia and his daughter Damini Punia have co-authored their
first book titled ―Operation Khukri: The true story behind the Indian Army‘s most successful mission
as a part of the United Nations‖ which is set to release on 15th July 2021.

Q.186) Who authored the book, ―Policymaker‘s Journal: From New Delhi to Washington, D.C.‖?
[A] Kaushik Basu
[B] Amartya Sen
[C] Rajiv Kumar
[D] Abhijit Sen

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Indian Economist Kaushik Basu has authored a new book titled “Policymaker‟s
Journal: From New Delhi to Washington, D.C.”. The book features the journal records of his
career of 7 years, during which he served as the Chief Economic Adviser (CEA) to the Indian
Government and the Chief Economist at the World Bank

Q.187) In July 2021, Pradesh Virbhadra Singh passed away. He previously served as the Chief
Minister of Which state?
[A] Uttarakhand
[B] Jammu & Kashmir
[C] Punjab
[D] Himachal Pradesh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Former Chief Minister(CM) of Himachal Pradesh Virbhadra Singh passed away in
Shimla. He was also a 9-time MLA and 5-time Member of Parliament(MP)

Q.188) To mark the historic tax reform in India, CBIC annually observes Goods and Services Tax
(GST) Day. When was the 1st GST day observed?
[A] 1st July 2017
[B] 30th June 2017
[C] 1st July 2019
[D] 1st July 2018
Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The Goods and Services Tax (GST) Day is annually observed across India on 1st
July. The day marks the commemoration of the unprecedented reform of Indian taxation – Goods
and Services Tax (GST).
[Link] day is observed by the Central Board of Indirect Tax and Customs(CBIC)
The First GST Day was observed on July 1, 2018.

Q.189) In September 2021, Ladakh declared _________ as its state animal and ____________ as
its state bird.
[A] Snow leopard; Black-necked crane
[B] Kashmir stag; Black-necked crane
[C] Snow leopard; Northern goshawk
[D] Kashmir stag; Northern goshawk

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The government of UT of Ladakh had declared ‗Snow leopard‘ (Panther unica)
as its state animal and ‗Black-necked crane‘ (Grus nigricollis) as its state bird.
i. Earlier Jammu and Kashmir had the Black-necked crane and Kashmir stag (Hangul) as its state
bird and animal.

Q.190) As per the data released by___________ , toxic leaded petrol has been eliminated from the
entire world, with__________ being the last country to eliminate.
[A] Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change; Algeria
[B] Intergovernmental Panel on Climate Change; Tunisia
[C] United Nations Programme on Environment; Tunisia
[D] United Nations Programme on Environment; Algeria

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The United Nations Programme on Environment(UNEP) formally stated that toxic
leaded
Petrol was Eradicated from the World. Algeria was the last country that eradicated the leaded petrol.
About UNEP(United Nations Environment
Programme) Executive Director: Inger
Andersen
Headquarters : Nairobi, Kenya

Q.191) Which of the following countries joined as 1st batch New Members of BRICS‟s New
Development Bank (in Sept‟ 21)?
[A] Uruguay, Norway and Bangladesh
[B] Nepal, UAE and Bangladesh
[C] Uruguay, Sri Lanka and Bangladesh
[D] Uruguay, UAE and Bangladesh

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The New Development Bank which was set up by the BRICS ( Brazil, Russia,
India,China and South Africa) admitted that Uruguay, United Arab Emirates(UAE)
and Bangladesh joined as the 1st batch of new members of NDB.
About New Development Bank (NDB):
President- Marcos Prado Troyjo

Q.192) In September 2021, „AICTE-Visvesvaraya Best Teacher Awards 2021‟ was presented by
the Minister of Education to 17 Faculty Members of ____________& „AICTE__________ Best
Teacher Awards‟ were given to 3 faculty members of Management Education.
[A] Engineering & Technical education; Dr. Pritam Singh
[B] Engineering & Technical education; Dr. Binayak Sen
[C] Medical Science education; Dr. Pritam Singh
[D] Medical Science education; Dr. Binayak Sen

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Dharmendra Pradhan presented the „AICTE-Visvesvaraya Best Teacher
Awards 2021‟ to 17 faculty members of engineering and technical education and the
‗AICTE-Dr. Pritam Singh Best Teacher Awards 2021‟ to 3 faculty members
of management education.
About All India Council for Technical Education (AICTE):
Chairman– Prof. Anil D. Sahasrabudhe
Headquarters– New Delhi

Q.193) Name the Report that was discontinued by the World Bank (in Sept‟ 21) after finding
data irregularities.
[A] World Development Report
[B] Ease of Doing Business Report
[C] World of Work Report
[D] Global Financial Stability Report

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: World Bank group announced to discontinue its “Ease of Doing
Business” reports after finding data irregularities in countries rankings in 2018 and 2020
reports. The law investigation agency, WilmerHale, has unveiled inconsistencies.
i. India was ranked 63rd in the ‗2020 Ease of Doing Business‘ index, which was topped by New
Zealand.

Q.194) Which organization(s) recently (in Sept‟ 21) developed the INSPIRESat-1 CubeSat for
studying earth‟s ionosphere?
[A] Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology, India
[B] Laboratory for Atmospheric and Space Physics, US
[C] National Central University, Taiwan
[D] All the Above

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: The INSPIRESat-1 CubeSat is a joint effort by the Laboratory for Atmospheric and
Space Physics
US, the National Central University Taiwan, the Nanyang Technological University
in Singapore, and the Indian Institute of Space Science and Technology (IIST), India.
i. It will be launched through an upcoming Polar Satellite Launch Vehicle (PSLV) mission of
the Indian Space Research Organisation (ISRO) to study earth‟s ionosphere.
[Link] celebrated the completion of two years of operation of Chandrayaan-2 spacecraft around
the
lunar orbit.

Q.195) In the 2020 Tokyo Paralympics, Indian table tennis player______________ created
history, becoming the first Indian para-paddler to win a silver medal & Mariyappan
Thangavelu won___________ medal in the high jump event.
[A] Bhavinaben Patel; Silver
[B] Bhavinaben Patel; Gold
[C] Devendra Jhajharial; Silver
[D] Devendra Jhajharia; Gold

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: Indian table tennis player Bhavinaben Patel created history, becoming the first
Indian para-paddler to win a silver medal & Mariyappan Thangavelu won Silver medal in the high
jump event.

Q.196) Who authored the book titled “Gita Govinda: Jayadeva‟s Divine Odyssey”?
[A] Utpal K. Banerjee
[B] S. Ramakrishnan
[C] Arundhati Roy
[D] Arun Shourie

Correct Answer: A
Explanation: The Union Minister of Culture, Gangapuram Kishan launched the
book titled ―Gita Govinda: Jayadeva‟s Divine Odyssey ‖ written by Padma Shri
awardee Dr Utpal K. Banerjee.
i. Gangapuram Kishan also launched an exhibition on ―Gita Govinda'' and a
program „BujurgonkiBaat- DeshKeSaath‟ in New Delhi.

Q.197) In September 2021, Jean-Pierre Adams passed away. He was related to which sport?
[A] Shooting
[B] Football
[C] Hockey
[D] Boxing

Correct Answer: B
Explanation: Former French footballer (defender) Jean-Pierre Adams passed away in Nîmes,
France. He was born in Dakar, Senegal, West Africa.

Q.198) When is the „Himalaya Diwas‟ or „Himalayan day‟ annually observed in India?
[A] 6th September
[B] 7th September
[C] 8th September
[D] 9th September

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: Himalaya Diwas, also known as the Himalayan day is annually observed
across India especially in Uttarakhand on September 9th to create awareness about the
importance and significance of the Himalayas.
i. The first Himalaya Diwas was celebrated on 9th September 2015.

Q.199) ____________ is the theme of World Suicide Prevention Day 2021, which is annually
observed across the globe on __________ September.
[A] 40 seconds of action; 10th
[B] Creating hope through action; 9th
[C] Creating hope through action; 10th
[D] Working Together to Prevent Suicide; 9th

Correct Answer: C
Explanation: World Suicide Prevention Day (WSPD) is annually observed across the globe
on September 10th to create awareness about suicide prevention across the world. WSPD is
annually organised by the International Association for Suicide Prevention (IASP) & endorsed
by the World Health Organization (WHO).
i. The theme of WSPD 2021 is ―Creating hope through action‖.
Q.200) A team of researchers recently (in Sept‟ 21) discovered Earth's Northernmost Island off
the coast of __________ & proposed to name it as “Qeqertaq Avannarleq”.
[A] Canada
[B] Alaska
[C] Siberia
[D] Greenland

Correct Answer: D
Explanation: A team of researchers discovered a new island, the northernmost point of land
on Earth, off the coast of Greenland during a Danish-Swiss research expedition. The island is
located 780 metres northwest of Oodaaq Island, which was discovered by a Danish survey
group in 1978.
i. The researchers proposed to name the island ―Qeqertaq Avannarleq‖, which means ‗the
northernmost island‘ in Greenlandic