PALARIS COLLEGE

San Carlos City, Pangasinan

CATERING MANAGEMENT
Final Examination

I. Multiple Choice.
Direction: Write your answer in the test booklet.

1. The person in charge of room service in a hotel is called a:

a) demi-chef de rang
b) chef d’etages
c) chef de rang
d) station head waiter

2. The person who serves alcoholic beverages in a restaurant is called a:

a) commise de rang
b) trancheur
c) sommelier
d) debarrasseur

3. Silverware can be polished using which of the following systems:

a) Gueridon
b) Helitherm
c) Ganymede
d) Polivit

4. The main use of a waiter’s cloth is for:

a) wiping customer’s fingers after eating snails
b) polishing plates and glasses when laying them on the table
c) covering stains on the tablecloth
d) wiping spilt food from the carpet

5. If wine is spilt on the tablecloth a waiter should:

a) clear the table of everything and sponge the stain with milk
b) cover the soiled area with a clean table napkin by unrolling it over the spillage
c) ask the customers to wait in the lounge while he fetches a clean cloth
d) take the plates of food to the sideboard and change the cloth

6. The correct accompaniments for roast grouse are:

a) bacon rolls, meatballs, jus lie, heart-shape croutons spread with duxelles
b) gravy, bread sauce, fried breadcrumbs, game chips, watercress
c) redcurrant jelly, grapes, slices of kiwi-fruit, horseradish s·auce
d) cranberry sauce, chestnuts, thyme and parsley stuffing, chipolatas
7. The main accompaniments for curried chicken, apart from rice, are:
a) plain boiled potatoes, quenelles, Matignon of vegetables
b) mangos, stuffed tomatoes, chateau potatoes
c) fried onion-rings, chou-paste gnocchi, turned mushrooms
d) poppadums, sambals, Bombay ducks

8. Horseradish sauce should be offered when serving:

a) smoked mackerel
b) wiener schnitzel
c) fried whitebait
d) roast leg of lamb

9. The correct accompaniments for a grilled steak are:

a) grilled mushrooms and tomatoes, anchovy butter
b) straw potatoes, watercress, parsley butter
c) fried onion-rings, streaky bacon, picked parsley
d) fried egg, a slice of truffle, horseradish sauce

10. A customer who orders Coeur de Filet would expect it to be:

a) braised lambs heart
b) stewed ox-tail
c) fried calf’s liver
d) fillet of beef

11. Grissini is another name for:

a) small brioches
b) Melba toast
c) thin breadsticks
(d) slices of French bread

12. State which of the following dishes is eaten raw:

a) contrefilet bouquetiere
b) entrecote minute
c) steak tartare
d) tournedos Rossini

13. Sorbet is a:
a) mild herb used in making stuffings
b) refreshing water ice served midway through a banquet
c) cold sauce served with globe artichokes
d) continental smoked sausage

14. A Chateaubriand is a:
a) porterhouse steak
b) thick rump steak
c) thick salmon steak
d) double- or treble-size fillet steak

15. Canard it la Presse is:

a) roast wild duck finished by the waiter
b) pot-roasted Aylesbury duckling with herbs
c) duck liver pate flavoured with Armagnac
d) conserve of duck and goose with calvados

16. A Mixed Grill consists of:

a) pork chop, veal kidney, button mushrooms, pineapple ring, chips
b) lamb cutlet and kidney, chipolata, bacon, tomato, mushroom, straw potatoes.
c) thin sirloin steak, fried onion-rings, slice of liver, fried egg, sausage, cress.
d) mutton chop, slice of black pudding, scrambled egg, fried bread, tomato.

17. The liqueurs used to prepare Crepes Suzette should be:

a) Kirsch and Maraschino
b) Curaao and Grand Marnier
c) Tia Maria and Benedictine
d) Glayva and Marnique

18. A gueridon is a:
a) moveable sideboard
b) mobile table for doing lampwork
c) cigar and liqueur handcart
d) trolley for taking used crockery and cutlery to the wash-up

19. State which of the following selections represents the ideal cheeseboard:
a) Cheddar, Camembert, Stilton, demi-sel, Wensleydale
b) Gruyere, sbrinz, Emmenthal, Parmesan, bel paese
c) Edam, Gouda, processed, quark, mozzarella
d) Gorgonzola, Stilton, Rocquefort, MycelIa, danablu

20. The main accompaniments for caviar are:

a) ratafia biscuits, quarters of lemon, grated Parmesan
b) fingers of hot toast, melted butter, quarter of lemon
c) brown bread and butter, oriental salt
d) Melba toast, mayonnaise, French mustard

21. When serving gulls’ eggs the accompaniments should be:

a) horseradish, acidulated cream, game chips, spiced salt
b) chopped capers and gherkins, vinaigrette dressing, cayenne
c) chilli vinegar, oriental salt, mustard and cress, walnut oil
d) sieved yolk and white of hard-boiled egg, tabasco, peppermill, lemon

22. Decide which of the following items require a finger bowl:

a) avocado pear, shrimp cocktail, smoked salmon
b) fruit basket, fresh asparagus, artichaut vinaigrette
c) cantaloup melon, pate maison, potted shrimps
d) caviar, foie gras, corn on the cob, half grapefruit

23. The best way to deal with a customer who complains about poor service is to:
a) apologise
b) offer him a free drink
c) inform the head waiter
d) try to make excuses

24. Which of the following groups does not contain a liqueur:

a) Campari, Cherry Brandy, Grande Champagne, Goldwasser
b) Grappa, Schnapps, Bacardi, Pernod
c) Drambuie, Glayva, Grand Marnier, Drambuie
d) Benedictine, Creme de Menthe, Kahlua, Cointreau

25. A humidor is a box in which:

a) a hydrometer for measuring density of liquids is kept
b) all the gratuities given by customers are pooled
c) waiter’s checks are placed whilst waiting for the food
d) cigars are kept in perfect condition

26. The abbreviation ‘B and B’ means:

a) a bartender’s beaker
b) Benedictine liqueur and brandy
c) a barbecue for spit-roasting foods outdoors
d) Babycham and Bacardi

27. The Gay-Lussac system of measuring alcoholic strength shows Scotch whisky to be:
a) 750 degrees under proof
b) neutral grain spirit
c) 25 0 over proof
d) 40% by volume

28. Which well-known cocktail is made of vodka and tomato juice:

a) Bl00dy Mary
b) Harvey Wallbanger
c) Manhattan
d) White Lady
29. A table d’h6te is a:
a) meal comprised of main dish and sweet
b) set menu, sold at an inclusive price
c) list of all the available dishes each individually priced
d) sequence of dishes in categories from soup to sweet

30. The term a la carte means:

a) a set menu without any alternatives or beverages
b) a carte du jour menu inclusive of coffee and service charge
c) a series of dishes as chosen by a customer and cooked to order
d) a prix-fixe menu with several choices on each course

31. Which of the following is the best source of Vitamin C in the daily diet:
a) baked beans on toast
b) new potatoes sprinkled with parsley
c) oatmeal porridge with gold syrup
d) hot beef essence such as Bovril

32. Which of the following groups are all single hors-d’oeuvre:

a) potato salad, stuffed celery, asparagus vinaigrette, salade ni«oise
b) tunny fish, sardines, Russian salad, Japanese salad
c) Florida cocktail, seafood cocktail, smoked trout, foie gras
d) cauliflower a la grecque, coleslaw, stuffed tomatoes, oysters

33. In which line are all items farinaceous:

a) tagliatelle, gnocchi romaine, carolines, cromeskis
b) canneloni, macaroni, fritto misto, piroquis
c) ravioli, risotto, pilaff of rice, lasagne verdi
d) vermicelli, polenta, zampino, pignatelli

34. Match the sauces to the main dishes:

a) tartare a) calf’s head
b) tomato b) poached river trout
c) tortue c) filets de sole frits a l’Orly
d) tarragon d) deep fried fillet of plaice

35. The correct sequence of lay-out on a cafeteria counter is:

a) main course, sweet, cash till, cutlery, paper napkins
b) cold dish, soup, main dish, sweet, sundries, beverages
c) snacks, vending machine, microwave oven, tray stand
d) cutlery, trays, condiments, called order, cash till, water font
36. Which of the following groups of nuts is correct for dessert?
a) chestnuts, coconuts, pecans
b) pistachios, macadamia, pine kernels
c) almonds, walnuts, brazils
d) peanuts, filberts, cashews

37. Decide which menu is the best composed:

a) Egg mayonnaise, Chicken Pancake Mornay, mashed potato, carrots, steamed chocolate
pudding
b) Melon Cocktail, Curried Beef and Rice, Brussels sprouts, boiled potatoes, bread and
butter pudding
c) Cream of Tomato Soup, Chicken Chasseur, Vichy carrots, Rissolee potatoes, Strawberry
Flan
d) Cream of Leek Soup, Blanquette of Lamb, cauliflower, newpotatoes, Vanilla mousse

38. Which line is comprised only of sherries?

a) tarragona, montilla, bual, ratafia, campari
b) muscatel, alto douro, sercial, mead, schnapps
c) Malmsey, Marsala, Malaga, Madeira, Verdelho
d) fino, manzanilla, amontillado, sack, oloroso

39. The cover laid for an a la carte meal consists of:

a) teacup, saucer and teaspoon, ash-tray, cone-shape serviette
b) fish-knife and fork, side-plate and knife, centre plate with a napkin on it
c) joint-knife and fork, soup spoon, side-knife, glass
d) complete accoutrement of cutlery, crockery and glasses

40. Serving a room service meal, a waiter should

a) knock on the door loudly and announce his presence:
b) look through the keyhole and if he sees the guest is up, go straight inside
c) carry the tray at waist level and enter the room
d) carry the tray shoulder-high in his left hand, knock and wait until
told to enter

41. Decide which group consists of natural mineral waters only:

a) Tonic water, Cola, Soda water syphon, Bath Spa
b) Perrier, Malvern water, Vichy, Spa
c) Chartreuse, ginger ale, citronelle, bitter lemon
d) Grenadine, cordial, cona, perry

42. A rognonnade is a:
a) loin of veal cooked with the kidney in it
b) hard roe of the sturgeon
c) stew of lamb kidney, chipolata and mushrooms
d) mixture of cockscombs and kidneys

43. Say what steps you would take if you accidentally spilt sauce on a customer’s jacket:
a) offer to have it cleaned if you cannot remove it with warm water
b) dab it with some detergent and hot water
c) go and tell the head waiter what happened
d) fetch a damp cloth and wipe the stain off quickly

44. Tick the line of foods which are most closely associated with Scotland:
a) succotash, angel-food cake, clam chowder, chicken a la king
b) truffles, frog’s legs, foie gras, glace cherries
c) garlic, salami, pastasciutta, pizza, olive oil
d) haggis, arbroath smokies, finnan haddock, smoked salmon

45. Which of the following is the correct lay-up for use with the famous French dish,
bouillabaisse:
a) hot joint-plate, finger-bowl and soup-spoon
b) soup-spoon and soup-plate, fish-knife and fork
c) tureen and ladle, large fork and lobster crackers
d) large plate, dessert spoon, lobster-pick and tongs

46. Which is the correct liqueur for making Cafe Calypso?

a) Kahlua
b) Cura~ao
c) Tia Maria
d) Ron Bacardi

47. The definition of amontillado sherry is:

a) rather fragrant and slightly sweet
b) mellow but medium-dry and nutty
c) very dry and crisp
d) darkish coloured and medium sweet

48. From which of the following areas does Nuits Saint-Georges come:
a) the Cotes du Rhone
b) the Cote d’Or of France
c) The Rioja of Spain
d) the Mc5doc region of Bordeaux

49. Say how many bottles and of which of the following are required to serve 180 customers
with an aperitif each:
a) 2 dozen Dubonnet
b) 7 bottles of Campari
c) 6 dozen litres of vermouth
d) 15 bottles of Manzanilla

50. In which form of food service does the customer help himself from the dish held by a
waiter:
a) a la carte
b) family
c) ala Russe
d) banquet

51. Petits fours are served:

a) with the coffee
b) with the aperitif before a meal
c) with the soup
d) halfway through a meal, with the sorbet

52. A bisque soup is made of:

a) scallops, sturgeon or clams
b) lobster, crab or prawns
c) mussels, oysters and cockles
d) potted shrimps, squid and scampi

53. The staff of the still-room are responsible for the preparation of:
a) fruit baskets
b) porridge, boiled eggs, hot beverages, Melba toast
c) salads, the cheese board and cold buffet
d) breakfast cereals, hot sandwiches

54. Decaffeinated coffee may be defined as:

a) strong because it contains chicory
b) flavoured with figs in the Turkish style
c) continental high roast made in a Cona machine
d) having the stimulant caffeine removed

55. Real pate de foie gras is made from:

a) fattened goose liver
b) best quality calfs liver
c) duck livers in a pastry crust
d) venison flesh and salt pork fat

56. The term ‘Menage’ on the duty list refers to:

a) slicing and buttering brown bread
b) filling the cruets, preparing the lamps
c) polishing cutlery and glassware
d) making butter pats and Melba toast
57. Which of the following is the most junior member of the brigade:
a) a chef d’etage
b) a dumb waiter
c) the demi-chef de rang
d) the commis debarrasseur

58. Which one of the following items requires a finger bowl:

a) melon with Parma ham
b) oysters in the half shell
c) grapefruit cocktail
d) hors-d’oeuvre varies

59. Under which circumstances should a waiter write an ‘en place’ check?
a) when a customer changes his mind and asks for something else
b) to obtain the customer’s coat from the cloakroom
c) if a customer asks for a double brandy with his coffee
d) if a customer finds he cannot afford the prices

60. The traditional sequence of courses for an elaborate dinner is

a) soup, egg, fish, entree, savoury, cheese
b) hors-d’oeuvre, soup, fish, meat, sweet
c) fish, entree, releve, cheese, sweet, coffee
d) soup, farinaceous, meat, cheese, dessert

61. Food and beverage is a general term used in

a) Serving
b) Catering
c) Hospitality
d) None of the above

62. Food and beverage service can be divided in categories

a) 2
b) 3
c) 4
d) 5

63. Which of the following combination of items would you find at a waiters’ station?
a) side plates, dessert bowls and water glasses
b) napkins, menus and dessert cutlery
c) sugar bowls, teaspoons and coffee plunger
d) tablecloths, under plates and bread knives

64. At which stage of food service should pre-dinner drink glasses be removed?
a) after the bread has been eaten
b) just before the main course is served
c) after wine has been ordered for the table
d) when the drink is finished

65. The term “catering” refers to:

a) setting up a banquet operation
b) serving a banquet operation
c) selling a banquet function
d) all of these

66. Which of the following is not a direct report to the director of food and beverage
operations
in large hotels?
a) Human resources manager
b) Purchasing manager
c) Accounting manager
d) None of these are typically direct reports

67. The standard cocktail glass is often referred to as

a) flute.
b) martini.
c) hurricane.
d) old fashioned.

68. The machine that dispenses soft drinks is called a

a) pre-mix.
b) post-mix.
c) prep mixer.
d) distributor

69. Which item of equipment is used to keep food hot on a buffet?

a) chafing dish
b) sizzling plate
c) Gueridon trolley
d) wooden chopping board

70. An indication that a guest’s plate is ready to be cleared is when

a) the guest stops eating.
b) the food has gone cold.
c) the guest has left the table.
d) the knife and fork are placed together on the plate.
II. Esay.
Direction: Write your answer based on your understanding and ideas.
 What are the principles of catering management?
 What are the 6 principles of good menu planning?
 What is Banquet and Catering Management?

Psalm 37:5
Commit your way to the LORD; trust also in him; and he shall bring it to pass.

Prepared by:

PHILIP R. PARAYAOAN, MBA

Instructor
KEY ANSWERS TO MULTIPLE-CHOICE QUESTIONS

1 (b); 2 ( c); 3 (d); 4 (b); 5 (b); 6 (b); 7 (d); 8 (a); 9 (b);

10 (d); 11 ( c); 12 (c ); 13 (b); 14 (d); 15 (a); 16 (b); 17 (b);
18 (b); 19 (a); 20 ( c); 21 (c ); 22 (b); 23 (c ); 24 (b); 25 (d);
26 (b); 27 (d); 28 (a); 29 (b); 30 (c ); 31 (b); 32 (c ); 33 ( c);
34 (a & b)(b & c)(c & a)(d & b); 35 (b); 36 ( c); 37 (b); 38 (d);
39 (b); 40 (d); 41 (b); 42 (a); 43 (d); 44 (d); 45 (b); 46 (c );
47 (b); 48 (b); 49 (d); 50 (b); 51 (a); 52 (b); 53 (b); 54 (d);
55 (a); 56 (b); 57 (d); 58 (b); 59 (a); 60 (b); 61 (c ); 62 (a);
63 (b); 64 (b); 65 (d); 66 (d); 67 (b); 68 (b); 69 (a); 70 (d);
 PALARIS COLLEGE
San Carlos City, Pangasinan

FOREIGN LANGUAGE 2
Final Examination

I. Fill in the blank.

Direction: Write your answer in a sino-korean.

A. Parts of the Body

1. __________ 9. _____________
head arm
2. __________ 10. ________
hand
ear
11. ________
3. __________ chest
forehead 12. ________
4. __________ waist
eye 13. _________
5. _________ knee
nose 14. ________
6. __________ leg
mouth 15. _________
7. __________ foot
neck
8. __________
shoulder

B. Write your answer in an English Phrase.

1. neh. ________
2. Ah-nee-oh. ______________
3. Jwe-song-ha-ji-mahn. ____________
4. Gahm-sah-hahm-ni-da. _____________
5. chon-mahn-eh-yo. _______________
6. sil-le-hahm-ni-da. _____________
7. Ahn-nyong-ha-se-yo. ___________
8. Ahn-nyong-hee ga-se-yo. _________________
9. yong-o-rul hahl-jool asim-ni-ka? ___________________________
 10. jeo-nun han-kook-o-rul jo-gum-bah-ke mo-tahm-ni-da.
_______________________________________________
11. song-ha-mi o-teo-ke dwe-si-ji-yo? ___________________________
12. je-i-rum-eun Mee-Young im-ni-da. ____________________________
13. ahn-nyong-ha-se-yo? ______________________________
14. neh jal-i-soum-ni-da. __________________________
15. gahm-se-hahm-ni-da. ____________________________
16. mahn-na-bwep-ge dwe-o-seo bahn-gahp-soum-ni-da.
_____________________________________________
17. jal mo-dara dut-ge-soum-ni-da. ______________________________
18. mo-ra-go greo-shut-ji-yo? _____________________________________
19. jom-chon-chon-hee mahl-soum-hae joo-se-yo?
________________________________________________________________
20. choong-boon-hee i-hae-hah-go i-soum-ni-da.
_________________________________________________________

C. Write in a Korean word. (KOREAN DIALOGUE)

Young-Sook: ___________________________________
Hello!
____________________________________
Do you speak English?
Store Clerk: ________________________________________
I'm sorry.
______________________________________________
I do not speak English.
Young-Sook: ___________________________________________________________
Unfortunately, I only speak a little Korean.
Store Clerk: ___________________________________________________
That's all right.
__________________________________
I understand you.

Psalm 37:5
Commit your way to the LORD; trust also in him; and he shall bring it to pass.

Prepared by:

PHILIP R. PARAYAOAN, MBA

Instructor
KEY ANSWERS

A.

머리 팔
head arm

귀 손
ear hand

이마 가슴
forehead chest

눈 허리
eye waist

코 무릎
nose knee

입 다리
mouth leg

목 발
neck foot

어깨
shoulder

B.
neh. Yes.
ah-nee-oh. No.
jwe-song-ha-ji-mahn. Please.
gahm-sah-hahm-ni-da. Thank you.
chon-mahn-eh-yo. You're welcome.
sil-le-hahm-ni-da. Excuse me.
ahn-nyong-ha-se-yo. Good morning.
ahn-nyong-hee ga-se-yo. Good-bye.
yong-o-rul hahl-jool asim-ni-ka? Do you speak English?
jeo-nun han-kook-o-rul jo-gum-bah-ke mo-tahm-ni-da. I only speak a little Korean.
song-ha-mi o-teo-ke dwe-si-ji-yo? What is your name?
je-i-rum-eun Mee-Young im-ni-da. My name is Mee-Young.
ahn-nyong-ha-se-yo? How are you?
neh jal-i-soum-ni-da. I'm fine, thank you.
gahm-se-hahm-ni-da. I'm fine, thank you.
mahn-na-bwep-ge dwe-o-seo bahn-gahp-soum-ni-da. I am very glad to meet you.
jal mo-dara dut-ge-soum-ni-da. I don't understand.
mo-ra-go greo-shut-ji-yo? What did you say?
jom-chon-chon-hee mahl-soum-hae joo-se-yo? Can you speak more slowly?
choong-boon-hee i-hae-hah-go i-soum-ni-da. I understand perfectly.

C.
Young-Sook: ahn-nyong-ha-se-yo!
Hello!
yong-o-rul hahl-jool a-se-yo?
Do you speak English?
Store Clerk: jwe-song-hahm-nida.
I'm sorry.
yong-o-rul hahl-jool mo-rum-nida.
I do not speak English.
Young-Sook: jo-do han-koo-go-rul jo-gum-ba-ke motam-nida.
Unfortunately, I only speak a little Korean.
Store Clerk: gewn-chan-soum-nida.
That's all right.
i-hae-hahm-nida.
I understand you.
 PALARIS COLLEGE
San Carlos City, Pangasinan

PUBLIC FINANCE
Final Examination

I. Fill in the blank. 30 points

Direction: Write your answer in the blank.

1. According to the Harberger Model of the incidence of the corporate income tax, tha
tax: ______________________
2. Under the corporation income tax in the United States: ______________________
3. Accelerated depreciation allows corporations to: ____________________________
4. If corporations maximize profits, the short-run incidence of a tax on its profits will be
borne by: _____________________________
5. The tax base for the corporate income tax in the US is: _________________________
6. The double taxation of dividends under US tax code means:
_________________________________________________________________________
7. If an all-equity firm has after-tax income of $100,000 based on 34% income tax, what
is the after-tax income of an equivalent firms that pays $15,000 in interest that is tax
deductible? ________________________________________
8. If an interest on corporate debt is tax deductible, a firm’s return on equity increases
becuse: _______________________________________________________________
9. Assuming that the supply of savings is perfectly inelastic, the corporate income tax
prevents the attainment of efficiency by:
______________________________________________________________________________
10. If the supply of savings is not perfectly elastic, the corporate income tax is
likely to: _______________________________________________________________
11. In the long run a corporate income tax that initially reduces the return to
investment in the corporate sector will also: ___________________________________
12. If Corporations maximize profit, a corporate income
tax:_______________________________________________________
13. Assuming that coporations maximize profits and investors seek to maximize
the return to their investments, the long-run impact of a corporate income tas is to:
_____________________________________________________________
14. The effective tax rate is: __________________________________________
15. Which of the following is true about the economic effects of the corporate
income tax?______________________________________________________________
16. In most states, the retail sales tax can be regarded as equivalent to a:
__________________________________________________________________
17. The differential incidence of substituting a tax on comprehensive consumption
for a tax on compre¬hensive income is likely to be:
_________________________________________________________________
18. Suppose two individuals earn the same salary each year over their lifetimes.
One individual saves 25 percent of his income each year, while the other saves
nothing. Over their lifetimes under a comprehensive income tax,
__________________________________________________________________________________
19. The value-added tax used in the European Union:
____________________________________________________
20. Consumption-in-kind: __________________________________________
21. As administered in most states in the United States, the retail sales tax:
________________________________________________
22. Comprehensive consumption is:
__________________________________________________________________________
23. A flat-rate tax on comprehensive consumption:
______________________________________________________________________________
24. What is the most favorable for capital accumulation?
___________________________________________________________
25. The invoice method of collecting the value-added tax:
__________________________________________________
26. Which of the following statements about taxes on consumption are true?
______________________________________________________________
27. A consumption-type, value-added tax: _____________________________________
28. An adult’s life cycle is considered to begin: _______________________________
29. Assuming that a person never receives any cash gifts or bequests, a tax on
comprehensive con-sumption is equivalent to a(n):
____________________________________________________________________
30. A tax on comprehensive consumption:
____________________________________________________________________________

II. Essay. 70 points

Direction: Write your answer based on your understanding and ideas.
1. Discuss the main objectives; major portions of the subject matter and the
economic and social significance of public finance.

2. Discuss the effects of public expenditure on production, distribution economic

stability and economic development of a country.

3. What is public debt? Explain the factors affecting for the growth of public debt
of modern governments.

4. Explain the impact, shifting and incidence of a tax; discuss the forward and
backward shifting and elucidate the factors that affect shifting and incidence

5. What features, do you think, a good tax system should fulfill; elaborate the
objectives of taxation and discuss the base, buoyancy and elasticity of
taxation.
6. What is meant by proportional, progressive and regressive tax system? On
what ground can progressive be justified? Does it adversely affect production
and distribution? Which tax system is applicable in Ethiopia?
7. What are the principles of federal finance? How do they operate in Ethiopia?

Psalm 37:5
Commit your way to the LORD; trust also in him; and he shall bring it to pass.

Prepared by:

PHILIP R. PARAYAOAN, MBA

Instructor
 Key Answer
I.
1. reduces the return to capital in all uses.
2. the opportunity cost of equity cannot be deducted from the tax base.
3. earn more interest on their capital costs.
4. corporate shareholders.
5. the sum of normal and economic profits of corporations.
6. dividends are paid from after-tax corporate income and then taxed again as
personal income
7. $90,100.00
8. generally, the presence of debt reduces the amount of equity to a greater effect
than the reduction in after-tax.
9. causing a misallocation of investment between the corporate and non-corporate
sectors
10. decrease investment.
11. reduce the return to capital in non-corporate sectors
12. has no affect on the profit-maximizing output in the short run
13. reduce the incomes of all investors
14. based on real economic profits.
15. Its incidence is likely to be shared by owners of capital, workers, and consumers
of corporate products.
16. set of selective excise taxes
17. regressive.
18. the discounted present value of taxes paid will be greater for the saver
19. exempts investment purchases from taxation
20. is exemplified by services provided and consumed in the household
21. distorts the choice between taxed goods and untaxed services, resulting in some
efficiency loss.
22. is comprehensive income minus savings.
23. will not result in any difference between the gross interest rate paid by borrowers
and the net interest rate received by savers.
24. a comprehensive tax on consumption
25. taxes a firm’s sales at a fixed rate but allows a credit for taxes paid on purchases
of interme¬diate goods.
26. Taxes on consumption do not distort choices between current and future
consumption in ways that impair efficiency.
27. will not cause losses in efficiency in investment markets.
28. 18 years old.
29. tax on labor income
30. will not affect the incentive to save in ways that cause losses in efficiency
 PALARIS COLLEGE
San Carlos City, Pangasinan

ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING 2
Final Examination

I. Multiple Choice.
A.
1. Who among the teachers described below is doing assessment?
a. Mrs. Bautista who is administering a test to her students.
b. Mr. Ferrer who is counting the scores obtained by the students in his test.
c. Ms. Leyva who is computing the final grade of the students after completing all their requirements.
d. Prof. Cuevas who is planning for a remedial instruction after knowing that students perform poorly
in her test

2. Mr. Fernandez is judging the accuracy of these statements. Which statements will he consider as
correct?
I. Test is a tool to measure a trait.
II. Measurement is the process of qualifying a given trait.
III. Assessment is the gathering of quantitative and qualitative data.
IV. Evaluation is the analysis of quantitative and qualitative data for decision making
A. I and II only
b. III and IV only
c. I, II, and III
d. I, III and IV

3. If I have to use the most authentic method of assessment, which of these procedures should I
consider?
a. Traditional Test
b. Performance-based Assessment
c. Written Test
d. Objective Assessment

4. After doing the exercise on verbs, Ms. Borillo gave a short quiz to find out how well students have
understood the lesson. What type of assessment was done?
a. Summative Assessment
b. Formative Assessment
c. Diagnostic Assessment
d. Placement Assessment

5. Who among the teachers below performed a diagnostic assessment?

a. Ms. Santos who asked questions when the discussion was going on to know who among h er
students understood what she was trying to emphasize.
b. Mr. Colubong who gave a short quiz after discussing thoroughly the lesson to determine the
programs of learning.
c. Ms. Ventura who gave 10-item test to find out the specific lessons which the students failed to
understand.
d. Mrs. Lopez who administered a readiness test to the incoming grade one pupils.

6. You are assessing for learning. Which of these will you likely do?
a. Giving grades to students
b. Reporting to parents the performance of their child.
c. Recommending new policies in grading students.
d. Assessing the strengths and weaknesses of students.

7. Ms. Saplan is planning to do an assessment of learning. Which of these should she include in her
 plan considering her purpose for assessment?
a. How to give immediate feedback to student's strengths and weaknesses
b. How to determine the area of interest of learners
c. How to certify student's achievement
d. How to design one's instruction
8. You targeted that after instruction, your students should be able to show their ability to solve
problems with speed and accuracy. You then designed a tool to measure this ability. What principle
of assessment did you consider in this situation?
a. Assessment should be based on clear and appropriate learning targets or objectives.
b. Assessment should have a positive consequence on student's learning
c. Assessment should be reliable.
d. Assessment should be fair.

9. Ms. Ortega tasked her students to show how to play basketball. What learning target is she
assessing?
a. Knowledge
b. Reasoning
c. Skills
d. Products

10. Mr. Ravelas made an essay test for the objective "Identify the planets in the solar system". Was
the assessment method used the most appropriate for the given objective? Why?
a. Yes, because essay test is easier to construct than objective test.
b. Yes, because essay test can measure any type of objective.
c. No, he should have conducted oral questioning.
d. No, he should have prepared an objective test.

11. Mr. Cidro wants to test students' knowledge of the different places in the Philippines, their capital and
their products and so he gave his students an essay test. If you were the teacher, will you do the same?
a. No, the giving of an objective test is more appropriate than the use of essay.
b. No, such method of assessment is inappropriate because essay is difficult.
c. Yes, essay test could measure more than what other tests could measure.
d. Yes, essay test is the best in measuring any type of knowledge.

12. What type of validity does the Pre-board examination possess if its results can explain how the
students will likely perform in their licensure examination?
a. Concurrent
b. Predictive
c. Construct
d. Content

13. Ms. Aviz wants to determine if the students' scores in their Final Test is reliable. However, she has
only one set of test and her students are already on vacation. What test of reliability can she employ?
a. Test-Retest
b. Kuder Richardson Method
c. Equivalent Forms
d. Test-Retest with Equivalent Forms

Refer to this case in answering items 14-15

Two teachers of the same grade level have set the following objectives for the day's lesson. At the end
of the period, the students should be able to:
a. Construct bar graph, and
b. Interpret bar graphs

To assess the attainment of the objectives, Teacher A required the students to construct a bar graph for
the given set of data then she asked them to interpret this using a set of questions as guide. Teacher B
presented a bar graph then asked them to interpret this using also a set of guide questions.

14. Whose practice is acceptable based on the principles of assessment?

a. Teacher A
b. Teacher B
c. Both Teacher A and B
d. Neither Teacher A nor Teacher B

15. Which is true about the given case?

a. Objective A matched with performance-based assessment while B can be assessed using the
traditional pen-and-paper objective test.
b. Objective A matched with traditional assessment while B can be assessed using a performance-
based method.
c. Both objective A and B matched with performance-based assessment.
d. Both objective A and B matched with traditional assessment.

16. In the context of the Theory of Multiple Intelligence, which is a weakness of the paper-pencil test?
a. It puts non-linguistically intelligent at a disadvantage.
b. It is not easy to administer.
c. It utilizes so much time.
d. It lacks reliability.

17. Mr. Umayam is doing a performance-based assessment for the day's lesson. Which of the following
will most likely happen?
a. Students are evaluated in one sitting.
b. Students do an actual demonstration of their skill.
c. Students are evaluated in the most objective manner.
d. Students are evaluated based on varied evidences of learning

18. Ms. del Rosario rated her students in terms of appropriate and effective use of some laboratory
equipment and measurement tools and the students ability to follow the specified procedures. What
mode of assessment should Miss del Rosario use?
a. Portfolio Assessment
b. Journal Assessment
c. Traditional Assessment
d. Performance-based Assessment

19. Mrs. Hilario presented the lesson on baking through a group activity so that the students will not just
learn how to bake but also develop their interpersonal skills. How should this lesson be assessed?
I. She should give the students an essay test explaining how they baked the cake.
II. The students should be graded on the quality of their baked cake using a rubric.
III. The students in a group should rate the members based on their ability to cooperate in their group
activity.
IV. She should observe how the pupils perform their tasks.

a. I, II, and III only

b. I, III, and IV only
c. I, II and IV only
d. I, II, III, and IV

20. If a teacher has set objectives in all domains or learning targets and which could be assessed using
a single performance task, what criterion in selecting a task should she consider?
a. Generalizability
b. Fairness
c. Multiple Foci
d. Teachability

21. Which term refers to the collection of students' products and accomplishments in a given period for
evaluation purposes?
a. Diary
b. Portfolio
c. Anecdotal record
 d. Observation report

22. Mrs. Catalan allowed the students to develop their own portfolio in their own style as long as they
show all the non-negotiable evidences of learning. What principle in portfolio assessment explains this
practice?
a. Content Principle
b. Learning Principle
c. Equity Principle
d. Product Principle

23. How should the following steps in portfolio assessment be arranged logically?
I. Set targets
II. Select evidences
III. Collect evidences
IV. Rate Collection
V. Reflect on Evidences
a. I, II, III, IV, V
b. I, III, II, V, IV
c. I, II, III, V, IV
d. I, III, V, II, IV

24. Which could be seen in a rubric?

I. Objective in a high level of cognitive behavior
II. Multiple criteria in assessing learning
III. Quantitative descriptions of the quality of work
IV. Qualitative descriptions of the quality of work
a. I and II only
b. II, III and IV only
c. I, II and III
d. I, II, III and IV

25. The pupils are to be judged individually on their mastery of the singing of the national anthem so
their teacher let them sing individually. What should the teacher use in rating the performance of the
pupils considering the fact that the teacher has only one period to spend in evaluating her 20 pupils?
a. Analytic
b. Holistic
c. Either holistic or analytic
d. Both holistic and analytic

B.
1. Mrs. Pua is judging the worth of the project of the students in her Science class based on a set of criteria. What
process describes what she is doing?
a. Testing
b. Measuring
c. Evaluating
d. Assessing

2. Mrs. Acebuche is comparing measurement from evaluation. Which statement explains the difference?
a. Measurement is assigning a numerical value to a given trait while evaluation is giving meaning to the numerical
value of the trait.
b. Measurement is the process of gathering while evaluation is the process of quantifying the data gathered.
c. Measurement is the process of quantifying data while evaluation is the process of organizing data.
d. Measurement is a pre-requisite of assessment while evaluation is the pre-requisite of testing.

3. Ms. Ricafort uses alternative methods of assessment. Which of the following will she not likely use?
a. Multiple Choice Test
b. Reflective Journal Writing
c. Oral Presentation
d. Developing Portfolios
4. Ms. Camba aims to measure a product of learning. Which of these objectives will she most likely set for her
instruction?
a. Show positive attitude towards learning common nouns
b. Identify common nouns in a reading selection
c. Construct a paragraph using common nouns
d. User a common noun in a sentence

5. The students of Mrs. Valino are very noisy. To keep them busy, they were given any test available in the
classroom and then the results were graded as a way to punish them. Which statement best explains if the practice
is acceptable or not?
a. The practice is acceptable because the students behaved well when they were given a test.
b. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of reliability.
c. The practice is not acceptable because it violates the principle of validity.
d. The practice is acceptable since the test results are graded.

6. Ms. Delos Angeles advocates assessment for learning. Which will she NOT likely do?
a. Formative Assessment
b. Diagnostic Assessment
c. Placement Assessment
d. Summative Assessment

7. At the beginning of the school year, the 6-year old pupils were tested to find out who among them can already
read. The result was used to determine their sections. What kind of test was given to them?
a. Diagnostic
b. Formative
c. Placement
d. Summative
8. The grade six pupils were given a diagnostic test in addition and subtraction of whole numbers to find out if they
can proceed to the next unit. However, the results of the test were very low. What should the teacher do?
a. Proceed to the next lesson to be able to finish all the topics in the course.
b. Construct another test parallel to the given test to determine the consistency of the scores.
c. Count the frequency of errors to find out the lessons that the majority of students need to relearn.
d. Record the scores then inform the parents about the very poor performance of their child in mathematics.

9. Mrs. Nogueras is doing an assessment of learning. At what stage of instruction should she do it?
a. Before instruction
b. After instruction
c. Prior to instruction
d. During the instructional process

10. Mr. Cartilla developed an Achievement Test in Math for her grade three pupils. Before she finalized the test she
examined carefully if the test items were constructed based on the competencies that have to be tested. What test
of validity was she trying to establish?
a. Content-validity
b. Concurrent validity
c. Predictive validity
d. Construct validity

11. Mrs. Robles wants to establish the reliability of her achievement test in English. Which of the following activities
will help achieve her purpose?
a. Administer two parallel tests to different groups of students.
b. Administer two equivalent tests to the same group of students
c. Administer a single test but two different groups of students.
d. Administer two different tests but to the same group of students.

Refer to the situation below in answer items 12 and 13

A teacher set the following objectives for the day's lesson:
At the end of the period, the students should be able to:
a. Identify the parts of friendly letter
b. Construct a friendly letter using the MS Word, and
c. Show interest towards the day's lesson
To assess the attainment of the objectives, Ms. Cidro required the students to construct friendly letter and have it
encoded at their Computer Laboratory using the MS Word. The letter should inform one's friend about what one has
learned in the day's lesson and how one felt about it.

12. Which is NOT true about the given case?

a. Ms. Cidro practices a balanced assessment.
b. Ms. Cidro's assessment method is performance-based.
c. Ms. Cidro needs a rubric in scoring the work of the students.
d. Ms. Cidro's assessment targets are all in the cognitive domain.

13. If Mr. Paraiso will have to make a scoring rubric for the student's output, what format is better to construct
considering that the teacher has limited time to evaluate their work?
a. Analytic Rubric
b. Holistic Rubric
c. Either A or B
d. Neither A nor B

14. The school principal has 3 teacher applicants all of whom graduated from the same institution and are licensed
teachers. She only needs to hire one. What should she do to choose the best teacher from the three?
I. Give them a placement test.
II. Interview them on why they want to apply in the school.
III. Let them demonstrate how to teach a particular lesson.
IV. Study their portfolios to examine the qualities of the students' outputs when they were in College.
a. I and II.
b. II and III.
c. I and III, IV
d. II, III and IV

15. What should be done first when planning for a performance-based assessment?
a. Determine the "table of specifications" of the tasks
b. Set the competency to be assessed.
c. Set the criteria in scoring the task.
d. Prepare a scoring rubric.

16. To maximize the amount of time spent for performance-based assessment, which one should be done?
a. Plan a task that can be used for instruction and assessment at the same time.
b. Assess one objective for one performance task.
c. Set objectives only for cognitive domains.
d. Limit the task to one meeting only.

17. Who among the teachers below gave the most authentic assessment task for the objective "Solve word
problems involving the four basic operations"
a. Mrs. Juliano who presented a word problem involving a four fundamental operations and then asked the pupils to
solve it.
b. Mrs. Mandia who asked her pupils to construct a word problem for a given number sentence that involves four
fundamental operations and then asked them to solve the word problem they constructed.
c. Mrs. Malang who asked her pupils to construct any word problem that involves the four fundamental operations
and then asked them to show how to solve it.
d. Mrs. Pontipedra who asked her pupils to construct any word problem that involves the four fundamental
operations then formed them by twos so that each pair exchanged problems and help solve each other's problem.

18. Which is wrong to assume about traditional assessment?

a. It can assess individuals objectively.
b. It can assess individuals at the same time.
c. It is easier to administer than performance test.
d. It can assess fairly all the domains of intelligence of an individual
19. Which statement about performance-based assessment is FALSE?
a. It emphasizes merely process.
b. It also stresses doing, not only knowing.
c. It accentuates on process as well as product.
d. Essay tests are an example of performance-based assessments.

20. Under which assumption is portfolio assessment based?

a. Portfolio assessment is a dynamic assessment.
b. Assessment should stress the reproduction of knowledge.
c. An individual learner is adequately characterized by a test score.
d. An individual learner is inadequately characterized by a test score.

21. Which is a good portfolio evidence of a student's acquired knowledge and writing skills?
a. Project
b. Test Results
c. Reflective Journal
d. Critiqued Outputs

22. When planning for portfolio assessment, which should you do first?
a. Set the targets for portfolio assessment.
b. Exhibit one's work and be proud of one's collection
c. Select evidences that could be captured in one's portfolio
d. Reflect on one's collection and identify strengths and weaknesses

23. Which kind of rubric is best to use in rating students' projects done for several days?
a. Analytic
b. Holistic
c. Either holistic or analytic
d. Both holistic and analytic

24. Which is not true of an analytic rubric?

a. It is time consuming
b. It is easier to construct than the holistic rubric
c. It gives one's level of performance per criterion
d. It allows one to pinpoint the strengths and weaknesses of one's work.

25. Mrs. Bacani prepared a rubric with 5 levels of performance described in 5-excellent, 4-very satisfactory, 3-
satisfactory, 2 needs improvement, 1-poor. After using this rubric with these descriptions, she found out that most of
her students had a rating of 3. Even those who are evidently poor in their performance had a rating of satisfactory.
Cold there be a possible error in the use of the rubric?
a. Yes, the teacher could have committed the generosity error.
b. Yes, the teacher could have committed the central tendency source of error.
c. No, it is just common to see more of the students having grade of 3 in a 5-point scale.
d. No, such result is acceptable as long as it has a positive consequence to the students.

C.
1. In a positively skewed distribution, the following statement are true except
a. Median is higher than the mode.
b. Mean is higher than the Media.
c. Mean is lower than the Mode.
d. Mean is not lower than the Mode.

2. Which of the following questions indicate a norm - referred interpretation?

a. How does the pupils test performance in our school compare with that of other schools?:
b. How does a pupil's test performance in reading and mathematics compare?
c. What type of remedial work will be most helpful for a slow- learning pupil?
d. Which pupils have achieved master of computational skills?
3. What is the performance of a student in the National Achievement Test (NAT) if he obtained/got a stanine score
of 5?
a. Between average and above average
b. Between average and below average
c. Below average
d. Average

4. Based on the figure, which is true about the distribution?

a. Mean=55, median=48, mode=34
b. Mean=46, median=40, mode=37
c. Mean=63, median=63, mode=63
d. The distribution is mesokrutic

5. If quartile deviation is to median, what is to mean?

a. Standard deviation
b. Mode
c. Range
d. Variance

6. In a normal distribution, which of the following is true?

a. median=mode=mean
b. median≠mode=mean
c. median≠mode≠mean
d. Mean=median=mode

7. Which of the following situations may lower the validity of test?

a. Mrs. Josea increases the number of items measuring each specific skill from three to five.
b. Mr. Santosa simplifies the language in the directions for the test.
c. Miss. Lopeza removes the items in the achievement test that everyone would be able to answer correctly.
d. None of the above.
8. In a negatively skewed distribution, which of the following statements is true?
a. Mode is lower than the mean.
b. Mean is lower than the mode.
c. Median is higher than the mode.
d. Mode is lower than the median.

9. In a negatively skewed distribution, the following statements are true EXCEPT?

a. Mean is not higher than the median
b. Median is lower than the mode.
c. Mean is lower than the mode.
d. Mode is less than the median.

10. Miss Cortez administered a test to her class and the result is positively skewed. What kind of test do you think
Miss Cortez gave to her pupils?
a. Post test
b. Pretest
c. Mastery test
d. Criterion-referenced test

11. The result of the test given by teacher A showed a negatively skewed distribution. What kind of test did Teacher
A give?
a. The test is difficult
b. It is not too easy nor too difficult
c. It is moderately difficult
d. It is easy

12. When the distribution is skewed to the right, what kind of test was administered?
a. Difficult
b. Easy
c. Average/moderately difficult
d. Partly easy- partly difficult

13. In a negatively skewed distribution, what kind of students does Teacher B have?
a. Very good
b. Very poor
c. Average
d. Heterogeneous

14. In a positively skewed distribution, the students are?

a. Very good
b. Very poor
c. Average
d. Normally distributed

15. In a positively skewed distribution, which of the following statements is true?

a. Mode = 67 while Media = 54
b. Median = 53 while Mean = 41
c. Mean = 73 while Mode = 49
d. Median = 34 while Mode = 42

16. Which statements represent criterion-referenced interpretation?

a. Lucresia did better in solving the linear equation than 80% of representative Algebra students.
b. Lucresia's score indicates that she is able to solve about two thirds of all one-variable linear equations of such
complexity.
c. Students who have reached Lucresia's level on linear equations usually succeed in the subsequent unit on
simultaneous equations with special help or extra time; i.e., Lucresia is ready to move ahead.
d. All of the above

17. Bernard obtained a 97 percentile rank in an aptitude test. This means

a. He answered 97% of the items correctly.
b. He belongs to the 97% of the group who took the test.
c. 79% of the examinees did better than her on the test.
d. He surpassed 97% of those who took the test.

18. Which set of scores has the least variability?

Set 1 0,5,10,15,20
Set 2 25,35,45,55
Set 3 0,2,8,15,20
Set 4 505,501,503
a. Set 1
b. Set 2
c. Set 3
d. Set 4

19. Standard deviation is to variability as mode to?

a. Correlation
b. Discrimination
c. Central tendency
d. Level of difficulty

20. Goring performed better than 65% of the total number of examinees in the district achievement test. What is his
percentile rank?
a. P35
b. P65
c. P66
d. P75
21. Which is a guidance function of a test?
a. Identifying pupils who need corrective teaching
b. Predicting success in future academic and vocational education
c. Assigning marks for courses taken
d. Grouping pupils for instruction within a class

22. Mr. Reyes, an elementary school teacher in Science found out that many of his pupils got very high scores in the
test. What measure of central tendency should he use to describe their average performance in the subject?
a. Mean
b. Median
c. Mode
d. Range

23. Which of the following indicates how compressed or expanded the distribution of scores is?
a. Measures of position
b. Measures of central tendency
c. Measures of correlation
d. Measures of variability

24. The proportion passing the upper and lower group is .80 and .95, respectively. What is the index of difficulty?
a. .38
b. .40
c. .58
d. 1.02

25. Mr. Gringo tried to correlate the scores of his pupils in the Social studies test with their grades in the same
subject last 3rd quarter. What test validity is he trying to establish?
a. Content validity
b. Construct validity
c. Concurrent validity
d. Criterion related validity

D.
1. If a test item has a difficulty index of 0.06, how would you describe the test item?
a. It is very easy.
b. It is moderately difficulty.
c. It is very difficult
d. It is difficult

2. Two sections have the same mean but the standard deviation of section 2 is higher than section 1. Which of the
two sections is more homogeneous?
a. Section 1
b. Section 2
c. Both A and B
d. None of the above

3. Miss Corteza administered a test to her class and the result is positively skewed. What kind of test do you think
Miss Corteza gave to her pupils?
a. Posttest
b. Pretest
c. Mastery test
d. Criterion-referenced test

4. In his second item analysis, Mr. Gonzales found out that more from the lower group got the test item 15 correctly.
What does this mean?
a. The item has become more valid
b. The item has become more reliable
c. The item has a positive discriminating power
d. The item has a negative discriminating power

5. Q1 is 25th percentile as media is to what percentile?

a. 40th percentile
b. 60th percentile
c. 50th percentile
d. 75th percentile

6. Which is implied by a positively skewed scores distribution?

a. The mean, the median, and the mode are equal.
b. Most of the scores are high
c. Most of the scores are low.
d. The mode is high

7. In a normal distribution curve, what does a T-score of 60 mean?

a. Two SDs below the mean
b. Two SDs below the mean
c. One SD below the mean
d. One SD above the mean
For items 8 to 13, what does each figure/distribution on the right indicate?

8. a. mean > median > mode

b. mean < mode > median
c. mean > mode < median
d. mean < median < mode

9. a. mode < mean < median

b. mode > mean > median
c. median < mode > mean
d. none of the above

10. a. equal means, unequal standard deviations

b. equal means, equal standard deviations
c. unequal means, equal standard deviations
d. unequal means unequal standard deviations

11. a unequal means, equal standard deviations

b. unequal means, equal standard deviations
c. equal means, equal standard deviations
d. equal means, unequal standard deviations

12. a. unequal variability, equal means, different shapes

b. unequal means, equal variability, different shapes
c. equal variability, equal means, different shapes
d. unequal variability, unequal means, different shapes

13. a. unequal means, equal standard deviations

b. equal means, unequal standard deviations
c. equal means, equal standard deviations
d. unequal means, unequal standard deviations

14. In conducting a parent- teacher conference, which of the following is NOT true?
a. Be friendly and informal
b. Be a know-it-all person
c. Be willing to accept suggestions
d. Be careful in giving advice

15. In a frequency distribution, what is the midpoint of the class interval whose lower and upper limits are 99.5 and
109.5?
a. 107.0
b. 105.0
c. 104.5
d. 102.5

16. In a frequency distribution, what is the interval size of the class whose lower and upper limits are 9.5 and 19.5?
a. 11.0
b. 10.0
c. 9.0
d. 5.0

17. Given a mean of 55 and a standard deviation of 8, what two scores include one standard deviation below and
above the mean?
a. 46 and 63
b. 47 and 64
c. 47 and 63
d. 46 and 64

18. Given the same mean of 55 and standard deviation of 8, what score corresponds to two standard deviation
above the mean?
a. 70
b. 71
c. 72
d. 73

19. What principle of test construction is violated when one places very difficult items at the beginning; thus creating
frustration among students particularly those of average ability and below average?
a. All the items of particular type should be placed together in the test.
b. The items should be phrased so that the content rather than the form of the statements will determine the answer.
c. All items should be approximately 50 percent difficulty.
d. The items of any particular type should be arranged in an ascending order of difficulty.

20. Mrs. Reyes would like to find out how well her students know each other. What assessment instrument would
best suit her objective?
a. Self-report instrument
b. Sociometric technique
c. Guess-who technique
d. All of the above

21. Mr. Reyes asked his pupils to indicate on the piece of paper the names of their classmates whom they would
like to be with for some group activity, what assessment technique did Mr. Reyes use?
a. Self-report technique
b. Guess-who technique
c. Sociometric technique
d. Anecdotal technique

22. Which of the following assessment procedures/tools is useful in assessing social relation skills?
a. Anecdotal record
b. Attitude scale
c. Peer appraisal
d. any of the above

23. If the proportion passing for the upper and lower group is .90 and .30 respectively, what is the discrimination
index?
a. .40
b. .50
c. .60
d. .70
24. Which is an example of affective learning outcome?
a. Interpret stimuli from various modalities to provide data needed in making adjustments to the environment
b. Judge problem and issues in terms of situations involved than in terms of fixed dogmatic thinking
c. Appreciate the quality and worth of the story read
d. None of the above

25. Mr. Mirasol who is a high school teacher in English conducted an item analysis of her test. She found out that
four of the items of the test obtained the following difficulty and discrimination indices and as follows:
Item Number Difficulty Index Discrimination Index
1 .58 .49
2 .92 .72
3 .09 .32
4 .93 .15

Which of the above items should be discard in her item pool?

a. Item 1
b. Item 2
c. Item 3
d. Item 4
ANSWER KEY- ASSESSMENT OF LEARNING 2

A.
Answers: 1C 2D 3B 4B 5C 6D 7C 8A 9C 10D 11A 12B 13B 14A 15A 16A 17B 18D 19C 20C 21B 22C 23B 24B 25B

B.
Answers: 1C 2A 3A 4C 5C 6A 7C 8C 9D 10A 11B 12D 13B 14D 15B 16A 17D 18D 19A 20D 21C 22A 23A 24B 25B

C.
Answers: 1C 2A 3D 4C 5A 6D 7D 8B 9D 10B 11D 12A 13A 14B 15C 16B 17D 18D 19C 20B 21B 22B 23D 24C 25C

D.
Answers: 1C 2A 3B 4D 5C 6C 7D 8D 9D 10A 11A 12C 13D 14B 15C 16B 17C 18B 19D 20C 21C 22C 23C 24B
25D
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