Aptitude Test for Five year BBA LLB Hons or BCom LLB Hons SHIFT II

(FINAL)

PART I: LAW RELATED MATTER/REASONING /LOGICAL THINKING

1. According to Supreme Court right to choose life partner is a ……………

guaranteed under the Constitution of India.
(A) moral right
(B) legal right
(C) fundamental right
(D) conjugal right

2. Slander is a
(A) Tort
(B) Crime
(C) Breach of contract
(D) Breach of trust

3. IPR stands for

(A) Indian Property Rights

(B) Individual Property Rights
(C) Invisible Property Rights
(D) Intellectual Property Rights

4. Registration of marriage under Hindu Marriage Act, 1955 is

(A) compulsory
(B) optional
(C) subject to the discretion of the marriage registrar
(D) to be done by a court order

5. Muslim marriage is

(A) Civil contract

(B) Sacrament
(C) Divine commandment
(D) All the above

6. Adultery is a

(A) Crime
(B) Civil remedy
(C) Both (A) and (B)
(D) None of the above
7. In Faheema Shirin vs State of Kerala case, the court held that Right to Access Internet
is a ……………...

(A) Private Right

(B) Basic Right
(C) Public Right
(D) Fundamental Right

8. A minor’s contract is

(A) Valid
(B) Void
(C) Voidable
(D) None of the above

9. The liability of master for the act of the servant is known as

(A) Vicarious Liability

(B) Strict Liability
(C) Absolute Liability
(D) Common Liability

10. Choose the full form of EIA from the following

(A) Economic Impact Assessment

(B) Ecology Impact Assessment
(C) Environmental Impact Assessment
(D) Employees Impact Assessment

11. A person who takes proceedings against the accused on behalf of the State is a

(A) Judge
(B) Lawyer
(C) Proctor
(D) Prosecutor

12. Which of the following is the correct presentation?

(A) LLB
(B) L.LB
(C) LL.B
(D) L.L.B.
13. Conspiracy needs, at least …….…….. persons.

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Five

14. Perarivalan is released by the Supreme Court under which Article of the Constitution?

(A) Article 132

(B) Article 136
(C) Article 146
(D) Article 142

15. Freedom of press is guaranteed under which Article of the Constitution?

(A) 19(d)
(B) 19(c)
(C) 19(b)
(D) 19(a)

16. Adult Franchise means

(A) Right to Nomination

(B) Right to Election
(C) Right to Vote
(D) Right to Strike

17. Section ……………. of the Indian Penal Code punishes a murderer

(A) 299
(B) 302
(C) 300
(D) 301

18. Fundamental Freedoms guaranteed under the Indian Constitution are available to

(A) Residents
(B) Non Resident Indian
(C) Citizens
(D) Non- Citizens
19. Which one is the upper house of Indian Parliament?

(A) Rajya Sabha

(B) Lok Sabha
(C) Parliament Committee
(D) Council of Ministers

20. Which one of the following is not an Intellectual Property?

(A) Discovery
(B) Industrial Design
(C) Database Right
(D) Trade Secret

21. Law of Contract deals with

(A) Laws of ownership and transfer

(B) Property of actions
(C) Enforcement of obligations arising from agreements and promises
(D) Taxation

22. Which writ is used against illegal detention?

(A) Quo Warranto

(B) Habeas corpus
(C) Prohibition
(D) Certiorari

23. Fundamental Duties are prescribed under which Article of the Indian Constitution

(A) Article 21A

(B) Article 51A
(C) Article 31A
(D) Article 45A

24. Who among the following decides whether the bill is a Money Bill or not?

(A) Speaker of Legislative Assembly

(B) Chief Minister
(C) Chairman of the Legislative Council
(D) Leader of the majority party
 rd
25. 103 Constitutional (Amendment) Act, 2019 allocates 10% reservation to

(A) OBC
(B) EWS
(C) EBC
(D) MBC

REASONING / LOGICAL THINKING

th
26. In a row of children, Manav is 5 from either end of the row. How many Children are
there in the row?

(A) 8
(B) 9
(C) 10
(D) 7

27. If in a certain language PROSE is coded as PPOQE,

how is ‘LIGHT’ coded in that language?

(A) LGGFT
(B) LGGHT
(C) LIGFT
(D) LLGFE

th th
28. If Alia finds that she is 12 from the right in a line of girls and 4 from the left, how
many girls should be added to the line such that there are 20 girls in the line?

(A) 6
(B) 7
(C) 5
(D) 4

29. In a certain code ‘GIVE’ is written as ‘51@©’ and ‘FAIL’ is written as ‘%219’.
How is LEAF written in that code?

(A) 5©2%
(B) 9©2%
(C) 9@2%
(D) 9©1%
 th th
30. In a group of children Manish is 12 from the left while Vikram is 6 from the
right. When Vikram moves two places left while Manish moves two places right,
there are 6 children between them. What is the total number of children in the group?

(A) 27
(B) 26
(C) 25
(D) 28

31. Which one of the following will replace the question mark?

SHOOT : QFMMR : : ? : DGPC

(A) BIKE
(B) FINE
(C) HIRE
(D) FIRE

32. Complete the analogy.

66571 : 19834 : : 57904 : ?

(A) 12345
(B) 74680
(C) 23519
(D) 74860

33. Complete the analogy.

256 : 12 : : 225 : ?

(A) 13
(B) 11
(C) 10
(D) 9

34. Complete the analogy.

Delusion : Hallucination : : Chagrin : ?

(A) Illusion
(B) Ordered
(C) Cogent
(D) Annoyance
35. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two
assumptions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and
decide whether the assumption is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Medicine ‘Q’ is a drug which is causing ripples in the medical field.
Assumptions: 1. No other drug is causing ripples in the medical field.
2. Medicine Q is a great drug.

(A) Only assumption 1 is implicit

(B) Only assumption 2 is implicit
(C) Either 1 or 2 is implicit
(D) Neither 1 nor 2 is implicit

36. Complete the analogy.

Exposure : Toughening : : Inoculation : ?

(A) Immunity
(B) Punctuality
(C) Vulnerability
(D) Contagious

37. Complete the analogy.

Steel : Rails : : Alnico : ?

(A) Aircraft
(B) Machinery
(C) Silverware
(D) Magnets

38. Direction: The following question consist of two words each, that have a certain
relationship with each other followed by four pairs of words. Select the pair that has
the same relationship as the originally pair of words.

Drama : Audience

(A) Brawl : Vagabonds

(B) Game : Spectators
(C) Art : Critic
(D) Movie : Actors
39. Complete the analogy.

42 : 20 : : 64 : ?

(A) 32
(B) 33
(C) 31
(D) 34

40. Which one of the following will replace the question mark?

? : 63 : : 5 : 124

(A) 3
(B) 6
(C) 4
(D) 8

41. A is B’s brother, C is A’s mother, D is C’s father, F is A’s son. How is F related to D?

(A) Son
(B) Grandson
(C) Great Grandson
(D) Granddaughter

42. Ranjan introduces Abhay as the son of the only brother of his father’s wife.
How is Abhay related to Ranjan?

(A) Son
(B) Brother
(C) Cousin
(D) Uncle

43. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two

assumptions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and
decide whether the assumption is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: Children are influenced more by their teachers nowadays.
Assumptions: I The children consider teachers as their models.
II A large amount of children's time is spent in school.

(A) Only assumption I is implicit

(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Either I or II is implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit
44. Direction: In the following question, a statement is given, followed by two
assumptions. You are to consider each statement and the assumptions that follow and
decide whether the assumption is/are implicit in the statement.
Statement: The concession in rail fares for the journey to hill stations has been
cancelled because it is not needed for people who can spend their
holidays there.
Assumptions: I Railways should give concession only to needy persons.
II Railways should not encourage people to spend their holidays at
hill stations.

(A) Only assumption I is implicit

(B) Only assumption II is implicit
(C) Either I or II is implicit
(D) Neither I nor II is implicit

45. E is the son of A. D is the son of B. E is married to C. C is B’s daughter.

How is D related to E?

(A) Brother-in-law
(B) Uncle
(C) Father-in-law
(D) Brother

46. How many 5’s are there in the following sequence which are immediately followed
by 3 but not immediately preceded by 7?

8953253855687335775365335738

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

47. Direction: The following question consists of a statement followed by two

arguments I and II. Decide which of the arguments is a ‘strong’ argument and select
the correct option from given alternatives.
Statement: Should high chimneys be installed in Industries?
Argument: I. Yes. It reduces pollution at ground level.
II. No. It increases pollution in upper atmosphere.

(A) Only argument I is strong

(B) Only argument II is strong
(C) Either I or II is strong
(D) Neither I nor II is strong
48. How many even numbers are there in the following sequence of numbers which are
immediately followed by an odd number as well as immediately preceded by an even
number?

858676893275342235522811931751

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

49. How many such digits are there in the number 7346285 which are as far away from
the beginning of the number, as they will be when arranged in ascending order within
the number?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

50. If the digits in the number 25673948 are arranged in ascending order from left to
rd th
right, what will be the sum of the digits which are 3 from the right and 4 from the
left in the new arrangement?

(A) 8
(B) 10
(C) 12
(D) 14

Direction: Study the following information carefully and answer the questions given below.

i. There are 5 friends F1, F2, F3, F4 and F5.

ii. F1 is shorter than F2 but taller than F5.
iii. F3 is the tallest.
iv. F4 is the little shorter than F2 and little taller than F1.
51. Who is the shortest?

(A) F5
(B) F1
(C) F4
(D) F2
52. If they stand in the order of their heights, who will be in the middle?

(A) F2
(B) F5
(C) F1
(D) F4

53. If they stand in the order of increasing heights, who will be the second?

(A) F4
(B) F1
(C) F5
(D) F2

54. Who is the second tallest?

(A) F1
(B) F2
(C) F4
(D) F5

55. Who is taller than F4 but shorter than F3?

(A) F2
(B) F5
(C) F1
(D) Data inadequate

Direction: Read the information given below to answer the questions:

i. Kareena’s dieting schedule consists of having only one fruit on a given day of the
week.
ii. Dietician has prescribed banana, papaya, pomegranate, apple and grape from Sunday
to Friday, one day being a fasting day. Kareena cannot eat any fruit on Saturday.
iii. Pomegranate day is neither on the first day nor on the last day but either than the
papaya day.
iv. Apple day is on the immediate next day of papaya day.
v. Banana day is on the immediate previous day of the fasting day.
vi. Apple day and grape day must have a gap of two days between them.
vii. Grape day is the day immediately following the fasting day.
56. Which of the following is the fasting day?

(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Wednesday
(D) Thursday

57. Banana day and apple day have a gap of how many days between them?

(A) One
(B) Two
(C) Three
(D) Four

58. Which day is grape day?

(A) Monday
(B) Tuesday
(C) Thursday
(D) Wednesday

59. Which day is pomegranate day?

(A) Sunday
(B) Monday
(C) Thursday
(D) Wednesday

60. Which of the following is the correct statement?

(A) Apple day is after Papaya day

(B) Banana day is on Wednesday
(C) Fasting day is on Tuesday
(D) Papaya day is earlier than banana day
61. Which of the following number will replace the question mark?

(A) 59199
(B) 59049
(C) 59999
(D) None of these above

62. Insert the missing number:

5 9 6

4 8 5

16 68 ?

(A) 22
(B) 24
(C) 26
(D) 28

63. Insert the missing number.

number

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 7
(D) None of the above
abov
64. By which of the following, the proposition ‘Some men are not honest’ is
contradicted?

(A) All men are honest

(B) Some men are honest
(C) No men are honest
(D) All of the above

65. Insert the missing number

(A) 4
(B) 6
(C) 2
(D) 7

66. In a certain code language – ‘1, 2, 3’ means ‘bright little boy’, ‘1, 4, 5’ means ‘tall big
boy’ and ‘6, 3, 7’ means ‘beautiful little flower’. Which numeral in that language
means ‘bright’?

(A) 1
(B) 6
(C) 3
(D) 2

67. Look at this series.

664, 332, 340, 170, ………., 89

What number should fill the blank?

(A) 85
(B) 97
(C) 109
(D) 178
68. If in a certain code ‘PEN’ is written as 32, what should be the code for
the word ‘PAPER’?

(A) 59
(B) 50
(C) 51
(D) 65

69. In a certain language, ABCD is coded as ZYXW. How is EFGH coded?

(A) STUV
(B) PQRS
(C) VUTS
(D) VSTU

70. If orange is called butter, butter is called soap, soap is called ink, ink is called honey
and honey is called orange, which of the following is used for washing clothes?

(A) Soap
(B) Ink
(C) Butter
(D) Honey

71. Which number comes next in the series?

5, 16, 49, 104, …….

(A) 115
(B) 141
(C) 161
(D) 181

72. Fill the missing number:

0, 3, 8, 15, …….

(A) 22
(B) 26
(C) 35
(D) None of the above
73. Which number comes next in the series?

8, 24, 12, 36, 18, 54, ….

(A) 27
(B) 68
(C) 72
(D) 108

74. Fill the missing number:

2, 6, 14, 11, 15, 23, 20, 24, ……….., 29

(A) 31
(B) 29
(C) 28
(D) 32

75. Direction: In the following question, two statements are followed by two
conclusions I and II. You have to assume everything in the statements to be true, then
consider the two conclusions together and decide which of them logically follows
beyond a reasonable doubt from the information given in the statements.
Statements: Some hens are cows.
All cows are horses.
Conclusions I Some horses are hens.
II Some hens are horses.

(A) Only conclusion I follows

(B) Only conclusion II follows
(C) Either I or II follows
(D) Both I and II follows

76. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the word given in bold letters.

ADULATION

(A) Duration
(B) Argument
(C) Flattery
(D) Institution
77. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the word given in bold letters.

GRANDIOSE

(A) Lowly
(B) Undignified
(C) Pompous
(D) Humble

78. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the word given in bold letters.

EXTRICATE

(A) Pull
(B) Free
(C) Tile
(D) Complicate

79. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

Sara was immaculately dressed in white.

(A) Perfectly
(B) Beautiful
(C) Wonderfully
(D) Parallel

80. Choose the word that is nearest in meaning to the underlined word.

The remarks made by Mana sounded opprobrious to Robert.

(A) Fascinating
(B) Obsequious
(C) Meretricious
(D) Reproachful

81. Choose the ANTONYM for the word.

UNANIMITY

(A) Unison
(B) Substantial
(C) Cohesive
(D) Disagreement
82. Choose the ANTONYM to the word given in bold.

ECSTASY

(A) Rapture
(B) Beatitude
(C) Exaltation
(D) Misery

83. Choose the ANTONYM to the word given in bold.

INVEIGH

(A) Impugn
(B) Traduce
(C) Rejoice
(D) Venerate

84. Choose the ANTONYM for the underlined word.

Sana scarcely spoke but looked serene.

(A) Placid
(B) Indignant
(C) Profound
(D) Disturbed

85. Choose the ANTONYM for the underlined word.

Manoj was more candid than honest.

(A) Deceitful
(B) Guarded
(C) Wily
(D) Skeptical

86. Choose the question tag for the following sentence

Let’s party tonight, ………..

(A) Would we?

(B) Will we?
(C) Won’t we?
(D) Shall we?
87. Choose the question tag for the following sentence

A little money has been saved, ………..

(A) Hasn’t it?

(B) Did it?
(C) Isn’t it?
(D) Wasn’t it?

88. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct form from the given alternatives

If they had had enough good sense,……………………………….

(A) they would move to a metropolitan city.

(B) they would have had moved to a metropolitan city.
(C) they would have moved to a metropolitan city.
(D) they would had moved to a metropolitan city.

89. Complete the sentence by choosing the correct form from the given alternatives

She would have gone,………………………………

(A) if she was in your position.

(B) if she were in your position.
(C) if she has been in your position.
(D) if she had been in your position.

90. Choose the word that can be substituted for the underlined phrase.

Yokesh brought off a big business deal.

(A) Cancelled
(B) Postponed
(C) Succeeded in
(D) Made popular

91. Fill in the blanks

Trouble was ……………… in the Middle East.

(A) Boiling over

(B) Boiling in
(C) Boiling up
(D) Boiling down
92. Fill in the blanks

Last week ………… European visited us.

(A) the
(B) an
(C) a
(D) None of the above

93. Fill in the blanks

………… man is mortal.

(A) The
(B) An
(C) A
(D) None of the above

94. Fill in the blanks

There is a well …………… our house, and hence we are not worried about the
water problem.

(A) in
(B) at
(C) upon
(D) on

95. Fill in the blanks

All of us must settle the dispute ……………… ourselves.

(A) by
(B) within
(C) among
(D) with

96. Fill in the blanks

Frank’s uncle is ……………… the rights for royalty of his grandfather’s

book after the old man died.

(A) Holding
(B) Acquiring
(C) Trying
(D) Giving
97. Fill in the blanks

The patents Amendment Bill was ……………… by the both houses of

Parliament.

(A) Passed
(B) Adopted
(C) Accepted
(D) Approved

98. Direction: In the given question, there is a sentence of which some parts have been
jumbled up, which are labelled a, b, c and d. Rearrange these parts to produce the
correct sentence and choose the proper sequence from the given alternatives.
The collector said that the
a: supply of water for irrigation
b: dams should receive water
c: up to a particular level
d: to ensure uninterrupted

(A) dabc
(B) cdab
(C) dcba
(D) bcda

99. Spot the error in the given sentence

Each of the nurses were given PPE kits for the ambulance journey.

(A) Each of the nurses

(B) were given PPE kits
(C) for the
(D) ambulance journey

100. Spot the error in the given sentence

Seldom we have been treated in such a rude manner by the police personnel.

(A) Seldom we have been treated

(B) in such a rude manner
(C) by the police personnel
(D) No error
101. Find the correct meaning for the following idiom

Beat around the bush

(A) Run quickly

(B) Hard working
(C) A good thing that seemed at first
(D) Avoid saying what you mean

102. Find the correct meaning for the following idiom

Hold your horses

(A) stop doing work

(B) careful about their decision
(C) neglecting advice
(D) spending too much of time

103. Direction: Out of the four given alternatives, choose one which can be substituted for
the given words or phrase

A solution or remedy for all difficulties or diseases

(A) Versatile
(B) Imbroglio
(C) Aikido
(D) Panacea

104. Direction: Out of the four given alternatives, choose one which can be substituted for
the given words or phrase

Absence of Knowledge

(A) Nescience
(B) Omniscience
(C) Presence
(D) Insipient

105. Direction: Out of the four given alternatives, choose one which can be substituted for
the given words or phrase

A place where birds are kept

(A) Apiary
(B) Hive
(C) Aviary
(D) Sty
106. Direction: Three of the four words given below are spelt wrongly. Choose the word
that is correctly spelt.

(A) Ghallows
(B) Gallows
(C) Ghellows
(D) Gellows

107. Direction: Three of the four words given below are spelt wrongly. Choose the word
that is correctly spelt

(A) Renumeration
(B) Remuneration
(C) Remunaration
(D) Renumaration

108. Direction: Three of the four words given below are spelt wrongly. Choose the word
that is correctly spelt

(A) Accommedation
(B) Accommodation
(C) Accomadation
(D) Accomedation

109. In the question given below a related pair of words is followed by four pair of words.
Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed as in the
original pair given in the Capital Letters.

SCULPTOR : CHISEL ::

(A) Time : Seconds

(B) Tailor: Needle
(C) Pathology: Disease
(D) Engineer : Site

110. In the question given below a related pair of words is followed by four pair of words.
Select the pair that best expresses a relationship similar to that expressed as in the
original pair given in the Capital Letters.

GLOVE : BALL ::

(A) Game: Ball

(B) Hook: Fish
(C) Summer: Winter
(D) Stadium: Seats
Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

A great defect of our civilization is that it does not know what to do with its
knowledge. Science has given us powers fit for the Gods, yet we use them like small
children. For example, we do not know how to manage our machines. Machines were made
to serve man, yet he has grown so dependent on them that they at times, act like his masters.
People, most of them, spend their lives looking after and waiting upon machines. The
machines are very stern masters. They must be fuelled, oiled and cleaned, and they must be
keep at the right temperature. When they are not properly maintained, they grow sulky and
refuse to work, or burst with rage and blow up, and spread ruin and destruction all around
them. What do we do with all the time which the machines have saved for us? On the whole,
it must be admitted, we do very little. For the most part we use our time and energy to make
more and better machines; but more and better machines will only give us still more time and
still more energy. The answer is that human beings should try to become more civilized.
Machines are just aids to civilization. Being civilized means making and linking beautiful
things, thinking freely, living rightly and maintaining justice equally among all.

111. What is the defect of our civilization?

(A) We invented machines

(B) We don’t manage our machines
(C) Does not know what to do with the knowledge
(D) Misuse of power

112. Why are machines very stern masters?

(A) They save time for us

(B) If not properly maintained they stop working or create havoc
(C) They make us dependant on them
(D) They are products of Science

113. What do we do with the time which the machines have saved for us?

(A) We maintain the machines

(B) We teach others how to operate machines
(C) We tame the machines
(D) We invent more machines

114. The ANTONYM for the word SULKY is

(A) Petulant
(B) Amiable
(C) Moody
(D) Glum
115. What are the author’s views on civilization?

(A) Living rightly

(B) Thinking freely and maintaining justice
(C) Making and linking beautiful things
(D) All of the above

Direction: Read the passage carefully and answer the questions.

The amount of water in the world is limited. The human race, and the other species,
which share the planet, cannot expect an infinite supply. Water covers about two thirds of the
earth's surface admittedly but most of it is too salty for use only 2.5% of the world's water is
not salty, and two third of that is locked up in the icecaps and glaciers. Of what is left, about
20% is in remote areas. Humans have available less than 0.08% of all the earth's water. Yet
over the next two decades, our use is estimated to increase by about 40%.

In 1999 the United Nations Environment Program (UNEP) reported that 200 scientists
in 50 countries had identified water shortage as one of the two most worrying problems for
the new millennium (the other was global warming). We use about 70% of the water, that we
have, in agriculture. But the World Water Council believes that, by 2020, we shall need 17%
more water than is available if we are to feed the world. So, if we go on as we are, millions
more will go to bed hungry and thirsty each night than do so already. Today, one person out
of five across the world has no access to safe drinking water, and one out of two lakhs to safe
sanitation. Today, and every day, more than 30,000 children die before reaching their fifth
birthdays, killed either by hunger or by easily-preventable diseases. And adequate safe water
is the key to good health and a proper diet. There are several reasons for the water crisis. One
is the simple rise in population and the desire of better living standards. In China, it takes
1,000 tonnes of water to produce one tonne of wheat. Another is the inefficiency of the way
we use much of our water. Irrigation allows wastage on a prodigal scale, with the water
trickling away or simply evaporating before it can do any good. And pollution is making
more of the water that is available to us unfit for use. The Aral Sea in Central Asia is one of
the starkest examples of what pollution can do, to the land as well as to the water.
Increasingly, governments are seeking to solve their water problems by turning away from
reliance on rainfall and surface water, and using subterranean supplies of groundwater,
instead. But that is like making constant withdrawals from a bank account without ever
paying anything into it. And using up irreplaceable groundwater does not simply mean the
depletion of a once and for all resource. Rivers, wetland and lakes that depend on it can dry
out. Saline seawater can flow in to replace the fresh water that has been. pumped out. And the
emptied underground aquifers can be compressed, causing surface subsidence - a problems
familiar in Bangkok, Mexico City and Venice. There are some ways to begin to tackle the
problem. Irrigation systems which drip water. directly onto plants are not bold. One precision
sprinkler after another. There will be scope to plant less water-intensive crops. And perhaps
desalination may play a part though it is energy-hungry and leaves quantities of brine for
disposal.
116. According to the passage, the scientists all over the world have identified two most
worrying problems for the new millennium. Water shortage is one, the other being.

(A) Sanitation
(B) Lack of adequate drinking water
(C) Waterborne disease
(D) Global warming

117. In the field of irrigation according to the World Water Council, how much additional
water would we require by 2020?

(A) 0.8%
(B) 17%
(C) 20%
(D) 70%

118. Besides depletion of an important water resource, other side effects of taking out
underground water are brought out by the author. Which of the following is not
brought out in the passage?

(A) During of dependent lakes

(B) Saline water ingress into vacated space
(C) Surface subsidence
(D) Release of locked-up gas

119. What percentage of world population, according to the author, has no access to safe
drinking water?

(A) 2.5%
(B) 20%
(C) 8%
(D) 17%

120. The author has given some reasons for water crises. Which of the following is not a
reason given by the author?

(A) Population increase

(B) Inefficient way of use of water
(C) Irrigation-related wastage and pollution
(D) Climatic change bringing less rain to some regions and more to others
121. Fill in the blanks with suitable articles

Mumbai is famous ……………its Hotels

(A) to
(B) of
(C) for
(D) on

122. Fill in the blanks with suitable articles

Jawaharlal Nehru was fond ……… children

(A) with
(B) on
(C) of
(D) to

123. Fill in the blanks with suitable articles

Is he ……… his room?

(A) at
(B) on
(C) in
(D) with

124. Choose the correct meaning of the foreign word:

Mala fide

(A) in good faith

(B) in bad faith
(C) in remembrance
(D) after death

125. Direction: Complete the analogy

Porcupine: Rodent :: Mildew: ?

(A) Fungus
(B) Pathogen
(C) Insect
(D) Germ
126. ‘Indian Technical and Economic Cooperation (ITEC)’ is associated with which Ministry?

(A) Ministry of Finance

(B) Ministry of External Affairs
(C) Ministry of Science and Technology
(D) Ministry of Electronics and IT

127. When is the ‘International Day of Plant Health (IDPH)’ observed every year?

(A) May 10
(B) May 12
(C) May 14
(D) May 15

128. Which country launched “Affordable Connectivity Program” to provide subsidies on

internet service to lower-income households?

(A) China
(B) Australia
(C) UK
(D) USA

129. Which Indian state is the first to set up a Gene Bank Project?

(A) Kerala
(B) Telangana
(C) Maharashtra
(D) West Bengal

130. Who is the current chairman of International Cricket Council (ICC)?

(A) Narayanaswami Srinivasan

(B) Shashank Manohar
(C) Greg Barclay
(D) Dave Richardson

131. Which country houses the headquarters of the “International Olympic Committee”?
(A) Greece
(B) Switzerland
(C) Belgium
(D) France
132. Who is the first Indian-American to become the Chief Judge of the United States
Court of Appeals for the District of Columbia (DC) Circuit?

(A) Sri Srinivasan

(B) Kurian Joseph
(C) A K Mishra
(D) K G Balakrishnan

133. The Rani-ki-Vav (The Queen’s Stepwell) which is featured in the new Hundred
Rupee Note of India is situated in which State?

(A) Madhya Pradesh

(B) Odisha
(C) Gujarat
(D) Maharashtra

134. GST stands for

(A) Goods and Stationary Tax

(B) Gold and Silver Tax
(C) Goods and Service Tax
(D) Goods and Sales Tax

135. Who wrote the book ‘Life of Pi’ published in 2001?

(A) Tom Alter

(B) A.L. Basham
(C) Guy Sorman
(D) Yann Martel

136. When is International day for Abolition of Slavery observed by UN every year?

(A) December 2
(B) December 12
(C) December 22
(D) December 5

137. Which one of the following is known as energy currency of cell?

(A) Adenosine diphosphate

(B) Adenosine triphosphate
(C) Pyruvate
(D) Glucose
138. Which metal is usually extracted from sea water?

(A) Calcium
(B) Sodium
(C) Potassium
(D) Magnesium

139. The Indian Actress who received Crystal Award at World Economic Forum in 2021

(A) Sushmitha Sen

(B) Priyanka Chopra
(C) Deepika Padukone
(D) Aiswarya Rai

140. The World’s first crypto-currency is

(A) Ethereum
(B) Tether
(C) Bitcoin
(D) Cardano

141. Silver Revolution in Indian Economy Indicates which product?

(A) Milk
(B) Egg
(C) Oil seeds
(D) Cotton

142. What is COMAL stands for?

(A) Common Algebraic Language

(B) Computer Algebraic Language
(C) Common Algorithmic Language
(D) Computer Algorithmic Language

143. Name the First 3D humanoid robot developed by India

(A) Sophia
(B) Shalu
(C) Manav
(D) Mitra
144. Which one is the Foreign Intelligence Agency of India?

(A) FBI
(B) CBI
(C) MI6
(D) RAW

145. The short music video application ‘Collab’, is the product of which technological company?

(A) Meta
(B) Facebook
(C) Amazon
(D) Google

146. The longest case decided by Supreme Court in 2019.

(A) Adhaar Case

(B) Ayodhya Case
(C) Triple Talaq Case
(D) Sabarimala case

147. Name the book written by Kautilya which mainly deals with Indian political aspects

(A) Meghdooth
(B) Panchatantra
(C) Gaha Sattasai
(D) Arthasastra

148. Which Indian State mandate ‘Uniform style of clothes’ to educational institution in 2022?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Goa
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala

149. Which state readopted anti-NEET bill, which was returned by the
Governor for reconsideration?

(A) Tamil Nadu

(B) Goa
(C) Karnataka
(D) Kerala
150. Green War Room and Green App are initiatives of which Indian State/UT

(A) Puducherry
(B) Uttar Pradesh
(C) New Delhi
(D) Kerala
 Final Answer Key
Sl. Sl. Sl. Sl. Sl.
No Key No Key No Key No Key No Key
1 C 31 D 61 B 91 C 121 C
2 A 32 B 62 C 92 C 122 C
3 D 33 B 63 C 93 D 123 C
4 B 34 D 64 A 94 B 124 B
5 A 35 D 65 A 95 C 125 A
6 B 36 A 66 D 96 A 126 B
7 D 37 D 67 D 97 A 127 B
8 B 38 B 68 C 98 D 128 D
9 A 39 C 69 C 99 B 129 C
10 C 40 C 70 B 100 A 130 C
11 D 41 C 71 D 101 D 131 B
12 C 42 C 72 B 102 B 132 A
13 B 43 A 73 A 103 D 133 C
14 D 44 A 74 D 104 A 134 C
15 D 45 A 75 D 105 C 135 D
16 C 46 C 76 C 106 B 136 A
17 B 47 A 77 C 107 B 137 B
18 C 48 D 78 B 108 B 138 D
19 A 49 B 79 A 109 B 139 C
20 A 50 C 80 D 110 B 140 C
21 C 51 A 81 D 111 C 141 B
22 B 52 D 82 D 112 B 142 C
23 B 53 B 83 C 113 D 143 C
24 A 54 B 84 D 114 B 144 D
25 B 55 A 85 B 115 D 145 B
26 B 56 A 86 D 116 D 146 B
27 A 57 D 87 A 117 B 147 D
28 C 58 B 88 C 118 D 148 C
29 B 59 D 89 D 119 B 149 A
30 D 60 A 90 C 120 D 150 C