FIITJEE NSEJS MOCK TEST-6

CLASS-IX

Time : 120 min Maximum Marks : 192

Instructions

 The question paper consists of 60 multiple choice questions divided into three sections.
Section – I contains 20 questions of Physics.
Section – II contains 20 questions of Chemistry.
Section – III contains 20 questions of Biology.
 Single correct question carries +3 marks.
 There is (-1) negative marking.
 Multiple correct question carries +4 marks.
 Attempt All questions.
 Use of Calculator is NOT PERMITTED.
 All symbols have their usual meanings, if not mentioned in the question.
 The Question Paper contains blank spaces for your rough work.
No additional sheets will be provided for rough work.
 This booklet also contains OMR answer sheet.

Name of the Candidate : ……………….…………………………………………………………………………

Enrollment Number :…………………………………………………………………………………………..

 CLASS-IX-NSEJS-SANKALP2327RA1,RA2,WA1 to WA6,SANKALPPRN2327 X & Y

SECTION I: PHYSICS
1. A particle is moving eastwards with a velocity of 5 ms–1. In 10s, the velocity changes to 5 ms–1 northwards.
The average acceleration in this time is:
1
(A) zero (B) ms2 towards north-west
2
1 1
(C) ms2 towards north-east (D) ms2 towards north
2 2

2. A block of mass m is pulled along a horizontal surface by applying a force at an angle  with the horizontal. If
the block travels with a uniform velocity and has a displacement d and the coefficient of friction is  then the
work done by the applied force is:
mgd mgd cos 
(A) (B)
cos    sin  cos    sin 
mgd sin  mgd cos 
(C) (D)
cos    sin  cos    sin 

3. Consider the system shown in figure. The pulley and the string are
light and all the surfaces are frictionless. The tension in the string
is: (take g = 10ms–2)
(A) 0 N (B) 1 N
(C) 2 N (D) 5 N

4. In the diagram 100 kg block is hanging from a pulley and force F is

P
applied on the string to keep the system in equilibrium. If the whole
system is moving up with a constant velocity v, then tension at point P

in the string will be:
(A) 735 N (B) 1050 N
(C) 1470 N (D) 1200 N F

100 kg

5. A nucleus of mass number. A originally at rest emits α particle with speed v. What will be the recoil of the
daughter nucleus.
(A) 4 v/(A – 4) (B) 4 v/(A + 4)
(C) v/(A – 4) (D) v/(A + 4)

6. A body of mass 5 kg moving with a speed of 1.5 ms–1 on a horizontal

smooth surface collides with a nearly weightless spring of force –1
–1 1.5 ms
constant k = 5 Nm . The maximum compression of the spring would
be:
(A) 0.5 m (B) 0.15 m
(C) 1.5 m (D) 0.12 m

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7. A body is moved in straight line by machine with constant power. The distance travelled by it in time duration t
is proportional to:
3/2 1/2
(A) t (B) t
2
(C) t (D) t

8. The orbital velocity of an aftificial satellite in a circular orbit above the earth’s surrace at a distance equal to
radius of earth is v. For a satellite orbiting at an altitude half of earth’s radius, orbital velocity is:
3
(A) v (B) 3 / 2v
2
2 2
(C) v (D) v
3 3

9. Suppose the gravitational force varies inversely as the nth power of distance. Then the time period of a planet
in circular orbit of radius R around the sun will be proportional to:
 n 1  n 1
   
2  2 
(A) R (B) R
 n2 
 
(C) Rn (D) R 2 

10. The refractive index of the material of an equilateral prism is 1.6. The angle of minimum deviation due to the
prism would be:
(A) 30° (B) between 30° and 45°
(C) 45° (D) between 30° and 60°

11. The resistance between the terminal points A and B of the given infinitely long circuit will be:
1 1 1
A
Up to infinity

1 1

B
1 1 1
(A) ( 3  1) (B) (1  3)
(C) (1  3) (D) (2  3 )

12. Circular loop of a wire and a long straight wire carry currents Ic and Ie
respectively as shown in figure. Assuming that these are placed in the
same plane, the magnetic fields will be zero at the centre of the loop
when separation H is:
IR IR
(A) e (B) c
Ic  Ie 
Ic Ie 
(C) (D)
IeR IcR

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13. The magnetic field at the centre O of the arc shown in the figure is:

107  107
(A) 2I( 2  )  (B) 2I( 2  ) 
r 4 r
7 7
10  10
(C) I( 2  )  (D) I( 2  ) 
r 4 r

14. A thin lens has focal length f1 and its aperture has diameter d. It forms an image of intensity I. Now the
d
central part of the aperture upto diameter is blocked by an opaque paper. The focal length and image
2
intensity will change to
f I I
(A) and (B) f and
2 2 4
3f I 3I
(C) and (D) f and
4 2 4
15. A cubical block is floating in a liquid with half of its volume g
immersed in the liquid. When the whole system accelerates 3
upwards with acceleration of g/3, the fraction of volume
immersed in the liquid will be
1 3
(A) (B)
2 8
2 3
(C) (D)
3 4

16. The speeds of sound in air and sea-water are given to be 340 m/s and 1440 m/s. resp. A ship sends a strong
Signal straight down and detects its echo after 1.5 secs. The depth of the sea at that point is
(A) 2.16 kms (B) 1.08 kms
(C) 0.51 kms (D) 0.255 kms

Multiple Correct
17. A lens of focal length ‘f’ is placed in between an object and screen at a distance ‘D’. The lens forms two real
images of object on the screen for two of its different positions, a distance ‘x’ apart. The two real images have
magnifications m1 and m2 respectively (m1 > m2).
x
(A) f  (B) m1m2 = 1
m1  m2
D2  x 2
(C) f  (D) D  4f.
4D

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18. In fig, a small block of mass m is kept on a block of mass M 0

0
and length l. Then m
(A) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is F/m M F
(B) The acceleration of m w.r.t. ground is zero
2lm A
l
B
(C) The time taken by m to separate from M is
F
2lM
(D) The time taken by m to separate from M is
F

19. A charged particle moves along a circle under the action of possible constant electric and magnetic fields.
Which of the following is/are not possible?
(A) E = 0, B = 0 (B) E = 0, B  0
(C) E  0, B = 0 (D) E  0, B  0

20. Dispersion is caused because different colours have

(A) different intensities (B) same speed
(C) different refractive indices (D) different wavelength

Space for rough work

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SECTION II: CHEMISTRY

1. Ethanol is the substance commonly called alcohol. The density of liquid alcohol is 0.8 g/mL at 293K. If 1.2
moles of ethanol is needed for a particular experiment, What volume of ethanol should be measured out?
(A) 55.2 mL (B) 57.5 mL
(C) 69 mL (D) 47.9 mL

2. If the number of orbitals of a particular type were (3l + 1), but spin quantum number were only +1/2 and –1/2,
then d-type orbitals will contain a maximum of _________ electrons.
(A) 10 (B) 14
(C) 7 (D) 5

3. For the redox reaction,

Zn  NO3  Zn2   NH4
–
In basic medium, coefficients of Zn, NO3 and OH in the balanced equation, are
(A) 4, 1, 7 (B) 7, 4, 1
(C) 4, 1, 10 (D) 1, 4, 10

4. What mass of NaOH should be dissolved in sufficient water to get 20m 3 of an aqueous solution of pH, 7.3 at
25ºC.
(A) 0.16 g (B) 1.6 × 10–4 g
(C) 0.04 g (D) 0.12 g

5. The compound used to remove carbon dioxide from air is:

(A) Sodium carbonate (B) sodium hydroxide
(C) sodium nitrate (D) sodium chloride

6. Photographic films or plates have _______ as an essential ingredient.

(A) Silver oxide (B) Silver bromide
(C) Silver thiosulphate (D) Silver nitrate

7. Which of the following is an allylic alcohol?

(A) CH2 = CHCH2OCH3 (B) CH2 = CHCH2CH3
(C) HOCH = CHCH2CH3 (D) CH3CH = CHCH2OH

8. Malachite and azurite are respectively:

(A) Blue and green pigment (B) Red and green pigment
(C) Green and blue pigment (D) Green and red pigment

9. Amongst LiCl, BeCl2, MgCl2 and RbCl; the compounds with greatest and least ionic character, respectively
are:
(A) LiCl & RbCl (B) RbCl and BeCl2
(C) RbCl and MgCl2 (D) MgCl2 and BeCl2

10. A mixture of NaOH and Na2CO3 required 25 mL of 0.1 M HCl using phenolphthalein as the indicator.
However, the same amount of the mixture required 30 mL of 0.1M HCl when methyl orange was used as the
indicator. The molar ratio of NaOH and Na2CO3 in the mixture was:
(A) 2 : 1 (B) 1 : 2
(C) 4 : 1 (D) 1 : 4

11. The total volume of 0.1 M KMnO4 solution that are needed to oxidise 100 mg each of ferrous oxalate and
ferrous sulphate in a mixture in acidic medium is:
(A) 1.096 mL (B) 1.32 mL
(C) 5.48 mL (D) None of these

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12. Select correct statement:

(A) The lower the value of (n + l) for an orbital, the higher is its energy
(B) If two orbitals have the same value of (n + l), the orbital with higher value of n will have lower energy
(C) The energy of an electron in a multi- electron atom depends on quantum number ‘n’ only
(D) The energy of an electron in hydrogen atom depends on quantum number ‘n’ only

13. The IUPAC name of the compound is:

CONH2
CHO

(A) 2-methyl-6-oxohex-3-enamide (B) 6-keto-2-methyl hexanamide

(C) 2-carbamoyl hexanal (D) 2-carbamoylhex-3-enal

14. The reaction. 2C2H5 OH  2Na  2C2H5 ONa  H2 suggest that ethanol is:
(A) Acidic in nature (B) Basic in nature
(C) Amphoteric in nature (D) Neutral

15. Which of the following group elements from the periodic table form electron deficient molecules?
(A) Group IV (B) Group V
(C) Group III (D) Group I

16. A bond formed between two like atoms can not be:
(A) Ionic (B) Covalent
(C) Coordinate (D) Metallic

17. Which of the following statements is/are incorrect?

(A) A sigma bond is weaker then a pi bond (B) There are four co-ordinate bonds in a NH4 ion
(C) The covalent bond is directional in nature (D) HF is les pular than HCl

18. Which of the following is isomer of benzene?

(A) (B)

(C) (D)

19. A sample of H2O2 solution labelld as 28 volume has density of 265 g/L. Mark the correct option(s)
representing concentration of same solution in other units:
W
(A) MH2O2  2.5 (B) %  17
V
(C) Mole fraction of H2O2 = 0.2 (D) mH2O2  13.88

20. In acidic medium, dichromate ion oxidises stannous ion as:

xSn2   y Cr2 O72   zH  aSn4   bCr 3   cH2O
(A) The value of x : y is 1 : 3 (B) The value of x + y + z is 18
(C) The value of a : b is 3 : 2 (D) The value of z-c is 7
Space for rough work

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SECTION III: BIOLOGY

1. A human enzyme is purified and found to have maximal activity at pH between 2.5 to 3.0. The enzyme is
most likely to be from the:
(A) Blood stream (B) Liver
(C) Stomach (D) Small intestine

2. Which of the following characteristics would an efficient respiratory (gas exchange) organ have?
I. Large surface area to volume ratio.
II. Impermeable to oxygen.
III. Have a high flow of blood to and from it.
IV. Impermeable to carbon dioxide.
V. Composed of cells with thickened walls.
(A) I only (B) I and III only
(C) II, III and IV only (D) II, IV and V only

3. In a double-stranded nucleic acid, cytosine typically base-pairs with:

(A) Adenosine (B) Guanine
(C) Inosine (D) Thymine

4. Which of the following is a feature of both fungi and bacteria?

(A) The absence of a cell wall
(B) Ability of some species to form symbiotic relationships with plants
(C) Ability to exist in both unicellular and multicellular forms
(D) The absence of internal membrane bound organelles such as mitochondria

5. A human cell which contains a large amount of RER, many golgi bodies and a prominent nucleolus is most
likely a:
(A) Muscle cell (B) Secretory cell
(C) Nerve cell (D) Red blood cell

6. Vaccines prevent infections by pathogen by:

(A) Presenting the body’s immune system with antigens in a controlled manner so that it is prepared to
counter the pathogen producing it when it attempts to infect the body
(B) Affecting the reproductive cycle of the invading pathogen
(C) Binding to antigen on the surface of the pathogen and inactivating it
(D) Affecting the metabolic pathways of the pathogen

7. Which of the following does NOT contain living cells?

(A) Bone tissue (B) Xylem sieve tube
(C) Phloem (D) Epidermis

8. Match the items in column I with those in column II, and select the correct choice:
Column I Column II
a. Small pox i. Bacteria
b. Cholera ii. Virus
c. Malaria iii. Deficiency of minerals
d. Anaemia iv. Female mosquito
(A) a-iv, b-ii, c-iii, d- i (B) a-ii, b-i, c-iv, d- iii
(C) a-iv, b-iii, c-ii, d- i (D) a-iii, b-iv, c-i, d- ii

9. The process involved in healing of the wound is:

(A) Meiosis I and II both (B) Mitosis
(C) Meiosis I (D) Meiosis II

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10. Which of the following system relays impulse from cells to skeletal muscles?
(A) Somatic neural system (B) Sympathetic neural system
(C) Parasymathetic neural system (D) Autonomic neural system

11. Which of the following hormone is known as antidiuretic hormone?

(A) Oxytocin (B) Prolactin
(C) Luteinizing hormone (D) Vasopressin

12. Leydig cells or interstital cells secretes:

(A) Estrogen (B) Progesterone
(C) Testosterone (D) Relaxin

13. Bt-toxin is insecticidal because:

(A) Activated toxin binds to the surface of midgut epithelial cells and creates pores that cause swelling and
lysis and eventually cause death of the insect
(B) It decreases the growth of the nervous system of the insect
(C) It makes the insect unable to fly
(D) It kills insects by affecting its blood flow

14. Choose the correctly matched pair:

(A) Tendon – Specialised connective tissue (B) Adipose tissue – Dense connective tissue
(C) Areolar tissue – Loose connective tissue (D) Cartilage – Loose connective tissue

15. Choose the correctly matched pair:

(A) Inner lining of salivary ducts – ciliated epithelium
(B) Moist surface of buccal cavity – Glandular epithelium
(C) Tubular surface of nephron – Cuboidal epithelium
(D) Inner surface of bronchioles – Squamous epithelium

16. Which of the following is a nitrogenous fertilizer:

(A) Super phosphate (B) Calcium magnesium phosphate
(C) CAN (Calcium ammonium nitrate) (D) None of these

Space for rough work

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17. Which statement about amino acids is/are INCORRECT?

(A) They always have at least one amino group and at least one carboxyl group.
(B) In the formation of proteins, it is a condensation reaction that links the amino group of one amino acid to
the variable side chain of the adjacent amino acid.
(C) The variable side chains of all of the amino acids are highly reactive and carry a charge at neutral pH.
(D) The peptide bond that links amino acids together in a protein is a type of ionic bond, which explains why
proteins are unstable at high temperatures.

18. Which statement about nucleotides is/are INCORRECT? Nucleotides:

(A) Such as ATP are used in the in vivo synthesis of nucleic acids.
(B) Are composed of only a pentose sugar and a nitrogenous purine or pyrimidine base.
(C) Such as GTP replace ATP in the synthesis of RNA molecules.
(D) Contain a deoxyribose sugar if they are components of RNA, and a ribose sugar if they are components
of DNA.

19. Which statement about proteins is/are INCORRECT?

(A) Protein quaternary structure is determined solely by the primary amino acid sequence.
(B) Protein sequences that span a lipid bilayer membrane usually contain a number of charged amino acids.
(C) Examples of protein secondary structure include an " helix or a $ pleated sheet.
(D) Protein tertiary structure is the result of the interaction of two or more independent polypeptide chains.

20. Which statement is/are TRUE?

(A) NADH dehydrogenase is the terminal electron acceptor of the electron transport chain.
(B) O2 + 4H + 4e ÷ 2H2O + &
(C) The electron transport chain uses electrons from the oxidation of glucose to drive proton pumps.
(D) The ultimate acceptor of electrons harvested from pyruvate is oxygen gas which is reduced to form water.

Space for rough work

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FIITJEE NSEJS MOCK TEST-6

CLASS-IX

Quiz Test
ANSWER
Physics-SECTION-I

1. B 2. B 3. D 4. C 5. A
6. C 7. A 8. C 9. A 10. D
11. C 12. A 13. B 14. D 15. A
16. B 17. ABCD 18. BD 19. ACD 20. CD

Chemistry-SECTION-II

1. C 2. B 3. C 4. D 5. B
6. B 7. D 8. C 9. B 10. C
11. C 12. D 13. A 14. A 15. C
16. A 17. ABD 18. AB 19. ACD 20. BCD

Biology-SECTION-III

1. C 2. B 3. B 4. B 5 B
6. A 7. B 8. B 9. B 10. A
11. D 12. C 13. A 14. C 15. C
16. C 17. B, C, D 18. B, C, D 19. A, B, D 20. B, C, D

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