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Part Test-9 (3rd April) Paper

The document contains a series of physics questions and problems, each with multiple-choice answers. Topics covered include vector analysis, dimensional analysis, error calculations, and physical laws. The questions are designed for an examination setting, testing knowledge in various areas of physics.

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gurdeep062006
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0% found this document useful (0 votes)
66 views20 pages

Part Test-9 (3rd April) Paper

The document contains a series of physics questions and problems, each with multiple-choice answers. Topics covered include vector analysis, dimensional analysis, error calculations, and physical laws. The questions are designed for an examination setting, testing knowledge in various areas of physics.

Uploaded by

gurdeep062006
Copyright
© © All Rights Reserved
We take content rights seriously. If you suspect this is your content, claim it here.
Available Formats
Download as PDF, TXT or read online on Scribd

Total Marks: 720 Time: 180 Minutes

Physics Section A

→ → → → → →
Q.1 Given: C = A + B . Also, the magnitudes of A , B and C are 12, 5 and 13 units respectively. The angle
→ →
between A and B is
π π
A) 0 ° B) 4
C) 2
D) π
Q.2 a3b3
The relation gives the value of x as, x = . Find the maximum percentage error in x, if the
c d
percentage errors in a, b, c & d are 2% , 1% , 2% & 4% respectively.
A) 13% B) 5% C) 9% D) 8%
Q.3 Percentage error in measuring the radius and mass of hollow sphere are 2% and 4% respectively.
Then error in measurement of moment of inertia with respect to its diameter is
A) 10% B) 6% C) 8% D) 4%
Q.4 If P is radiation pressure, c represents speed of light and Q is radiation energy striking a unit area per
second, then non zero integers x, y and z such that PxQyCz is dimensionless are -
A) x = 1, y = 1, z = –1 B) x = 1, y = –1, z = 1
C) x = –1, y = 1, z = 1 D) x = 1, y = 1, z = 1
Q.5 A student has measured the length of a wire equal to 0.04580 m. This value of length has the number
of significant figures equal to–
A) Five B) Four
C) Six D) None of these

Q.6 The magnitude of the X and Y components of A are 7 and 6. Also the magnitudes of the X and Y
→ → →
components of A + B are 11 and 9 respectively. What is the magnitude of B ?
A) 5 B) 6 C) 8 D) 9
Q.7 In the equation (P +
a
(V − b) =constant, P is pressure, V is volume and a & b are constants. The unit of
V2 )
a is
A) Nm5 B) Nm4 C) Nm3 D) Nm2

Q.8 Angle that the vector A = 2i + 3j makes with y-axis is
A) tan − 13 / 2 B) tan − 12 / 3 C) sin − 12 / 3 D) cos − 13 / 2
→ → → →  → →  → → →
Q.9 For any two vectors A and B , if A · B =  A × B  , the magnitude of C = A + B is equal to
AB
A) A 2 + B2 B) A + B C) A 2 + B2 + D) A 2 + B2 + 2 AB
2

Q.10 In the relation y =rsin (ωt − kx ) the dimensions of


ω
are
k

A) ⎡⎢⎣ M0 L0 T0 ⎤⎥⎦ B) ⎡⎢⎣ M0 L1 T−1 ⎤⎥⎦ C) ⎡⎢⎣ M0 L0 T1 ⎤⎥⎦ D) ⎡⎢⎣ M0 L1 T0 ⎤⎥⎦


→ → → →
Q.11 Vector A and B are shown in the figure. The angle between vector A and B is

A) 60° B) 90°
C) 30° D) none of these

1/20
Q.12 The potential energy of a particle varies with distance x from a fixed origin as V =
A x
, where A and B
x +B
are constants. The dimensions of AB are
A) ML5 / 2 T − 2 B) M1L2T−2 C) M3 / 2L5 / 2T − 2 D) M1L7 / 2T − 2
Q.13 The resultant of A and B makes an angle α with A and β with B, then
A) α < β B) α < β if A < B C) α < β if A > B D) α < β if A = B
→ → →
Q.14 If A × B = C , which of the following options is wrong?
→ →
→ → → → C is ⊥ to C is ⊥ to
A) C is ⊥ to A B) C is ⊥ to B C) → → D) → →
( A + B) ( A × B)
Q.15 Mechanical force =
a
. Then a and b have dimensions
b3 +volumetricdensity

A) ⎢⎡⎣ MLT − 2⎤⎥⎦ , ⎡⎢⎣ M1 / 2 L − 1⎤⎥⎦ B) ⎢⎡⎣ M2L − 2T − 2⎤⎥⎦ , ⎣M L ⎦


⎡⎢ 1 / 3 − 1⎤⎥

C) ⎡⎣⎢ ML − 2T − 2⎤⎥⎦ , ⎡⎢⎣ M1 / 3L − 1 / 2⎤⎥⎦ D) ⎡⎣⎢ M3L − 2T − 2⎤⎥⎦ , ⎣M L ⎦


⎡⎢ 3 − 1⎤⎥

Q.16 In the accompanying diagram W 1 is 5 kg weight and W 2 is 3 kg weight. If the component of W 1


parallel to the incline is equal to W 2, then the angle θ is nearly

A) 37° B) 53°
C) 45° D) Nothing can be said
Q.17 The force acting on a body of mass 5 kg is (3i + 4j ) N. The magnitude of the acceleration of the body is
A) 0.2 ms − 2 B) 1 ms−2 C) 1.4 ms − 2 D) 5 ms−2
Q.18 For a body moving along x-axis, the distance travelled by body from a reference point is given as
function of time t as x = at2 + b, where a and b are constants, then the dimension of ab is same as
A) speed B) distance travelled
C) acceleration D) None of these
Q.19 Assertion: A constant force F is applied on a particles P. The particle is moving in the direction of force
as shown in the figure. The value of OP × F is independent of position of particle P.

Reason: Force is a scalar quantity.


A) Both Assertion and Reason are correct and Reason is the correct explanation of Assertion.
B) Both Assertion and Reason are correct but Reason is not the correct explanation of Assertion.
C) Assertion is correct but Reason is incorrect.
D) Both Assertion and Reason are incorrect.
Q.20 e2
A physical quantity of the dimensions of length that can be formed out of C , G and 4π ε is [C is
0
velocity of light, G is universal constant of gravitational force and e is charge]
⎡⎢ e2 ⎤⎥ 1 1 ⎢ e2 ⎥
⎡ ⎤1 1 e2 1
⎡⎢ e2 ⎤⎥ 1
A) C2⎢⎢⎢ G 4π ε ⎥⎥⎥ 2 B) 2 ⎢⎢⎢ G4π ε ⎥⎥⎥ 2 C) C G 4π ε D) ⎢⎢ G ⎥⎥ 2
⎢⎣ 0 ⎥⎦ C ⎢⎣ 0 ⎥⎦ 0 C2 ⎢⎢⎣ 4π ε0 ⎥⎥⎦

2/20
Q.21 Expression for time in terms of G (universal gravitational constant), h (Planck constant) and c (speed
of light) is proportional to
Gh hc5 c3 Gh
A) B) C) D)
c3 G Gh c5

Q.22 Let ℓ , r , c and v represent inductance, resistance, capacitance and voltage, respectively. The

dimension of rcv
in SI units will be
A) [LTA] B) ⎡⎢⎣ LA −2 ⎤⎥⎦ C) ⎡⎢⎣ A −1 ⎤⎥⎦ D) ⎡⎢⎣ LT2 ⎤⎥⎦
Q.23 In momentum (P) , area (A) and time (T) are taken to be the fundamental quantities then the
dimensional formula for energy is
A) ⎡⎢⎣ P2AT−2 ⎤⎥⎦ B) ⎡⎢⎣ P−1AT−1 ⎤⎥⎦ C) ⎡⎢⎣ PA1 / 2 T − 1 ⎤⎥⎦ D) ⎡⎢⎣ PA −1 T−2 ⎤⎥⎦
Q.24 Dimensional formula for thermal conductivity is (here K denotes the temperature)
A) MLT−2 K B) MLT−3 K −1 C) MLT−3 K D) MLT−2 K −2
Q.25 If 'C' and 'V' represent capacity and voltage respectively then what are the dimensions of λ where
C / V = λ?
A) ⎡⎣⎢ M−2 L−3I2 T6 ⎤⎦⎥ B) ⎡⎣⎢ M−3 L−4I3 T7 ⎤⎦⎥
C) ⎡⎣⎢ M−1 L−3I−2 T−7 ⎤⎦⎥ D) ⎡⎣⎢ M−2 L−4I3 T7 ⎤⎦⎥
Q.26 The vernier scale used for measurement has a positive zero error of 0.2 mm. If while taking a
measurement it was noted that '0' on the vernier scale lies between 8.5 cm and 8.6 cm, vernier
coincidence is 6, then the correct value of measurement is_____. (Leastcount = 0.01cm)
A) 8.36cm B) 8.54cm C) 8.58cm D) 8.56cm
Q.27 A boy wants to hold a 50 kg box at rest on a snow covered hill. The hill makes an angle of 30∘ with the
horizontal. What force the boy must exert parallel to the slope?
A) 25 N B) 245 N C) 424 N D) 490 N
Q.28 The force (3i − j + k) N displaces a body from (1 , 2 , 0) to (3 , 4 , 5) . Coordinates are in metre. The work
done is
A) 9 J B) 18 J C) 11 J D) 29 J
Q.29 A 2B 3
If Z = , then the relative error in Z will be
C4
∆A ∆B ∆C 2ΔA 3ΔB 4ΔC
A) A
+
B
+
C
B) A
+
B

C
2ΔA 3ΔB 4ΔC ΔA ΔB ΔC
C) A
+
B
+
C
D) A
+
B

C
→ →
Q.30 A is a vector quantity such that | A | = non-zero constant. Which of the following expressions is true for

A?
→ → → → → → → →
A) A · A = 0 B) A × A < 0 C) A × A = 0 D) A × A > 0
Q.31 The dimension of mutual inductance is
A) ⎡⎢⎣ ML2 T−2 A −1 ⎤⎥⎦ B) ⎡⎢⎣ ML2 T−3 A −1 ⎤⎥⎦
C) ⎡⎢⎣ ML2 T−2 A −2 ⎤⎥⎦ D) ⎡⎢⎣ ML2 T−3 A −2 ⎤⎥⎦
→ → →
Q.32 A vector P 1 is along the positive x-axis. If its vector product with another vector P 2 is zero, then P 2
could be
A) 4j B) −4i C) (j + k) D) − (i + j )
→ →
Q.33 If A is parallel to B , then
→ → → → → →
A) A · ( A + B ) = A 2 + AB B) A × ( A + B ) = AB
→ → → → →
C) A · B = 0 D) A × ( A × B ) = 0

3/20
Q.34 If the velocity of light c , universal gravitational constant G and Planck's constant h are chosen as
fundamental quantities. The dimensions of mass in the new system is
B) ⎢⎢⎣h −1 2c1 2G −1 2⎥⎥⎦ C) ⎢⎢⎣h1 2c1 2G −1 2⎥⎥⎦ D) ⎢⎢⎣h1 2c−1 2G1⎥⎥⎦
⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤ ⎡ ⎤
A) ⎡⎣⎢h1c1G −1⎤⎦⎥
Q.35 Match List I with List II
LIST I LIST II
A. Angular momentum I. ⎡⎢⎣ ML 2T −2⎤⎥⎦
B. Torque II. ⎡⎢⎣ ML −2T −2⎤⎥⎦
C. Stress III. ⎡⎢⎣ ML 2T −1⎤⎥⎦
D. Pressure gradient IV. ⎡⎢⎣ ML −1T −2⎤⎥⎦
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) A-IV, B-II, C-I, D-III
B) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
C) A-III, B-I, C-IV, D-II
D) A-I, B-IV, C-III, D-II
Q.36 Match List I with List II
LIST I LIST II
A. Young's Modulus (γ) I. ⎡⎢⎣ ML −1T −1⎤⎥⎦
B. Co-efficient of Viscosity (η ) II. ⎡⎢⎣ ML 2T −1⎤⎥⎦
C. Planck's Constant (h ) III. ⎡⎢⎣ ML −1T −2⎤⎥⎦
D. Work Function (Φ ) IV. ⎡⎢⎣ ML 2T −2⎤⎥⎦

Choose the correct answer from the options given below:


A) A-I, B-III, C-IV, D-II
B) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
C) A-II, B-III, C-IV, D-I
D) A-III, B-I, C-II, D-IV
Q.37 If R, X L , and X C represent resistance, inductive reactance and capacitive reactance. Then which of the
following is dimensionless:
R R XL
A) RX L X C B) C) D) R
X L XC X L XC XC

Q.38 Match List I with List II


List I List II
A Torque I. ML−2T−2
B Stress II. ML2T−2
C Pressure gradient III. ML−1T−1
D Coefficient of viscosity IV. ML−1T−2
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) A-III, B-IV, C-I, D-II
B) A-II, B-I, C-IV, D-III
C) A-IV, B-II, C-III, D-I
D) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
Q.39 Two forces having magnitude A and
A
are perpendicular to each other. The magnitude of their
2
resultant is
5A 5 A2 5A 5A
A) 2
B) C) D)
2 2 4

4/20
Q.40 Given below are two statements:
Statement I: Astronomical Unit (Au), Parsec (Pc) and light year (ly) are units for measuring
astronomical distances.
Statement II: Au < Parsec (Pc) < ly
In light of the above statements, choose the most appropriate answer from the options given below.
A) Both Statement I and Statement II are correct.
B) Statement I is incorrect but Statement II is correct.
C) Both Statement I and Statement II are incorrect.
D) Statement I is correct but Statement II is incorrect.
Q.41 A vector in x − y plane makes an angle of 30° with y-axis. The magnitude of the y-component of the
vector is 2 3 . The magnitude of the x-component of the vector will be
1
A) 2 B) 6 C) 3 D)
3

Q.42 A metal wire has mass (0.4 ± 0.002) g, radius (0.3 ± 0.001) mm and length (5 ± 0.02) cm. The maximum
possible percentage error in the measurement of density will nearly be
A) 1.3% B) 1.6% C) 1.4% D) 1.2%
Q.43 a4b3
A physical quantity Q is found to depend on quantities a, b, c by the relation Q = . The percentage
c2
error in a, b and c is 3% , 4% and 5% respectively.
Then, the percentage error in Q is
A) 14% B) 34% C) 66% D) 43%
Q.44 The measured value of the length of a simple pendulum is 20 cm with 2 mm accuracy. The time for 50
oscillations was measured to be 40 seconds with 1 second resolution. From these measurements, the
accuracy in the measurement of acceleration due to gravity is N% . The value of N is
A) 5 B) 8 C) 4 D) 6
Q.45 A force is represented by F = ax 2 + bt1 / 2
Where x = distance and t = time. The dimensions of b2 / a are
A) ⎡⎢⎣ ML3T−3⎤⎥⎦ B) ⎡⎢⎣ ML2T−3⎤⎥⎦ C) ⎡⎢⎣ ML−1T−1⎤⎥⎦ D) ⎢⎡⎣ MLT−2⎤⎥⎦
Chemistry Section A

Q.46 Statement-I: Phenolic compounds give characteristic colours with neutral FeCl3.
Statement-II: It is the property of all the enolic compounds
A) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is a correct explanation for Statement-1.
Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is True; Statement-2 is NOT a correct explanation for
B)
Statement-1
C) Statement-1 is True, Statement-2 is False
D) Statement-1 is False, Statement-2 is True
Q.47 Which of the following is the best method for making isopropylmethyl ether?
A) CH3I + (CH3) 2CHOH → B) CH3I + (CH3) 2CHO →

C) (CH3) 2CHI + CH3O → D) (CH3) 2CHCl + CH3OH →


Q.48 Which of the following compounds reacts with ethylmagnesium bromide and also decolourizes
bromine water solution?

A) B) C) D)

5/20
Q.49 Which one among the following is an alcohol?

A) B) C) D)

Q.50 The number of alcoholic –OH and –COOH group in citric acid
respectively are
A) 2 and 1 B) 3 and 1 C) 1 and 3 D) 1 and 2
Q.51 Which among the following is not a characteristic of alcohols?
A) Alcohols are polar molecules due to presence of – OH group.
Boiling point of alcohols increases with increase in their
B)
molecular mass.
Lower members of alcohols are insoluble in water as well as
C)
in organic solvents.
D) Methanol is toxic liquids.
Q.52 Identify the x in the reaction.
NaNO + HC1 H O
2 2
R – NH2 + NHO2 ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ X⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ R – OH + N2 + HCl
273 − 278K
⊕ Θ
A) R – NH – NO2 B) R − N C1
2

C) R – NH – N = O D) R – NO2
Q.53 What is the product formed when aniline is treated with
NaNO2 + HCl previous to hydrolysis?

A) Benzene diazonium chloride B) Benzene


C) Phenol + N2 ⏐⏐

D) Phenol
Q.54 What is the intermediate product obtained in the preparation of
phenol from aniline?
A) Anilnium cation B) Benzene diazonium chloride
C) Benzene D) Sodium phenoxide
Q.55 What is the product formed when cumene is air oxidized in presence of
co-naphthenate and further treated with dilute acid?
A) Cumene hydroperoxide B) Phenol + Acetone
C) Acetone and Benzoic acid D) Phenol and CO2
Q.56 The compound CH3 –CH = CH–CH2 – OH is also called as
A) Crotonyl alcohol B) Benzenol
C) Ethylene glycol D) Propylene glycol
Q.57 What is the temperature at which the ethers can be prepared from alcohols by the action of
concentrated H2SO4?
A) 413 K B) 213 K C) 113 K D) 443 K
Q.58 A compound ‘X’ when treated with phthalic anhydride in presence of concentrated H2SO4 yields ‘Y’. ‘Y’
is used as an acid/base indicator. ‘X’ and ‘Y’ are respectively
A) Anisole, Methyl orange
B) Carbolic acid, Phenolphthalein
C) Salicylaldehyde, Phenolphthalein
D) Toludine, Phenolphthalein

6/20
Q.59 Identify the product obtained when ethoxybenzene reacts with hot and concentrated HI
A) Ethyl iodide and Phenol
B) Ethyl alcohol and Phenol
C) Ethyl alcohol and Iodobenzene
D) Ethyl iodide and Iodobenzene
Q.60 Identify the compound ‘A’ in the following sequence of reactions.
C2H5MgBr H3O +
A⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯B⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯3 −Methylpentan− 3 − ol
Dryether

A) Propanal B) Propanone C) Butanal D) Butanone


Q.61 Identify substrate ‘A’ in the following sequence of reactions.
SOCl Na /ether
2
A ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ B⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯ 2 − MethylButane
∆ C2H5Cl

A) Propan-1-ol B) Propan-2-ol
C) 2-chloropropane D) Butan-2-ol
Q.62 Which of the following is tertiary benzylic alcohol?

A) B) C) D)

Q.63 Which among the following phenols does not correctly match with their IUPAC names?
A) Catechol : Benzene-1,2-diol
B) Resorcinol : Benzene-1, 3-diol
C) O-Cresol : Benzene-1,2,3-triol
D) Quinol : Benzene-1,4-diol
Q.64 Identify the product obtained when phenol is reacted with dilute nitric acid at low temperature.
A) ortho-nitrophenol B) para-nitrophenol
C) mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenols D) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
Q.65 Which of the following is primary allylic alcohol?

A) B) C) D)

Q.66 Which from following molecules does NOT contain nitrogen in it?
A) Pyrrole B) Piperidine C) Pyridine D) Pyran
Q.67 Identify ‘A’ in the following reaction.
H + Aspirin + Acetic acid
A + Acetic anhydride ⎯⎯⎯
A) Acrylic acid B) Oxalic acid
C) Salicylic acid D) Phthalic acid
Q.68 Identify the product A obtained in the following reaction.
Conc. H2SO4
Phenol + Conc. Nitricacid⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯A
A) 0-nitrophenol
B) p-nitrophenol
C) 2,4,6-trinitrophenol
D) Mixture of ortho and para-nitrophenol

7/20
Q.69 What is IUPAC name of propylene glycerol?
A) Propane-1,2-diol B) Propane-1,3-diol
C) Propane-1,2,3-triol D) Propene-1,2,3-triol
Q.70 Identify the product formed when vapours of 2-methylpropan-2-ol are passed over hot copper.
2-Methylpropanoic
A) Propanone B) 2-Methylpropene C) D) Propanal
acid
Q.71 Consider the following reaction

Identify products A and B.

A) B)

C) D)

Q.72 Which amongst the following will be most readily dehydrated under acidic conditions?

A) B) C) D)

Q.73 Given below are two statements :


Statement (I) : p-nitrophenol is more acidic than m-nitrophenol and o-nitrophenol.
Statement (II) : Ethanol will give immediate turbidity with Lucas reagent.
In the light of the above statements, choose the correct answer from the options given below.
A) Statement I is false but Statement II is true
B) Statement I is true but Statement II is false
C) Both Statement I and Statement II are true
D) Both Statement I and Statement II are false
Q.74 Which among the following has highest boiling point?
A) CH3CH2CH2CHO B) CH3CH2CH2CH2 − OH
C) H5C2 − O − C2H5 D) CH3CH2CH2CH3
Q.75 What is the percentage of p-bromoanisole formed in the bromination of anisole with bromine in acetic
acid?
A) 10% B) 30% C) 60% D) 90%
Q.76 Which from following has highest boiling point?
A) 2 methoxy propane B) n-butane
C) 2-methylbutane D) n-pentane
Q.77 Identify D in the following sequence of reactions:

A) n-propyl alcohol B) isopropyl alcohol


C) propanal D) propionic acid

8/20
Q.78 The common name of Benzene-1, 2, 3-triol is
A) Phloroglucinol B) Pyrogallol
C) Quinol D) Catechol
Q.79 Which of the following is primary benzylic alcohol?

A) B)

C) D)

Q.80 Identify product 'B' in the following reaction,


KMnO H O+
Cumene ⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯
4 3
A⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯⎯B

A) Phenol B) Benzaldehyde
C) Benzophenone D) Benzoic acid
Q.81 What is the name of isobutyl alcohol according to carbinol system?
A) Ethyl methyl carbinol B) Isopropyl carbinol
C) Isopropyl carbinol D) Diethyl carbinol
Q.82 Phenol on heating with zinc dust forms
A) Benzoquinone B) Cyclohexane
C) Benzene D) Cyclohexanol
Q.83 Which of the following is allylic alcohol?
A) But-1-en-1-ol B) But-3-en-1-ol
C) But-2-en-1-ol D) butane-1,3-diol
Q.84 Which of the following is a trihydric phenol?
A) Catechol B) Pyrogallol C) Resorcinol D) Quinol
Q.85 Which of the following is secondary benzylic alcohol?

A) C6H5CH2OH B) C6H5 − CH2 − CH2 − OH C) D) C6H5 − C (CH3) 2 − OH

Q.86 Which among the following alcohols has lowest boiling point?

A) CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − CH2 − OH B)

C) D)

Q.87 What is the product obtained when an alkyl halide is heated with sodium alkoxide?
A) Alcohol B) Ether C) Ester D) Amine

9/20
Q.88 Which among the following statements about alcohols is NOT correct?
A) When −OH group is attached to tertiary carbon the alcohol is called tertiary alcohol.
B) Hydroxy group is directly attached to aromatic ring in alcohols.
C) Methanol is toxic in nature.
D) The reactivity of alcohols towards Lucas reagent 3 ∘ > 2 ∘ > 1 °
Q.89 Which of the following compounds is NOT a phenol?

A) B) C) D)

Q.90 Which isomer of C4H9OH has highest boiling point?


A) n-Butyl alcohol B) Isobutyl alcohol
C) sec-Butyl alcohol D) tert-Butyl alcohol
Biology Section A

Q.91 Select the incorrect statement w.r.t. the characteristic of given kingdom/organism.
A) Bacteria - Simple in structure complex in behaviour
B) Heterotrophic bacteria - Most abundant in nature
C) Protista - Organisms are primarily aquatic
D) Fungi - Most organisms are chemosynthetic self-feeders
Q.92 The two-kingdom classification of the living world was considered inadequate, because
It does not provide for a clear cut It includes fungi under plant kingdom
A) demarcation between prokaryotes and B) though they are saprotrophic and store
eukaryotes glycogen
In this classification position of euglenoid is
C) D) All of the above
not fixed
Q.93 Cell walls of diatoms are indestructible because they are embedded with
A) Pectin B) Cellulose C) Silica D) Chitin
Q.94 Which of the following statements is incorrect?
A) Infective constituent in viruses is the protein coat
B) Prions consist of abnormally folded proteins
C) Viroids lack a protein coat
D) Viruses are obligate parasites
Q.95 The most important criteria for 5 kingdom classification is
A) Cell complexity B) Nutrition
C) Reproduction D) Complexity of organism
Q.96 Which one of the following group of organisms is used as a tool for biomonitoring of atmospheric
quality?
A) Virus B) Viroid C) Lichens D) Mycorrhiza
Q.97 Euglenoids are
A) Parasitic
B) Photosynthetic
C) Holozoic
D) Both Photosynthetic and Holozoic

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Q.98 Consumer-decomposer protist is
A) Euglena B) Slime mould
C) Gymnodinium D) Ceratium
Q.99 In unfavourable conditions, thalloid body of slime moulds forms
A) Mycelium B) Pseudoplasmodium
C) Fruiting bodies D) Plasmodium
Q.100 Copeland classified the brown algae and red algae in Protista, but Whittaker classified them in
A) Monera
B) Mycota
C) Plantae
D) Whittaker also classified them in protista
Q.101 Albugo, Agaricus, Alternaria, Aspergillus.
Which option is common in all above organisms?
A) All have chitinous cell wall
B) All have sexual reproduction
C) They all act as decomposer in nature
D) They all are heterotrophic eukaryotes
Q.102 Given below is the diagram of a bacteriophage. In which one of the options are all the four parts A, B,
C and D correct?

A) A- Tail fibres, B- Head, C- Sheath, D- Collar


B) A- Sheath, B- Collar, C-Head, D- Tail fibres
C) A- Head, B- Sheath, C- Collar, D- Tail fibres
D) A- Collar, B- Tail fibres, C- Head, D- Sheath
Q.103 Once the perfect stage of members of deuteromycetes were discovered, they are often moved to
A) Zygomycetes and oomycetes
B) Oomycetes and Ascomycetes
C) Ascomycetes and Basidiomycetes
D) Zygomy cetes and Basidiomycetes
Q.104 Sexual reproduction in fungi follows
A) Plasmogamy → Meiosis → Karyogamy
Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Mitosis
B)

Karyogamy → Plasmogamy → Meiosis


C)

D) Plasmogamy → Karyogamy → Meiosis


Q.105 The structures that help some bacteria to attach to rocks and/or host tissues are
A) Holdfast B) Rhizoids C) Fimbriae D) Mesosomes

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Q.106 A group of monerans without cell wall
A) Are pathogenic in plants only
B) Play a great role in recycling nutrients
C) Can survive without oxygen
D) Cannot pass through bacteriological filter
Q.107 Select the correct statement w. r. t. Mycoplasma.
A) They lack a cell wall
B) They cannot survive without oxygen
C) They are pathogenic in plants only
D) They are the largest living cells
Q.108 Viroids have
A) Only protein coat B) Only ss RNA genome
C) Only peplomeres D) Only capsomers
Q.109 The given statements describe a group of organisms.
(i) Instead of a cell wall they have a protein rich pellicle making their body flexible.
(ii) They have 2 flagella, a short and a long one.
(iii) They show mixotrophic nutrition.
(iv) They are connecting link between plants and animals
Which of the following groups is referred to here?
A) Dinoflagellates B) Slime moulds
C) Desmids and Diatoms D) Euglenoids
Q.110 Which of the following statements regarding the class Phycomycetes is correct?
These are found in aquatic habitats and on
Mycelium in these fungi is aseptate and
A) decaying wood in moist and damp places or B)
coenocytic.
as obligate parasites on plants.
Asexual reproduction occurs by motile
C) D) All of these
zoospores and by non-motile aplanospores
Q.111 Read the following statements and select the correct option.
Statement I: Viruses are inert crystalline structures outside a living cell.
Statement II: Viroids possess a distinct protein coat.
A) Both statements I and II are correct and statement II is the correct explanation of statement I
B) Both statements I and II are correct but statement II is not the correct explanation of statement I
C) Statement I is correct and statement II is incorrect
D) Both statement I and II are incorrect
Q.112 Find the correct statements about fungi.
(A) Most of the fungi are saprophytes.
(B) Fungi can also survive as symbionts.
(C) Sexual reproduction in fungi involves three steps.
(D) Reduction division in fungi occurs in fruiting bodies which forms haploid spores.
A) A, B are correct
B) C, D are correct
C) A, B & C are correct
D) A, B, C & D are correct
Q.113 Eubacterial flagellum is made up of
A) Basal body, hook and pili
B) Cell membrane, hook and filament
C) Basal body, cell membrane and filament
D) Basal body, hook and filament
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Q.114 Methanogens belong to
A) Slime moulds B) Eubacteria
C) Archaebacteria D) Dinoflagellates
Q.115 Select the incorrect statement.
A) Diatoms are microscopic and float passively in water.
B) The walls of diatoms are easily destructible.
C) 'Diatomaceous earth' is formed by the cell walls of diatoms.
D) Diatoms are chief producers in the oceans.
Q.116 After karyogamy followed by meiosis, spores are produced exogenously in
A) Neurospora B) Saccharomyces
C) Agaricus D) Alternaria
Q.117 Which of the following is the smallest living cell and can live without oxygen?
A) Mycoplasma B) Mycorrhiza
C) Euglena D) Trypanosoma
Q.118 Which of the following process(es) is(are) involved in the reproduction of protists?
A) Binary fission and budding B) Cell fusion and zygote formation
C) Spore formation and cyst formation D) All of the above
Q.119 The symbiotic association between fungi and algae is called
A) lichen B) mycorrhiza
C) rhizome D) endomycorrhiza
Q.120 Clamp connection is found in
A) basidiomycetes B) ascomycetes
C) saccharomycetes D) hyphomycetes
Q.121 Viroids differ from viruses in having
A) DNA molecules without protein coat
B) RNA molecules with protein coat
C) RNA molecules without protein coat
D) DNA molecules with protein coat.
Q.122 Which one of the following statements is wrong?
A) Eubacteria are also called false bacteria.
B) Phycomycetes are also called algal fungi.
C) Cyanobacteria are also called bluegreen algae.
D) Golden algae are also called desmids.
Q.123 What is the mode of nutrition in bacteria?
A) heterotrophic B) autotrophic
C) autotrophic and heterotrophic D) none of the above
Q.124 Some hyperthermophilic organisms that grow in highly acidic (pH = 2) habitats belong to the two
groups, called ___________.
A) Cyanobacteria and Diatoms
B) Liverworts and Yeasts
C) Protists and Mosses
D) Eubacteria and Archaea

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Q.125 Marine phytoplankton is mostly represented by
A) Brown algae
B) Green algae
C) Seaweeds
D) Diatoms and Dinoflagellates
Q.126 In the studies on the atmospheric pollution, lichens are important as they
A) can readily multiply in polluted atmosphere
B) are very sensitive to pollutants
C) efficiently purify the atmosphere
D) can also be grown in greatly polluted atmosphere
Q.127 Match List I with List II
List-I List-II
A. Rhizopus I. Mushroom
B. Ustilago II. Smut fungus
C. Puccinia III. Bread mould
D. Agaricus IV. Rust fungus
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) A-III, B-II, C-IV, D-I
B) A-I, B-III, C-II, D-IV
C) A-III, B-II, C-I, D-IV
D) A-IV, B-III, C-II, D-I
Q.128 Which of the following pigment is present in cyanobacteria?
A) Chlorophyll ‘a’ B) Chlorophyll ‘b’
C) Chlorophyll ‘c’ D) Chlorophyll ‘d’
Q.129 Which of the following is used extensively in biochemical and genetic work?
A) Agaricus B) Alternaria C) Neurospora D) Mucor
Q.130 Plasmogamy is the fusion of
A) two haploid cells including their nuclei.
B) two haploid cells without nuclear fusion.
C) sperm and egg.
D) sperm and two polar nuclei.
Q.131 Fungi are filamentous with the exception of "X" which is unicellular. Identify X.
A) Yeast B) Albugo C) Mucor D) Lichen
Q.132 Which of the following statements regarding cyanobacteria is incorrect?
A) It is also called blue green algae.
B) They are chemosynthetic autotrophs.
C) It forms blooms in polluted water bodies.
D) It is unicellular, colonial or filamentous, marine or terrestrial bacteria.
Q.133 Consider the following statements with respect to characteristic features of the kingdom.
(i) In animalia, the mode of nutrition is autotrophic.
(ii) In monera, the nuclear membrane is present.
(iii) In protista, the cell type is prokaryotic.
(iv) In plantae, the cell wall is present.
Of the above statements, which one is correct?
A) (i) only B) (ii) only C) (iii) only D) (iv) only

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Q.134 The given figure shows the structure of filamentous blue green algae. Nostoc with a structure marked
as "B". Select the option which shows the correct identification of "B" with its feature.

A) Spores - Reproduction
B) Heterocysts - Nitrogen fixation
C) Pellicle - Recycling of nutrition
D) Mucilaginous sheath - Photosynthesis
Q.135 Identify the correct statement regarding the given diagram?

A) Majority of them are fresh water B) They are found in stagnant water.
Instead of a cell wall, they have a protein
C) rich layer called pellicle which makes their D) All of these
body flexible.
Q.136 A marine cartilaginous fish that can produce electric current is
A) Pristis B) Torpedo C) Trygon D) Scoliodon
Q.137 Body organisation of chordates is that they are
A) Bilaterally symmetrical triploblastic, coelomate with organ system level of organisation.
B) Biradially symmetrical, triploblastic, schizocoelomate with organ level of organisation.
C) Bilaterally symmetrical, diploblastic, enterocoelomate with organ system level of organisation.
D) Bilaterally symmetrical, triploblastic, schizocoelomate with organ system level of organisation.
Q.138 The similarity in fishes, amphibians and reptiles is that they all are
A) Poikilothermals B) Homeothermals
C) Herbivorous D) Oviparous
Q.139 Which feature of birds shows that they have originated from reptiles?
A) Presence of feathers
B) Presence of a tail
C) Presence of scales on legs
D) Presence of 4 chambered heart

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Q.140 Which one of the following is not a characteristic of Agnatha?
A) Presence of single median nasal opening
B) Presence of closed circulatory system
C) Presence of scales on body
D) Presence of cartilaginous endoskeleton
Q.141 Torpedo is commonly known as
A) Sucker fish B) Electric ray
C) Globe fish D) Sea horse
Q.142 Endoskeleton of petromyzon is made up of
A) Cartilage
B) Bone
C) Both bone and cartilage
D) Cranial endoskeleton is cartilaginous and the rest is bony
Q.143 Agnatha includes
A) All protochordates B) Cyclostomes
C) Cyclostomes and amphibians D) Cyclostomes and pisces
Q.144 In some animal groups, the body is found divided into compartments with at least some organs/organ
repeated. This characteristic feature is named
A) Segmentation B) Metamerism
C) Metagenesis D) Metamorphosis
Q.145 Which one of the following sets of animals share a four chambered heart?
A) Amphibian, Reptiles, Birds
B) Crocodiles, Birds, Mammals
C) Crocodiles, Lizards, Turtles
D) Lizards, Mammals, Birds
Q.146 Which of the following groups of animals maintain a high and constant body temperature such as
mammals?
A) Reptiles B) Amphibians C) Birds D) Fishes
Q.147 Two chambered heart is a feature of
A) Amphibian B) Fishes C) Reptiles D) Birds
Q.148 Which one of the following is not a poisonous snake?
A) Cobra B) Viper C) Python D) Krait
Q.149 Choose the wrong statement from the following.
A) Teeth in chondrichthyes are modified ctenoid scales.
B) Air bladder in fishes regulates buoyancy.
C) Long bones in birds are pneumatic.
D) Reptiles are poikilotherms.
Q.150 Consider the following features.
(a) Streamlined body
(b) Presence of operculum
(c) Presence of air bladder
(d) Ectothermy
Organism exhibiting above features belongs to taxon Pisces which includes organisms like
A) Petromyzon B) Pristis C) Myxine D) Labeo

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Q.151 Crocodile and penguin are similar to Whale and Dogfish in which one of the following features?
A) They possess a solid single stranded central nervous system
B) They lay eggs and guard them till they hatch
C) They possess bony skeleton.
D) They have gill slits at some stage
Q.152 Find out the group of animals which are homeothermals.
A) Corvus, Columba, Aptenodytes
B) Psittacula, Crocodile, Chelone
C) Struthio, Columba, Chameleon
D) Pavo, Columba, Calotes
Q.153 Specialised heart is absent in
A) Amphioxus B) Scoliodon C) Snakes D) Icthyophis
Q.154 Which one of these animals is not a homeotherm?
A) Macropus B) Psittacula C) Camelus D) Chelone
Q.155 Which one of the following organisms bears hollow and pneumatic long bones?
A) Neophron B) Hemidactylus
C) Macropus D) Ornithorhynchus
Q.156 Pneumatic bone is found in
A) shark B) Rana C) pigeon D) whale
Q.157 Which one of the following is a chordate but not a vertebrate?
A) Hag fish B) Star fish C) Amphioxus D) Scoliodon
Q.158 Chordates are distinguished from non-chordates by the presence of
A) Dorsal nerve cord B) Dorsal hollow tubular nerve cord
C) Ventral nerve cord D) Brain
Q.159 In which one of the following groups, brain box is absent?
A) Pisces B) Cyclostomata
C) Amphibia D) Urochordata
Q.160 Which one of the following statements is not true about Petromyzon?
A) They are also known as lampreys
B) They retain notochord throughout their lives
C) They are jawless
D) They possess bony skeleton
Q.161 Which of the following statements is false regarding chondrichthyes?
A) They are with air bladder.
B) Body is covered by placoid scales.
C) They are found in oceans.
D) Their mouth is ventrally placed.
Q.162 Body of amphibians is covered by
A) Scaly skin B) Glandular skin
C) Hairs D) Scutes

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Q.163 The body of Rohu fish is covered by
A) cycloid scale, but the tail homocercal
B) placoid scale, but tail heterocercal
C) cycloid scale, but tail heterocercal
D) placoid scale, but the tail homocercal
Q.164 A characteristic feature of amphibians is
A) Webbed limbs
B) Presence of dermal scales on the skin
C) Presence of glandular and moist skin which is without scales
D) Presence of pentadactyl limbs
Q.165 Limbless amphibian is
A) Salamander B) Siren
C) Ichthyophis D) Ambystoma
Q.166 In reptiles fertilization is
A) Internal and development is direct
B) Internal and development is indirect
C) External and development is direct
D) External and development is indirect
Q.167 Which one of the following is incorrect about reptiles?
A) Ectothermic metabolism B) Strong bony skeleton
Ventricles of heart partly divided by a
C) D) Toes without claws
septum
Q.168 Which among these is not a homeotherm?
A) Aptenodytes B) Testudo
C) Delphinus D) Neophron
Q.169 Which of the following animals has a notochord throughout its life?
A) Fish B) Bird C) Snake D) Amphioxus
Q.170 What is true about birds?
A) Their nitrogenous waste product is urea
B) They are omnivorous
C) They possess diaphragm
D) They are warm-blooded feathered bipeds
Q.171 Which of the following statements are true for the phylum-Chordata?
(a) In Urochordata notochord extends from head to tail anditis present throughout their life.
(b) In Vertebrata notochord is present during the embryonic period only.
(c) Central nervous system is dorsal and hollow.
(d) Chordata is divided into 3 subphyla: Hemichordata, Tunicata and Cephalochordata.
A) (d) and (c) B) (c) and (a) C) (a) and (b) D) (b) and (c)

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Q.172 Match List-I with List-II.
List-I List-II
A. Chondrichthyes I. Clarias
B. Cyclostomata II. Carcharodon
C. Osteichthyes III. Myxine
D. Amphibia IV. Ichthyophis
Choose the correct answer from the options given below:
A) A-II, B-IV, C-I, D-III
B) A-I, B-III C-II, D-IV
C) A-II, B-III, C-I, D-IV
D) A-I, B-II, C-III, D-IV
Q.173 Given below are two statements: One is labelled as Assertion A and the other is labelled as Reason R.
Assertion A: Members of subphylum vertebrata possess notochord during the embryonic period.
The notochord is replaced by a cartilaginous or bony vertebral column in the adult.
Reason R: Thus all chordates are vertebrates not all vertebrates are chordates.
In the light of the above statements choose the correct answer from the option given below:
A) A is true but R is false.
B) A is false but R is true
C) Both A and R are true and R is the correct explanation of A.
D) Both A and R are true but R is NOT the correct explanation of A.
Q.174 Which of the following pairs of animals represent bony fishes?
A) Exocoetus and Scoliodon B) Trygon and Torpedo
C) Clarias and Exocoetus D) Betta and lchthyophis
Q.175 Which of the following is an incorrectly matched pair of a body feature and the animal possessing it?
A) Operculum - Carcharodon
B) 6-15 pairs of gill slits - Hagfish
C) Epidermal scales - Garden lizard
D) Poikilotherm - Chelone
Q.176 Which of the following feature is not common between Ichthyophis and Naja?
A) Elongated slender body without limbs
B) Head with pair of eyes and tympanum
C) Pulmonary respiration
D) Closed circulatory system
Q.177 Which of the following is not a correct match?
A) Fish possessing poison sting – Trygon
B) A limbless amphibian – Ichthyophis
C) Fish with cycloid/ctenoid scales – Catla
D) Aptenodytes – Penguin, present in Arctic region
Q.178 Select the correct statement
A) Nerve cord is dorsal to notochord
B) Notochord is dorsal to nerve cord
C) Notochord is solid and ectodermal in origin
D) Nerve cord is mesodermally derived and solid

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Q.179 Choose the incorrect statement
A) Air sacs in birds aids in cooling as its blood vessels dilate and facilitate heat loss
B) Skull of amphibians and mammals are dicondylic
C) All vertebrates are chordates but all chordates are not vertebrates
D) Reptiles show direct development
Q.180 The fishes that possess operculum do not show the presence of which type of scales?
A) Ctenoid B) Cycloid C) Placoid D) Ganoid

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