Thermodynamics – EXIT EXAM MCQ

1.Basic concepts of thermodynamics

1. A definite area or space where some thermodynamic process takes place is known as
a. Thermodynamic system
b. Thermodynamic cycle
c. Thermodynamic process
d. Thermodynamic law.
2. An open system is one in which
a. Heat and work cross the boundary of the system, but the mass of the working substance does
not
b. Mass of working substance crosses the boundary of the system but the heat and work do not
c. Both the heat and work as well as mass of the working substances cross the boundary of the
system
d. Neither the heat and work nor the mass of the working substances cross the boundary of the
system.
3. An isolated system
a. Is a specified region where transfer of energy and/or mass take place
b. Is a region of constant mass and only energy is allowed to cross the boundaries
c. Cannot transfer either energy or mass to or from the surroundings
d. Is one in which mass within the system is not necessarily constant
e. None of the above.
4. In an extensive property of a thermodynamic system
a. Extensive heat is transferred
b. Extensive work is done
c. Extensive energy is utilized
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.
5. Which of the following is an intensive property of a thermodynamic system?
a. Volume
b. Temperature
c. Mass
d. Energy.
6. Which of the following is the extensive property of a thermodynamic system?
a. Pressure
b. Volume
c. Temperature
d. Density.
7. When two bodies are in thermal equilibrium with a third body they are also in thermal equilibrium
with each other. This statement is called
a. Zeroth law of thermodynamics
b. First law of thermodynamics
c. Second law of thermodynamics
d. Kelvin Planck’s law.
8. The temperature at which the volume of a gas becomes zero is called

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 a. Absolute scale of temperature
b. Absolute zero temperature
c. Absolute temperature
d. None of the above.
9. The value of one bar (in SI units) is equal to
a. 100 N/m2
b. 1000 N/m2
c. 1 × 104 N/m2
d. 1 × 105 N/m2
e. 1 × 106 N/m2
10. The absolute zero pressure will be
a. When molecular momentum of the system becomes zero
b. At sea level
c. At the temperature of – 273 K
d. Under vacuum conditions
e. At the center of the earth.
11. Which of the following is correct?
a. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure + atmospheric pressure
b. Gauge pressure = absolute pressure + atmospheric pressure
c. Atmospheric pressure = absolute pressure + gauge pressure
d. Absolute pressure = gauge pressure – atmospheric pressure.
12. The unit of energy in SI units is
a. Joule (J)
b. Joule meter (Jm)
c. Watt (W)
d. Joule/meter (J/m).
13. One watt is equal to
a. 1 Nm/s
b. 1 N/min
c. 10 N/s
d. 100 Nm/s
e. 100 Nm/m.
14. One joule (J) is equal to
a. 1 Nm
b. 1 kNm
c. 10 Nm/s 1
d. 0 kNm/s.
15. The amount of heat required to raise the temperature of 1 kg of water through 1°C is called
a. Specific heat at constant volume
b. Specific heat at constant pressure
c. Kilo calorie
d. None of the above.
16. The heating and expanding of a gas is called
a. Thermodynamic system
b. Thermodynamic cycle

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 c. Thermodynamic process
d. Thermodynamic law
17. A series of operations, which take place in a certain order and restore the initial condition is known
as
a. Reversible cycle
b. Irreversible cycle
c. Thermodynamic cycle
d. None of the above.
18. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is
a. The pressure and temperature of the working substance must not differ, appreciably, from
those of the surroundings at any stage in the process
b. All the processes, taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow
c. The working parts of the engine must be friction free
d. There should be no loss of energy during the cycle of operation
e. All of the above
f. None of the above.
19. In an irreversible process, there is a
a. Loss of heat
b. No loss of heat
c. Gain of heat
d. No gain of heat.
20. The main cause of the irreversibility is
a. Mechanical and fluid friction
b. Unrestricted expansion
c. Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
d. All of the above
e. None of the above.
21. According to kinetic theory of heat
a. Temperature should rise during boiling
b. Temperature should fall during freezing
c. At low temperature all bodies are in solid state
d. At absolute zero there is absolutely no vibration of molecules
e. None of the above.
22. A system comprising a single phase is called a
a. Closed system
b. Open system
c. Isolated system
d. Homogeneous system
e. Heterogeneous system
2.Properties of pure substances

23. The latent heat of vaporization at critical point is

a. Less than zero
b. Greater than zero

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 c. Equal to zero
d. None of the above
24. With the increase in pressure
a. Boiling point of water increases and enthalpy of evaporation increases
b. Boiling point of water increases and enthalpy of evaporation decreases
c. Boiling point of water decreases and enthalpy of evaporation increases.
25. With increase in pressure
a. Enthalpy of dry saturated steam increases
b. Enthalpy of dry saturated steam decreases
c. Enthalpy of dry saturated steam remains same
d. Enthalpy of dry saturated steam first increases and then decreases
26. Dryness fraction of steam is defined as
a. Mass of water vapor in suspension/(mass of water vapor in suspension + mass of dry steam)
b. Mass of dry steam/mass of water vapor in suspension
c. Mass of dry steam/(mass of dry steam + mass of water vapor in suspension)
d. Mass of water vapor in suspension/mass of dry steam
27. The specific volume of water when heated at 0°C
a. First increases and then decreases
b. First decreases and then increases
c. Increases steadily
d. Decreases steadily
28. Only throttling calorimeter is used for measuring
a. Very low dryness fraction up to 0.7
b. Very high dryness fraction up to 0.98
c. Dryness fraction of only low pressure steam
d. Dryness fraction of only high pressure steam

3. First law of thermodynamics

29. If all the variables of a stream are independent of time it is said to be in

a. Steady flow
b. Unsteady flow
c. Uniform flow
d. Closed flow
e. Constant flow
30. A control volume refers to
a. A fixed region in space
b. A specified mass
c. An isolated system
d. A reversible process only
e. A closed system.
31. Internal energy of a perfect gas depends on
a. Temperature, specific heats and pressure
b. Temperature, specific heats and enthalpy
c. Temperature, specific heats and entropy

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 d. Temperature only
32. In reversible polytropic process
a. True heat transfer occurs
b. The entropy remains constant
c. The enthalpy remains constant
d. (d) the internal energy remains constant
e. The temperature remains constant
33. An isentropic process is always
a. Irreversible and adiabatic
b. Reversible and isothermal
c. Frictionless and irreversible
d. Reversible and adiabatic
e. None of the above.
34. Steady flow occurs when
a. Conditions do not change with time at any point
b. Conditions are the same at adjacent points at any instant
c. Conditions change steadily with the time
d. (ծ v/ ծ t) = constant
35. A reversible process requires that
a. There be no heat transfer
b. Newton’s law of viscosity be satisfied
c. Temperature of system and surroundings be equal
d. There be no viscous or coulomb friction in the system
e. Heat transfer occurs from surroundings to system only
36. The first law of thermodynamics for steady flow
a. Accounts for all energy entering and leaving a control volume
b. Is an energy balance for a specified mass of fluid
c. Is an expression of the conservation of linear momentum
d. Is primarily concerned with heat transfer
e. Is restricted in its application to perfect gases
37. The characteristic equation of gases pV = mRT holds good for
a. Monoatomic gases
b. Diatomic gas
c. Real gases
d. Ideal gases
e. Mixture of gases
38. A gas which obeys kinetic theory perfectly is known as
a. Monoatomic gas
b. Diatomic gas
c. Real gas
d. Pure gas
e. Perfect gas
39. Work done in a free expansion process is
a. Zero
b. Minimum

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 c. Maximum
d. Positive
e. Negative
40. Which of the following is not a property of the system?
a. Temperature
b. Pressure
c. Specific volume
d. Heat
e. None of the above.
41. In the polytropic process equation pvn = constant, if n = 0, the process is termed as
a. Constant volume
b. Constant pressure
c. Constant temperature
d. Adiabatic
e. Isothermal.
42. In the polytropic process equation pvn = constant, if n is infinitely large, the process is termed as
a. Constant volume
b. Constant pressure
c. Constant temperature
d. Adiabatic
e. Isothermal
43. The processes or systems that do not involve heat are called
a. Isothermal processes
b. Equilibrium processes
c. Thermal processes
d. Steady processes
e. Adiabatic processes
44. In isothermal process
a. Temperature increases gradually
b. Volume remains constant
c. Pressure remains constant
d. Enthalpy change is maximum
e. Change in internal energy is zero
45. During throttling process
a. Internal energy does not change
b. Pressure does not change
c. Entropy does not change
d. Enthalpy does not change
e. Volume change is negligible
46. When a gas is to be stored, the type of compression that would be ideal is
a. Isothermal
b. Adiabatic
c. Polytropic
d. Constant volume
e. None of the above

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47. If a process can be stopped at any stage and reversed so that the system and surroundings are exactly
restored to their initial states, it is known as
a. Adiabatic process
b. Isothermal process
c. Ideal process
d. Frictionless process
e. Energy less process
48. The state of a substance whose evaporation from its liquid state is complete, is known as
a. Vapor
b. Perfect gas
c. Air
d. Steam
49. In SI units, the value of the universal gas constant is
a. 0.8314 J/mole/K
b. 8.314 J/mole/K
c. 83.14 J/mole/K
d. 831.4 J/mole/K
e. 8314 J/mole/K.
50. When the gas is heated at constant pressure, the heat supplied
a. Increases the internal energy of the gas
b. Increases the temperature of the gas
c. Does some external work during expansion
d. Both (b) and (c)
e. None of the above
51. The gas constant (R) is equal to the
a. Sum of two specific heats
b. Difference of two specific heats
c. Product of two specific heats
d. Ratio of two specific heats

4. Second law of thermodynamics

52. Second law of thermodynamics defines

(a) heat (b) work (c) enthalpy (d) entropy (e) internal energy.

53. For a reversible adiabatic process, the change in entropy is

(a) zero (b) minimum (c) maximum (d) infinite (e) unity.

54. For any reversible process, the change in entropy of the system and surroundings is
(a) zero (b) unity (c) negative (d) positive (e) infinite.
55. For any irreversible process the net entropy change is
(a) zero (b) positive (c) negative (d) infinite (e) unity.
56. The processes of a Carnot cycle are
a. Two adiabatic and two constant volume

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 b. One constant volume and one constant pressure and two isentropic
c. Two adiabatic and two isothermals
d. Two constant volumes and two isothermals
e. Two isothermals and two isentropic
57. Isentropic flow is
a. Irreversible adiabatic flow
b. Ideal fluid flow
c. Perfect gas flow
d. Frictionless reversible flow
e. Reversible adiabatic flow
58. In a Carnot engine, when the working substance gives heat to the sink
a. The temperature of the sink increases
b. The temperature of the sink remains the same
c. The temperature of the source decreases
d. The temperatures of both the sink and the source decrease
e. Changes depend on the operating conditions
59. If the temperature of the source is increased, the efficiency of the Carnot engine
a. Decreases
b. Increases
c. Does not change
d. Will be equal to the efficiency of a practical engine
e. Depends on other factors
60. The efficiency of an ideal Carnot engine depends on
a. Working substance
b. On the temperature of the source only
c. On the temperature of the sink only
d. On the temperatures of both the source and the sink
e. On the construction of engine
61. In a reversible cycle, the entropy of the system
a. Increases
b. Decreases
c. Does not change
d. First increases and then decreases
e. Depends on the properties of working substance
62. A frictionless heat engine can be 100% efficient only if its exhaust temperature is
a. equal to its input temperature
b. less than its input temperature
c. 0°C
d. 0°K
e. – 100°C.
63. Kelvin-Planck’s law deals with
a. Conservation of energy
b. Conservation of heat
c. Conservation of mass
d. Conversion of heat into work

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 e. Conversion of work into heat
64. Which of the following statements is correct according to Clausius statement of second law of
thermodynamics?
a. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher
temperature
b. It is impossible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher
temperature, without the aid of an external source.
c. It is possible to transfer heat from a body at a lower temperature to a body at a higher
temperature by using refrigeration cycle
d. None of the above.
65. According to Kelvin-Planck’s statement of second law of thermodynamics
a. It is impossible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to
convert heat energy into work
b. It is possible to construct an engine working on a cyclic process, whose sole purpose is to
convert the heat energy into work
c. It is impossible to construct a device which while working in a cyclic process produces no
effect other than the transfer of heat from a colder body to a hotter body
d. When two dissimilar metals heated at one end and cooled at the other, the e.m.f. developed is
proportional to the difference of their temperatures at the two end.
e. None of the above.
66. The property of a working substance which increases or decreases as the heat is supplied or removed
in a reversible manner is known as
a. Enthalpy
b. Internal energy
c. Entropy
d. External energy
67. The entropy may be expressed as a function of
a. Pressure and temperature
b. Temperature and volume
c. Heat and work
d. All of the above
e. None of the above
68. The change of entropy, when heat is absorbed by the gas is
a. Positive
b. Negative
c. Positive or negative
69. Which of the following statements is correct?
a. The increase in entropy is obtained from a given quantity of heat at a low temperature
b. The change in entropy may be regarded as a measure of the rate of the availability of heat for
transformation into work
c. The entropy represents the maximum amount of work obtainable per degree drop in
temperature
d. All of the above.
70. The condition for the reversibility of a cycle is

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 a. The pressure and temperature of working substance must not differ, appreciably from those
of the surroundings at any stage in the process
b. All the processes taking place in the cycle of operation, must be extremely slow
c. The working parts of the engine must be friction free
d. There should be no loss of energy during the cycle of operation
e. All of the above
71. In an irreversible process there is a
a. Loss of heat
b. No loss of work
c. Gain of heat
d. No gain of heat
72. The main cause for the irreversibility is
a. Mechanical and fluid friction
b. Unrestricted expansion
c. Heat transfer with a finite temperature difference
d. All of the above
73. The efficiency of the Carnot cycle may be increased by
a. Increasing the highest temperature
b. Decreasing the highest temperature
c. Increasing the lowest temperature
d. Decreasing the lowest temperature
e. Keeping the lowest temperature constant
74. Which of the following is the correct statement?
a. All the reversible engines have the same efficiency
b. All the reversible and irreversible engines have the same efficiency
c. Irreversible engines have maximum efficiency
d. All engines are designed as reversible in order to obtain maximum efficiency

5. Ideal and real gases

75. Which statement is correct?
a. A perfect gas does not obey the law pv = RT
b. A perfect gas obeys the law pv = RT and has constant specific heat
c. A perfect gas obeys the law pv = RT but have variable specific heat capacities.
76. Boyle’s law states that, when temperature is constant, the volume of a given mass of a perfect gas
a. Varies directly as the absolute pressure
b. Varies inversely as the absolute pressure
c. Varies as square of the absolute pressure
d. Does not vary with the absolute pressure.
77. Charle’s law states that if any gas is heated at constant pressure, its volume
a. Changes directly as it absolute temperature
b. Changes inversely as its absolute temperature
c. Changes as square of the absolute temperature
d. Does not change with absolute temperature
78. The equation of the state per kg of a perfect gas is given by
a. p2v = RT

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 b. pv = RT
c. pv2 = RT
d. p2v2 = RT.
Where p, v, R and T are the pressure, volume, characteristic gas constant and temperature of the gas
respectively.
79. The equation of state of an ideal gas is a relationship between the variables :
a. Pressure and volume
b. Pressure and temperature
c. Pressure, volume and temperature
d. None of the above
80. Joule’s law states that the specific internal energy of a gas depends only on
a. The pressure of the gas
b. The volume of the gas
c. The temperature of the gas
d. None of the above
81. Equation for specific heat at constant pressure of an ideal gas is given by
a. cp = a + KT + K1T2 + K2T3
b. cp = a + KT2 + K1T3 + K2T4
c. cp = a + KT2 + K1T4 + K2T
d. cp = a + KT2 + K1T3 + K2T2.
Where a, K, K1 and K2 are constants.
82. Van der Waals’ equation may be written as

6. Gas and Vapour Mixtures

83. In an ideal gas the partial pressure of a component is
a. Inversely proportional to the square of the mole fraction
b. Directly proportional to the mole fraction
c. Inversely proportional to the mole fraction
d. Equal to the mole fraction
84. The value of the universal gas constant is
a. 8.314 J/kg K
b. 83.14 kJ/kg K
c. 848 kJ/kg K
d. 8.314 kJ/kg K
85. In a mixture of gases, the partial pressure pi of any constituent gas can be found by
a. pi = niRT/V
b. pi = miRT/Vi
c. pi = niR0T/Vi
d. pi = niR0T/V

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Where, R = Characteristic gas constant, R0 = Universal gas constant,
V = Volume of the mixture, Vi = Volume of the ith constituent, and T = Temperature of the mixture.
86. Mole fraction of a component of gas mixture is equal to
a. 1/f
b. f 2
c. f
d. f/p
where, f = Volume fraction, & p = Pressure of the mixture.
87. In a gaseous mixture the specific volume of each component is given by
a. V/m
b. Vi/mi
c. V/mi
d. None of the above
Where, V = Volume of the mixture, Vi = Volume of the ith component,
m = Mass of mixture, and mi = Mass of the ith component.

7. Psychrometrics

88. In an unsaturated air the state of a vapour is

(a) wet (b) superheated (c) saturated (d) unsaturated.
89. For saturated air
(a) Wet bulb depression is zero (b) Wet bulb depression is positive
(c) Wet bulb depression is negative (d) Wet bulb depression can be either positive or negative
90. Which one of the following statements is correct?
a. Dew point temperature can measured with the help of thermometer
b. Dew point temperature is the saturation temperature corresponding to the partial pressure of
the water vapor in moist air.
c. Dew point temperature is the same as the thermodynamic wet bulb temperature.
d. For saturated air, dew point temperature is less than the wet bulb temperature.
91. During sensible heating of moist air, enthalpy
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) remains constant (d) none of the above.
92. During sensible cooling, wet bulb temperature
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) remains constant (d) can decrease or increase.
93. Which one of the following statements is correct ?
(a) Evaporative cooling and sensible cooling is the same
(b) Evaporative cooling is a cooling and humidification process
(c) Evaporative cooling is a cooling and dehumidification process
(d) Evaporative cooling is not effective for hot and dry climates.
94. An air washer can work as a
(a) filter only (b) humidifier only (c) dehumidifier only (d) all of the above.
95. The relative humidity, during sensible heating,
(a) can increase or decrease (b) increases (c) decreases (d) remains constant.
96. The vapour pressure, during sensible heating of moist air,
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) can increase or decrease (d) remains constant.

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97. The relative humidity, during heating and humidification,
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) may increase or decrease (d) remains constant.

98. The relative humidity, during cooling and dehumidification of moist air
(a) increases (b) decreases (c) can increase or decrease (d) remains constant.

8. Fuels and Combustion

99. The smallest particle which can take part in a chemical change is called
(a) atom (b) molecule (c) electron (d) compound.

100. A chemical fuel is a substance which releases ...... on combustion.

(a) chemical energy (b) heat energy (c) sound energy (d) magnetic energy.

101. The most important solid fuel is

(a) wood (b) charcoal (c) coal (d) all of the above.

102. For each mole of oxygen, number of moles of nitrogen required for complete combustion of
carbon is
(a) 20/21 (b) 2/21 (c) 77/21 (d) 79/21.

103. Modern practice is to use ...... excess air.

(a) 5 to 10 per cent (b) 15 to 20 per cent (c) 20 to 25 per cent (d) 25 to 50 per cent.

104. Stoichiometric air-fuel ratio by mass for combustion of petrol is

(a) 5 (b) 10 (c) 12 (d) 15.05.

105. An analysis which includes the steam in the exhaust is called

(a) dry analysis (b) wet analysis (c) dry and wet analysis (d) none of the above.
106. The Orsat apparatus gives
a. Volumetric analysis of the dry products of combustion
b. Gravimetric analysis of the dry products of combustion
c. Gravimetric analysis of products of combustion including H2O
d. Volumetric analysis of products of combustion including H2O
107. In the Orsat apparatus KOH solution is used to absorb
a. Carbon monoxide
b. Carbon dioxide
c. Oxygen
d. None of the above
108. Enthalpy of formation is defined as enthalpy of compounds at
a. 25°C and 10 atmospheres
b. 25°C and 1 atmosphere
c. 0°C and 1 atmosphere
d. 100°C and 1 atmosphere.
109. Bomb calorimeter is used to find the calorific value of ...... fuels.
(a) solid (b) gaseous (c) solid and gaseous (d) none of the above.

110. When the fuel is burned and the water appears in the vapour phase, the heating value of fuel
is called
(a) enthalpy of formation (b) lower heating value (c) higher heating value
(d) none of the above.

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111. Heat released in a reaction at constant pressure is called
(a) entropy change (b) enthalpy of reaction (c) internal energy of reaction
(d) none of the above (e) all of the above.

112. When the fuel is burned and water is released in the liquid phase, the heating value of fuel is
called
(a) Higher heating value (b) lower heating value (c) enthalpy of formation
(d) None of the above
113. Choose the correct statement :
a. Number of atoms of each constituent not conserved in a chemical reaction.
b. The mass of all the substances on one side of the equation may not be equal to the mass of all
the substances on the other side.
c. The number of atoms of each constituent conserved in a chemical reaction.
d. The number of moles of the reactants in a chemical equation are equal to the number of
moles of the products.

9. Vapour power cycles

114. Rankine cycle efficiency of a good steam power plant may be in the range of
(a) 15 to 20% (b) 35 to 45% (c) 70 to 80% (d) 90 to 95% .
115. Rankine cycle operating on low pressure limit of p1 and high pressure limit of p2
a. Has higher thermal efficiency than the Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
b. Has lower thermal efficiency than Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
c. Has same thermal efficiency as Carnot cycle operating between same pressure limits
d. May be more or less depending upon the magnitudes of p1 and p2
116. Rankine efficiency of a steam power plant
a. Improves in summer as compared to that in winter
b. Improves in winter as compared to that in summer
c. Is unaffected by climatic conditions
d. None of the above
117. Rankine cycle comprises of
a. Two isentropic processes and two constant volume processes
b. Two isentropic processes and two constant pressure processes
c. Two isothermal processes and two constant pressure processes
d. None of the above
118. In Rankine cycle the work output from the turbine is given by
a. Change of internal energy between inlet and outlet
b. Change of enthalpy between inlet and outlet
c. Change of entropy between inlet and outlet
d. Change of temperature between inlet and outlet
119. Regenerative heating i.e., bleeding steam to reheat feed water to boiler
a. Decreases thermal efficiency of the cycle
b. Increases thermal efficiency of the cycle
c. Does not affect thermal efficiency of the cycle
d. May increase or decrease thermal efficiency of the cycle depending upon the point of
extraction of steam
120. Regenerative cycle thermal efficiency
a. Is always greater than simple Rankine thermal efficiency
b. Is greater than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency only when steam is bled at particular
pressure
c. Is same as simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency

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 d. Is always less than simple Rankine cycle thermal efficiency

121. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the optimum value of the fraction of steam extracted for
feed heating
a. Decreases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
b. Increases with increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
c. Is unaffected by increase in Rankine cycle efficiency
d. None of the above
122. In a regenerative feed heating cycle, the greatest economy is affected
a. When steam is extracted from only one suitable point of steam turbine
b. When steam is extracted from several places in different stages of steam turbine
c. When steam is extracted only from the last stage of steam turbine
d. When steam is extracted only from the first stage of steam turbine
123. The maximum percentage gain in Regenerative feed heating cycle thermal efficiency
a. Increases with number of feed heaters increasing
b. Decreases with number of feed heaters increasing
c. Remains same unaffected by number of feed heaters
d. None of the above

10.Gas power cycles

124. The air standard Otto cycle comprises

a. Two constant pressure processes and two constant volume processes
b. Two constant pressure and two constant entropy processes
c. Two constant volume processes and two constant entropy processes
d. None of the above

125.

126. The thermal efficiency of theoretical Otto cycle

a. Increases with increase in compression ratio
b. Increases with increase in isentropic index γ
c. Does not depend upon the pressure ratio
d. Follows all the above
127. The work output of theoretical Otto cycle
a. Increases with increase in compression ratio
b. Increases with increase in pressure ratio
c. Increases with increase in adiabatic index γ
d. Follows all the above
128. For same compression ratio
a. Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is greater than that of Diesel cycle
b. Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is less than that of Diesel cycle
c. Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle is same as that for Diesel cycle
d. Thermal efficiency of Otto cycle cannot be predicted
129. In air standard Diesel cycle, at fixed compression ratio and fixed value of adiabatic index (γ)

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 a. Thermal efficiency increases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio
b. Thermal efficiency decreases with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio
c. Thermal efficiency remains same with increase in heat addition cut-off ratio
d. None of the above
130. Thermal efficiency of a gas turbine plant as compared to Diesel engine plant is
(a) higher (b) lower (c) same (d) may be higher or lower.

131. Mechanical efficiency of a gas turbine as compared to internal combustion reciprocating

engine is
(a) higher (b) lower (c) same ( d) un-predictable.

132. For a gas turbine the pressure ratio may be in the range
(a) 2 to 3 (b) 3 to 5 (c) 16 to 18 (d) 18 to 22.

133.

134. The work ratio of closed cycle gas turbine plant depends upon
a. Pressure ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio
b. Temperature ratio of the cycle and specific heat ratio
c. Pressure ratio, temperature ratio and specific heat ratio
d. Only on pressure ratio
135. Thermal efficiency of closed cycle gas turbine plant increases by
(a) reheating (b) intercooling (c) regenerator (d) all of the above.
136. With the increase in pressure ratio thermal efficiency of a simple gas turbine plant with fixed
turbine inlet temperature
(a) decreases (b) increases (c) first increases and then decreases
(d) first decreases and then increases.

137. The thermal efficiency of a gas turbine cycle with ideal regenerative heat exchanger is
(a) equal to work ratio (b) is less than work ratio
(c) is more than work ratio (d) unpredictable.

138. In a two stage gas turbine plant reheating after first stage
(a) decreases thermal efficiency (b) increases thermal efficiency
(c) does not effect thermal efficiency (d) none of the above.

139. In a two stage gas turbine plant, reheating after first stage
(a) increases work ratio (b) decreases work ratio
(c) does not affect work ratio (d) none of the above.

140. In a two stage gas turbine plant, with intercooling and reheating
a. Both work ratio and thermal efficiency improve
b. Work ratio improves but thermal efficiency decreases
c. Thermal efficiency improves but work ratio decreases
d. Both work ratio and thermal efficiency decrease
141. For a jet propulsion unit, ideally the compressor work and turbine work are
(a) equal (b) unequal (c) not related to each other (d) unpredictable.

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 142. Greater the difference between jet velocity and aeroplane velocity
a. Greater the propulsive efficiency
b. Less the propulsive efficiency
c. Unaffected is the propulsive efficiency
d. None of the above

11. Refrigeration Cycles

1. ...... means the cooling of or removal of heat from a system.

2. Most of the commercial refrigeration is produced by the evaporation of a liquid ......

3. ...... is the ratio between the heat extracted and the work done.

4. ...... = Actual C.O.P / Theoretical C.O.P.

5. The C.O.P. for Carnot refrigerator is equal to ......

6. The C.O.P. for a Carnot heat pump is equal to .....

7. The C.O.P. for a Carnot refrigerator is ...... than that of Carnot heat pump.

8. The C.O.P. of an air refrigeration system is ...... than a vapour compression system.

9. In a refrigeration system the heat rejected at higher temperature = ...... + ......

10. Out of all the refrigeration systems, the ...... system is the most important system from the stand point of
commercial and domestic utility.

11. The function of a ...... is to remove the vapour from the evaporator and to raise its temperature and
pressure to a point such that it (vapour) can be condensed with normally available condensing media.

12. The function of a ...... is to provide a heat transfer surface through which a heat passes from the hot
refrigerant vapour to the condensing medium.

13. The function of ...... is to meter the proper amount of refrigerant to the evaporator and to reduce the
pressure of liquid entering the evaporator so that liquid will vaporise in the evaporator at the desired low
temperature.

14. ...... provides a heat transfer surface through which heat can pass from the refrigerated space or product
into the vaporising refrigerant.

15. If the vapour is not superheated after compression, the operation is called .....

16. If the vapour is superheated at the end of compression, the operation is called ......

17. When the suction pressure decreases the refrigerating effect and C.O.P. are ......

18. ...... results in increase of C.O.P. provided that no further energy has to be spent to obtain the extra cold
coolant required.

19. ...... efficiency is defined as the ratio of actual volume of gas drawn into the compressor (at evaporator

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temperature and pressure) on each stroke to the piston displacement.

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